Exam 3

Ch21: What is the immediate management for spear tackler's spine? Why?

-Individuals would have to activate EMS, because permanent neurological damage can occur when there is cervical flexion and axial loading. -Check for shock.

CH16: A rugby player is down on the field after receiving a severe blow to the anterior right thigh. The thigh is externally rotated and severely angulated. Swelling is present, and the athlete is in severe pain. Explain the immediate management for this injury

-assess neuromuscular integrity -treat for shock

Ch21: Identify five "red flags" indicating a possible cervical spine injury

1. Severe pain 2. Paralysis 3. Absent reflex's 4. Muscle weakness in a myotome 5. Pain radiating into extremities

Ch17: When does the epiphyseal plate of the medial clavicle close? A) 25 years of age B) 15 years of age C) 18 years of age D) 16 years of age

A) 25 years of age

Ch21: A brachial plexus injury usually affects what nerve roots of the plexus? A) C5-C6 B) C6-C7 C) C7-C8 D) C8-T1

A) C5-C6

Ch16: Weakness of the gluteus medius is determined by: A) Trendelenburg test B) squish test C) Thomas test D) resistive hip flexion

A) Trendelenburg test

CH16: Avascular necrosis of the hip usually occurs at the: A) head of the femur B) greater trochanter C) acetabulum D) ASIS

A) head of the femur

Ch21: The cervical plexus consists of the ventral rami of spinal nerves. A) C1-C3 B) C1-C4 C) C2-C3 D) C3-C5

B) C1-C4

Ch17: The biceps reflex includes which of the following dermatomes? A) C1-C3 B) C5-C6 C) C7 D) C4

B) C5-C6

Ch17: The brachial plexus is made from which of the following spinal nerves? A) C4-T2 B) C5-T1 C) C5-T2 D) C6-T1

B) C5-T1

Ch17: Dead arm syndrome is associated with: A) shoulder impingement B) frozen shoulder subluxation C) recurrent anterior shoulder dislocation D) acromioclavicular separation

C) recurrent anterior shoulder dislocation

Ch17: Which muscle or muscles play(s) a major role in positioning the scapula to facilitate the throwing motion? A) latissimus dorsi B) levator scapulae C) rhomboids D) trapezius

C) rhomboids

CH16: An avulsion fracture at the anterior-superior iliac spine may involve which muscle? A) pectineus B) rectus femoris C) sartorius D) vastus intermedius

C) sartorius

Ch21: The myotome for C5 is A) lateral neck flexion. B) shoulder elevation. C) shoulder abduction. D) biceps flexion, wrist extension.

C) shoulder abduction.

Ch21: An acute process in which the nucleus pulposus herniates through the posterior annulus, resulting in signs and symptoms of cord or nerve root compression is termed A) spinal stenosis. B) Scheuermann disease. C) soft-disk disease. D) hard-disk disease.

C) soft-disk disease

Ch16: The sacroiliac joints are: A) synovial joints B) syndesmosis joints C) synovial and syndesmosis joints D) sliding joints

C) synovial and syndesmosis joints

Ch17: Which of the following is not a closed kinetic chain exercise for the shoulder? A) wall push-ups B) floor push-ups C) step-ups using the StairMaster D) Codman's pendulum

D) Codman's pendulum

Ch17: Which of the following tests is used to assess a labral lesion? A) Speed's test B) piano key test C) sulcus sign test D) clunk test

D) clunk test

Ch17: Damage to the long thoracic nerve will be evident in: A) weakness in scapular elevation B) weakness in the biceps brachii reflex test C) weakness in glenohumeral abduction D) winging of the scapula

D) winging of the scapula

Ch16 (T/F): A young boy with Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease can return to sports participation after 8 to 12 weeks of rest.

F

Ch16 (T/F): Abnormal ossification involving bone deposition within muscle tissue is called an exostosis.

F

Ch16 (T/F): An individual with a mild quadriceps contusion will walk with a limp but will have only mild pain and swelling.

F

Ch21: (T/F) The thoracic curve is convex posteriorly

F

Ch16 (T/F): During the Thomas test, if the straight right leg rises off the table while the left thigh is brought to the chest, it indicates the presence of flexion contractures in the right iliopsoas muscle.

T

Ch16 (T/F): If an adolescent boy is unable to do internal rotation at the hip or stand on one leg without severe pain, a slipped capital femoral epiphysis should be suspected.

T

Ch16 (T/F): In an adductor strain, the athlete may report that running straight ahead and backwards does not cause pain.

T

Ch16 (T/F): Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease is an avascular necrosis of the proximal femoral epiphysis.

