Exam 1 Practice Quiz
The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an NTSB accident report within how many days? a. 10 b. 7 c. 5
a. 10
A certificated private pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider unless there is entered in the pilot's logbook a minimum of a. 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider b. 100 hours of pilot flight time in any aircraft the pilot is using to tow a glider c. 200 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider
a. 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider
In recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is a. 1929 b. 1829 c. 1859
a. 1929
A 100-hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. The 100-hour inspection was actually done at 3309.5 hours. When is the next 100-hour inspection due? a. 3402.5 hours b. 3312.5 hours c. 3395.5 hours
a. 3402.5 hours
If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be a. A decrease of RPM. b. Increase of RPM. c. Engine roughness.
a. A decrease of RPM.
Changes in the center of pressure of a wing affect the aircraft's a. Aerodynamic balance and controllability b. Lift/drag ratio c. Lifting capacity
a. Aerodynamic balance and controllability
To determine the expiration date of the last annual aircraft inspection, a person should refer to the a. Aircraft maintenance records b. Registration Certificate c. Airworthiness Certificate
a. Aircraft maintenance records
Which instrument will become inoperative if the pitot tube becomes clogged? a. Airspeed indicator b.Vertical speed indicator c. Altimeter
a. Airspeed indicator
When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to this regulation is a. An emergency b. When the clearance states, "at pilot's discretion" c. If the clearance contains a restriction
a. An emergency
What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction? a. Annual condition and 100-hour inspections b. Annual condition and 50-hour inspections c. Biannual condition and 100-hour inspections
a. Annual condition and 100-hour inspections
A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller is to a. Avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM. b. Always use a rich mixture with high RPM settings. c. Avoid high RPM settings with high manifold pressure.
a. Avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM
The purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to a. Decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density. b. Decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for increased air density. c. Increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure and density in the air.
a. Decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density.
You are conducting your preflight of an aircraft and notice that the last inspection of the emergency locator transmitter was 11 calendar months ago. You may a. Depart because the ELT is within the inspection requirements. b. Depart if you get a special flight permit. c. Not depart until a new inspection is conducted.
a. Depart because the ELT is within the inspection requirements.
To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the a. Fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps. b. Fuel strainer drain. c. Lowest point in the fuel system.
a. Fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps.
Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft? a. If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface. b. If prior permission is received from the Federal Aviation Administration c. Only in an emergency
a. If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface.
The elevator controls movement around which axis? a. Lateral b. Vertical c. Longitudinal
a. Lateral
What does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent? a. Never exceed speed b. Turbulent or rough-air speed c. Maneuvering speed
a. Never exceed speed
During flight, when are the indications of a magnetic compass accurate? a. Only in straight-and-level unaccelerated flight. b. During turns if the bank does not exceed 18 degrees. c. As long as the airspeed is constant.
a. Only in straight-and-level unaccelerated flight.
What steps must be taken when flying in glass flight decks to ensure safe flight? a. Regularly scan both inside and outside, use all appropriate checklists, and cross-check with other forms of information b. Use the moving map for primary means of navigation, use the MFD to check engine systems and weather, back up with supplementary forms of information c. Regularly scan each item on the PFD, confirm on the MFD
a. Regularly scan both inside and outside, use all appropriate checklists, and cross-check with other forms of information
What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head on? a. The aircraft on the left shall give way. b. The faster aircraft shall give way. c. Each aircraft shall give way to the right.
a. The aircraft on the left shall give way.
An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane's position, which aircraft has the right-of-way? a. The airship b. Each pilot should alter course to the right c. The airplane
a. The airship
For internal cooling, air cooled engines are especially dependent on a. The circulation of lubricating oil b. Air flowing over the exhaust manifold c. A properly functioning thermostat
a. The circulation of lubricating oil
What causes an airplane (except a T-tail) to pitch nosedown when power is reduced and controls are not adjusted? a. The downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced. b. When thrust is reduced to less than weight, lift is also reduced and the wings can no longer support the weight. c. The CG shifts forward when thrust and drag are reduced.
a. The downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced.
What change occurs in the fuel/air mixture when carburetor heat is applied? a. The fuel/air mixture becomes richer. b. The fuel/air mixture becomes leaner. c. A decrease in RPM results from the lean mixture.
a. The fuel/air mixture becomes richer.
