EMT I & II Review
A single ECG complex consists of all of the following components, EXCEPT: A) a QRS complex. B) a T wave. C) an ST segment. D) an R-R interval
D
The electrical impulse generated by the heart originates in the: A) coronary sinus. B) atrioventricular (AV) node. C) bundle of His. D) sinoatrial (SA) node.
D
A 12-lead ECG: A) may identify myocardial ischemia or injury. B) does not indicate the heart's primary pacemaker. C) is only performed in the hospital setting. D) is used by the EMT to diagnose a heart attack.
A
A 12-year-old male jumped approximately 12¢ from a tree and landed on his feet. He complains of pain to his lower back. What injury mechanism is MOST likely responsible for his back pain? A) energy transmission to the spine B) direct trauma to the spinal column C) secondary fall after the initial impact D) lateral impact to the spine
A
The adult epinephrine auto-injector delivers ______ mg of epinephrine, and the pediatric auto-injector delivers ______ mg. A) 0.3, 0.15 B) 0.03, 0.3 C) 0.1, 0.01 D) 0.01, 0.1
A
The function of the National Incident Management System (NIMS) is to: A) educate city and county governments regarding foreign terrorist attacks. B) prepare for, prevent, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents. C) facilitate a standard method of incident command for natural disasters. D) prepare for the potential of a nuclear attack against the United States.
B
The head and brain receive their supply of oxygenated blood from the: A) brachial arteries. B) carotid arteries. C) subclavian arteries. D) iliac arteries.
B
The jaw-thrust maneuver is used to open the airway of patients with suspected: A) copious oral secretions. B) cervical spine injuries. C) mandibular fractures. D) upper airway swelling.
B
The leaf-shaped structure located superior to the larynx is called the: A) thyroid cartilage. B) epiglottis. C) vallecula. D) cricoid ring.
B
A 37-year-old male is having a severe allergic reaction to penicillin. He does not have an epinephrine auto-injector and your protocols do not allow you to carry epinephrine on the ambulance. How should you proceed with the treatment of this patient? A) Administer oxygen, transport at once, and request a paramedic intercept. B) Quickly determine if there are any bystanders who may carry epinephrine. C) Ask the patient if he has any diphenhydramine (Benadryl) tablets that you can administer. D) Remain at the scene with the patient and request a paramedic ambulance.
A
Advanced airway management techniques should performed ONLY after: A) basic airway techniques have been completed. B) the upper airway has been thoroughly suctioned. C) the patient has been delivered to the hospital. D) the patient is assessed as being apneic.
A
After establishing that an adult patient is unresponsive, you should: A) assess for breathing. B) check for a carotid pulse. C) attach an automated external defibrillator (AED). D) open the airway.
A
After intubating a 44-year-old unconscious, apneic male, you place him on the ambulance stretcher and prepare to load him into the ambulance. After he is placed into the ambulance, you should: A) reconfirm that the ET tube is still correctly positioned. B) continue ventilations with an automatic ventilator. C) hyperventilate the patient for approximately 30 seconds. D) reassess the patient's vital signs and attach an AED.
A
After opening a patient's airway, you should: A) ensure the airway is clear. B) administer oxygen as needed. C) insert an airway adjunct. D) assess for breathing effort.
A
All of the following will help minimize the risk of gastric distention when ventilating an apneic patient with a bag-mask device, EXCEPT: A) increasing the amount of delivered tidal volume. B) delivering each breath over 1 second. C) ensuring the appropriate airway position. D) ventilating the patient at the appropriate rate.
A
An oxygen cylinder should be taken out of service and refilled when the pressure inside it is less than: A) 500 psi. B) 1,500 psi. C) 200 psi. D) 1,000 psi.
A
Any electrical impulse that originates in the ventricular conduction system has: A) wide, abnormally shaped QRS complexes. B) upright QRS complexes and broad P waves. C) peaked P waves and narrow P-R intervals. D) narrow, inverted QRS complexes.
A
As an EMT, you may be authorized to administer aspirin to a patient with chest pain based on: A) your local EMS protocols. B) the transport time to the hospital. C) the patient's condition. D) an order from a paramedic.
A
CPAP is indicated for patients who: A) have pulmonary edema and can follow verbal commands. B) are hypotensive and have a marked reduction in tidal volume. C) are unresponsive and have signs of inadequate ventilation. D) have signs of pneumonia but are breathing adequately.
A
Common signs and symptoms of a hypertensive emergency include: A) a bounding pulse, a severe headache, and dizziness. B) pallor, cool skin, and a temporary loss of hearing. C) syncope, a weak pulse, and bleeding from the ears. D) tachycardia, pain behind the eyes, and weakness.
A
Cross-contamination occurs when: A) an EMT is exposed to a victim who has not yet been decontaminated. B) an EMT has direct contact with a chemical agent at a terrorist incident. C) an EMT provides care to a victim after the victim has been decontaminated. D) two EMTs are exposed to the same agent after being decontaminated.
A
DTs is a syndrome associated with withdrawal from: A) alcohol. B) cocaine. C) sedatives. D) opioids.
A
If direct pressure with a sterile dressing fails to immediately stop severe bleeding from an extremity, you should apply: A) a tourniquet proximal to the injury. B) digital pressure to a proximal artery. C) a splint and elevate the extremity. D) additional sterile dressings.
A
In contrast to AMI, a dissecting aortic aneurysm: A) often presents with pain that is maximal from the onset. B) is typically preceded by other symptoms, such as nausea. C) is more commonly associated with pressure in the chest. D) usually presents gradually, often over a period of hours.
A
In what manner should you act and speak with a patient? A) calm and confident B) passive C) authoritative D) loud and official
A
After ________ minutes without oxygen, brain damage is likely. A) 4 B) 6 C) 2 D) 5
B
Prior to applying a nonrebreathing mask on a patient, you must ensure that the: A) reservoir bag is fully inflated. B) one-way valve is sealed. C) patient has reduced tidal volume. D) flow rate is set at 6 L/min.
A
Prior to defibrillating a patient with an AED, it is MOST important that you: A) ensure that no one is touching the patient. B) properly position the defibrillation pads. C) perform up to 5 minutes of effective CPR. D) confirm that the patient is in cardiac arrest.
A
Situational awareness is MOST accurately defined as: A) the ability to recognize any possible issues once you arrive at the scene and act proactively to avoid a negative impact. B) performing an initial scan of the scene in order to identify hazards that will pose an immediate threat to you and your crew. C) an ongoing process of information gathering and scene evaluation to determine appropriate strategies and tactics. D) predicting the presence of certain hazards at the scene after receiving initial information from the dispatcher.