T

Ch17: (T/F) A possible sign of a moderate AC sprain is the inability to abduct the arm or horizontally adduct the arm across the chest without noticeable pain

T

Ch22: (T/F) Treatment for coccygeal pain includes analgesics, use of padding for protection, and a ring seat to alleviate compression during sitting

T

Ch21: Describe the three areas that should be addressed in the prevention of injuries to the cervical spine.

There should be physical condition that includes increasing strength and flexibility. Teaching some proper techniques in lifting objects to prevent injury. Then there is equipment to help prevent. The first one are neck rolls, which are pads attached to help limit ROM. There are also rib protectors that protect part of the thoracic spine.

Ch22: Hip flexion tests which nerve root myotome segment? a. L1-L2 b. L3 c. L5 d. S1

a. L1-L2

Ch22: Ipsilateral pain during the first 70 degrees of a straight leg raising test indicates a possible: a. herniated disc b. irritation of the sacroiliac joint c. sciatica d. tight hamstrings

a. herniated disc

Ch17: What nerve can be damaged in an anterior glenohumeral dislocation? A) axillary nerve B) median nerve C) musculocutaneous nerve D) radial nerve

A) axillary nerve

Ch21: Axial loading of the cervical spine occurs when the neck is in a position of A) hyperextension. B) flexion. C) lateral rotation. D) lateral flexion.

B) flexion.

Ch17: Which of the following structures is usually not injured with an impingement syndrome? A) long head of biceps brachii B) short head of biceps brachii C) subacromial bursa D) supraspinatus

B) short head of biceps brachii

Ch21: A deformity of the neck in which the head tilts toward one shoulder and, simultaneously, the chin rotates toward the opposite shoulder is termed A) kyphosis. B) scoliosis. C) torticollis. D) neurapraxia.

C) torticollis.

Ch17: Limited motion in the ________ plane is permitted at the AC joint. A) sagittal B) frontal C) transverse D) all of the above

D) all of the above

CH16: The iliofemoral ligament prevents excessive: A) abduction B) adduction C) hip flexion D) hip extension

D) hip extension

Ch17: (T/F) If untreated, a thoracic outlet compression syndrome could result in thrombophlebitis

T

Ch22: In assessing lumbar spine disorders, the ______ test is used to determine if the patient is a malingerer. a. Valsalva b. Milgram c. Hoover d. Slump

c. Hoover

CH16: A baseball player sustains a contusion after being struck in the thigh by a line drive. Explain the management of this injury.

ice in flexed position

CH16: A contusion caused by direct compression to an unprotected iliac crest is referred to as: A) a hip pointer B) an iliac hematoma C) an iliac tenosynovitis D) myositis ossificans

A) a hip pointer

Ch17: Speed's test is used to test what condition of the shoulder area? A) bicipital tendinitis B) rotator cuff impingement C) AC sprain D) rotator cuff tear

A) bicipital tendinitis

Ch17: The main function of the rotator cuff muscles is to: A) hold the head of the humerus in the glenoid fossa B) perform abduction and external rotation C) perform abduction and internal rotation D) facilitate scapulothoracic motions

A) hold the head of the humerus in the glenoid fossa

Ch16: An excessive Q-angle predisposes an individual to: A) patella injuries B) iliofemoral ligament sprain C) sacroiliac joint dysfunction D) iliopsoas bursitis

A) patella injuries

Ch21: The vertebrae that consists of a bony ring with large, flat, superior articular facets on which the skull rests is the A) annulus fibrosus. B) atlas. C) axis. D) dens.

B) atlas.

CH16: The weakest component of the femur is the: A) femoral head B) femoral neck C) femoral shaft D) supracondylar ridge

B) femoral neck

CH16: The zona orbicularis attaches to the femoral neck in a circular fashion and contributes to: A) hip flexibility B) hip stability C) internal thigh rotation D) external thigh rotation

B) hip stability

CH16: It is not unusual to have severe bleeding after a femoral fracture lead to: A) anaphylactic shock B) hypovolemic shock C) metabolic shock D) septic shock

B) hypovolemic shock

CH16: Overdevelopment of which muscle(s) can lead to anterior pelvic tilt? A) hamstrings B) iliopsoas C) pectineus D) rectus femoris

B) iliopsoas

Ch16: All of the following are frequent complaints with a stress fracture to the pubis or femoral neck except: A) inguinal pain B) pain while using the flutter kick C) dull pain D) night pain

B) pain while using the flutter kick

CH16: Tenderness upon palpation of the ischial tuberosity may indicate all of the following, except: A) hamstring tendonitis B) sciatica C) ischial bursitis D) avulsion fracture

B) sciatica

Ch17: An individual reports numbness in the side of the neck, which extends across the shoulder and down the medial arm to the ulnar aspect of the hand, accompanied by weakness in grasp and atrophy of hand musculature. What injury should be suspected? A) rotator cuff tear B) cervical plexus injury C) acromioclavicular separation D) thoracic outlet syndrome

C) acromioclavicular separation

Ch21: The functional unit of the spine is called the A) intervertebral disk. B) ligamentum nuchae. C) motion segment. D) vertebrae.

