EPPP: Practice test 7

Use of the ________ heuristic tends to intensify a person's emotional reaction to a negative event that has already occurred. A. simulation B. availability C. representativeness D. anchoring and adjustment

A. simulation When using the simulation heuristic, a person imagines alternatives to a negative event that has already occurred, and the imagined alternatives can cause the person to have a stronger negative emotional reaction to the actual event.

Hemiplegia vs. hemiparesis

-Hemiplegia = paralysis of one side of the body -Hemiparesis = a slight paralysis or weakness on one side of the body

The insufficient top-down control hypothesis predicts that generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is due to reduced connectivity between the prefrontal cortex, amygdala, and: A. anterior cingulate cortex. B. entorhinal cortex. C. mammillary bodies. D. suprachiasmatic nucleus.

A. anterior cingulate cortex. If you're not familiar with research linking GAD to weak connectivity between the prefrontal cortex, amygdala, and anterior cingulate cortex, you might have been able to identify the correct answer if you know that the anterior cingulate cortex plays a role in mood and anxiety disorders. Alternatively, you might have been able to use the process of elimination to make an "educated guess": Knowing that the entorhinal cortex and mammillary bodies play important roles in memory would have helped you eliminate answers B and C, and knowing that the suprachiasmatic nucleus is responsible for controlling the body's circadian rhythms would have helped you eliminate answer D.

Instrumental aggression usually first appears in children by the time they are ____ of age and then peaks at _____ of age. A. 1 year; 2 years B. 3 years; 4 years C. 5 years; 7 years D. 7 years; 9 years

A. 1 year; 2 years The purpose of instrumental aggression is to achieve a goal, most often to gain attention or obtain an object (e.g., to get a toy from another child). For most children, it first appears by the time they are one year of age and peaks at about two years of age when they begin to be better able to negotiate verbally.

Research on gender segregation has found that most children begin to prefer same-sex playmates between: A. 2 and 3 years of age with girls showing a preference earlier than boys do. B. 2 and 3 years of age with boys showing a preference earlier than girls do. C. 4 and 5 years of age with girls showing a preference earlier than boys do. D. 4 and 5 years of age with boys showing a preference earlier than girls do.

A. 2 and 3 years of age with girls showing a preference earlier than boys do.

__________ is the most common outcome of damage to the cerebellum and can also be due to abnormalities in the sensory or vestibular system. A. Ataxia B. Apraxia C. Dyskinesia D. Paresthesia

A. Ataxia Ataxia is the most common consequence of damage to the cerebellum and involves a lack of coordination and clumsiness of movement that is not due to muscular weakness. In addition to problems with gait and posture, cerebellar ataxia can cause abnormal eye movements, dysarthria (difficulty moving the muscles involved in speech), and dysphagia (difficulty swallowing). Apraxia (answer B) is an inability to carry out purposeful movements despite normal muscle power and control. It is most often due to damage to the parietal lobes but may also be caused by damage to the corpus callosum and certain areas of the frontal lobes. There is also evidence that damage to the cerebellum may be involved in several specific types of apraxia including oculomotor apraxia and agraphic apraxia. However, apraxia is not the correct answer because it is not the most common outcome of damage to the cerebellum, which is what this question is asking about. Dyskinesia (answer C) involves abnormal, involuntary muscle movements (e.g., twitching, fidgeting) that are caused by abnormal activity in the basal ganglia. Paresthesia (answer D) involves numbness, tingling, or other abnormal sensation in the skin. It is caused by sustained pressure or damage to a nerve in the brain or spinal cord due, for example, to a stroke or tumor.

As described by __________, a career is "the combination and sequence of roles played by a person during the course of a lifetime." A. Donald Super B. John Holland C. David Tiedeman D. John Krumboltz

A. Donald Super

Open access refers to making digitally distributed research articles available for free to readers, with publication costs being covered by means other than subscriptions. Open access is most consistent with which of the following General Principles contained in the APA's Ethics Code? A. Justice B. Integrity C. Beneficence/Nonmaleficence D. Fidelity/Responsibility

A. Justice Open access is most consistent with General Principle D, which is titled Justice. It calls for psychologists to "recognize that fairness and justice entitle all persons to access to and benefit from the contributions of psychology."

Which of the following best describes ethical guidelines for using obsolete tests and test results? A. Psychologists may use obsolete tests and test results in certain circumstances. B. Psychologists may use obsolete tests in certain situations but must never use obsolete test results. C. Psychologists may use obsolete test results in certain situations but must never use obsolete tests. D. Psychologists must never use obsolete tests or test results.

A. Psychologists may use obsolete tests and test results in certain circumstances. Standard 9.08 of the APA Ethics Code and Principle II.13 of the Canadian Code of Ethics apply to the use of obsolete tests and outdated test results. These requirements imply that using obsolete tests or outdated test results may be acceptable when doing so is appropriate for the purposes of the current evaluation. For example, it would be acceptable to use a previous version of a test when it has norms for a client's racial/ethnic group, but the newest version does not yet have norms for that group.

A meta-analysis of the research by Baltes and his colleagues (1999) found that flextime has the greatest positive influence on which of the following? A. absenteeism B. job satisfaction C. productivity D. satisfaction with flextime

A. absenteeism Baltes et al.'s (1999) meta-analysis found that the strongest beneficial effect of flextime was the reduction of absenteeism followed by, in order, objective measures of productivity, employee satisfaction with flextime, job satisfaction, and self-rated performance.

The National Epidemiologic Survey on Alcohol and Related Conditions III (NESARC-III) found that, among respondents with major depressive disorder, the largest percentage reported having had which of the following during their lifetimes? A. alcohol use disorder B. borderline personality disorder C. generalized anxiety disorder D. post-traumatic stress disorder

A. alcohol use disorder The NESARC-III collected data from more than 36,000 adults on the occurrence of major depressive disorder (MDD) and other psychiatric disorders during the last 12 months and over their lifetimes. Among respondents with MDD, 40.8% reported that they also had an alcohol use disorder during their lifetimes, 26.6% reported they also had borderline personality disorder, 20.5% reported they also had generalized anxiety disorder, and 15.6% reported they also had PTSD.

Data collected by Bouchard and McGue (1981) indicate that the median correlation coefficient for IQ scores is lowest for which of the following? A. biological parent and child living apart B. adopted siblings living together C. biological siblings living apart D. half-siblings living together

A. biological parent and child living apart The median correlation coefficients for IQ scores reported by Bouchard and McGue are .22 for biological parent and child living apart, .31 for adopted siblings living together, .24 for biological siblings living apart, and .35 for half-siblings living together. Note that an implication of this data is that nature (genetics) contributes somewhat less than nurture (environment) to IQ scores: For example, the correlation coefficient is higher for adopted siblings living together than for biological siblings living apart.

A researcher would use which of the following to compare the effects of two interventions on quality-adjusted life-years (QALY)? A. cost-utility analysis B. cost-benefit analysis C. cost-effectiveness analysis D. cost-consequences analysis

A. cost-utility analysis Cost-utility analysis is used to compare the outcomes of two or more interventions when outcomes are expressed as quality-adjusted life-years (QALY) or disability-adjusted life-years (DALY). Cost-benefit analysis (answer B) is used when the costs and benefits of the interventions being evaluated can be expressed in monetary terms. Cost-effectiveness analysis (answer C) is used to compare two or more interventions that have outcomes that are measured in nonmonetary terms other than QALYs or DALYs (e.g., as reduction in symptom severity or probability of relapse). Cost-consequences analysis (answer D) is used to compare the consequences (outcomes) of two or more interventions when there are multiple consequences that are simply listed and not aggregated into a QALY, DALY, cost-effectiveness ratio, or other single metric.

Which of the following is the primary focus of therapy for Milan systemic family therapists? A. destructive family games B. oppressive life stories C. boundary disturbances D. unresolved intrapsychic conflicts

A. destructive family games

The mother of a 5-year-old boy yells at him whenever he misbehaves by, for example, teasing the dog or punching his younger brother. The boy figures out that, if he says "I love you" to his mother when she yells at him, she will stop yelling. For the boy, continuing to say "I love you" to his mother whenever she yells at him is best described as being the result of: A. escape conditioning. B. avoidance conditioning. C. stimulus generalization. D. response generalization.