A
The EMT's primary responsibility to the patient who has been poisoned is to: A) recognize that a poisoning occurred. B) administer 25 g of activated charcoal. C) contact poison control immediately. D) administer the appropriate antidote.
A
The cervical spine is composed of _____ vertebrae. A) 7 B) 8 C) 6 D) 5
A
The index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as: A) your concern for potentially serious underlying injuries. B) the way in which traumatic injuries occur. C) the detection of less obvious life-threatening injuries. D) a predictable pattern that leads to serious injuries.
A
The principal clinical difference between a stroke and hypoglycemia is that patients with hypoglycemia: A) usually have an altered mental status or decreased level of consciousness. B) are typically alert and attempt to communicate with health care providers. C) always take oral medications to maintain normal blood glucose levels. D) do not present with slurred speech or weakness to one side of the body.
A
The three major parts of the brain are the: A) cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem. B) midbrain, cerebellum, and spinal cord. C) cerebellum, medulla, and occiput. D) brain stem, midbrain, and spinal cord.
A
When caring for a female patient who has been sexually assaulted, you should: A) place any bloodstained clothing or other articles in separate paper bags. B) ask the patient for a concise, detailed report of what happened to her. C) allow law enforcement to take her statement before you begin treatment. D) advise her that she will not be allowed to shower or change her clothes.
A
When performing CPR on a child, you should compress the chest: A) with one or two hands. B) 70 to 80 times per minute. C) until a radial pulse is felt. D) to a depth of 1² to 2².
A
Which of the following conditions would be the LEAST likely to mimic the signs and symptoms of a stroke? A) hypovolemia B) intracranial bleeding C) hypoglycemia D) a postictal state
A
Which of the following descriptions MOST accurately portrays emergency medical services (EMS)? A) a team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured B) a team of paramedics and emergency physicians who are responsible for providing emergency care to critically injured patients C) a vast network of advanced life support (ALS) providers who provide definitive emergency care in the prehospital setting D) a system composed exclusively of emergency medical responders (EMRs) and emergency medical technicians (EMTs) who are responsible for providing care to sick and injured patients
A
Which of the following injuries would MOST likely occur as a direct result of the third collision in a motor vehicle crash? A) aortic rupture B) extremity fractures C) forehead lacerations D) flail chest
A
Which of the following interventions is the MOST critical to the outcome of a patient with multisystem trauma? A) rapid transport to a trauma center B) elevation of the lower extremities C) intravenous fluid administration D) early administration of oxygen
A
Which of the following is a major difference between angina pectoris and AMI? A) Anginal pain typically subsides with rest. B) Pain from an AMI subsides within 30 minutes. C) AMI is caused by myocardial ischemia. D) Nitroglycerin has no effect on angina pectoris.
A
Which of the following statements regarding multilumen airway devices is correct? A) Ventilations can be provided whether the device is in the trachea or the esophagus. B) Insertion of a multilumen airway device requires visualization of the upper airway. C) Multilumen airway device insertion does not require medical control authorization. D) They are contraindicated in patients who have experienced a severe spinal injury.
A
Which of the following statements regarding oxygen is correct? A) Oxygen supports the combustion process and may cause a fire. B) Oxygen cylinders must always remain in an upright position. C) Oxygen is most safely administered in an enclosed environment. D) Oxygen is flammable and may explode if under high pressure.
A
Which of the following statements regarding the pain associated with AMI is correct? A) It can occur during exertion or when the patient is at rest. B) Nitroglycerin usually resolves the pain within 30 minutes. C) It is often described by the patient as a sharp feeling. D) It often fluctuates in intensity when the patient breathes.
A
While auscultating breath sounds of a patient who was stung multiple times by a yellow jacket, you hear bilateral wheezing over all lung fields. This indicates: A) narrowing of the bronchioles in the lungs. B) enlargement of the bronchioles in the lungs. C) a significant amount of fluid in the alveoli. D) rapid swelling of the upper airway tissues.
A
You are dispatched to an apartment complex where a 21-year-old female has apparently overdosed on several narcotic medications. She is semiconscious and has slow, shallow respirations. You should: A) insert a nasopharyngeal airway and begin assisted ventilation. B) insert an oropharyngeal airway and perform oral suctioning. C) place her in the recovery position and monitor for vomiting. D) apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask and transport at once.
A
You are ventilating a patient with a stoma; however, air is escaping from the mouth and nose. To prevent this, you should: A) seal the mouth and nose. B) thoroughly suction the stoma. C) thrust the jaw forward. D) ventilate with less pressure.
A
You have a critically injured patient in the back of your ambulance, ready to be transported. There are other injured patients at the scene and it will be approximately 10 minutes before other ambulances will arrive. Law enforcement personnel are at the scene. You should: A) remain at the scene until at least one other ambulance arrives. B) transport the critically injured patient to a trauma center. C) assign the least injured patient the task of caring for the others. D) direct a police officer to monitor the patients as you transport.
A
All of the following conditions would make you suspect shock, EXCEPT: A) severe infection. B) anaphylaxis. C) tachycardia. D) heart attack.
C
A 4-year-old male ingested an unknown quantity of acetaminophen (Tylenol). The child's mother states that the ingestion occurred approximately 20 minutes ago. The child is conscious and alert and in no apparent distress. After contacting medical control, you should: A) give the child cold milk to absorb the Tylenol. B) administer up to 25 g of activated charcoal. C) induce vomiting with syrup of ipecac. D) transport the child for definitive care.
B
A fractured femur can result in the loss of ______ or more of blood into the soft tissues of the thigh. A) 500 mL B) 1 L C) 2 L D) 250 mL
B
A normal sinus rhythm (NSR) is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT: A) consistent P-R intervals. B) an irregular heart rate. C) P waves of the same shape. D) a heart rate of 80 beats/min.
B
A percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) restores blood flow to the ischemic myocardium by: A) bypassing the coronary artery with a vessel from the chest or leg. B) dilating the affected coronary artery with a small inflatable balloon. C) scraping fatty deposits off of the lumen of the coronary artery. D) placing a stent inside the coronary artery to keep it from narrowing.
B
A transient ischemic attack (TIA) occurs when: A) a small cerebral artery ruptures and causes minimal damage. B) the normal body processes destroy a clot in a cerebral artery. C) signs and symptoms resolve spontaneously within 48 hours. D) medications are given to dissolve a cerebral blood clot.
