Exam 2 (Oxygenation)

What are the primary causes for an acute exacerbation of COPD? Select all that apply. Air pollution Tracheobronchial infection Change in season from spring to summer Gastrointestinal viruses Hypertension

Air pollution Tracheobronchial infection Common causes of an acute exacerbation include tracheobronchial infection and air pollution. However, the cause of approximately one third of severe exacerbations cannot be identified. Change in season from spring to summer, hypertension, and GI viruses are not causes of exacerbation of COPD. Winter is worse for COPD when viral and bacterial infections are more prevalent.

Which type of pneumonia has the highest incidence in clients with AIDS and clients receiving immunosuppressive therapy for cancer? Streptococcal Fungal Pneumocystis Tuberculosis

Pneumocystis Explanation: Pneumocystis pneumonia incidence is greatest in clients with AIDS and clients receiving immunosuppressive therapy for cancer, organ transplantation, and other disorders.

A nurse is teaching a client about using an incentive spirometer. Which statement by the nurse is correct? "Breathe in and out quickly." "You need to start using the incentive spirometer 2 days after surgery." "Before you do the exercise, I'll give you pain medication if you need it." "Don't use the incentive spirometer more than 5 times every hour."

"Before you do the exercise, I'll give you pain medication if you need it." Explanation: The nurse should assess the client's pain level before the client does incentive spirometry exercises and administer pain medication as needed. Doing so helps the client take deeper breaths and help prevents atelectasis. The client should breathe in slowly and steadily and hold the breath for 3 seconds after inhalation. The client should start doing incentive spirometry immediately after surgery and aim to do 10 incentive spirometry breaths every hour.

A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) expresses a desire to quit smoking. The first appropriate response from the nurse is: "Nicotine patches would be appropriate for you." "Have you tried to quit smoking before?" "I can refer you to the American Lung Association." "Many options are available for you."

"Have you tried to quit smoking before?" Explanation: All the options are appropriate statements; however, the nurse needs to assess the client's statement further. Assessment data include information about previous attempts to quit smoking

A nurse is caring for a group of clients on a medical-surgical floor. Which client is at greatest risk for developing pneumonia? A client with a history of smoking two packs of cigarettes per day until quitting 2 years ago A client who ambulates in the hallway every 4 hours A client with a nasogastric tube A client who is receiving acetaminophen (Tylenol) for pain

A client with a nasogastric tube Explanation: Nasogastric, orogastric, and endotracheal tubes increase the risk of pneumonia because of the risk of aspiration from improperly placed tubes. Frequent oral hygiene and checking tube placement help prevent aspiration and pneumonia. Although a client who smokes is at increased risk for pneumonia, the risk decreases if the client has stopped smoking. Ambulation helps prevent pneumonia. A client who receives opioids, not acetaminophen, has a risk of developing pneumonia because respiratory depression may occur.

A client with a pulmonary embolus has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) values: pH, 7.49; partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2), 60 mm Hg; partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2), 30 mm Hg; bicarbonate (HCO3-) 25 mEq/L. What should the nurse do first? Instruct the client to breathe into a paper bag. Administer oxygen by nasal cannula as ordered. Auscultate breath sounds bilaterally every 4 hours. Encourage the client to deep-breathe and cough every 2 hours.

Administer oxygen by nasal cannula as ordered. Explanation: When a pulmonary embolus places a client at risk for oxygen deprivation, the body compensates by hyperventilating. This causes respiratory alkalosis, as reflected in the client's ABG values. However, the most significant ABG value is the PaO2 value of 60 mm Hg, which indicates hypoxemia. To manage hypoxemia, the nurse should increase oxygenation by administering oxygen via nasal cannula as ordered. Instructing the client to breathe into a paper bag would cause depressed oxygenation when the client re-inhaled carbon dioxide. Auscultating breath sounds or encouraging deep breathing and coughing wouldn't improve oxygenation.

A client arrives in the emergency room with emphysema and has developed an exacerbation of COPD with respiratory acidosis from airway obstruction. What is the highest priority for the nurse? Apply supplemental oxygen as ordered. Assess vital signs every 2 hours, including O2 saturations and ABG results. Educate the client about the importance of pursed lip breathing. Refer the client to respiratory therapy if breathing becomes labored.

Apply supplemental oxygen as ordered. Explanation: When the client arrives in an ED, the first line of treatment is supplemental oxygen therapy and rapid assessment. Oxygen will correct the hypoxemia. Careful observation of the liter flow or the percentage administered and its effect on the patient is important. These clients generally require low-flow oxygen rates of 1-2 L/min. Monitor and titrate to achieve desired PaO2. Periodic arterial blood gases and pulse oximetry help evaluate the adequacy of oxygenation.

The nurse received a client from the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) who has a chest tube to a closed drainage system. Report from the PACU nurse included drainage in the chest tube at 80 mL of bloody fluid. Fifteen minutes after transfer from the PACU, the chest tube indicates drainage as pictured. The client is reporting pain at "8" on a scale of 0 to 10. The first action of the nurse is to: Notify the physician. Assess pulse and blood pressure. Administer prescribed pain medication. Lay the client's head to a flat position.

Assess pulse and blood pressure. Explanation: The client has bled 120 mL of bloody drainage in the chest drainage system within 15 minutes. It is most important for the nurse to assess for signs and symptoms of hemorrhage, which may be indicated by a rapid pulse and decreasing blood pressure. The nurse may then lay the client in a flat position and notify the physician.

The nurse is caring for a client in the ICU who is receiving mechanical ventilation. Which nursing measure is implemented in an effort to reduce the client's risk of developing ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)? Cleaning the client's mouth with chlorhexidine daily Maintaining the client in a high Fowler's position Ensuring that the client remains sedated while intubated Turning and repositioning the client every 4 hours

Cleaning the client's mouth with chlorhexidine daily Explanation: The five key elements of the VAP bundle include elevation of the head of the bed (30 to 45 degrees [semi-Fowler's position)], daily "sedation vacations," and assessment of readiness to extubate; peptic ulcer disease prophylaxis (with histamine-2 receptor antagonists); deep venous thrombosis prophylaxis; and daily oral care with chlorhexidine (0.12% oral rinses). The client should be turned and repositioned every 2 hours to prevent complications of immobility and atelectasis and to optimize lung expansion.