Which color identifies the normal flap operating range? a. The white arc b. The green arc c. The yellow arc
a. The white arc
As pilot-in-command of an aircraft, you may deviate from an ATC clearance when. a. There is an in-flight emergency requiring immediate action b. Operating under VFR in Class B airspace c. Flying in the outer ring of Class C airspace
a. There is an in-flight emergency requiring immediate action
When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator? a. Upon request b. Within 7 days c. Within 10 days
a. Upon request
What is the maximum flaps extended speed? a. 65 knots b. 100 knots c. 165 knots
b. 100 knots
A parachute composed of nylon, rayon, or other synthetic fibers must have been packed by a certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding a. 60 days b. 180 days c. 90 days
b. 180 days
No person may use an ATC transponder unless it has been tested and inspected within at least the preceding a. 6 calendar months b. 24 calendar months c. 12 calendar months
b. 24 calendar months Transponders (FAR 91.413): The transponder must be inspected every 24 calendar months. FAR 43 Appendix F, ATC Transponder Tests and Inspections, lists the items that must be checked. To use a transponder, it must be inspected every 24 calendar months
Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL? a. 288 knots b. 250 knots c. 200 knots
b. 250 knots
What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine? a. Test each brake and the parking brake. b. Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges. c. Place the magneto or ignition switch momentarily in the OFF position to check for proper grounding.
b. Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges.
With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft? a. Transport, restricted, provisional b. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon c. Normal, utility, acrobatic, limited
b. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon
Which instrument(s) will become inoperative if the static vents become clogged? a. Altimeter only b. Airspeed indicator, altimeter, and vertical speed indicator c. Airspeed indicator only
b. Airspeed indicator, altimeter, and vertical speed indicator
If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96, what is the approximate change in indication? a. Altimeter will indicate 150 feet higher b. Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower c. Altimeter will indicate 0.15" Hg higher
b. Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere? a. An altitude of 500 feet above the surface and no closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure b. An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface c. An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet
b. An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface
During a spin to the left, which wing(s) is/are stalled? a. Neither wing is stalled. b. Both wings are stalled. c. Only the left wing is stalled.
b. Both wings are stalled.
How should a pilot determine the direction of bank from an attitude indicator such as the one illustrated? a. By the direction of deflection of the horizon bar (B) b. By the relationship of the miniature airplane (C) to the deflected horizon bar (B) c. By the direction of deflection of the banking scale (A)
b. By the relationship of the miniature airplane (C) to the deflected horizon bar (B)
The operating principle of float-type carburetors is based on the a. Increase in air velocity in the throat of a venturi causing an increase in air pressure b. Difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet c. Automatic metering of air at the venturi as the aircraft gains altitude
b. Difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet
You are planning a trip and one of your passengers states that he prefers not to use his shoulder harness because it is uncomfortable. You should a. Allow him to use his seat belt for the entire trip without the shoulder harness. b. Explain that it is a mandatory requirement and that he must use the shoulder harness during takeoff and landing. c. Allow him to use his seat belt for takeoff and landing and the shoulder harness while en route.
b. Explain that it is a mandatory requirement and that he must use the shoulder harness during takeoff and landing.
What action, if any, is appropriate if the pilot deviates from an ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority? a. Take no special action since you are pilot in command b. File a detailed report within 48 hours to the manager of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested c. File a report to the FAA administrator, as soon as possible
b. File a detailed report within 48 hours to the manager of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested
One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for a. Uniform heat distribution b. Improved engine performance c. Balanced cylinder head pressure
b. Improved engine performance
An airplane loaded with the Center of Gravity (CG) rear of the aft CG limit could a. Make it more difficult to flare for landing b. Increase the likelihood of inadvertent overstress c. Make it easier to recover from stalls and spins
b. Increase the likelihood of inadvertent overstress
What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators? a. Never-exceed speed b. Maneuvering speed c. Maximum structural cruising speed
b. Maneuvering speed
If the ignition switch ground wire becomes disconnected, the magneto a. Will not operate because the battery is disconnected from the circuit b. May continue to fire c. Will not operate
b. May continue to fire
To receive accurate indications during flight from a heading indicator, the instrument must be a. Calibrated on a compass rose at regular intervals. a. Set prior to flight on a known heading b. Periodically realigned with the magnetic compass as the gyro precesses
b. Periodically realigned with the magnetic compass as the gyro precesses
Before a person holding a private pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, that person must have a. Passed a flight test in that airplane from an FAA inspector b. Received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person's logbook c. An endorsement in that person's logbook that he or she is competent to act as pilot in command
b. Received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person's logbook
What is a benefit of flying with a glass flight deck? a. There is no longer a need to carry paper charts in flight. b. Situational awareness is increased. c. Terrain avoidance is guaranteed.
b. Situational awareness is increased.