B
After successfully intubating a 56-year-old man who is in cardiac arrest, you should: A) occlude the esophagus with a Combitube. B) perform asynchronous CPR. C) defibrillate him with the AED. D) ventilate at a rate of 20 breaths/min.
B
An overdose on acetaminophen, the active ingredient in Tylenol, will MOST likely cause: A) central nervous system (CNS) depression. B) liver failure. C) gastric ulcers. D) kidney failure.
B
Assessing the blood pressure and oxygen saturation of a patient with a behavioral crisis should be performed: A) at least every 5 minutes in order to detect signs of shock. B) if doing so will not worsen his or her emotional distress. C) within the first few minutes after making patient contact. D) only if you will be transporting the patient to the hospital.
B
Basic life support (BLS) is defined as: A) any form of emergency medical treatment that is performed by advanced EMTs, paramedics, physicians, and emergency nurses. B) noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest. C) invasive emergency medical interventions such as intravenous therapy, manual defibrillation, and advanced airway management. D) basic lifesaving treatment that is performed by bystanders while EMS providers are en route to the scene of an emergency.
B
Common IV solutions used in the prehospital setting include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) lactated Ringer's solution. B) 5% albumin solution. C) 5% dextrose in water (D5W). D) normal saline solution.
B
Evaluation of the interior of a crashed motor vehicle during extrication will allow the EMT to: A) recognize if the driver hit the brakes before impact. B) identify contact points and predict potential injuries. C) assess the severity of the third collision of the crash. D) determine the vehicle's speed at the time of impact.
B
Most poisonings occur via the __________ route. A) absorption B) ingestion C) injection D) inhalation
B
In the presence of oxygen, the mitochondria of the cells convert glucose into energy through a process called: A) anaerobic metabolism. B) aerobic metabolism. C) perfusion. D) respiration.
B
Individuals with chronic alcoholism are predisposed to intracranial bleeding and hypoglycemia secondary to abnormalities in the: A) kidneys. B) liver. C) pancreas. D) brain.
B
It is MOST important for the EMT to remember that suicidal patients may: A) have a definitive plan. B) be homicidal as well. C) inject illicit drugs. D) be self-destructive.
B
Putrefaction is defined as: A) separation of the torso from the rest of the body. B) decomposition of the body's tissues. C) profound cyanosis to the trunk and face. D) blood settling to the lowest point of the body.
B
Shock is the result of: A) temporary dysfunction of a major organ. B) hypoperfusion to the cells of the body. C) widespread constriction of the blood vessels. D) the body's maintenance of homeostasis.
B
Signs and symptoms of acute circulatory overload include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) acute peripheral edema. B) a drop in blood pressure. C) jugular vein distention. D) shortness of breath.
B
The left and right bundle branches: A) transmit the electrical impulses from the SA node to the AV node. B) travel through the interventricular septum and lead to the Purkinje fibers. C) cause a slight delay of the electrical impulse at the AV node. D) divide into the internodal pathways that stimulate the atria to contract.
B
The main legal risk in using the AED is: A) failure of the AED's internal computer chip. B) failing to deliver a shock when one is needed. C) not assessing for a pulse after a shock is delivered. D) negligence on the part of the manufacturer.
B
The nasal cannula is MOST appropriately used in the prehospital setting: A) when the patient breathes primarily through his or her mouth. B) when the patient cannot tolerate a nonrebreathing mask. C) if the patient's nasopharynx is obstructed by secretions. D) if long-term supplemental oxygen administration is required.
B
The standards for prehospital emergency care and the individuals who provide it are typically regulated by the: A) American Heart Association. B) state office of EMS. C) National Registry of EMTs. D) regional trauma center.
B
When an electrical impulse moves toward a positive electrode: A) the cardiac rhythm will be irregular. B) the ECG records an upward wave. C) the electrocardiogram (ECG) records a negative wave. D) the patient's heart rate decreases.
B
When an electrical impulse reaches the AV node, it is slowed for a brief period of time so that: A) the SA node can reset and generate another impulse. B) blood can pass from the atria to the ventricles. C) blood returning from the body can fill the atria. D) the impulse can spread through the Purkinje fibers.
B
When arriving at the scene of an overturned tractor-trailer rig, you note that a green cloud is being emitted from the crashed vehicle. The driver is still in the truck; he is conscious but bleeding profusely from the head. After notifying the hazardous materials team, you should: A) ask the driver to exit the vehicle. B) position the ambulance upwind. C) quickly gain access to the patient. D) park downhill from the scene.
B
When would it be MOST appropriate for a patient to take his or her prescribed nitroglycerin? A) an acute onset of dizziness during a period of exertion B) chest pain that does not immediately subside with rest C) difficulty breathing that awakens the patient from sleep D) sharp chest pain that lasts longer than 10 to 15 minutes
B
Which of the following conditions does NOT typically present with vaginal discharge? A) gonorrhea B) genital herpes C) PID D) chlamydia
B
Which of the following conditions would MOST likely lead to PID if left untreated? A) genital herpes B) chlamydia C) ectopic pregnancy D) ovarian cysts
B
Which of the following is NOT a BLS intervention? A) chest compressions B) cardiac monitoring C) automated defibrillation D) abdominal thrusts
B
Which of the following is a metabolic cause of a seizure? A) brain tumor B) poisoning C) massive stroke D) head trauma
B
Which of the following is characteristic of peptic ulcer disease (PUD)? A) symptom relief after taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs B) burning or pain in the stomach that subsides immediately after eating C) the passage of bright red blood in the stool or coughing up blood D) sharp pain that is typically located in both lower abdominal quadrants
B
Which of the following statements regarding the clotting of blood is correct? A) Bleeding begins to clot when the end of a damaged vessel dilates. B) A person taking aspirin will experience slower blood clotting. C) Venous and capillary blood typically does not clot spontaneously. D) Direct contact with the environment prevents blood from clotting.
B
Which of the following statements regarding the one-person bag-mask device technique is correct? A) The bag-mask device delivers more tidal volume and a higher oxygen concentration than the mouth-to-mask technique. B) Adequate tidal volume is often difficult to achieve when one EMT is operating the bag-mask device. C) Bag-mask ventilations should be delivered every 2 seconds when the device is being operated by one person. D) The C-clamp method of holding the mask to the face is not effective when ventilating a patient with a bag-mask device.