A physician determines that a client has been exposed to someone with tuberculosis. The nurse expects the physician to order which treatment? Daily oral doses of isoniazid (Nydrazid) and rifampin (Rifadin) for 6 months to 2 years Isolation until 24 hours after antitubercular therapy begins Nothing, until signs of active disease arise Daily doses of isoniazid, 300 mg for 6 months to 1 year

Daily doses of isoniazid, 300 mg for 6 months to 1 year Explanation: All clients exposed to persons with tuberculosis should receive prophylactic isoniazid in daily doses of 300 mg for 6 months to 1 year to avoid the deleterious effects of the latent mycobacterium. Daily oral doses of isoniazid and rifampin for 6 months to 2 years are appropriate for the client with active tuberculosis. Isolation for 2 to 4 weeks is warranted for a client with active tuberculosis.

The nurse knows the mortality rate is high in lung cancer clients due to which factor? Increase in women smokers Increased incidence among the elderly Increased exposure to industrial pollutants Few early symptoms

Few early symptoms Explanation: Because lung cancer produces few early symptoms, its mortality rate is high. Lung cancer has increased in incidence due to an increase in the number of women smokers, a growing aging population, and exposure to pollutants but these are not directly related to the incidence of mortality rates.

Which of the following is the key underlying feature of asthma? Inflammation Shortness of breath Productive cough Chest tightness

Inflammation Explanation: Inflammation is the key underlying feature and leads to recurrent episodes of asthma symptoms: cough, chest tightness, wheeze, and dyspnea.

The nurse is reviewing the electronic health record of a client diagnosed with empyema. Which health problem in the client's history does the nurse identify is the most likely cause of the empyema? Select all that apply. A history of smoking 1 pack per day Exposure to asbestos in a previous home Recent treatment for bacterial pneumonia A history of a benign polyp on the vocal cords Lung abscess

Recent treatment for bacterial pneumonia Lung abscess Explanation: Empyema most often occurs as a complication of bacterial pneumonia or lung abscess. A benign polyp on the vocal cords does not correlate with the development of an empyema. Smoking is a risk factor for lung cancer but not an empyema. Exposure to asbestos may be a risk factor for mesothelioma and lung cancer but not an empyema.

The nurse, caring for a patient with emphysema, understands that airflow limitations are not reversible. The end result of deterioration is: Diminished alveolar surface area. Hypercapnia resulting from decreased carbon dioxide elimination. Hypoxemia secondary to impaired oxygen diffusion. Respiratory acidosis.

Respiratory acidosis. Explanation: Decreased carbon dioxide elimination results in increased carbon dioxide tension (hypercapnia), which leads to respiratory acidosis and chronic respiratory failure.

Arterial blood gas analysis would reveal which value related to acute respiratory failure? PaO2 80 mm Hg pH 7.28 PaCO2 32 mm Hg pH 7.35

pH 7.28 Explanation: Acute respiratory failure is defined as a decrease in arterial oxygen tension (PaO2) to less than 60 mm Hg (hypoxemia) and an increase in arterial carbon dioxide tension (PaCO2) to greater than 50 mm Hg (hypercapnia), with an arterial pH less than 7.35.

A client experiencing an asthmatic attack is prescribed methylprednisolone intravenously. What action should the nurse take? Aspirates for blood return before injecting the medication Assesses fasting blood glucose levels Encourages the client to decrease caloric intake due to increased appetite Informs the client to limit fluid intake due to fluid retention

Assesses fasting blood glucose levels Explanation: Adverse effects of methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) include abnormalities in glucose metabolism. The nurse monitors blood glucose levels. Methylprednisolone also increases the client's appetite and fluid retention, but the client will not decrease caloric or fluid intake as a result of these adverse effects. It is not necessary to aspirate for blood return prior to injecting the medication, because doing so would not support the intravenous line in the vein.

A client has undergone a left hemicolectomy for bowel cancer. Which activities prevent the occurrence of postoperative pneumonia in this client? Administering oxygen, coughing, breathing deeply, and maintaining bed rest Coughing, breathing deeply, maintaining bed rest, and using an incentive spirometer Coughing, breathing deeply, frequent repositioning, and using an incentive spirometer Administering pain medications, frequent repositioning, and limiting fluid intake

Coughing, breathing deeply, frequent repositioning, and using an incentive spirometer Explanation: Activities that help to prevent the occurrence of postoperative pneumonia are: coughing, breathing deeply, frequent repositioning, medicating the client for pain, and using an incentive spirometer. Limiting fluids and lying still will increase the risk of pneumonia.

A client with cystic fibrosis is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia. When should the nurse administer the pancreatic enzymes that the client has been prescribed? After meals and at bedtime Before meals With meals Three times a day regardless of meal time

With meals Explanation: Nearly 90% of clients with cystic fibrosis have pancreatic exocrine insufficiency and require oral pancreatic enzyme supplementation with meals.

A nurse is caring for a client after a thoracentesis. Which sign, if noted in the client, should be reported to the physician immediately? "Client is becoming agitated and complains of pleuritic pain." "Client is drowsy and complains of headache." "Client has subcutaneous emphysema around needle insertion site." "Client has oxygen saturation of 93%."

"Client is becoming agitated and complains of pleuritic pain." Explanation: After a thoracentesis, the nurse monitors the client for pneumothorax or recurrence of pleural effusion. Signs and symptoms associated with pneumothorax depend on its size and cause. Pain is usually sudden and may be pleuritic. The client may have only minimal respiratory distress, with slight chest discomfort and tachypnea, and a small simple or uncomplicated pneumothorax. As the pneumothorax enlarges, the client may become anxious and develop dyspnea with increased use of the accessory muscles.

A home health nurse visits a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease who requires oxygen. Which statement by the client indicates the need for additional teaching about home oxygen use? "I lubricate my lips and nose with K-Y jelly." "I make sure my oxygen mask is on tightly so it won't fall off while I nap." "I have a 'no smoking' sign posted at my front door to remind guests not to smoke." "I clean my mask with water after every meal."