A. escape conditioning. In this situation, the boy says "I love you" to his mother because, when he does so, she stops yelling at him. In other words, his behavior continues because it allows him to "escape" his mother's yelling. Escape conditioning is essentially another name for negative reinforcement: It occurs when a behavior increases or is maintained because something is removed following the behavior. `NOTE: escape conditioning is to stop an unpleasant stimulus once it has started, whereas avoidance conditioning is avoiding the unpleasant stimulus before it even starts

Which of the following is an evidence-based treatment for adolescents with anorexia nervosa that takes an agnostic view of the disorder and consists of three phases - parental control of the adolescent's eating, gradual return of control to the adolescent, and establishing age-appropriate independence in the adolescent? A. family-based treatment B. family-focused therapy C. functional family therapy D. interpersonal psychotherapy for eating disorders

A. family-based treatment Family-based treatment for anorexia consists of the three phases listed in the question. It takes an agnostic approach to the etiology of the disorder, which means it doesn't attempt to identify why it developed and does not blame the parents or adolescent. Family-focused therapy (answer B) is an evidence-based treatment for bipolar disorder. Functional family therapy (answer C) is an intervention for families that include a child 11 to 18 years old who has conduct disorder or other externalizing behavior disorder and/or a substance use problem. Interpersonal psychotherapy for eating disorders (answer D) is an evidence-based treatment for bulimia and binge-eating disorder. There is some evidence that it may also be useful for anorexia, but it doesn't involve the phases described in the question.

Behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS) combine which of the following? A. graphic rating scale and critical incidents B. paired comparison and critical incidents C. behavioral anchors and forced choice D. behavioral anchors and forced distribution

A. graphic rating scale and critical incidents When using BARS, a supervisor rates each employee on several dimensions of job performance using a graphic rating scale, with points on the scale being "anchored" by specific behaviors (critical incidents) that each describe a different level of performance.

A meta-analysis of research conducted by D'Iorio and colleagues (2017) compared the self-ratings and informant-ratings of the personality characteristics of individuals with and without Alzheimer's disease. The results indicated that, for both ratings, individuals with Alzheimer's disease were rated as having significantly: A. higher levels of neuroticism and lower levels of openness and extraversion. B. higher levels of neuroticism and openness and lower levels of extraversion. C. higher levels of neuroticism, agreeableness, and extraversion. D. lower levels of neuroticism, agreeableness, and extraversion.

A. higher levels of neuroticism and lower levels of openness and extraversion.

In most people, Broca's area is located in the __________ and Wernicke's area is located in the __________. A. left inferior frontal gyrus; left superior temporal gyrus B. right inferior frontal gyrus; right superior temporal gyrus C. left anterior cingulate gyrus; left posterior cingulate gyrus D. right anterior cingulate gyrus; right posterior cingulate gyrus

A. left inferior frontal gyrus; left superior temporal gyrus

According to Hersey and Blanchard's (1988) situational leadership theory, a telling leadership style is most effective for employees who have: A. low ability and low motivation. B. low ability and high motivation. C. high ability and low motivation. D. high ability and high motivation.

A. low ability and low motivation. The telling style is most effective for employees who are low in both ability and motivation (answer A). The selling style is most effective for employees who are low in ability and high in motivation (answer B). The participative style is most effective for employees who are high in ability and low in motivation (answer C). The delegating style is most effective for employees who are high in both ability and motivation (answer D). Note that, because of its name, the selling style may seem most appropriate for someone with low motivation. However, Hersey and Blanchard's description of this style clarifies why it's appropriate for employees who are low in ability and high in motivation: The selling style involves facilitating performance by explaining task directions in a supportive and persuasive way.

Studies have confirmed that patients with coronary heart disease (CHD) have a high rate of comorbid psychiatric disorders. For example, Bankier, Januzzi, and Littman (2004) found a high prevalence rate of several disorders in their sample of patients with CHD, with __________ having the highest prevalence rate. A. major depressive disorder B. generalized anxiety disorder C. alcohol use disorder D. binge-eating disorder

A. major depressive disorder Bankier, Januzzi, and Littman found that 31% of their sample of individuals with CHD had recurrent major depressive disorder with a current major depressive episode, 29% had a single past major depressive episode, 24% had current generalized anxiety disorder, 19% had current alcohol abuse (alcohol use disorder), and 10% had current binge-eating disorder.

Based on their analysis of data collected in the Generations Study of LGB individuals belonging to three age cohorts, Bishop and her colleagues (2020) concluded that: A. members of the younger age cohort experienced all sexual identity development milestones earlier than did members of the middle and older age cohorts. B. members of the older age cohort experienced all sexual identity development milestones earlier than did members of the middle and younger age cohorts. C. members of the younger age cohort experienced some sexual identity development milestones earlier, while members of the middle and older age cohorts experienced other milestones earlier. D. members of the younger, middle, and older age cohorts experienced all sexual identity development milestones at about the same average ages.

A. members of the younger age cohort experienced all sexual identity development milestones earlier than did members of the middle and older age cohorts.

Twin studies investigating the contributions of genetics and the environment to personality have confirmed that: A. monozygotic twins reared apart are more similar than dizygotic twins reared together in terms of personality. B. monozygotic twins reared apart are less similar than dizygotic twins reared together in terms of personality. C. monozygotic twins reared together and dizygotic twins reared together have about the same degree of similarity in terms of personality, but monozygotic twins reared apart are more similar than are dizygotic twins reared apart. D. monozygotic twins and dizygotic twins have about the same degree of similarity in terms of personality, regardless of whether the twins are reared together or apart.

A. monozygotic twins reared apart are more similar than dizygotic twins reared together in terms of personality.

All of the following are "red flags" that suggest a young child should be referred for a speech/language evaluation except: A. no canonical babbling (e.g., bababa) by 5 months of age. B. no first words by 19 months of age. C. no meaningful two-word combinations (e.g., juice gone) by 28 months of age. D. no appropriate pronoun use by 42 months of age.

A. no canonical babbling (e.g., bababa) by 5 months of age. The reported ages for language milestones vary somewhat from source to source, but most sources list canonical babbling as occurring by 6 to 8 months of age, first words by 15 months, meaningful two-word combinations by 24 months of age, and appropriate pronoun use by 36 months of age. Therefore, answer A is the best answer because no canonical babbling at 5 months is not unusual and, therefore, does not suggest a child should be referred for a speech/language evaluation.

The treatment-of-choice for a 6-year-old child whose symptoms meet the diagnostic criteria for oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) and who has been physically abused by his parents is which of the following? A. parent-child interaction therapy B. assertive community treatment C. functional family therapy D. multidimensional family therapy

A. parent-child interaction therapy Of the treatments listed in the answers, parent-child interaction therapy (PCIT) is the only one that is appropriate for young children (ages 2 to 7) who have ODD or other disruptive behavior problems and is also an evidence-based intervention for children who have experienced or are at risk for experiencing maltreatment. Assertive community treatment (answer B) is an evidence-based treatment for schizophrenia. Functional family therapy (answer C) is an intervention for families that include a child 11 to 18 years old who has conduct disorder or other externalizing behavior disorder and/or a substance use problem. Multidimensional family therapy (answer D) is for families that include a member 11 to 21 years old who has a substance use disorder and comorbid internalizing or externalizing symptoms and/or delinquency.

As described by Broten and colleagues (2011), when a stepped care approach is used to treat individuals with low levels of depressive symptoms, the first step includes assessment and monitoring. When symptoms do not remit, the second step includes which of the following? A. psychoeducation, bibliotherapy, and/or computer-aided CBT B. watchful waiting, self-monitoring, and/or psychoeducation C. group therapy, brief individual CBT, and/or medication D. psychoeducation, peer support group, and/or brief individual CBT

A. psychoeducation, bibliotherapy, and/or computer-aided CBT The stepped care model developed by Broten and colleagues is similar to other models of stepped care for depression and includes four steps. Step 1 consists of assessment, monitoring, and watchful waiting. Step 2 consists of interventions that require minimal practitioner involvement and includes psychoeducation, bibliotherapy, and/or computer-aided CBT. Step 3 consists of interventions that require more intensive care and specialized therapist training and includes group therapy, individual therapy, and/or medication. Step 4 consists of the most restrictive and intensive form of care and involves voluntary or involuntary inpatient care.