When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used during a. That flight time in excess of 10 minutes at those altitudes b. That flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes c. The entire flight time at those altitudes
b. That flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes
With respect to passengers, what obligation, if any, does a pilot in command have concerning the use of safety belts? a. The pilot in command has no obligation in regard to passenger's use of safety belts b. The pilot in command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing. c. The pilot in command must instruct the passengers to keep their safety belts fastened for the entire flight
b. The pilot in command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing.
How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller? a. The throttle controls engine RPM as registered on the tachometer and the mixture control regulates the power output. b. The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine RPM. c. The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates a constant blade angle.
b. The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine RPM.
What is true altitude? a. The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface b. The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level c. The height above the standard datum plane
b. The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level
If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with a. Higher than normal oil pressure. b. Too much power and with the mixture set too lean. c. The mixture set too rich.
b. Too much power and with the mixture set too lean.
Altimeter setting is the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates a. Calibrated altitude at field elevation b. True altitude at field elevation c. Absolute altitude at field elevation
b. True altitude at field elevation
When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced? a. Every 24 months. b. When 50% of their useful life expires. c. At the time of each 100-hour or annual inspection.
b. When 50% of their useful life expires.
Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude? a. If the altimeter has no mechanical error b. When at sea level under standard conditions c. When at 18,000 feet MSL with altimeter set at 29.92
b. When at sea level under standard conditions
No person may attempt to act as crewmember of a civil aircraft with a. 0.008 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood b. 0.004 percent by weight or more blood alcohol in the blood c. 0.04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood
c. 0.04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood
When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is a.250 knots b. 230 knots c. 200 knots
c. 200 knots
The maximum speed at which the airplane can be operated in smooth air is a. 100 knots b. 165 knots c. 208 knots
c. 208 knots
If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only. a. 90 days after the date of the move b. 60 days after the date of the move c. 30 days after the date of the move
c. 30 days after the date of the move
According to 14 CFR Part 91, what is the appropriate VFR cruising altitude, when above 3,000 ft. AGL, for a flight on a magnetic course of 090°? a. 4,500 feet b. 5,000 feet c. 5,500 feet
c. 5,500 feet
What is the full flap operating range for the airplane? a. 55 to 165 knots b. 55 to 208 knots c. 55 to 100 knots
c. 55 to 100 knots
In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the west if a. A left turn is entered from a north heading. b. An aircraft is accelerated while on a north heading. c. A right turn is entered from a north heading.
c. A right turn is entered from a north heading.
When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft a. That is least maneuverable b. That has the other to its right c. At the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rules to cut in front of or to overtake another
c. At the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rules to cut in front of or to overtake another
The acute angle A is the angle of a. Incidence b. Dihedral c. Attack
c. Attack
The reason a 4-cylinder reciprocating engine continues to run after the ignition switch is positioned to OFF may be a a. Fouled spark plug b. Wire between the magneto and spark plug in contact with the engine casing c. Broken magneto ground wire
c. Broken magneto ground wire
Excessively high engine temperatures will a. Cause damage to heat-conducting hoses and warping of the cylinder cooling fins b. Not appreciably affect an aircraft engine c. Cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage
c. Cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage
Excessively high engine temperatures, either in the air or on the ground, will a. Increase fuel consumption and may increase power due to the increased heat b. Result in damage to heat-conducting hoses and warping of cylinder cooling fans c. Cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage
c. Cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage
During the run-up at a high-elevation airport, a pilot notes a slight engine roughness that is not affected by the magneto check but grows worse during the carburetor heat check. Under these circumstances, what would be the most logical initial action? a. Taxi back to the flight line for a maintenance check b. Reduce manifold pressure to control detonation c. Check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture
c. Check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture
An operable 4096-code transponder and Mode C encoding altimeter are required in a. Class E airspace below 10,000 feet MSL b. Class D airspace c. Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport
c. Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport
What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane? a. Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed. b. Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions. c. Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
c. Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft? a. Flight under instrument flight rules b. Flight within Class D airspace c. Flight over a densely populated area
c. Flight over a densely populated area
The possibility of carburetor icing exists even when the ambient air temperature is as a. Low as 0 degrees F and the relative humidity is high. b. High as 95 degrees F and there is visible moisture. c. High as 70 degrees F and the relative humidity is high.
c. High as 70 degrees F and the relative humidity is high.
How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter? a. Lower temperatures lower the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude. b. Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude. c. Higher temperatures expand the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is higher than true altitude.
c. Higher temperatures expand the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is higher than true altitude.