"I make sure my oxygen mask is on tightly so it won't fall off while I nap." Explanation: The client requires additional teaching if he states that he fits his mask tightly. Applying the oxygen mask too tightly can cause skin breakdown, so the client should be cautioned against wearing it too tightly. Oxygen therapy is drying to the oral and nasal mucosa; therefore, the client should be encouraged to apply a water-soluble lubricant, such as K-Y jelly, to prevent drying. Smoking is contraindicated wherever oxygen is in use; posting of a "no smoking" sign warns people against smoking in the client's house. Cleaning the mask with water two or three times per day removes secretions and decreases the risk of infection.

A physician orders metaproterenol by metered-dose inhalation four times daily for a client with acute bronchitis. Which statement by the client indicates effective teaching about this medication? "I can stop using this drug when I begin to feel better." "I should use this inhaler whenever I get short of breath." "I need to hold my breath as long as possible after I take a deep inhalation." "I need to call the physician right away if I feel my heart beating fast after using the drug."

"I need to hold my breath as long as possible after I take a deep inhalation." Explanation: The client demonstrates effective teaching if he states that he'll hold his breath for as long as possible after inhaling the drug. Holding the breath increases the absorption of the drug into the alveoli. Metaproterenol (Alupent) needs to be used over an extended period for maximum effect. The client shouldn't use the inhaler whenever he feels out of breath because dependency can develop if the drug is used excessively. The client should adhere to the prescribed dosage. Tachycardia is an expected adverse reaction to metaproterenol. The client should be taught how to monitor his heart rate and contact the physician only if the heart rate exceeds 130 beats/minute.

Which statement would indicate that the parents of child with cystic fibrosis understand the disorder? "Early treatment can stop the progression of the disease." "The mucus-secreting glands are abnormal." "There are fibrous cysts in the lungs." "Allergic reactions cause inflammation in the lungs."

"The mucus-secreting glands are abnormal." Explanation: Cystic fibrosis is caused by dysfunction of the exocrine glands with no cystic lesions present in the lungs. Early treatment can improve symptoms and extend the life of clients, but a cure for this disorder is presently not available. Allergens are responsible for allergic asthma and not associated with cystic fibrosis.

A physician orders triamcinolone and salmeterol for a client with a history of asthma. What action should the nurse take when administering these drugs? Administer the triamcinolone and then administer the salmeterol. Administer the salmeterol and then administer the triamcinolone. Allow the client to choose the order in which the drugs are administered. Monitor the client's theophylline level before administering the medications

Administer the salmeterol and then administer the triamcinolone. Explanation: A client with asthma typically takes bronchodilators and uses corticosteroid inhalers to prevent acute episodes. Triamcinolone (Azmacort) is a corticosteroid; Salmeterol (Serevent) is an adrenergic stimulant (bronchodilator). If the client is ordered a bronchodilator and another inhaled medication, the bronchodilator should be administered first to dilate the airways and to enhance the effectiveness of the second medication. The client may not choose the order in which these drugs are administered because they must be administered in a particular order. Monitoring the client's theophylline level isn't necessary before administering these drugs because neither drug contains theophylline.

The nurse at the beginning of the evening shift in the emergency department receives a report at 1900 on the following clients. Which client would the nurse assess first? An 85-year-old with COPD with wheezing and an O2 saturation of 89% on 2 L of oxygen A 62-year-old with emphysema who has 300 mL of intravenous fluid remaining A 74-year-old with chronic bronchitis who has BP 128/58, HR 104, and R 26 An 86-year-old with COPD who arrived on the floor 30 minutes ago and is a direct admit from the doctor's office

An 86-year-old with COPD who arrived on the floor 30 minutes ago and is a direct admit from the doctor's office Explanation: On the patient's arrival at the emergency department, the first line of treatment is supplemental oxygen therapy and rapid assessment to determine if the exacerbation is life-threatening. Pulse oximetry is helpful in assessing the response to therapy but does not assess PaCO2 levels. The fluids will not run out during the very beginning of the shift. The vital signs listed are normal findings for patients with COPD.

A thoracentesis is performed to obtain a sample of pleural fluid or a biopsy specimen from the pleural wall for diagnostic purposes. What does serous fluid indicate? Trauma Infection Cancer Emphysema

Cancer Explanation: A thoracentesis may be performed to obtain a sample of pleural fluid or to biopsy a specimen from the pleural wall for diagnostic purposes. Serous fluid may be associated with cancer, inflammatory conditions, or heart failure. Blood fluid typically suggests trauma. Purulent fluid is diagnostic for infection. Complications that may follow a thoracentesis include pneumothorax and subcutaneous emphysema.

A nurse should include what instruction for the client during postural drainage? Lie supine to rest the lungs. Sit upright to promote ventilation. Remain in each position for 30 to 45 minutes for best results. Change positions frequently and cough up secretions.

Change positions frequently and cough up secretions. Explanation: Clients who lie supine will have secretions accumulate in the posterior lung sections, whereas upright patients will pool secretions in their lower lobes. By changing positions, secretions can drain from the affected bronchioles into the bronchi and trachea and then be removed by coughing or suctioning.

You are a clinic nurse caring for a client with acute tracheobronchitis. The client asks what may have caused the infection. Which of the following responses from the nurse would be most accurate? Aspiration Drug ingestion Chemical irritation Direct lung damage

Chemical irritation Explanation: Chemical irritation from noxious fumes, gases, and air contaminants can induce acute tracheobronchitis. Aspiration related to near drowning or vomiting, drug ingestion or overdose, and direct damage to the lungs are factors associated with the development of acute respiratory distress syndrome.

A nurse is teaching a client about asthma. Which symptom should be included with the teaching? Select all that apply. Chest tightness Wheezing Dyspnea Crackles Cough

Chest tightness Wheezing Dyspnea Cough The common symptoms of asthma are cough, chest tightness, dyspnea, and wheezing. In some instances, cough may be the only symptom. Crackles are not generally seen with asthma; they are associated with excess fluid in the lungs as with pneumonia.

A young adult with cystic fibrosis is admitted to the hospital for an acute airway exacerbation. Aggressive treatment is indicated. What is the first action by the nurse? Collects sputum for culture and sensitivity Administers vancomycin intravenously Provides nebulized tobramycin (TOBI) Gives oral pancreatic enzymes with meals

Collects sputum for culture and sensitivity Explanation: Aggressive therapy for cystic fibrosis involves airway clearance and antibiotics, such as vancomycin and tobramycin, which will be prescribed based on sputum cultures. Sputum must be obtained prior to antibiotic therapy so results will not be skewed. Administering oral pancreatic enzymes with meals will be a lesser priority.