Siegel and Langford (1998) compared the MMPI-2 L, K, and F scale scores of two groups of mothers undergoing child custody evaluations. They found that, when compared to mothers who were not exhibiting parental alienation syndrome (PAS), mothers exhibiting PAS were more likely to obtain: A. significantly higher L and K scale scores and significantly lower F scale scores. B. significantly higher F scale scores and significantly lower L and K scale scores. C. significantly higher L scales scores and significantly lower K and F scale scores. D. significantly higher K scale scores and significantly lower L and F scale scores.

A. significantly higher L and K scale scores and significantly lower F scale scores. Parental alienation syndrome refers to a parent's behaviors that cause a child to express hatred and resistance toward the other parent. Research by J. C. Siegel and J. S. Langford and others has found that parents exhibiting PAS often obtain high L and K scale scores on the MMPI-2 and low scores on the F scale, which indicates that they tend to rely on the primitive defenses of denial, projection, splitting, and devaluation.

Uncertainty intolerance refers to anxiety about the possible occurrence of future threats. Kim and colleagues (2017) found that high scores on a measure of uncertainty intolerance were most associated with increased volume of which of the following? A. striatum B. cerebellum C. reticular formation D. suprachiasmatic nucleus

A. striatum M. J. Kim and colleagues used magnetic resonance imaging to identify structural brain abnormalities associated with uncertainty tolerance and found that high scores on the Intolerance of Uncertainty Scale were most associated with increased volume of the striatum [Intolerance of uncertainty predicts increased striatal volume, Emotion, 17(6), 895-899, 2017]. The exam is likely to include 2 or 3 questions like this one that ask about a topic that has been addressed by only a few studies and require you to be familiar with the results of one of those studies. If you are unfamiliar with the study being asked about in this question, knowing that the striatum is part of the basal ganglia and that altered basal ganglia functioning has been linked to generalized anxiety disorder would have helped you identify the correct answer. Alternatively, you may have been able to identify the correct answer using the process of elimination if you are familiar with the functions of the three other areas of the brain listed in the answers.

In his research on conformity to group norms, Asch (1951): A. used an unambiguous stimulus and found that subjects conformed to group norms. B. used an unambiguous stimulus and found that subjects did not conform to group norms. C. used an ambiguous stimulus and found that subjects conformed to group norms. D. used an ambiguous stimulus and found that subjects did not conform to group norms.

A. used an unambiguous stimulus and found that subjects conformed to group norms. Prior to Asch's research, Sherif (1935) used an ambiguous stimulus (the autokinetic effect) to study conformity to group norms, and found that subjects conformed to the group norm. Asch then used an unambiguous stimulus (comparisons of the lengths of three lines) and found that subjects conformed to the group norm even when it was obvious that the line-length estimates made by other group members (confederates) were clearly wrong.

A person misperceives the sound of running water in the next room as people talking to each other. This is an example of which of the following? A. delusion B. illusion C. hallucination D. allusion

B. illusion An illusion is a misperception or misinterpretation of an external stimulus, and the person in this question is misperceiving the sound of running water as human voices. A delusion (answer A) is a false belief that is firmly held despite contradictory evidence. An hallucination (answer C) is a sensory perception that occurs in the absence of an external stimulus.

The goals of Project MATCH (Matching Alcoholism Treatment to Client Heterogeneity) were to compare the effects of motivational enhancement therapy, cognitive-behavioral therapy, and twelve-step facilitation for individuals who had received a DSM-III-R diagnosis of alcohol dependence or abuse and to test the hypothesis that matching type of treatment to certain patient characteristics improves treatment outcomes. Results found which of the following? A. The three treatments produced similar outcomes but there was no support for the matching hypothesis. B. The three treatments produced similar outcomes and there was some support for the matching hypothesis. C. Motivational enhancement therapy produced the best outcomes but there was no support for the matching hypothesis. D. Motivational enhancement therapy produced the best outcomes and there was some support for the matching hypothesis.

B. The three treatments produced similar outcomes and there was some support for the matching hypothesis.

Halfway through the semester, a psychology professor changes some of the requirements listed in the course syllabus because he realizes he left out several important readings that are relevant to the course. Changing the requirements is: A. acceptable only if the professor included a statement in the syllabus indicating that course requirements might change during the semester. B. acceptable only if the professor's changes do not affect the ability of students to fulfill the new requirements by the end of the semester. C. acceptable only if the professor has a valid pedagogical reason for making the changes. D. unacceptable because psychology professors are ethically obligated to ensure that course syllabi are accurate when they are first made available to students.

B. acceptable only if the professor's changes do not affect the ability of students to fulfill the new requirements by the end of the semester. Making changes to course syllabi is directly addressed in Standard 7.03 of the APA's Ethics Code and indirectly addressed in the Values Statements for Principle I (Respect for the Dignity of Persons and Peoples) and Principle II (Responsible Caring) and in Principle I.11 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Principle 7.03 states that "this standard does not preclude an instructor from modifying course content or requirements when the instructor considers it pedagogically necessary or desirable, so long as students are made aware of these modifications in a manner that enables them to fulfill course requirements." Answer C is not the best answer because it doesn't mention the requirement that students will be able to fulfill course requirements and because the question implies that the professor has a valid pedagogical reason ("he realizes that he left out several important readings that are relevant to the course").

Current indications for deep brain stimulation (DBS) include all of the following except: A. Parkinson's disease. B. atypical parkinsonism. C. essential tremor. D. dystonia.

B. atypical parkinsonism. DBS is a surgical treatment for Parkinson's disease, essential tremor, and dystonia (especially primary dystonia) that involves implanting a device that sends electrical signals to areas in the brain that control movement. It is contraindicated for atypical parkinsonism, which shares some symptoms with Parkinson's disease but is caused by other disorders, including progressive supranuclear palsy, multiple system atrophy, corticobasal degeneration, and neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies. Unlike Parkinson's disease, atypical parkinsonism does not respond well to treatment with levodopa or DBS.

Studies investigating the relationship between Baumrind's parenting styles and children's bullying bx and victimization have found: A. authoritarian and permissive parenting are both associated with an increased risk for bullying and victimization, but authoritarian parenting is more strongly related to victimization and permissive parenting is more strongly related to bullying bx. B. authoritarian and permissive parenting are both associated with an increased risk for bullying and victimization, but authoritarian parenting is more strongly related to bullying bx and permissive parenting is more strongly related to victimization. C. authoritarian parenting is associated with bullying bx only and permissive parenting is associated with victimization only. D. authoritarian parenting is associated with both bullying bx and victimization, but permissive parenting is not associated with bullying behavior or victimizat

B. authoritarian and permissive parenting are both associated with an increased risk for bullying and victimization, but authoritarian parenting is more strongly related to bullying bx and permissive parenting is more strongly related to victimization.

Hall, Hall, and Caselli (2019) conclude that, for deaf and hard-of-hearing (DHH) children, the research suggests that learning sign language: A. interferes with the acquisition of spoken language. B. benefits the acquisition of spoken language. C. benefits the acquisition of spoken language only when it occurs after spoken language interventions have failed. D. has no impact on the acquisition of spoken language.

B. benefits the acquisition of spoken language. Hall, Hall, and Caselli conclude that the research confirms that exposing DHH children to sign language from birth does not have detrimental effects on the acquisition of spoken language and that, instead, "there is evidence that exposure to a sign language can confer a host of benefits, and that excluding a sign language leaves the child at great risk of language deprivation" (2019, p. 383). Answer C can be eliminated because the benefits of sign language occur without previous spoken language interventions. In addition, there is evidence that waiting to introduce sign language as a "last resort" after spoken language interventions have failed can have a negative irreversible effect on the language areas of the brain.

As described by Shneidman (1994), the purpose of a psychological autopsy is to: A. aid in the identification, apprehension, and conviction of the perpetrator of a crime. B. clarify the manner of death when the manner is equivocal. C. identify the psychosocial factors that contributed to person's suicide. D. determine if the insanity defense can be supported.