B
Which of the following veins is located inferior to the trunk? A) subclavian B) saphenous C) cephalic D) axillary
B
You are assessing a 49-year-old man who complains of chest pressure that began the night before. He is conscious, but anxious, and tells you he has a history of angina and hypertension. After applying high-flow oxygen, you expose his chest to auscultate his lungs and note that he has a nitroglycerin patch on his right upper chest. His skin is cool and pale, his blood pressure is 78/50 mm Hg, and his pulse is 110 beats/min and irregular. You should: A) ask him if the nitroglycerin patch he is wearing has improved his chest pressure, complete your secondary assessment, and transport promptly. B) remove the nitroglycerin patch, place him in a supine position and elevate his lower extremities, and prepare for immediate transport. C) immediately remove the nitroglycerin patch, apply the AED in case he develops cardiac arrest, and transport to the closest hospital. D) move the nitroglycerin patch to the other side of his chest in case you need to apply the AED, keep him warm, and transport without delay.
B
You are caring for a semiconscious man with left-sided paralysis. His airway is patent and his respirations are 14 breaths/min with adequate tidal volume. Treatment for this patient should include: A) oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, supine position with legs elevated 6² to 12², and transport. B) oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, left lateral recumbent position, and transport. C) assisted ventilation with a bag-mask device, right lateral recumbent position, and transport. D) an oral airway, assisted ventilation with a bag-mask device, Fowler's position, and transport.
B
You are ventilating an apneic woman with a bag-mask device. She has dentures, which are tight-fitting. Adequate chest rise is present with each ventilation, and the patient's oxygen saturation reads 96%. When you reassess the patency of her airway, you note that her dentures are now loose, although your ventilations are still producing adequate chest rise. You should: A) leave her dentures in place, but carefully monitor her for an airway obstruction. B) remove her dentures, resume ventilations, and assess for adequate chest rise. C) remove her dentures at once and increase the rate and volume of your ventilations. D) attempt to replace her dentures so that they fit tightly and resume ventilations.
B
You respond to a construction site where a steel girder collapsed on a 22-year-old male's chest. Coworkers removed the girder prior to your arrival. Your assessment reveals that he is unconscious and apneic, but has a pulse. You should: A) apply a cervical collar, maintain an open airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver, and insert a multilumen airway device. B) maintain stabilization of his head, open his airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver, ventilate with a bag-mask device, and prepare to intubate him. C) open his airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver, maintain his head in a neutral in-line position, and insert a Combitube. D) ensure that his spine is fully immobilized, maintain his airway with an oropharyngeal airway, and perform endotracheal intubation.
B
Your initial attempt to ventilate an unresponsive apneic 30-year-old man is met with resistance and you do not see the chest rise. Your second ventilation attempt is also unsuccessful. You should: A) perform a blind finger sweep. B) perform 30 chest compressions. C) ventilate again with greater force. D) suction the airway.
B
Clinical signs of compensated shock include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) restlessness or anxiety. B) rapid, shallow breathing. C) absent peripheral pulses. D) cool and clammy skin.
C
A 29-year-old male has an anterior nosebleed after he was accidentally elbowed in the nose. His is conscious and alert with adequate breathing. The MOST appropriate care for this patient includes: A) placing him supine and pinching his nostrils together. B) applying a gauze pad in between his lower lip and gum. C) leaning him forward and pinching his nostrils together. D) packing the nasopharynx with moist, sterile dressings.
C
A 38-year-old male was electrocuted while attempting to wire a house. Your assessment reveals that he is unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. A coworker has shut off the power to the house. You should: A) begin CPR and transport at once. B) fully immobilize his spinal column. C) begin CPR and apply the AED. D) assess for entry and exit wounds.
C
A 51-year-old female presents with a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. She is conscious and alert and able to speak in complete sentences. Her respirations are 22 breaths/min and regular. You should: A) insert a nasal airway in case her mental status decreases. B) assist her breathing with a bag-mask device and 100% oxygen. C) administer 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. D) perform a secondary assessment and then begin treatment.
C
A disadvantage of the King LT airway is that it: A) most often enters the trachea because it is blindly inserted. B) cannot be used in patients who are shorter than 5¢. C) does not completely protect the airway from aspiration. D) is contraindicated in patients who are in cardiac arrest.
C
A small compact car was involved in a rollover crash. As you are approaching the vehicle, you note that the roof is significantly collapsed. The patient, a 29-year-old male, is complaining of severe pain in his neck and to the top of his head as well as numbness and tingling in his extremities. Witnesses who removed the patient from the vehicle state that he was wearing his seatbelt. What injury mechanism is MOST likely responsible for this patient's condition? A) whiplash injury to the neck during the rollover B) impact of the head against the steering wheel C) compression of the head against the roof D) lateral bending of the neck during the crash
C
After eating at a local restaurant, a 20-year-old male complains of blurred vision, difficulty speaking, and difficulty breathing. He is conscious; however, his respirations are profoundly labored and producing minimal tidal volume. You should: A) request a paramedic to administer atropine. B) apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. C) assist his ventilations with 100% oxygen. D) position him supine and elevate his legs.
C
As you enter the residence of a patient who has possibly overdosed, you should: A) look for drug paraphernalia. B) quickly gain access to the patient. C) be alert for personal hazards. D) observe the scene for drug bottles
C
Blood that is ejected from the right ventricle: A) was received directly from the aorta. B) enters the systemic circulation. C) flows into the pulmonary arteries. D) has a high concentration of oxygen.
C
Chemicals that are responsible for the signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction to a bee sting include: A) leukocytes and epinephrine. B) the bee venom itself. C) histamines and leukotrienes. D) adrenaline and histamines.
C
Heroin is an example of a(n): A) sympathomimetic. B) cholinergic. C) opioid. D) hypnotic.
C
How does CPAP improve oxygenation and ventilation in patients with certain respiratory problems? A) It prevents alveolar collapse by pushing air into the lungs during the inhalation phase. B) It decreases intrathoracic pressure, which allows more room for the lungs to expand. C) It forces the alveoli open and pushes more oxygen across the alveolar membrane. D) It pushes thick, infected pulmonary secretions into isolated areas of the lung tissue.
C
If a person's tidal volume decreases, but his or her respiratory rate remains unchanged: A) minute volume will remain unchanged. B) excess carbon dioxide will be eliminated. C) minute volume will decrease. D) minute volume will increase.