A client is diagnosed with mild obstructive sleep apnea after having a sleep study performed. What treatment modality will be the most effective for this client? Surgery to remove the tonsils and adenoids Medications to assist the patient with sleep at night Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) Bi-level positive airway pressure (BiPAP)

Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) Explanation: CPAP provides positive pressure to the airways throughout the respiratory cycle. Although it can be used as an adjunct to mechanical ventilation with a cuffed endotracheal tube or tracheostomy tube to open the alveoli, it is also used with a leak-proof mask to keep alveoli open, thereby preventing respiratory failure. CPAP is the most effective treatment for obstructive sleep apnea because the positive pressure acts as a splint, keeping the upper airway and trachea open during sleep. CPAP is used for clients who can breathe independently. BiPAP is most often used for clients who require ventilatory assistance at night, such as those with severe COPD or sleep apnea.

An emergency room nurse is assessing a client who is complaining of dyspnea. Which sign would indicate the presence of a pleural effusion? Decreased chest wall excursion upon palpation Wheezing upon auscultation Resonance upon percussion Mottled skin seen during inspection

Decreased chest wall excursion upon palpation Explanation: Symptoms of pleural effusion are shortness of breath, pain, assumption of a position that decreases pain, absent breath sounds, decreased fremitus, a dull, flat sound upon percussion, and decreased chest wall excursion. The nurse may also hear a friction rub. Chest radiography and computed tomography show fluid in the involved area.

A recent immigrant is diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). Which intervention is the most important for the nurse to implement with this client? Client teaching about the cause of TB Reviewing the risk factors for TB Developing a list of people with whom the client has had contact Client teaching about the importance of TB testing

Developing a list of people with whom the client has had contact Explanation: To lessen the spread of TB, everyone who had contact with the client must undergo a chest X-ray and TB skin test. Testing will help determine if the client infected anyone else. Teaching about the cause of TB, reviewing the risk factors, and the importance of testing are important areas to address when educating high-risk populations about TB before its development.

The nurse hears the patient's ventilator alarm sound and attempts to find the cause. What is the priority action of the nurse when the cause of the alarm is not able to be determined? Call respiratory therapy and wait until they arrive to determine what is happening. Disconnect the patient from the ventilator and manually ventilate the patient with a manual resuscitation bag until the problem is resolved. Stop the ventilator by pressing the off button, wait 15 seconds, and then turn it on again to see if the alarm stops. Suction the patient since the patient may be obstructed by secretions.

Disconnect the patient from the ventilator and manually ventilate the patient with a manual resuscitation bag until the problem is resolved. Explanation: If the cause of an alarm cannot be determined, the nurse should disconnect the patient from the ventilator and manually ventilate the patient, because leaving the patient on the mechanical ventilator may be dangerous.

For a client with pleural effusion, what does chest percussion over the involved area reveal? Absent breath sounds Dullness over the involved area Friction rub Fluid presence

Dullness over the involved area Explanation: Chest percussion reveals dullness over the involved area. The nurse may note diminished or absent breath sounds over the involved area when auscultating the lungs and may also hear a friction rub. Chest radiography and computed tomography show fluid in the involved area.

A client with chronic lung disease is prescribed 40% oxygen via face mask. Which finding indicates to the nurse that the client is experiencing oxygen toxicity? Select all that apply. Dyspnea Restlessness Nail clubbing Pink frothy sputum Substernal discomfort

Dyspnea Restlessness Substernal discomfort Oxygen toxicity may occur when too high a concentration of oxygen is given for an extended period (generally longer than 24 hours). It is caused by overproduction of oxygen free radicals, which are by-products of cell metabolism. These free radicals then mediate a severe inflammatory response that can severely damage the alveolar capillary membrane leading to pulmonary edema and progressing to cell death. Signs and symptoms of oxygen toxicity include dyspnea, restlessness, and substernal discomfort, in addition to paresthesias, fatigue, malaise, progressive respiratory difficulty, refractory hypoxemia, alveolar atelectasis, and alveolar infiltrates evident on chest x-rays. Nail clubbing is a symptom of chronic oxygen deprivation. Pink frothy sputum is a symptom of pulmonary edema.

After suctioning a tracheostomy tube, the nurse assesses the client to determine the effectiveness of the suctioning. Which findings indicate that the airway is now patent? A respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute with accessory muscle use Effective breathing at a rate of 16 breaths/minute through the established airway Increased pulse rate, rapid respirations, and cyanosis of the skin and nail beds Restlessness, pallor, increased pulse and respiratory rates, and bubbling breath sounds

Effective breathing at a rate of 16 breaths/minute through the established airway Explanation: Proper suctioning should produce a patent airway, as demonstrated by effective breathing through the airway at a normal respiratory rate of 12 to 20 breaths/minute. The other options suggest ineffective suctioning. A respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute and accessory muscle use may indicate mild respiratory distress. Increased pulse rate, rapid respirations, and cyanosis are signs of hypoxia. Restlessness, pallor, increased pulse and respiratory rates, and bubbling breath sounds indicate respiratory secretion accumulation.

A client has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and is exhibiting shallow respirations of 32 breaths per minute and a pulse oximetry of 93% despite receiving nasal oxygen at 2 L/minute. What action should the nurse take? Encourage the client to take deep breaths. Encourage the client to exhale slowly against pursed lips. Teach the client to perform upper chest breaths. Increase the flow of oxygen.

Encourage the client to exhale slowly against pursed lips. Explanation: When a client with COPD exhibits shallow, rapid, and inefficient respirations, the nurse encourages the client to perform pursed-lip breathing, which includes exhaling slowly against pursed lips. Pursed-lip breathing helps slow expiration, prevents collapse of small airways, and helps the client control the rate and depth of respiration. It also promotes relaxation, enabling the client to gain control of dyspnea and reduce feelings of panic. Taking deep breaths and upper chest breathing are inefficient breathing techniques; the client with COPD should be encouraged to practice diaphragmatic breathing. Increasing oxygen flow is not necessary because the pulse oximetry is 93%.