B. clarify the manner of death when the manner is equivocal. Because this question is asking specifically about Shneidman's description of the purpose of a psychological autopsy, answer B is the correct answer: According to Shneidman, the primary function of a psychological autopsy is to clarify the manner of death when the manner is initially equivocal. La Fon (1999) subsequently distinguished between two types of psychological autopsy: equivocal death psychological autopsy and suicide psychological autopsy. Answer C describes the second type. Answer D is not the correct answer because it describes the purpose of a criminal responsibility evaluation. Answer A is not the correct answer because it describes the purpose of psychological profiling, which is also known as criminal and offender profiling.

The essential features of total quality management (TQM) include: A. continuous improvement, individual responsibility, and open information systems. B. continuous improvement, full employee involvement, and data-supported decisions. C. incremental improvement, individual responsibility, and open information systems. D. incremental improvement, full employee involvement, and data-supported decisions.

B. continuous improvement, full employee involvement, and data-supported decisions.

When people are unable to end their cognitive dissonance by replacing or subtracting the dissonant cognition or adding a consonant cognition, they will most likely: A. decide that the dissonant cognition is actually consonant. B. decrease the importance of the dissonant cognition. C. find someone or something to support the dissonant cognition. D. hide the dissonant cognition from other people.

B. decrease the importance of the dissonant cognition. This question requires you to be familiar with the four methods that people usually use to reduce cognitive dissonance: replace or subtract the dissonant cognition, add a consonant cognition, increase the importance of a consonant cognition, or decrease the importance of the dissonant cognition. Of the answers given, only decreasing the importance of the dissonant cognition is one of these methods and, therefore, is the best answer.

In their longitudinal study of the effects of overcontrolling ("helicopter") parenting, Perry and colleagues (2018) found that children's levels of __________ at age 5 were mediators that linked overcontrolling parenting during toddlerhood to poor emotional, social, and academic functioning at 10 years of age. A. behavioral restraint and social reticence B. emotion regulation and inhibitory control C. negative affectivity and aggression D. self-awareness and empathy

B. emotion regulation and inhibitory control Studies have linked helicopter parenting to a number of negative outcomes for children, and some studies have identified mediators that explain this link. For example, Perry and colleagues found that overcontrolling parenting during toddlerhood was predictive of poor emotional and behavioral self-regulation (as measured by emotion regulation and inhibitory control) at age 5 which, in turn, was predictive of emotional, social, and academic problems at age 10.

Cognitive therapy for suicide prevention (CT-SP) has been found to be effective for reducing suicidal ideation, repeat suicide attempts, and depression in adolescents and adults who recently attempted suicide. As described by Bryan (2019), the primary targets of the three stages of CT-SP are, in order: A. risk assessment, skills training, and safety planning. B. emotion regulation, cognitive flexibility, and relapse prevention. C. crisis management, cognitive flexibility, and safety planning. D. cognitive restructuring, behavioral activation, and relapse prevention.

B. emotion regulation, cognitive flexibility, and relapse prevention. As described by Bryan, emotion regulation and cognitive flexibility are essential mechanisms for reducing suicidal behaviors and, consequently, are the primary targets of the first and second phases of CT-SP, respectively. Then, when a client has acquired emotion regulation and cognitive flexibility skills, the third phase begins and focuses on relapse prevention. Although risk assessment, skills training, cognitive restructuring, behavioral activation, and safety planning are often included as elements of cognitive therapy for suicide prevention and cognitive-behavioral therapy for suicide prevention, they are not the primary targets of the three stages identified by Bryan.

Since their 16-year-old daughter, Mary, received a diagnosis of bipolar I disorder several months ago, Mr. and Mrs. Molina have become increasingly overprotective of and emotionally overinvolved with her, and this has increased conflicts between them and Mary. The treatment-of-choice in this situation is: A. multidimensional family therapy. B. family-focused therapy. C. multisystemic therapy. D. transference-focused psychotherapy.

B. family-focused therapy. Family-focused therapy (FFT) is an evidence-based treatment for bipolar disorder. It is based on recognition that high levels of criticism, hostility, and emotional overinvolvement (i.e., high expressed emotion) by family members can trigger relapse in a family member with this disorder. Multidimensional family therapy (answer A) is a treatment for families that include a member who is 11 to 21 years old and has a substance use disorder and comorbid internalizing or externalizing symptoms and/or delinquency. Multisystemic therapy (answer C) is an intensive family and community-based intervention for adolescents 12 to 18 years old who are at imminent risk for out-of-home placement due to antisocial behaviors, substance use problems, and/or serious psychiatric problems. Transference-focused psychotherapy (answer D) is used to treat borderline and other personality disorders.

As described by Trochim (2020), a summative evaluation includes all of the following except: A. secondary analysis. B. implementation evaluation. C. impact evaluation. D. cost-effectiveness and cost-benefit analysis.

B. implementation evaluation. Trochim distinguishes between formative and summative evaluations and identifies the components of each type: The components of formative evaluation are needs assessment, evaluability assessment, structured conceptualization, implementation evaluation, and process evaluation. The components of summative evaluation are outcome evaluation, impact evaluation, cost-effectiveness and cost-benefit analysis, secondary analysis, and meta-analysis.

Pavlov proposed that spontaneous recovery of a conditioned response after extinction trials provides evidence that extinction of the conditioned response is due to: A. external inhibition. B. internal inhibition. C. higher-order conditioning. D. habituation.

B. internal inhibition.

Which of the following scales of measurement allows you to conclude that the difference between the scores of 50 and 51 on a test is equal to the difference between the scores of 90 and 91 on the same test? A. ordinal, interval, and ratio B. interval and ratio C. interval only D. ratio only

B. interval and ratio

Auditory hallucinations are a frequent symptom of schizophrenia, and research has shown that they are caused by neuronal abnormalities in the: A. right temporal lobe. B. left temporal lobe. C. right occipital lobe. D. left occipital lobe.

B. left temporal lobe. Knowing that the temporal lobe contains the auditory cortex and that the production and comprehension of speech are dominant (most often left) hemisphere functions would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.

Person-centered therapy is based on the assumption that providing therapy clients with three facilitative conditions will help them: A. function in an authentic and holistic way. B. move beyond internalized conditions of worth. C. replace a failure identity with a success identity. D. create a self-valued existence.

B. move beyond internalized conditions of worth. Knowing that conditions of worth is a key concept in person-centered therapy would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. An assumption of person-centered therapy is that providing clients with three facilitative conditions (empathy, unconditional positive regard, and congruence) will help them move beyond internalized conditions of worth and thereby progress from a state of incongruence to a state of congruence. Answer A is most applicable to Gestalt therapy, answer C is the primary goal of reality therapy, and the language used in answer D is most consistent with existential therapy.

According to the theory of groupthink, mindguards: A. protect the group leader from being criticized or ignored by group members. B. protect the group and group leader from dissenting views. C. pressure group members to consider contradictory information. D. pressure group members to "stay on track" whenever discussions go off-topic.

B. protect the group and group leader from dissenting views. A mindguard is a group member who acts as a self-appointed censor and shields the group and group leader from dissenting views by, for example, actively discouraging members from sharing contradictory ideas. The presence of a mindguard is one of the symptoms of groupthink.

The goal of APA accreditation is best described as: A. providing status to graduates of accredited schools. B. protecting the wellbeing of the public and the interests of students. C. establishing minimum standards of competence. D. protecting the profession of psychology and its practitioners.

B. protecting the wellbeing of the public and the interests of students. The APA provides several descriptions of the goal of APA accreditation, but all identify benefiting or protecting the public and some also identify protecting students as the goal: For example, the APA accreditation website states that "the ultimate goal of APA accreditation is to graduate psychologists who are uniquely qualified to protect the wellbeing of the public by providing quality psychological service" (https://www.accreditation.apa.org/why-accreditation-matters). In addition, the APA's Standards for Accreditation for Health Service Psychology and Accreditation Operating Procedures states that "accreditation is intended to protect the interests of students, benefit the public, and improve the quality of teaching, learning, research, and practice in health service psychology" (2018, p. 3).