C
In MOST cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by: A) severe chest trauma. B) a cardiac dysrhythmia. C) respiratory arrest. D) a drug overdose.
C
Nitroglycerin is contraindicated in patients: A) with a systolic blood pressure less than 120 mm Hg. B) who have taken up to two doses. C) who have experienced a head injury. D) with a history of an ischemic stroke.
C
Sinus tachycardia is differentiated from a normal sinus rhythm by the: A) width of the QRS complexes. B) consistency of the P-R intervals. C) irregular heart rate. D) shape of the P waves.
C
Substance abuse is MOST accurately defined as: A) unwillingly and unknowingly consuming drugs or alcohol. B) knowingly selling illicit drugs in order to buy more drugs. C) knowingly misusing a substance to produce a desired effect. D) willfully using a therapeutic drug to treat a medical illness.
C
The Adam's apple is: A) below the thyroid cartilage and forms the upper part of the trachea. B) the small indentation in between the thyroid and cricoid cartilages. C) the upper part of the larynx that is formed by the thyroid cartilage. D) the lower part of the larynx that is formed by the cricoid cartilage.
C
The Centennial Park bombing during the 1996 Summer Olympics is an example of: A) state-sponsored terrorism. B) an ecoterrorist attack. C) domestic terrorism. D) apocalyptic violence.
C
The MOST common error associated with the use of the AED is: A) malfunction of the AED's internal computer processor. B) inability of the EMT to recognize ventricular fibrillation. C) failure of the EMT to ensure the battery is charged. D) inappropriately placed adhesive defibrillation electrodes.
C
The MOST common reason that many people experiencing AMI do not seek immediate medical attention is because they: A) cannot afford it. B) do not trust EMTs. C) are in denial. D) are elderly.
C
The MOST commonly abused drug in the United States is: A) marijuana. B) cocaine. C) alcohol. D) codeine.
C
The MOST important step in assembling intravenous (IV) equipment is to: A) select the most appropriately sized IV catheter. B) follow the orders of your ALS partner. C) strictly adhere to standard precautions. D) choose the appropriate administration set.
C
The SA node normally paces at a rate of: A) 110 to 120/min. B) 40 to 60/min. C) 60 to 100/min. D) 80 to 110/min.
C
The __________ cartilage is a firm ring that forms the inferior part of the larynx. A) thyroid B) pyriform C) cricoid D) laryngeal
C
The heart's primary pacemaker is the: A) ventricular bundle of His. B) atrioventricular (AV) node. C) sinoatrial (SA) node. D) internodal pathway
C
The purpose of the pin-indexing system that has been established for compressed gas cylinders is to: A) help you determine what type of oxygen regulator to use. B) reduce the cylinder pressure to a safe and more useful range. C) ensure that the correct regulator is used for the cylinder. D) prevent destroying or stripping the threads on the cylinder.
C
The respiratory distress that accompanies emphysema is caused by: A) massive constriction of the bronchioles. B) acute fluid accumulation in the alveoli. C) chronic stretching of the alveolar walls. D) repeated exposure to cigarette smoke.
C
The scene size-up at a motor vehicle crash or other incident: A) determines who is allowed to safely enter the hot zone. B) is a quick visual assessment of the scene prior to entry. C) is an ongoing process until the incident is terminated. D) should be performed by the most experienced EMT.
C
The sebaceous glands produce sebum, a material that: A) pulls the hair erect when you are cold. B) discharges sweat onto the skin's surface. C) waterproofs the skin and keeps it supple. D) facilitates shedding of the epidermis.
C
What is the approximate blood volume of a 75-kg adult? A) 5.50 L B) 6.50 L C) 5.25 L D) 6.25 L
C
What is the minimum number of chest compressions that should be delivered per minute to a 4-month-old infant? A) 120 B) 90 C) 100 D) 110
C
When administering epinephrine via auto-injector, you should hold the injector in place for: A) 20 seconds. B) 5 seconds. C) 10 seconds. D) 15 seconds.
C
When administering supplemental oxygen to a hypoxemic patient with a chronic lung disease, you should: A) avoid positive-pressure ventilation because the majority of patients with chronic lung disease are at increased risk for lung trauma. B) recall that most patients with chronic lung diseases are stimulated to breathe by increased carbon dioxide levels. C) adjust the flow rate accordingly until you see symptom improvement, but be prepared to assist his or her ventilations. D) begin with a low oxygen flow rate, even if the patient is unresponsive, because high-flow oxygen may depress his or her breathing
C
When the parasympathetic nervous system is activated: A) heart rate and blood pressure increase. B) blood is shunted away from the digestive organs. C) the heart rate decreases and the blood vessels dilate. D) hormones are released that prepare the body for stress.
C
When using a stick and square knot as a tourniquet to control severe bleeding from an amputated arm, the EMT should: A) remove the tourniquet if the bleeding has stopped. B) cover the tourniquet with a sterile dressing. C) stop twisting the stick when the bleeding stops. D) twist the stick until the radial pulse disappears.
C
Which of the following MOST accurately defines an allergic reaction? A) destruction of the immune system by an external substance B) a direct negative effect on the body by an external substance C) an exaggerated immune system response to any substance D) a release of erythrocytes in response to a foreign substance
C
Which of the following correctly describes the normal path of electricity through the cardiac conduction system? A) AV node, internodal pathways, SA node, bundle of His, left and right bundle branches, Purkinje system B) internodal pathways, SA node, AV node, left and right bundle branches, bundle of His, Purkinje system C) SA node, internodal pathways, AV node, bundle of His, left and right bundle branches, Purkinje system D) SA node, AV node, internodal pathways, bundle of His, Purkinje system, left and right bundle branches
C
Which of the following general statements regarding consent is MOST correct? A) Patients who are intoxicated are generally allowed to refuse treatment. B) All patients older than 18 years can legally refuse treatment or transport. C) A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse to be treated. D) Expressed consent is valid only if given in writing by a family member.