A nurse has established a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. The datum that best supports this diagnosis is that the client Has wheezes in the right lung lobes Has a respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute Reports shortness of breath Cannot perform activities of daily living

Has wheezes in the right lung lobes Explanation: Of the data listed, wheezing, an adventitious lung sound, is the best datum that supports the diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. An increased respiratory rate and a report of dyspnea are also defining characteristics of this nursing diagnosis. They could support other nursing diagnoses, as would inability to perform activities of daily living.

A nurse consulting with a nutrition specialist knows it's important to consider a special diet for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which diet is appropriate for this client? Full-liquid High-protein 1,800-calorie ADA Low-fat

High-protein Explanation: Breathing is more difficult for clients with COPD, and increased metabolic demand puts them at risk for nutritional deficiencies. These clients must have a high intake of protein for increased calorie consumption. Full liquids, 1,800-calorie ADA, and low-fat diets aren't appropriate for a client with COPD.

A nurse is attempting to wean a client after 2 days on the mechanical ventilator. The client has an endotracheal tube present with the cuff inflated to 15 mm Hg. The nurse has suctioned the client with return of small amounts of thin white mucus. Lung sounds are clear. Oxygen saturation levels are 91%. What is the priority nursing diagnosis for this client? Impaired gas exchange related to ventilator setting adjustments Risk for trauma related to endotracheal intubation and cuff pressure Risk for infection related to endotracheal intubation and suctioning Impaired physical mobility related to being on a ventilator

Impaired gas exchange related to ventilator setting adjustments Explanation: All the nursing diagnoses are appropriate for this client. Per Maslow's hierarchy of needs, airway, breathing, and circulation are the highest priorities within physiological needs. The client has an oxygen saturation of 91%, which is below normal. This places impaired gas exchange as the highest prioritized nursing diagnosis.

A client seeks medical attention for a new onset of fatigue and changes in coordination. Which additional assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the client is demonstrating signs of low oxygenation? Select all that apply. Cough Shortness of breath Drowsiness Impaired thought process Agitation

Impaired thought process Agitation Shortness of breath A change in the client's respiratory rate or pattern may be one of the earliest indicators of the need for oxygen therapy. These changes may result from hypoxemia or hypoxia. Severe hypoxia can be life threatening. The signs and symptoms signaling the need for supplemental oxygen may depend on how suddenly this need develops. The client has new onset of symptoms so the low oxygenation will be associated with acute hypoxia. With acute hypoxia, changes occur in the central nervous system because the neurologic centers are very sensitive to oxygen deprivation. Acute hypoxia that is newly presenting may manifest in signs such as shortness of breath, impaired thought process, and agitation. With long-standing or chronic hypoxia that is not manifesting as a new onset of symptoms, the client may demonstrate apathy, drowsiness, and delayed reaction time. The client may also demonstrate symptoms similar to alcohol intoxication such as impaired judgment. The presence of cough is not a manifestation of acute or chronic hypoxia.

The nurse has instructed a client on how to perform pursed-lip breathing. The nurse recognizes the purpose of this type of breathing is to accomplish which result? Promote more efficient and controlled ventilation and to decrease the work of breathing Improve oxygen transport; induce a slow, deep breathing pattern; and assist the client to control breathing Promote the strengthening of the client's diaphragm Promote the client's ability to take in oxygen

Improve oxygen transport; induce a slow, deep breathing pattern; and assist the client to control breathing Explanation: Pursed-lip breathing, which improves oxygen transport, helps induce a slow, deep breathing pattern and assists the client to control breathing, even during periods of stress. This type of breathing helps prevent airway collapse secondary to loss of lung elasticity in emphysema.

Which measure may increase complications for a client with COPD? Administration of antibiotics Increased oxygen supply Administration of antitussive agents Decreased oxygen supply

Increased oxygen supply Explanation: Administering too much oxygen can result in the retention of carbon dioxide. Clients with alveolar hypoventilation cannot increase ventilation to adjust for this increased load, and hypercapnia occurs. All the other measures aim to prevent complications.

In a client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) and respiratory distress, which finding is the earliest sign of reduced oxygenation? Decreased heart rate Increased restlessness Increased blood pressure Decreased level of consciousness (LOC)

Increased restlessness Explanation: In ALS, an early sign of respiratory distress is increased restlessness, which results from inadequate oxygen flow to the brain. As the body tries to compensate for inadequate oxygenation, the heart rate increases and blood pressure drops. A decreased LOC is a later sign of poor tissue oxygenation in a client with respiratory distress.

A nurse is caring for a client who was admitted with pneumonia, has a history of falls, and has skin lesions resulting from scratching. The priority nursing diagnosis for this client should be: Risk for falls. Ineffective breathing pattern. Impaired tissue integrity. Ineffective airway clearance.

Ineffective airway clearance. Explanation: Ineffective airway clearance is the priority nursing diagnosis for this client. Pneumonia involves excess secretions in the respiratory tract and inhibits air flow to the capillary bed. A client with pneumonia may not have an Ineffective breathing pattern, such as tachypnea, bradypnea, or Cheyne-Stokes respirations. Risk for falls and Impaired tissue integrity aren't priority diagnoses for this client.

A nursing student understands the importance of the psychosocial aspects of disease processes. When working with a patient with COPD, the student would rank which of the following nursing diagnoses as the MOST important when analyzing the psychosocial effects? Disturbed sleep pattern related to cough Ineffective coping related to anxiety High risk for ineffective therapeutic regimen management related to lack of knowledge Activity intolerance related to fatigue

Ineffective coping related to anxiety Explanation: Any factor that interferes with normal breathing quite naturally induces anxiety, depression, and changes in behavior. Constant shortness of breath and fatigue may make the patient irritable and apprehensive to the point of panic. Although the other choices are correct, the most important psychosocial nursing diagnosis for a patient with COPD is ineffective coping related to a high level of anxiety.

Which of the following factors contribute to the underlying pathophysiology of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? Select all that apply. Inflamed airways obstruct airflow. Mucus secretions block airways. Overinflated alveoli impair gas exchange. Dry airways obstruct airflow.