To keep a battery charged, the alternator voltage output should be a. Less than the battery voltage b. Equal to the battery voltage c. Higher than the battery voltage
c. Higher than the battery voltage
If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be a. Engine roughness b. A drop in oil temperature and cylinder head temperature c. Loss of RPM
c. Loss of RPM
With regard to carburetor ice, float-type carburetor systems in comparison to fuel injection systems are generally considered to be a. Less susceptible to icing b. Equally susceptible to icing c. More susceptible to icing
c. More susceptible to icing
Is it legal to fly on the dealer's registration after a buyer purchased an airplane from that dealer? a. Yes, the airplane can be flown by the buyer for 30 days. b. Yes, the airplane can be flown by the buyer for 120 days. c. No, the airplane cannot be flown by the buyer and has to be registered.
c. No, the airplane cannot be flown by the buyer and has to be registered.
If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on October 30, this year, when is the next flight review required? a. October 30, 2 years later b. October 31, next year c. October 31, 2 years later
c. October 31, 2 years later
An aircraft which is equipped with an Electronic Flight Display (EFD) can a. Improve flight awareness by allowing the pilot to simply watch for alerts b. Compensate for an airman's lack of skill or knowledge c. Offer new capabilities and simplify the basic flying task
c. Offer new capabilities and simplify the basic flying task
What is an advantage of a constant-speed propeller? a. Provides a smoother operation with stable RPM and eliminates vibrations b. Permits the pilot to select and maintain a desired cruising speed c. Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance
c. Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance
The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as a. Detonation b. Combustion c. Pre-ignition
c. Pre-ignition
Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good operating procedure because this will a. Force any existing water to the top of the tank away from the fuel lines to the engine. b. Prevent expansion of the fuel by eliminating airspace in the tanks. c. Prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks.
c. Prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks.
Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crewmembers are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened? a. Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing and while en route b. Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing c. Safety belts during takeoff and landing and white en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing
c. Safety belts during takeoff and landing and white en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing
A positive indication on an ammeter a. Means more current is being drawn from the battery than is being replaced. b. Indicates the aircraft's battery will soon lose its charge. c. Shows the rate of charge on the battery.
c. Shows the rate of charge on the battery.
Flight crewmembers are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during a. Flight in turbulent air b. All flight conditions c. Takeoffs and landings
c. Takeoffs and landings
With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during a. All flight conditions b. Flight in turbulent air c. Taxi, takeoffs, and landings
c. Taxi, takeoffs, and landings
Detonation may occur at high-power settings when a. An excessively rich fuel mixture causes an explosive gain in power. b. The fuel mixture is ignited too early by hot carbon deposits in the cylinder. c. The fuel mixture ignites instantaneously instead of burning progressively and evenly.
c. The fuel mixture ignites instantaneously instead of burning progressively and evenly.
What type fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended octane is not available? a. The next lower octane aviation gas b. Unleaded automotive gas of the same octane rating c. The next higher octane aviation gas
c. The next higher octane aviation gas
Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when a. Hot spots in the combustion chamber ignite the fuel/air mixture in advance of normal ignition. b. The spark plugs are fouled or shorted out or the wiring is defective. c. The unburned charge in the cylinder explodes instead of burning normally.
c. The unburned charge in the cylinder explodes instead of burning normally.
Which would most likely cause the cylinder head temperature and engine oil temperature gauges to exceed their normal operating ranges? a. Using fuel that has a higher-than-specified fuel rating b. Operating with higher-than-normal oil pressure c. Using fuel that has a lower-than-specified fuel rating
c. Using fuel that has a lower-than-specified fuel rating
Which v-speed represents maneuvering speed? a. V_NE b. V_LO c. V_A
c. V_A VA is the aircraft's design maneuvering speed. Flying at or below VA, means that the airplane will stall before the structure is damaged by excessive loads. If you encounter a gust that causes a sudden, significant increase in load factor while flying above VA, the aircraft could experience structural failure.
With certain exceptions, when must each component of an aircraft wear an approved parachute? a. When intentionally banking in excess of 30 degrees b. When a door is removed from the aircraft to facilitate parachute jumpers c. When intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30 degrees or more
c. When intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30 degrees or more
Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude? a. When the atmospheric pressure is 29.92" Hg. b. When indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude. c. When standard atmospheric conditions exist.
c. When standard atmospheric conditions exist.
When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance? a. Within 7 days b. Immediately c. Within 48 hours if requested by ATC
c. Within 48 hours if requested by ATC
How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, and which department should this be reported to? a. Within 60 days to the Airmen Certification Branch b. Within 60 days to the Regulatory Support Division c. Within 60 days to the Security and Hazardous Materials Safety Office
c. Within 60 days to the Security and Hazardous Materials Safety Office