According to Meyer's (2003) minority stress theory, perceived stigma and internalized heterosexism are __________ factors that increase the risk for mental health problems for sexual-minority individuals. A. distal B. proximal C. autoplastic D. alloplastic

B. proximal Meyer's minority stress theory distinguishes between distal and proximal factors that increase the risk for mental health problems for sexual-minority individuals: Distal factors are external stressors and include prejudice, discrimination, harassment, and violence, while proximal factors are internal stressors and include concealment of sexual identity, perceived stigma, and internalized heterosexism.

Humanistic and existential therapies share all of the following except: A. emphasis on current circumstances rather than past formative influences. B. recognition of the inherent potential for both good and evil. C. resistance to the use of clinical labels. D. adoption of a phenomenological orientation that prioritizes subjective experience over objective reality.

B. recognition of the inherent potential for both good and evil. Humanistic therapies focus on the inherent positive aspects of human nature such as the potential for growth and greatness, and they regard evil and destructiveness as distinct from human nature and due to social and cultural factors. In contrast, existential therapies recognize the inherent potential for both good and evil. Unlike answer B, answers A, C, and D are characteristic of both humanistic and existential therapies. For example, with regard to clinical labels, both approaches view diagnoses as counterproductive because they tend to act as self-fulfilling prophecies.

A college student says her seizures begin with the feeling like she's on a roller coaster and a sudden sense of fear. She never remembers what happens next, but her roommate has told her that she's very "fidgety" during seizures and makes smacking noises with her lips. These symptoms suggest that the woman is experiencing which of the following? A. frontal lobe seizures B. temporal lobe seizures C. parietal lobe seizures D. occipital lobe seizures

B. temporal lobe seizures The woman's feeling that she's on a roller coaster accompanied by a sense of fear and automatisms (being fidgety and smacking her lips) are most characteristic of temporal lobe seizures.

As described in the Standards for Educational and Psychological Testing (AERA, APA, & NCME, 2014): A. test accommodations and modifications both alter the construct measured by the original test. B. test modifications (but not accommodations) alter the construct measured by the original test. C. test accommodations (but not modifications) alter the construct measured by the original test. D. neither test modifications nor accommodations alter the construct measured by the original test.

B. test modifications (but not accommodations) alter the construct measured by the original test.

The unique information gained when a new selection test or other procedure is added to the current selection procedure is maximized when: A. the base rate is moderate and there are few applicants and many job openings. B. the base rate is moderate and there are many applicants and a few job openings. C. the base rate is high and there are few applicants and many job openings. D. the base rate is high and there are many applicants and a few job openings.

B. the base rate is moderate and there are many applicants and a few job openings.

Your one-way ANOVA produces a statistically significant F-ratio. In this situation, you would consider conducting a post-hoc test if: A. the independent variable has only two levels. B. the independent variable has three or more levels. C. there is more than one dependent variable. D. the interaction between independent variables is also statistically significant.

B. the independent variable has three or more levels.

Intravenous administration of ________ is the primary treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy. A. vitamin C (ascorbic acid) B. vitamin B1 (thiamine) C. vitamin E D. vitamin D

B. vitamin B1 (thiamine) If you are unfamiliar with Wernicke's encephalopathy, knowing that Korsakoff syndrome is also known as Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome and is caused by a thiamine deficiency would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. Wernicke's encephalopathy is the acute disorder that is caused by a thiamine deficiency and involves confusion, abnormal eye movements, and ataxia. When it is not adequately treated, it leads to Korsakoff syndrome, which is a chronic disorder that is due to permanent damage to the brain and involves anterograde and retrograde amnesia and confabulation.

Fairchild and colleagues (2008) compared groups of male adolescents with childhood-onset or adolescence-onset conduct disorder to a control group of adolescents without a psychiatric disorder and found that youth in both conduct disorder groups: A. were hyperreactive in terms of cortisol and cardiovascular responses to stress when compared to controls. B. were hyporeactive in terms of cortisol and cardiovascular responses to stress when compared to controls. C. were hyperreactive in terms of cortisol response but hyporeactive in terms of cardiovascular response to stress when compared to controls. D. were hyporeactive in terms of cortisol response but hyperreactive in terms of cardiovascular response to stress when compared to controls.

B. were hyporeactive in terms of cortisol and cardiovascular responses to stress when compared to controls. Fairchild et al. found that male adolescents with conduct disorder showed hyporeactive (reduced) cortisol and cardiovascular responses to a stressful procedure when compared to adolescents without a psychiatric disorder even though adolescents in all three groups reported experiencing similar levels of negative feelings when exposed to the procedure.

Which of the following tests is useful for assessing children 3 to 10 years of age who have sensory, motor, or speech deficits and was originally developed for children with cerebral palsy? A. Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children B. Leiter International Performance Scale C. Columbia Mental Maturity Scale D. Cognitive Abilities Test

C. Columbia Mental Maturity Scale The Columbia Mental Maturity Scale, Third Edition (CMMS) does not require verbal responses or fine motor skills. It was originally developed for children with cerebral palsy, but it is also useful for children with sensory, speech, or other motor impairments or limited English proficiency. The Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children, Second Edition (answer A) is a measure of cognitive ability for children ages 3:0 through 18:11 and was designed to be a culture fair test by minimizing cultural content and verbal instructions and responses. The Leiter International Performance Scale, Third Edition (answer B) is a nonverbal measure of cognitive abilities for individuals 3 to 75+ years of age who have cognitive delays, speech or hearing impairments, autism spectrum disorder, or limited English proficiency. The Cognitive Abilities Test, Form 7 (answer D) assesses cognitive abilities in verbal, quantitative, and nonverbal domains and is appropriate for students in grades K through 12.

The best conclusion that can be drawn about the pharmacological treatment of major depressive disorder with atypical features is that: A. TCAs are more effective than SSRIs and MAOIs. B. SSRIs and TCAs are both more effective than MAOIs. C. MAOIs are effective but may not be significantly more effective than SSRIs. D. MAOIs are effective but may not be significantly more effective than TCAs.

C. MAOIs are effective but may not be significantly more effective than SSRIs.

Which of the following best describes the results of research investigating the effectiveness of olanzapine (an atypical antipsychotic) and fluoxetine (an SSRI antidepressant) as treatments for anorexia nervosa? A. Studies have established olanzapine as an evidence-based treatment for fostering initial weight gain and fluoxetine as an evidence-based treatment for weight maintenance. B. Studies have established fluoxetine as an evidence-based treatment for fostering initial weight gain and olanzapine as an evidence-based treatment for weight maintenance. C. Studies have produced mixed results about the effectiveness of olanzapine as a treatment for fostering initial weight gain and fluoxetine as a treatment for weight maintenance. D. Studies have produced mixed results about the effectiveness of fluoxetine as a treatment for fostering initial weight gain and olanzapine as a treatment for weight maintenance.

C. Studies have produced mixed results about the effectiveness of olanzapine as a treatment for fostering initial weight gain and fluoxetine as a treatment for weight maintenance.

Which of the following best describes ethical requirements about authorship credit for research articles substantially based on a student's doctoral dissertation? A. The student must always be listed as sole author. B. The student must always be listed as principal author. C. The student should be listed as principal author except in exceptional circumstances. D. Authorship credit should be mutually decided upon by the student and dissertation chairperson.

C. The student should be listed as principal author except in exceptional circumstances. Answer C is the best answer because it is closest to the language of Standard 8.12(c) of the APA's Ethics Code. It states that, "except under exceptional circumstances, a student is listed as principal author on any multiple-authored article that is substantially based on the student's doctoral dissertation." For example, there is an exception when multiple students write dissertations on a large research project and the results of the project are submitted to a journal as a single article or monograph. Answer D is not the best answer because it implies that listing the dissertation chair as the sole or primary author would be acceptable as long as the student and dissertation chair agreed to do so. However, that agreement would violate Standard 8.12(c).

As described by McClelland (1961), which of the following is least characteristic of people who have a high need for achievement? A. They find it difficult to delegate part of their tasks to others. B. They like regular, concrete feedback about their performance. C. They are motivated most by opportunities for gaining status and recognition. D. They tend to prefer tasks that have a 50/50 chance of success.