Inflamed airways obstruct airflow. Mucus secretions block airways. Overinflated alveoli impair gas exchange. Because of the chronic inflammation and the body's attempts to repair it, changes and narrowing occur in the airways. In the peripheral airways, inflammation causes thickening of the airway wall, peribronchial fibrosis, exudate in the airway, and overall airway narrowing (obstructive bronchiolitis). The airways are actually moist, not dry. In the proximal airways, changes include increased goblet cells and enlarged submucosal glands, both of which lead to hypersecretion of mucus.

A client with symptoms of mild persistent asthma is now initiating treatment. Which of the following is the preferred therapy that the nurse will teach the client to use at home? Inhaled beclomethasone Oral sustained-release albuterol Subcutaneous omalizumab Oral prednisone

Inhaled beclomethasone Explanation: For mild persistent asthma, the preferred treatment is an inhaled corticosteroid, such as beclomethasone (Beconase). The other medications are for long-term control, prevention, or both in moderate to severe persistent asthma.

The nurse is assisting a client with postural drainage. Which of the following demonstrates correct implementation of this technique? Instruct the client to remain in each position of the postural drainage sequence for 10 to 15 minutes. Use aerosol sprays to deodorize the client's environment after postural drainage. Perform this measure with the client once a day. Administer bronchodilators and mucolytic agents following the sequence.

Instruct the client to remain in each position of the postural drainage sequence for 10 to 15 minutes. Explanation: Postural drainage is usually performed two to four times daily, before meals (to prevent nausea, vomiting, and aspiration) and at bedtime. Prescribed bronchodilators, water, or saline may be nebulized and inhaled before postural drainage to dilate the bronchioles, reduce bronchospasm, decrease the thickness of mucus and sputum, and combat edema of the bronchial walls. The nurse instructs the client to remain in each position for 10 to 15 minutes and to breathe in slowly through the nose and out slowly through pursed lips to help keep the airways open so that secretions can drain while in each position. If the sputum is foul-smelling, it is important to perform postural drainage in a room away from other patients or family members. (Deodorizers may be used to counteract the odor. Because aerosol sprays can cause bronchospasm and irritation, they should be used sparingly and with caution.)

The nurse is educating a patient with COPD about the technique for performing pursed-lip breathing. What does the nurse inform the patient is the importance of using this technique? It prolongs exhalation. It increases the respiratory rate to improve oxygenation. It will assist with widening the airway. It will prevent the alveoli from overexpanding.

It prolongs exhalation. Explanation: The goal of pursed-lip breathing is to prolong exhalation and increase airway pressure during expiration, thus reducing the amount of trapped air and the amount of airway resistance.

A client has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Following a coughing episode, the client reports sudden and unrelieved shortness of breath. Which of the following is the most important for the nurse to assess? Lung sounds Skin color Heart rate Respiratory rate

Lung sounds Explanation: A client with COPD is at risk for developing pneumothorax. The description given is consistent with possible pneumothorax. Though the nurse will assess all the data, auscultating the lung sounds will provide the nurse with the information if the client has a pneumothorax.

A client abruptly sits up in bed, reports having difficulty breathing and has an arterial oxygen saturation of 88%. Which oxygen delivery method would give the greatest level of inspired oxygen? Simple mask Nonrebreather mask Face tent Nasal cannula

Nonrebreather mask Explanation: A nonrebreather mask can deliver levels of the fraction of inspired oxygen (FIO2) as high as 100%. Other modes — simple mask, face tent, and nasal cannula — deliver lower levels of FIO2.

The nurse is assessing a patient with chest tubes connected to a drainage system. What should the first action be when the nurse observes excessive bubbling in the water seal chamber? Notify the physician. Place the head of the patient's bed flat. Milk the chest tube. Disconnect the system and get another.

Notify the physician. Explanation: Observe for air leaks in the drainage system; they are indicated by constant bubbling in the water seal chamber, or by the air leak indicator in dry systems with a one-way valve. In addition, assess the chest tube system for correctable external leaks. Notify the primary provider immediately of excessive bubbling in the water seal chamber not due to external leaks.

A patient with emphysema is placed on continuous oxygen at 2 L/min at home. Why is it important for the nurse to educate the patient and family that they must have No Smoking signs placed on the doors? Oxygen is combustible. Oxygen is explosive. Oxygen prevents the dispersion of smoke particles. Oxygen supports combustion.

Oxygen supports combustion. Explanation: Because oxygen supports combustion, there is always a danger of fire when it is used. It is important to post "No Smoking" signs when oxygen is in use, particularly in facilities that are not smoke free.

Which is a key characteristic of pleurisy? Pain Dyspnea Anxiety Blood-tinged secretions

Pain Explanation: The key characteristic of pleuritic pain is its relationship to respiratory movement. Taking a deep breath, coughing, or sneezing worsens the pain.

A client is admitted to the facility with a productive cough, night sweats, and a fever. Which action is most important in the initial care plan? Assessing the client's temperature every 8 hours Placing the client in respiratory isolation Monitoring the client's fluid intake and output Wearing gloves during all client contact

Placing the client in respiratory isolation Explanation: Because the client's signs and symptoms suggest a respiratory infection (possibly tuberculosis), respiratory isolation is indicated. Every 8 hours isn't frequent enough to assess the temperature of a client with a fever. Monitoring fluid intake and output may be required, but the client should first be placed in isolation. The nurse should wear gloves only for contact with mucous membranes, broken skin, blood, and other body fluids and substances.

A client who has just had a triple-lumen catheter placed in his right subclavian vein complains of chest pain and shortness of breath. His blood pressure is decreased from baseline and, on auscultation of his chest, the nurse notes unequal breath sounds. A chest X-ray is immediately ordered by the physician. What diagnosis should the nurse suspect? Pulmonary embolism Myocardial infarction (MI) Heart failure Pneumothorax

Pneumothorax Explanation: Pneumothorax (air in the pleural space) is a potential complication of all central venous access devices. Signs and symptoms include chest pain, dyspnea, shoulder or neck pain, irritability, palpitations, light-headedness, hypotension, cyanosis, and unequal breath sounds. A chest X-ray reveals the collapse of the affected lung that results from pneumothorax. Triple-lumen catheter insertion through the subclavian vein isn't associated with pulmonary embolism, MI, or heart failure.