C
Which of the following organs can tolerate inadequate perfusion for up to 2 hours? A) kidneys B) brain C) skeletal muscle D) heart
C
Which of the following organs or tissues can survive the longest without oxygen? A) heart B) kidneys C) muscle D) liver
C
Which of the following oxygen flowmeters is NOT affected by gravity and can be used in any position when attached to an oxygen cylinder? A) pressure-compensated flowmeter B) vertical-position flowmeter C) Bourdon-gauge flowmeter D) ball-and-float flowmeter
C
Which of the following situations would require the use of a specialized rescue team? A) a patient in a badly damaged car, not entrapped B) a patient found floating facedown in a swimming pool C) a patient trapped in a cave or a confined space D) an obese patient who must be moved to the ambulance
C
Which of the following splinting devices would be MOST appropriate to use for a patient who has an open fracture of the forearm with external bleeding? A) vacuum splint B) cardboard splint C) air splint D) sling and swathe
C
Which of the following would cause the greatest increase in cardiac output? A) decreased stroke volume and increased heart rate B) decreased stroke volume and decreased heart rate C) increased heart rate and increased stroke volume D) decreased heart rate and increased stroke volume
C
Which of the following statements regarding rape is correct? A) Only a licensed physician can make a diagnosis of rape. B) The EMT should try to determine if rape occurred. C) Rape is a legal diagnosis, not a medical diagnosis. D) Rape causes more physical harm than emotional harm.
C
Which of the following statements regarding sinus bradycardia is correct? A) The heart rate is usually less than 70 beats/min. B) It is characterized by inconsistent P-R intervals. C) It may be a normal variant in some individuals. D) It is significant and must always be treated.
C
While providing care to a patient, blood got onto the ambulance stretcher. Because the stretcher was not properly cleaned afterward, a virus was transmitted to another emergency medical technician (EMT) several days later. What route of transmission does this scenario describe? A) vector-borne transmission B) direct contact C) indirect contact D) airborne transmission
C
You and your partner arrive at the side of a 60-year-old woman who suddenly collapsed about 7 minutes ago. She is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. You should: A) apply the AED if there is no response after 10 cycles of CPR. B) begin CPR at a compression to ventilation ratio of 15:2. C) begin CPR and apply the AED as soon as it is available. D) immediately apply the AED and analyze her cardiac rhythm.
C
You and your partner respond to the residence of a 66-year-old male with shortness of breath. As you are assessing the patient, his wife tells you that he was recently diagnosed with lung cancer. The patient is verbally abusive and tells you that failure of the health care system caused his disease. What stage of the grieving process is this patient's behavior consistent with? A) depression B) denial C) anger D) bargaining
C
You are dispatched to a middle school for a 16-year-old female experiencing an asthma attack. She is conscious and alert, but in severe respiratory distress. The school nurse informs you that she has tried several times to contact the patient's parents but has not been successful. You should: A) recognize that you cannot begin treatment without expressed parental consent. B) administer oxygen only until you receive parental consent for further treatment. C) provide treatment up to your level of training and transport the child at once. D) transport the child to the closest hospital and let them provide any treatment.
C
A 19-year-old female is found unconscious by her roommate. Your primary assessment reveals that her breathing is inadequate. As you insert an oropharyngeal airway, she begins to gag violently. You should: A) select a smaller oropharyngeal airway and attempt to insert it. B) insert the airway no further but leave it in place as a bite block. C) continue to insert the airway as you suction her oropharynx. D) remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx.
D
A 3-year-old female ingested several leaves from a plant in the living room. The child's mother is not sure what type of plant it is, stating that she bought it simply because it was pretty. After completing your initial assessment of the child, you should: A) immediately transport the child to the hospital. B) administer 25 g of activated charcoal. C) induce vomiting with syrup of ipecac. D) contact the regional poison control center.
D
A 40-year-old man is in cardiac arrest. Your partner is performing CPR. You are attaching the AED when the patient's wife tells you that he has an automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator (AICD). The AED advises that a shock is indicated. What should you do? A) Contact medical control and request permission to defibrillate. B) Continue CPR and transport the patient to the closest appropriate hospital. C) Avoid defibrillation as this will damage the patient's AICD. D) Deliver the shock followed by immediate resumption of CPR.
D
A 47-year-old male presents with severe abdominal pain of 3 hours' duration. His abdomen is distended and guarded. Your MOST important consideration for this patient should be to: A) assess his blood pressure to determine perfusion adequacy. B) transport him in a supine position. C) determine the exact location and cause of his pain. D) be alert for signs and symptoms of shock.
D
A 50-year-old female is found semiconscious by her son. Your assessment reveals that her respirations are slow and shallow and there is vomitus draining from her mouth. When you attempt to suction her oropharynx, she begins to gag. You should: A) continue to suction her airway until the secretions are clear, insert an oropharyngeal airway, and ventilate with a bag-mask device. B) remove the suction catheter immediately, insert a nasopharyngeal airway, and administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. C) abort the suction attempt at once, preoxygenate her with a bag-mask device, and prepare to perform endotracheal intubation. D) ensure that her airway is clear, attempt to insert a nasopharyngeal airway, and assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device.
D
A 67-year-old male presents with weakness, dizziness, and melena that began approximately 2 days ago. He denies a history of trauma. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his pulse is 120 beats/min and thready. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient is experiencing: A) intrathoracic hemorrhaging. B) an aortic aneurysm. C) acute appendicitis. D) gastrointestinal bleeding.
D
A construction worker fell approximately 30 feet. He is semiconscious with rapid, shallow respirations. Further assessment reveals deformity to the thoracic region of his spine. His blood pressure is 70/50 mm Hg, his pulse is 66 beats/min and weak, and his skin is warm and dry. In addition to spinal immobilization and rapid transport, the MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes: A) oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, thermal management, and elevation of his legs. B) oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, blankets for warmth, and elevation of his head. C) assisted ventilation, preventing hyperthermia, and elevating his lower extremities. D) assisted ventilation, thermal management, and elevation of the lower extremities.
D
A temporary loss or alteration of part or all of the brain's abilities to function without physical damage to the brain MOST accurately describes a(n): A) intracranial hemorrhage. B) cerebral contusion. C) intracerebral hematoma. D) cerebral concussion.
D
Air bags are designed to: A) prevent the driver from sustaining head trauma. B) prevent a second collision inside the car. C) be used with or without a shoulder harness. D) decrease the severity of deceleration injuries.
D
An alert patient presents with a regular pattern of inhalation and exhalation and breath sounds that are clear and equal on both sides of the chest. These findings are consistent with: A) respiratory difficulty. B) an obstructed airway. C) respiratory insufficiency. D) adequate air exchange.
D
An organ or tissue may be better able to resist damage from hypoperfusion if the: A) systolic arterial blood pressure is at least 60 mm Hg. B) body's demand for oxygen is markedly increased. C) heart rate is maintained at more than 100 beats/min. D) body's temperature is considerably less than 98.6°F (37.0°C).