C. They are motivated most by opportunities for gaining status and recognition. ...being motivated by opportunities to gain status and recognition (answer C) is more characteristic of individuals with a high need for power than of those with a high need for achievement: Individuals with a high need for achievement are motivated most by opportunities for achieving a sense of personal accomplishment.

The etiology of neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease has been linked to: A. low levels of both acetylcholine and glutamate. B. high levels of both acetylcholine and glutamate. C. a low level of acetylcholine and a high level of glutamate. D. a high level of acetylcholine and a low level of glutamate.

C. a low level of acetylcholine and a high level of glutamate. Impairments in memory and other cognitive functions associated with Alzheimer's disease have been linked to neurodegeneration in certain areas of the brain resulting from acetylcholine deficiency and glutamate excitotoxicity: Acetylcholine deficiency is caused by degeneration of neurons that release acetylcholine and increased activity of an enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine. Glutamate excitotoxity is caused by excessive presynaptic release of glutamate and decreased glutamate reuptake in synaptic clefts.

Rowe and Kahn's (1987) model of successful aging includes all of the following except: A. a low probability of disease and disease-related disability. B. active engagement in life. C. acceptance of the normal effects of aging. D. high cognitive and physical functional capacity.

C. acceptance of the normal effects of aging. Rowe and Kahn's model identifies three factors that are essential for successful aging: reducing the risk for disease and disease-related disability, maintaining high cognitive and physical functioning, and staying actively engaged in life by being connected to others and involved in productive activities.

A __________ can be used to visually summarize the nominal data collected in a research study. A. line graph B. histogram C. bar graph D. histogram or bar graph

C. bar graph Bar graphs are used to depict the number of observations in each nominal category (e.g., gender, eye color). Interval and ratio data are depicted with histograms and with line graphs, which are also known as frequency polygons.

According to the 4D model of appreciative inquiry, the first stage in organizational change is which of the following? A. dream B. detect C. discover D. desire

C. discover Stages are: -discover(y) -dream -design -delivery

The most likely side effects of buspirone (BuSpar) include which of the following? A. lethargy, ataxia, tremor, visual disturbances, and impaired concentration B. weakness, unsteadiness, impaired memory, anticholinergic effects, and sexual dysfunction C. dizziness, drowsiness, headache, nausea, nervousness, blurred vision, and trouble sleeping D. hypertension, tremors, headaches, confusion, and cardiac arrhythmia

C. dizziness, drowsiness, headache, nausea, nervousness, blurred vision, and trouble sleeping The symptoms listed in this answer are side effects of buspirone, which is an anxiolytic drug used to treat anxiety disorders. Answer A lists side effects of anticonvulsant drugs, answer B lists side effects of benzodiazepines, and answer D describes rebound effects that may occur when the beta-blocker propranolol is abruptly discontinued.

In the context of expectancy theory, __________ refers to an employee's belief that adequate effort will lead to successful performance. A. valence B. instrumentality C. expectancy D. execution

C. expectancy Expectancy theory proposes that three factors affect job motivation: (a) Expectancy is a worker's belief that adequate effort will lead to successful performance. (b) Instrumentality is a worker's belief that successful performance will result in certain outcomes. (c) Valence is the value the worker places on those outcomes.

Community reinforcement and family training (CRAFT) distinguishes between the identified patient (IP), who is the person with the substance-use problem, and the concerned significant other (CSO), who is a family member or close friend of the IP. The primary goals of CRAFT include all of the following except: A. getting the IP into substance-use treatment. B. decreasing the IP's substance use. C. helping the CSO adopt "loving-detachment" from the IP. D. improving the CSO's quality of life.

C. helping the CSO adopt "loving-detachment" from the IP. CRAFT is a type of unilateral family therapy in which therapists work directly with a CSO rather than with the IP to achieve three primary goals: (a) helping the CSO influence the IP to seek substance-use treatment, (b) teaching the CSO procedures to help reduce the IP's substance use, and (c) helping the CSO make positive life changes that improve the CSO's quality of life. Encouraging CSOs to adopt a position of loving detachment (answer C) is characteristic of Al-Anon.

Subjects in a research study first read the following list of words: mad, fear, rage, hatred, emotion, mean, enrage, calm. Then, after the list is removed, subjects are asked to recall as many words as possible from the list. Many of the subjects say that "anger" was one of the words although it was not included in the list. This illustrates which of the following? A. keyword method B. testing effect C. illusory memory D. associative priming

C. illusory memory To identify the correct answer to this question, you need to know that the task described in the question is known as the Deese, Roediger and McDermott (DRM) procedure, that it is a false memory task, and that illusory memory is a synonym for false memory. The DRM procedure requires subjects to read a list of semantically related words and then to recall as many words from the list as they can. Research using this procedure has found that it often creates a false memory for words.

There is evidence that spatial working memory depends on interactions between the: A. basal ganglia and cerebellum. B. basal ganglia and mamillary bodies. C. prefrontal cortex and hippocampus. D. prefrontal cortex and pons.

C. prefrontal cortex and hippocampus. Spatial working memory allows us to maintain and manipulate spatial information in working memory for a relatively brief period of time. Research suggests that it depends on interactions between the right dorsolateral prefrontal cortex and hippocampus. Note that there is also evidence that the right posterior parietal lobe plays a role in this type of memory.

The Multidimensional Model of Racial Identity (MMRI) developed by Sellers and colleagues (1998) distinguishes between four dimensions of African American identity. Which of these dimensions is most affected by the nature of the individual's current situation? A. racial regard B. racial disparity C. racial salience D. racial centrality

C. racial salience Sellers and colleagues distinguish between four dimensions of racial identity: racial salience, racial centrality, racial regard, and racial ideology. Racial salience refers to the extent to which a person's race is relevant to the person's self-concept at a particular point in time or in a particular situation. In other words, the degree of racial salience for a person depends on the circumstances. For example, the salience of an African American person's race is likely to be high when that person is the only African American in a social situation. In contrast, Sellers et al. describe the other three dimensions as being stable across different situations. Racial disparity (answer B) is not one of the dimensions identified by Sellers et al.

Research has linked ADHD to which of the following? A. smaller-than-normal caudate nucleus and putamen and larger-than-normal amygdala B. smaller-than-normal amygdala and larger-than-normal caudate nucleus and putamen C. smaller-than-normal caudate nucleus, putamen, and amygdala D. larger-than-normal caudate nucleus, putamen, and amygdala

C. smaller-than-normal caudate nucleus, putamen, and amygdala Individuals with ADHD tend to have a smaller volume in five brain structures: caudate nucleus, putamen, nucleus accumbens, amygdala, and hippocampus

When using Bayes' theorem: A. the likelihood function is derived from a synthesis of the prior and posterior. B. the prior is derived from a synthesis of the posterior and likelihood function. C. the posterior is derived from a synthesis of the prior and likelihood function. D. the prevailing is derived from a synthesis of the prior, likelihood function, and posterior.

C. the posterior is derived from a synthesis of the prior and likelihood function. Bayes' theorem combines the prior probability distribution for the target parameter and the probability distribution for the parameter derived from current data (the likelihood function) to obtain a posterior (updated) probability distribution for the parameter.

Studies comparing transdiagnostic psychological treatments with diagnosis-specific psychological treatments for adult anxiety and depression have generally found that transdiagnostic treatments: A. are less effective than diagnosis-specific treatments for anxiety and depression. B. are less effective than diagnosis-specific treatments for anxiety but as effective or more effective for depression. C. are as effective or more effective than diagnosis-specific treatments for anxiety but less effective for depression. D. are as effective or more effective than diagnosis-specific treatments for anxiety and depression.