The nurse is educating a patient with asthma about preventative measures to avoid having an asthma attack. What does the nurse inform the patient is a priority intervention to prevent an asthma attack? Using a long-acting steroid inhaler when an attack is coming Avoiding exercise and any strenuous activity Preparing a written action plan Staying in the house if it is too cold or too hot

Preparing a written action plan Explanation: Asthma exacerbations are best managed by early treatment and education, including the use of written action plans as part of any overall effort to educate patients about self-management techniques, especially those with moderate or severe persistent asthma or with a history of severe exacerbations (Expert Panel Report 3, 2007).

Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) therapy has which effect on the heart? Bradycardia Tachycardia Increased blood pressure Reduced cardiac output

Reduced cardiac output Explanation: PEEP reduces cardiac output by increasing intrathoracic pressure and reducing the amount of blood delivered to the left side of the heart. It doesn't affect heart rate, but a decrease in cardiac output may reduce blood pressure, commonly causing compensatory tachycardia, not bradycardia. However, the resulting tachycardia isn't a direct effect of PEEP therapy itself.

A pneumothorax is a possible complication of COPD. Symptoms will depend on the suddenness of the attack and the size of the air leak. The most common, immediate symptom that should be assessed is: Sharp, stabbing chest pain Dyspnea A dry, hacking cough Tachycardia

Sharp, stabbing chest pain Explanation: The initial symptom is usually chest pain of sudden onset that leads to feelings of chest pressure, dyspnea, and tachycardia. A cough may be present.

A nurse admits a new client with acute respiratory failure. What are the clinical findings of a client with acute respiratory failure? Insidious onset of lung impairment in a client who had normal lung function Sudden onset of lung impairment in a client who had normal lung function Insidious onset of lung impairment in a client who had compromised lung function Sudden onset of lung impairment in a client who had compromised lung function

Sudden onset of lung impairment in a client who had normal lung function Explanation: In acute respiratory failure, the ventilation or perfusion mechanisms in the lung are impaired. Acute respiratory failure occurs suddenly in a client who previously had normal lung function.

The nurse assesses a patient for a possible pulmonary embolism. What frequent sign of pulmonary embolus does the nurse anticipate finding on assessment? Cough Hemoptysis Syncope Tachypnea

Tachypnea Explanation: Symptoms of PE depend on the size of the thrombus and the area of the pulmonary artery occluded by the thrombus; they may be nonspecific. Dyspnea is the most frequent symptom; the duration and intensity of the dyspnea depend on the extent of embolization. Chest pain is common and is usually sudden and pleuritic in origin. It may be substernal and may mimic angina pectoris or a myocardial infarction. Other symptoms include anxiety, fever, tachycardia, apprehension, cough, diaphoresis, hemoptysis, and syncope. The most frequent sign is tachypnea (very rapid respiratory rate).

A nurse is teaching the client about use of the pictured item with a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). What instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? Select all that apply. Take a slow, deep inhalation from the device. Use normal inhalations with the device. Activate the MDI once. The device may increase delivery of the MDI medication. It is not necessary to hold your breath after using.

Take a slow, deep inhalation from the device. Activate the MDI once. The device may increase delivery of the MDI medication. The pictured device is a spacer, which is attached to an MDI for client use. The client activates the MDI once and takes a slow, deep inhalation, not normal inhalations. The client then holds the breath for 10 seconds. The spacer may increase delivery of the MDI medication.

A client is prescribed postural drainage because secretions are accumulating in the upper lobes of the lungs. The nurse instructs the client to: Lay in bed with the head on a pillow. Take prescribed albuterol (Ventolin) before performing postural drainage. Perform drainage 1 hour after meals. Hold each position for 5 minutes.

Take prescribed albuterol (Ventolin) before performing postural drainage. Explanation: When a client is to perform postural drainage, the nurse should instruct the client to use the prescribed bronchodilator (e.g., albuterol) first. This will open airways and promote drainage. The client is to perform postural drainage before meals, not after. This will aid in preventing nausea, vomiting, and aspiration. For secretions accumulated in the upper lobes, the client will sit up or even lean forward while sitting. Head on a pillow is not a sufficient increase in height. The client is also to lay in each position for 10 to 15 minutes.

The nurse has explained to the client that after his thoracotomy, it will be important to adhere to a coughing schedule. The client is concerned about being in too much pain to be able to cough. What would be an appropriate nursing intervention for this client? Teach him postural drainage. Teach him how to perform huffing. Teach him to use a mini-nebulizer. Teach him how to use a metered dose inhaler.

Teach him how to perform huffing. Explanation: The technique of "huffing" may be helpful for the client with diminished expiratory flow rates or for the client who refuses to cough because of severe pain. Huffing is the expulsion of air through an open glottis. Inhalers, nebulizers, and postural drainage are not substitutes for performing coughing exercises.

A mediastinal shift occurs in which type of chest disorder? Tension pneumothorax Traumatic pneumothorax Simple pneumothorax Cardiac tamponade

Tension pneumothorax Explanation: A tension pneumothorax causes the lung to collapse and the heart, the great vessels, and the trachea to shift toward the unaffected side of the chest (mediastinal shift). A traumatic pneumothorax occurs when air escapes from a laceration in the lung itself and enters the pleural space or enters the pleural space through a wound in the chest wall. A simple pneumothorax most commonly occurs as air enters the pleural space through the rupture of a bleb or a bronchopleural fistula. Cardiac tamponade is compression of the heart resulting from fluid or blood within the pericardial sac.

A client who must begin oxygen therapy asks the nurse why this treatment is necessary? What would the nurse identify as the goals of oxygen therapy? Select all that apply. To provide adequate transport of oxygen in the blood To decrease the work of breathing To reduce stress on the myocardium To clear respiratory secretions To provide visual feedback to encourage the client to inhale slowly and deeply

To provide adequate transport of oxygen in the blood To decrease the work of breathing To reduce stress on the myocardium Oxygen therapy is designed to provide adequate transport of oxygen in the blood while decreasing the work of breathing and reducing stress on the myocardium. Incentive spirometry is a respiratory modality that provides visual feedback to encourage the client to inhale slowly and deeply to maximize lung inflation and prevent or reduce atelectasis. A mini-nebulizer is used to help clear secretions.