D
Anaphylaxis is MOST accurately defined as a(n): A) allergic reaction that causes bronchodilation and vasoconstriction. B) severe allergic reaction that typically resolves without treatment. C) moderate allergic reaction that primarily affects the vasculature. D) extreme allergic reaction that may affect multiple body systems.
D
As a triage supervisor, you: A) should communicate with area hospitals regarding their capabilities. B) are responsible for providing initial treatment to all patients. C) must prepare patients for transport before they leave the triage area. D) must not begin treatment until all patients have been triaged.
D
At a flow rate of 6 L/min, a nasal cannula can deliver an approximate oxygen concentration of up to: A) 35%. B) 52%. C) 24%. D) 44%.
D
CPR will NOT be effective if the patient is: A) horizontal. B) on a firm surface. C) supine. D) prone.
D
Common side effects of nitroglycerin include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) hypotension. B) bradycardia. C) severe headache. D) hypertension.
D
Epinephrine is indicated for patients with an allergic reaction when: A) the patient is anxious and tachycardic. B) a paramedic is present at the scene. C) the reaction produces severe urticaria. D) wheezing and hypotension are present.
D
If a patient is being adequately ventilated with a bag-mask device attached to high-flow oxygen: A) it can safely take up to 60 seconds to perform intubation. B) the patient should be intubated via the nasal route. C) intubation should be performed after 5 minutes. D) endotracheal intubation may not be necessary.
D
If a patient with a chest injury is only able to inhale small amounts of air per breath, he or she: A) will maintain adequate minute volume if his or her respiratory rate stays the same. B) often breathes at a slower rate because of lung damage caused by the injury. C) will eliminate more carbon dioxide than if he or she were breathing deeply. D) must increase his or her respiratory rate to maintain adequate minute volume.
D
If a person is standing near a building that explodes, which of the following injuries would he or she MOST likely experience as a result of the pressure wave? A) impaled objects B) severe burns C) fractured bones D) stomach rupture
D
If a woman with vaginal bleeding reports syncope, the EMT must assume that she: A) has an ectopic pregnancy. B) has an infection. C) is pregnant. D) is in shock.
D
In contrast to monophasic defibrillation, biphasic defibrillation: A) begins with 300 joules and escalates. B) is only effective for ventricular tachycardia. C) delivers all shocks at 360 joules. D) requires a lower energy setting.
D
Medical control gives you an order that seems inappropriate for the patient's condition. After confirming that you heard the physician correctly, you should: A) obtain consent from the patient and then carry out the order as usual. B) state that you will not carry out the order because it is inappropriate. C) carry out the order and then carefully document it on the run form. D) advise the physician that the order is unclear and ask for clarification.
D
Most patients are instructed by their physician to take up to _______ doses of nitroglycerin before calling EMS. A) five B) four C) two D) three
D
Neurogenic shock occurs when: A) the spinal cord is severed and causes massive hemorrhaging. B) there is too much blood to fill a smaller vascular container. C) massive vasoconstriction occurs distal to a spinal cord injury. D) failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation.
D
Pain that may be perceived at a distant point on the surface of the body, such as the back or shoulder, is called: A) visceral pain. B) remote pain. C) radiating pain. D) referred pain.
D
Patients develop septic shock secondary to: A) failure of the blood vessels to adequately dilate. B) weak vessel tone due to nervous system damage. C) an infection that weakens cardiac contractions. D) poor vessel function and severe volume loss.
D
Phases of an ambulance call include all of the following activities, EXCEPT: A) transport of the patient to the hospital. B) checking equipment on the ambulance. C) transferring the patient to the ambulance. D) emergency care provided at the scene.
D
Prior to attaching the AED to a cardiac arrest patient, the EMT should: A) assess for a pulse for 20 seconds. B) perform CPR for 30 seconds. C) contact medical control. D) dry the chest off if it is wet.
D
Risk factors for AMI that cannot be controlled include: A) lack of exercise. B) excess stress. C) hyperglycemia. D) family history.
D
The EMT should use an AED on a child between 1 month and 8 years of age if: A) his or her condition is rapidly progressing to cardiac arrest. B) special pads are used and the child has profound tachycardia. C) he or she is not breathing and has a weakly palpable pulse. D) pediatric pads and an energy-reducing device are available.
D
The MOST common and significant complication associated with an acute abdomen is: A) high fever. B) severe pain. C) internal bleeding. D) peritonitis.
D
The QRS complex is an electrical representation of: A) ventricular filling. B) atrial contraction. C) atrial filling. D) ventricular contraction.
D
The five sections of the spinal column, in descending order, are the: A) cervical, coccygeal, thoracic, sacral, and lumbar. B) coccygeal, sacral, lumbar, thoracic, and cervical. C) thoracic, cervical, lumbar, coccygeal, and sacral. D) cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal.
D
The main advantage of the Venturi mask is: A) that it does not contain an oxygen reservoir, so the same percentage of oxygen can consistently be administered. B) the ability to adjust the percentage of inspired oxygen when caring for a critically ill or injured patient. C) the ability to adjust the amount of oxygen administered to the patient by increasing the flow rate on the regulator. D) the use of its fine adjustment capabilities in the long-term management of physiologically stable patients.
D
The physical act of moving air into and out of the lungs is called: A) respiration. B) diffusion. C) oxygenation. D) ventilation.
D
The simplest yet most effective method of preventing the spread of an infectious disease is to: A) ensure that your immunizations are up-to-date. B) undergo human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) testing at least twice a year. C) undergo an annual physical examination. D) wash your hands in between patient contacts.
D
The single most significant factor that contributes to suicide is: A) drug abuse. B) advanced age. C) a chronic illness. D) depression.
D
The six-pointed Star of Life® emblem identifies vehicles that: A) have complied with state regulations for ambulance certification. B) are equipped with supplies to manage a mass-casualty situation. C) are staffed by a minimum of one certified advanced EMT (AEMT). D) meet federal specifications as licensed or certified ambulances.
D
The systemic veins function by: A) delivering oxygen-poor blood to the capillaries. B) returning oxygen-rich blood back to the left atrium. C) delivering deoxygenated blood to the capillaries. D) returning deoxygenated blood back to the heart.