D. are as effective or more effective than diagnosis-specific treatments for anxiety and depression.

People tend to attribute the desirable behaviors of members of their in-group to dispositional factors but the desirable behaviors of out-group members to situational factors. Conversely, people typically attribute the undesirable behaviors of members of their in-group to situational factors and the undesirable behaviors of out-group members to dispositional factors. This describes which of the following? A. group attribution error B. actor-observer effect C. ultimate attribution bias D. confirmation bias

C. ultimate attribution bias The information in the question accurately describes the predictions of the ultimate attribution bias which, of the biases listed in the answers, is the only one that applies to attributions that members of an in-group make about the behaviors of members of their in-group and members of an out-group. The group attribution error (answer A) occurs when people believe that their group's decision is consistent with the decision of each individual group member, even in the presence of information suggesting that the group decision was not unanimous. The actor-observer effect (answer B) is the tendency to attribute our own behaviors to situational factors and the behaviors of others to dispositional factors. While this is consistent with the prediction made by the ultimate attribution bias for the undesirable behaviors of in-group and out-group members, it is not consistent with its prediction for desirable behaviors. The confirmation bias (answer D) is not an attribution bias but is the tendency to seek and pay attention to information that confirms our attitudes and beliefs and ignore information that refutes them.

Psychogenic nonepileptic seizures (PNES) are similar to actual epileptic seizures in terms of symptoms but are due to psychological distress. Which of the following is considered most useful for distinguishing PNES from actual seizures? A. MRI B. NEBA C. video EEG D. ambulatory EEG

C. video EEG

As conceptualized by Shapiro and her colleagues (e.g., Shapiro & Maxfield, 2002), the rapid eye movement component of eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) exerts its beneficial effects on the symptoms of PTSD by: A. suppressing the anxiety response to traumatic memories by substituting a relaxation response. B. desensitizing the conditioned fear response through repeated exposure in imagination to traumatic memories. C. synchronizing the functioning of the right and left hemispheres of the brain. D. accelerating information processing and adaptive resolution of traumatic memories.

D. accelerating information processing and adaptive resolution of traumatic memories. EMDR is based on Shapiro's adaptive information processing model, which proposes (a) that PTSD results when traumatic experiences are inadequately processed and (b) that rapid eye movements facilitate information processing, resulting in an adaptive resolution of traumatic memories. Note that there is some evidence that rapid eye movements exert beneficial effects by providing repeated exposure in imagination to traumatic memories (answer B), but this is not Shapiro's explanation for the effects of rapid eye movements, which is what this question is asking about.

Overexpression of the ________ gene on chromosome 21 has been identified as the link between standard trisomy 21 and early-onset Alzheimer's disease. A. APOE4 B. APOE2 C. MECP2 D. APP

D. APP Standard trisomy 21 is the most common type of Down syndrome and is caused by an extra chromosome 21, which means that people with this disorder have an extra gene for the amyloid precursor protein (APP) gene. Because of the extra APP gene, amyloid begins to accumulate in the brains of people with this disorder in their late teens to early 20s and increases their risk for early-onset Alzheimer's disease. The APOE4 gene (answer A) is located on chromosome 19 and is the strongest genetic risk factor for late-onset Alzheimer's disease. The APOE2 gene (answer B) is also located on chromosome 19 but has been linked to a decreased risk for late-onset Alzheimer's disease. Mutations on the MECP2 gene on the X chromosome (answer C) have been identified as a cause of Rett syndrome. Knowing that APP is the acronym for amyloid protein precursor and that amyloid plaques are a key characteristic of neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.

Which of the following theories proposes that physiological arousal and the experience of emotion occur simultaneously and independently in response to a stimulus? A. Hering's opponent process theory B. Schachter and Singer's two-factor theory C. James-Lange theory D. Cannon-Bard theory

D. Cannon-Bard theory Cannon-Bard theory describes all emotions as involving similar physiological arousal and proposes that the physiological reaction and subjective emotional reaction to a stimulus occur simultaneously and independently. Hering's opponent process theory (answer A) is a theory of color vision. Schachter and Singer's two-factor theory (answer B) proposes that physiological arousal occurs first and then the person looks for external cues that provide a reason for that arousal. According to the James-Lange theory (answer C), emotions are the result of physiological arousal, with different types of arousal producing different emotions.

Studies comparing the effectiveness of prolonged-exposure therapy delivered face-to-face (FtF) or via computer videoconferencing (CVT) for treating PTSD have most often found that: A. FtF therapy is significantly less effective than CVT for reducing PTSD symptoms and for maintaining treatment fidelity. B. FtF therapy is similarly effective as CVT for reducing PTSD symptoms but significantly less effective for maintaining treatment fidelity. C. FtF therapy is somewhat less effective than CVT for reducing PTSD symptoms but more effective for maintaining treatment fidelity. D. FtF therapy is similarly effective as CVT for reducing PTSD symptoms and for maintaining treatment fidelity.

D. FtF therapy is similarly effective as CVT for reducing PTSD symptoms and for maintaining treatment fidelity.

The reliable change index (RCI) is useful for determining if a change in a client's scores on an outcome measure administered before and after the client receives treatment is: A. valid. B. statistically significant. C. attributable to sampling error. D. attributable to measurement error.

D. attributable to measurement error. As its name suggests, the reliable change index is used to determine if a difference in pre- and post-treatment scores on an outcome measure is reliable - i.e., if it is due to real improvement or deterioration in a person's clinical condition or to measurement error. The RCI is also used in conjunction with the outcome measure's cutoff score to determine if a change in scores is clinically significant.

Task analysis is the essential first step when using which of the following interventions to establish a new behavior? A. differential reinforcement B. response cost C. shaping D. chaining

D. chaining Chaining is used to establish a complex behavior that consists of separate responses (links in the behavior chain). It begins with a task analysis to identify the individual responses that make up the behavior chain and involves teaching the individual how to perform each response in the behavior chain sequentially, starting with the first or the last response.

Long-term white blood cell monitoring is required when a person is taking which of the following drugs? A. prednisone B. lithium C. paroxetine or fluoxetine D. clozapine or carbamazepine

D. clozapine or carbamazepine A number of psychoactive drugs can cause agranulocytosis, which is a potentially fatal blood disorder that involves a low level of white blood cells and requires white blood cell monitoring. Of these drugs, clozapine (a second-generation antipsychotic) and carbamazepine (an anticonvulsant drug used to treat bipolar disorder) are the most common causes of this disorder.

As described by Herbert Simon (1957) "satisficing" is caused by several factors that include all of the following except: A. cognitive limitations. B. time constraints. C. imperfect or inadequate information. D. communication failures.

D. communication failures.

Systematic desensitization is to ________ as exposure therapy is to ________. A. stimulus generalization; response generalization B. response generalization; stimulus generalization C. extinction; counterconditioning D. counterconditioning; extinction

D. counterconditioning; extinction Systematic desensitization uses counterconditioning to eliminate an undesirable anxiety or fear response by replacing the undesirable response with an incompatible and more desirable relaxation response. Exposure therapy (also known as exposure with response prevention) is based on the assumption that a neutral stimulus that does not ordinarily elicit anxiety becomes a conditioned stimulus and elicits anxiety because, at some time in the past, it was paired with an unconditioned stimulus that naturally elicited anxiety. It uses classical extinction to eliminate the conditioned anxiety response by repeatedly presenting the conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus.

One concern about prescribing stimulant medications for children with ADHD is that doing so may increase their risk for developing a substance use disorder (SUD) later in life. Based on the results of their meta-analysis of the research, Humphreys, Eng, and Lee (2013) concluded that use of a stimulant medication by children with ADHD: A. decreases the risk for developing an SUD in adulthood. B. increases the risk for developing an SUD in adulthood. C. increases the risk for developing an SUD in adulthood only when stimulant treatment begins at a young age and at a high dose. D. does not decrease or increase the risk of developing an SUD in adulthood.

D. does not decrease or increase the risk of developing an SUD in adulthood.

The peak age of onset for schizophrenia is: A. early- to mid-20s for males and females. B. late-20s for males and females. C. late-20s for males and early- to mid-20s for females. D. early- to mid-20s for males and late-20s for females.

D. early- to mid-20s for males and late-20s for females.

The 7th edition of the Publication Manual of the American Psychological Association states that authors should retain raw data associated with their articles published in APA journals: A. for at least 7 years after publication of the articles. B. for at least 12 years after publication of the articles. C. in accordance with APA's Record Keeping Guidelines. D. in accordance with institutional or funder requirements.