A client is being mechanically ventilated in the ICU. The ventilator alarms begin to sound. The nurse should complete which action first? Notify the respiratory therapist. Manually ventilate the client. Troubleshoot to identify the malfunction. Reposition the endotracheal tube.

Troubleshoot to identify the malfunction. Explanation: The nurse should first immediately attempt to identify and correct the problem; if the problem cannot be identified and/or corrected, the client must be manually ventilated with an Ambu bag. The respiratory therapist may be notified, but this is not the first action by the nurse. The nurse should not reposition the endotracheal tube as a first response to an alarm.

Which technique does a nurse suggest to a patient with pleurisy for splinting the chest wall? Turn onto the affected side. Use a prescribed analgesic. Avoid using a pillow while splinting. Use a heat or cold application.

Turn onto the affected side. Explanation: Teach the client to splint their chest wall by turning onto the affected side. The nurse instructs the patient with pleurisy to take analgesic medications as prescribed, but this not a technique related to splinting the chest wall. The patient can splint the chest wall with a pillow when coughing. The nurse instructs the patient to use heat or cold applications to manage pain with inspiration, but this not a technique related to splinting the chest wall.

For a client with advanced chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which nursing action best promotes adequate gas exchange? Encouraging the client to drink three glasses of fluid daily Keeping the client in semi-Fowler's position Using a Venturi mask to deliver oxygen as ordered Administering a sedative as ordered

Using a Venturi mask to deliver oxygen as ordered Explanation: The client with COPD retains carbon dioxide, which inhibits stimulation of breathing by the medullary center in the brain. As a result, low oxygen levels in the blood stimulate respiration, and administering unspecified, unmonitored amounts of oxygen may depress ventilation. To promote adequate gas exchange, the nurse should use a Venturi mask to deliver a specified, controlled amount of oxygen consistently and accurately. Drinking three glasses of fluid daily wouldn't affect gas exchange or be sufficient to liquefy secretions, which are common in COPD. Clients with COPD and respiratory distress should be placed in high Fowler's position and shouldn't receive sedatives or other drugs that may further depress the respiratory center.

A nurse is caring for a client who is at high risk for developing pneumonia. Which intervention should the nurse include on the client's care plan? Keeping the head of the bed at 15 degrees or less Turning the client every 4 hours to prevent fatigue Using strict hand hygiene Providing oral hygiene daily

Using strict hand hygiene Explanation: The nurse should use strict hand hygiene to help minimize the client's exposure to infection, which could lead to pneumonia. The head of the bed should be kept at a minimum of 30 degrees. The client should be turned and repositioned at least every 2 hours to help promote secretion drainage. Oral hygiene should be performed every 4 hours to help decrease the number of organisms in the client's mouth that could lead to pneumonia.

A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to the medical-surgical unit. To help this client maintain a patent airway and achieve maximal gas exchange, the nurse should: instruct the client to drink at least 2 L of fluid daily. maintain the client on bed rest. administer anxiolytics, as ordered, to control anxiety. administer pain medication as ordered.

instruct the client to drink at least 2 L of fluid daily. Explanation: Mobilizing secretions is crucial to maintaining a patent airway and maximizing gas exchange in the client with COPD. Measures that help mobilize secretions include drinking 2 L of fluid daily, practicing controlled pursed-lip breathing, and engaging in moderate activity. Anxiolytics rarely are recommended for the client with COPD because they may cause sedation and subsequent infection from inadequate mobilization of secretions. Because COPD rarely causes pain, pain medication isn't indicated.

A physician stated to the nurse that the client has fluid in the pleural space and will need a thoracentesis. The nurse expects the physician to document this fluid as pleural effusion. pneumothorax. hemothorax. consolidation.

pleural effusion. Explanation: Fluid accumulating within the pleural space is called a pleural effusion. A pneumothorax is air in the pleural space. A hemothorax is blood within the pleural space. Consolidation is lung tissue that has become more solid in nature as a result of the collapse of alveoli or an infectious process.

What does a positive Mantoux test indicate? active immunity to tuberculosis production of an immune response development of full-blown tuberculosis an active case of tuberculosis

production of an immune response Explanation: The Mantoux test is based on the antigen/antibody response and will show a positive reaction after an individual has been exposed to tuberculosis and has formed antibodies to the tuberculosis bacteria. Thus, a positive Mantoux test indicates the production of an immune response. Exposure doesn't confer immunity. A positive test doesn't confirm that a person has (or will develop) tuberculosis.

A client asks a nurse a question about the Mantoux test for tuberculosis. The nurse should base her response on the fact that the: area of redness is measured in 3 days and determines whether tuberculosis is present. skin test doesn't differentiate between active and dormant tuberculosis infection. presence of a wheal at the injection site in 2 days indicates active tuberculosis. test stimulates a reddened response in some clients and requires a second test in 3 months.

skin test doesn't differentiate between active and dormant tuberculosis infection. Explanation: The Mantoux test doesn't differentiate between active and dormant infections. If a positive reaction occurs, a sputum smear and culture as well as a chest X-ray are necessary to provide more information. Although the area of redness is measured in 3 days, a second test may be needed; neither test indicates that tuberculosis is active. In the Mantoux test, an induration 5 to 9 mm in diameter indicates a borderline reaction; a larger induration indicates a positive reaction. The presence of a wheal within 2 days doesn't indicate active tuberculosis.

A nurse is caring for a client who was intubated because of respiratory failure. The client is now receiving mechanical ventilation with a preset tidal volume and number of breaths each minute. The client has the ability to breathe spontaneously between the ventilator breaths with no ventilator assistance. The nurse should document the ventilator setting as: pressure support ventilation (PSV). synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV). assist-control (AC) ventilation. continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP).

synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV). Explanation: In SIMV mode, the ventilator delivers a preset number of breaths at a preset tidal volume. The client can breathe on his own in between the breaths delivered by the ventilator. In PSV, a pressure plateau is added to the ventilator to prevent the airway pressure from falling beneath a preset level. In AC ventilation, the ventilator delivers a preset number of breaths at a preset tidal volume and any breaths that the client takes on his own are assisted by the ventilator so they reach the preset tidal volume. In CPAP, the ventilator provides only positive airway pressure; it doesn't provide any breaths to the client.