D
What is the MOST common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious patient? A) aspirated fluid B) blood clots C) vomitus D) the tongue
D
What occurs when a patient is breathing very rapidly and shallowly? A) Air is forcefully drawn into the lungs due to the negative pressure created by the rapid respirations. B) Minute volume increases because of a marked increase in both tidal volume and respiratory rate. C) The majority of tidal volume reaches the lungs and diffuses across the alveolar-capillary membrane. D) Air moves primarily in the anatomic dead space and does not participate in pulmonary gas exchange
D
When a woman presents with abdominal pain or other vague symptoms, the EMT is often unable to determine the nature of the problem until he or she: A) has obtained a complete set of vital signs. B) ascertains if the patient was ever pregnant. C) has formed a general impression of the patient. D) has gathered patient history information
D
When assessing an elderly patient who fell, it is important to remember that: A) any fall in the elderly is considered to be high-energy trauma. B) elderly patients who fall usually have a secondary head injury. C) bilateral hip fractures usually occur when an elderly person falls. D) osteoporosis can cause a fracture that may have resulted in the fall.
D
When evaluating the mechanism of injury of a car versus pedestrian collision, you should first: A) determine if the patient was struck and pulled under the vehicle. B) evaluate the vehicle that struck the patient for structural damage. C) determine if the patient was propelled away from the vehicle. D) approximate the speed of the vehicle that struck the pedestrian.
D
When using an auto-injector to give epinephrine, the primary injection site is the: A) lateral portion of the arm. B) medial portion of the thigh. C) medial part of the buttocks. D) lateral portion of the thigh.
D
Which of the following is a late sign of hypoxia? A) restlessness B) tachycardia C) anxiety D) cyanosis
D
Which of the following patients is in decompensated shock? A) a 28-year-old female with pale skin and rapid, shallow respirations B) a 32-year-old male with anxiety and a systolic blood pressure of 110 mm Hg C) a 23-year-old restless male with cool, clammy skin and tachycardia D) a 20-year-old female with absent radial pulses and dilated pupils
D
Which of the following statements regarding gastrointestinal bleeding is correct? A) Lower gastrointestinal bleeding results from conditions such as Mallory-Weiss syndrome. B) In the majority of cases, bleeding within the gastrointestinal tract occurs acutely and is severe. C) Chronic bleeding within the gastrointestinal tract is usually more severe than bleeding that occurs acutely. D) Bleeding within the gastrointestinal tract is a symptom of another disease, not a disease itsel
D
Which of the following statements regarding normal gas exchange in the lungs is correct? A) Blood that returns to the lungs from the body has a low carbon dioxide content. B) The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the capillaries. C) The oxygen content in the alveoli is highest during the exhalation phase. D) Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the alveolar walls and capillaries.
D
Which of the following statements regarding the King LT airway is correct? A) Ventilation through a King LT is provided through an opening at the distal end of the tube that is blindly inserted into the trachea. B) Because the King LT is placed into the esophagus, the end-tidal CO2 detector will not adequately confirm proper placement and should not be used. C) The King LT is a multilumen airway that is inserted into the esophagus using a laryngoscope and a curved or straight blade. D) When the King LT is properly placed in the esophagus, one cuff is designed to seal the esophagus and the other cuff is designed to seal the oropharynx.
D
Which of the following statements regarding the hypoxic drive is MOST correct? A) Chronic carbon dioxide elimination often results in activation of the hypoxic drive. B) The hypoxic drive serves as the primary stimulus for breathing in healthy individuals. C) 100% supplemental oxygen will always cause apnea in patients with a hypoxic drive. D) The hypoxic drive stimulates a person to breathe on the basis of low oxygen levels.
D
Which of the following statements regarding the physical examination of a patient with a behavioral problem is correct? A) The physical examination of a patient with a behavioral problem often yields crucial information and should always be performed, even if the patient is violent. B) It is only appropriate to perform a physical examination on a patient with a behavioral problem if he or she is unconscious or is being physically restrained. C) Performing a physical examination on a patient with a behavioral problem will likely cause him or her to become violent and should be avoided in the field. D) A physical examination for a behavioral problem may be difficult to perform but may provide clues to the patient's state of mind and thought processes.
D
Which of the following would NOT cause a decrease in tidal volume? A) irregular breathing B) shallow breathing C) agonal respirations D) deep respirations
D
You are dispatched to a residence for a 67-year-old female who was awakened by shortness of breath and sharp chest pain. Her husband tells you that she was recently discharged from the hospital after having hip surgery. Your assessment reveals dried blood around her mouth, facial cyanosis, and an oxygen saturation of 88%. This patient's presentation is MOST consistent with: A) right-sided heart failure. B) spontaneous pneumothorax. C) acute pulmonary edema. D) acute pulmonary embolism.
D
You are dispatched to an apartment complex for a young male with abdominal pain. Your priority upon arriving at the scene should be to: A) notify the dispatcher of your arrival. B) place a paramedic ambulance on standby. C) quickly gain access to the patient. D) assess the scene for potential hazards.
D
You are dispatched to the residence of an Asian family for a child with a high fever. When you assess the child, you note that he has numerous red marks on his back. The child's parents explain that these marks represent coining—a traditional Asian healing practice in which hot coins are rubbed on the back. You should: A) acknowledge and respect this practice as a cultural belief, but advise the child's parents that it has no healing power. B) advise the emergency department physician that you feel as though the child was intentionally abused by his parents. C) advise the child's parents that this is a harmful practice and is considered a form of child abuse in the United States. D) document this on your patient care report and advise the emergency department staff of what the child's parents told you.
D
You respond to a call for an unknown emergency. When you arrive at the scene, the patient's husband meets you at the door and states that his wife has been depressed and has locked herself in an upstairs bedroom. He further tells you that he keeps his handgun in the bedroom. You should: A) get in your ambulance and leave the scene immediately. B) ask the husband to attempt to reason with his wife. C) go upstairs with caution and attempt to talk to the patient. D) remain in a safe place and request law enforcement.
D
____________ is what you can see of a person's response to the environment. A) Psychosis B) Neurosis C) Affect D) Behavior
D
The hypoxic drive—the primary stimulus to breathe for patients with certain chronic respiratory diseases—is influenced by: A) low blood oxygen levels. B) high blood carbon dioxide levels. C) high blood oxygen levels. D) low blood carbon dioxide levels.
Q
Which of the following MOST accurately describes septic shock? A) bacterial damage to the vessel wall, leaking blood vessels, and vasodilation B) bacterial infection of the nervous system with widespread vasodilation C) viral infection of the blood vessels, vascular damage, and vasoconstriction D) widespread vasoconstriction and plasma loss due to a severe viral infection
Q