D. in accordance with institutional or funder requirements. This is the best answer because the 7th edition of APA's Publication Manual (APA, 2020) does not specify a specific number of years for retaining raw data. Instead, it states that "authors are expected to retain the data associated with a published article in accordance with institutional requirements; funder requirements; participant agreements; and, when publishing in an APA journal, the APA Ethics Code" (p. 13). Note, however, that the 6th edition of the Publication Manual and submission guidelines for APA journals state that authors of articles published in an APA journal must maintain raw data for at least five years after publication of the articles.

Because of their location and size, the frontal lobes of the cerebral cortex are the lobes that are most often affected by traumatic brain injury. Symptoms of frontal lobe injury are most likely to include which of the following? A. impaired long-term memory, difficulty understanding spoken words, and increased aggressive behavior B. inability to identify colors, inability to recognize familiar words, and difficulty locating objects in the environment C. problems with calculations and writing, difficulty distinguishing between left and right, and inability to identify objects by touch D. inability to interact spontaneously with others, fluctuations in mood, and difficulty planning a complex sequence of movements

D. inability to interact spontaneously with others, fluctuations in mood, and difficulty planning a complex sequence of movements The symptoms of frontal lobe injury depend on the exact location and extent of the injury. However, of the symptoms listed in the answers, frontal lobe injury is most likely to cause an inability to interact spontaneously with others, fluctuations in mood, and difficulty planning a complex sequence of movements. The symptoms listed in answer A are most likely to result from injury to the temporal lobes, those listed in answer B are likely to be caused by injury to the occipital lobes, and those listed in answer C are likely to be the result of injury to the parietal lobes.

Based on the results of their meta-analysis of research on the efficacy and safety of St. John's wort extract for people with mild to moderate depression, Cui and Zheng (2016) concluded that St. John's wort: A. is significantly less effective than SSRIs in terms of treatment response and has a higher rate of adverse events. B. is significantly less effective than SSRIs in terms of treatment response but has a lower rate of adverse events. C. is not significantly different from SSRIs in terms of treatment response but has a higher rate of adverse events. D. is not significantly different from SSRIs in terms of treatment response and has a lower rate of adverse events.

D. is not significantly different from SSRIs in terms of treatment response and has a lower rate of adverse events. Cui and Sheng's meta-analysis found that, for individuals with mild to moderate depression, St. John's wort extract was comparable to SSRIs in terms of clinical response and remission and had a lower rate of adverse events.

Autism spectrum disorder (ASD) has been linked to which of the following? A. low brain and blood levels of serotonin B. high brain and blood levels of serotonin C. high brain level and low blood level of serotonin D. low brain level and high blood level of serotonin

D. low brain level and high blood level of serotonin Studies have found that individuals with ASD typically have lower-than-normal levels of serotonin in several areas of the brain, while some also have higher-than-normal blood levels of serotonin. One explanation for this difference is that blood serotonin enters the fetal brain during the early stages of development before the blood-brain barrier is fully mature, which causes reduced development of or damage to serotonergic neurons in the brain (Whitaker-Azmitia, 2005).

Of the Big Five personality traits, level of __________ has been most consistently identified as an accurate predictor of level of marital satisfaction and stability. A. agreeableness B. extraversion C. conscientiousness D. neuroticism

D. neuroticism With regard to marriage, high levels of neuroticism have been most consistently linked to a number of negative outcomes including marital dissatisfaction and an increased risk for separation and divorce.

THC (tetrahydrocannabinol) produces its reinforcing effects by increasing dopamine concentrations in the: A. suprachiasmatic nucleus. B. dorsal striatum. C. hypothalamus. D. nucleus accumbens.

D. nucleus accumbens. THC is the main psychoactive chemical in marijuana. Like cocaine, opiates, and other drugs of abuse, it produces reinforcing effects by increasing dopamine concentrations in the nucleus accumbens, which is a component of the brain's mesolimbic dopaminergic reward pathway. Note, however, that there's some evidence that chronic heavy use of marijuana may decrease (rather than increase) the release of dopamine in this pathway.

A practitioner of Minuchin's structural family therapy is most likely to say that detouring is occurring when: A. family members avoid talking about important issues by changing the subject or pretending to misunderstand. B. a parent and child form a cross-generational coalition and repeatedly "gang up" against the other parent. C. both parents demand that a child side with them against the other parent. D. parents avoid their own conflicts by scapegoating or overprotecting a child.

D. parents avoid their own conflicts by scapegoating or overprotecting a child. Structural family therapists describe detouring as a type of rigid family triad and distinguish between two types: A detouring-attack coalition occurs when parents avoid the conflict between them by blaming (scapegoating) a child for their problems, and a detouring-support coalition occurs when parents avoid their own conflict by overprotecting a child. Answer A describes distracting, which is not one of the types of rigid triads identified by Minuchin but is one of the dysfunctional communication styles described by Satir. Answers B and C describe two other rigid triads: Answer B describes a stable coalition and answer C describes an unstable coalition.

Cohen-Charash and Spector's (2001) meta-analysis of research on the effects of organizational justice found that job satisfaction is: A. positively related to perceived procedural justice but unrelated to perceived distributive or interactional justice. B. positively related to perceived distributive justice but unrelated to perceived procedural or interactional justice. C. positively related to perceived interactional justice but unrelated to perceived procedural or distributive justice. D. positively and similarly related to perceived procedural, distributive, and interactional justice.

D. positively and similarly related to perceived procedural, distributive, and interactional justice.

Studies confirming the predictions of the overjustification effect also provide evidence for which of the following? A. cognitive dissonance theory B. theory of planned behavior C. balance theory D. self-perception theory

D. self-perception theory According to Bem's (1972) self-perception theory, people learn about themselves in the same way they learn about other people - i.e., by observing their behaviors and the circumstances in which those behaviors occur. Evidence for self-perception theory is provided by studies confirming the overjustification effect. It predicts that, when people are externally reinforced for engaging in an intrinsically rewarding behavior, they'll think they are performing the behavior because of the external rewards, which will cause their intrinsic motivation to decline. In other words, as predicted by self-perception theory, they will look at the external circumstances to understand their own behaviors.

When a forensic psychologist is hired to conduct a psychological evaluation of a defendant in a criminal case, the "client" is: A. the defendant. B. the defendant's legal representative. C. the court. D. the person/entity that retained the psychologist.

D. the person/entity that retained the psychologist. The definition of "client" in forensic settings is provided in the APA's Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology (2013). It states that "client refers to the attorney, law firm, court, agency, entity, party, or other person who has retained, and who has a contractual relationship with, the forensic practitioner to provide services" (p. 19). For example, when the evaluation is court ordered, the client is the court even when the order was requested by the defense attorney because, in this situation, the court retained the psychologist to conduct the evaluation

Which of the following is associated with stage 6 of Kohlberg's model of moral development? A. transcendental morality B. social contract orientation C. interpersonal concordance D. universal ethical principles

D. universal ethical principles Kohlberg's model of moral development consists of three levels, with each level including two stages. The third level is the post-conventional level and consists of stages 5 and 6: Stage 5 is the social contract and individual rights stage (answer B), and stage 6 is the universal ethical principles stage (answer D). Transcendental morality (answer A) was a seventh stage that Kohlberg proposed later in his life. However, due to a lack of evidence for its existence, he considered it to be speculative. Interpersonal concordance (answer C) is another name for stage 3 of Kohlberg's model, which is better known as the "good-boy/good girl" stage.

You have been seeing Betsy in therapy via videoconferencing for 5 months when she tells you she is moving to another state but would like to continue therapy with you. You are not licensed in the state Betsy is moving to. You tell Betsy: A. you cannot continue seeing her in therapy via videoconferencing after she moves to another state because you're not licensed in that state. B. you can continue seeing her in therapy via videoconferencing after she moves to another state only until she begins seeing a therapist who is licensed in that state. C. you can continue seeing her in therapy via videoconferencing after she moves to another state only if your state and the state she is moving to are PSYPACT states. D. you can continue seeing her in therapy via videoconferencing after she moves to another state only if your state and the state she is moving to are PSYPACT states or that state's law permits you to do so.

D. you can continue seeing her in therapy via videoconferencing after she moves to another state only if your state and the state she is moving to are PSYPACT states or that state's law permits you to do so.

Can you include info about a job applicant's abortion in a report about their qualifications for a job?

No, only include info that is germane to the purpose of the assessment