C) motion segment.

Ch17: Which muscle does not serve an important function in preventing impingement of the supraspinatus and subacromial bursa during the throwing motion? A) infraspinatus B) subscapularis C) teres major D) teres minor

C) teres major

Ch17: A mild acromioclavicular sprain is treated with: I. ice application II. NSAIDs III. immobilization with a sling IV. referral to a physician V. activity as tolerated A) I and III B) II and IV C) I, II, and III D) I, II, and V

D) I, II, and V

Ch17: (T/F) Active movement during an assessment for the shoulder region should always begin with neck motion

T

Ch22: (T/F) An abnormal pelvic tilt and rotation of the hip secondary to tight hamstrings, hip rotators, and quadratus may be evident with facet joint pathology.

T

Ch22: (T/F) An individual with lumbar spinal stenosis develops back and leg pain after walking a limited distance, which concomitantly increases as distance increases.

T

Ch22: (T/F) Spondylolysis may result from repetitive trunk extension and rotation

T

Ch22: (T/F) Sprains of the SI joint may result from excessive side-to-side or up-and-down motion during running.

T

Ch22: (T/F) The lumbar plexus is formed by the T12 through L5 nerve roots

T

Ch22: (T/F) The piriformis muscle and quadratus lumborum are common trigger point sites associated with extended sitting, standing, running, and walking activities.

T

Ch22: (T/F) The sacral curve is convex posteriorly.

T

Ch22: A fracture of the pars interarticularis is termed: a. spondylolysis b. spear tackler's spine c. spinal stenosis d. spondylolisthesis

a. spondylolysis

Ch22: If an individual has a diminished patellar reflex and weak ankle dorsiflexion, which nerve root is injured? a. L3 b. L4 c. L2 d. S1

b. L4

Ch16 (T/F): What is a hip pointer?

type of contusion that resides in the iliac crest over the TFL muscle, with association of a hematoma. this is caused by a direct blow to the iliac crest, and is most common in anterior and later part of the crest

CH16: All of the following are done to prevent formation of myositis ossificans, except: A) PNF stretching during the acute phase B) protective padding prior to sports re-entry C) cryotherapy D) thermotherapy during the subacute phase

A) PNF stretching during the acute phase

CH16: Which of the following is used to determine the severity of a hamstring strain? A) passive knee flexion B) active and resistive knee flexion C) active and resistive knee extension D) resistive hip flexion

B) active and resistive knee flexion

Ch16: The _____ bursa provides a cushion between the greater trochanter of the femur and the gluteus maximus. A) iliopsoas B) deep trochanteric C) gluteofemoral D) ischial

B) deep trochanteric

CH16: A condition that may occur after a contusion to the quadriceps muscle group involving abnormal ossification of bone deposition within the muscle tissue is called: A) exostosis B) myositis ossificans C) myochondritis exostosis D) osteochondritis

B) myositis ossificans

CH16: An athlete experienced an acute muscular injury to the soft tissue of the anterior hip. Upon manual muscle testing, you find weakness upon hip flexion and knee extension. Based on results of manual muscle testing, which of the following is most likely? A) biceps femoris strain B) rectus femoris strain C) gluteus medius strain D) iliopsoas strain

B) rectus femoris strain

CH16: A blood clot that travels through the circulatory system to lodge in a blood vessel in the lungs is called: A) arteriosclerosis B) arterioplasty C) pulmonary arteritis D) pulmonary embolism

D) pulmonary embolism

CH16: Runners who cross the feet over their midline during running increase the Q-angle and can develop: A) gluteus medius strain B) iliopsoas bursitis C) pes anserine bursitis D) trochanteric bursitis

D) trochanteric bursitis

Ch22: (T/F) The most common clinical sign associated with lordosis is the tendency to lean forward when walking or standing.

F

Ch22: (T/F) Lifting with the trunk erect minimizes the tension requirement for muscles of the lumbar spine.

T

Ch22: If an individual has a diminished quadriceps reflex and weak ankle dorsiflexion, what nerve root is injured? a. L3 b. L4 c. L5 d. S1

b. L4

Ch22: If nerve root L5 is irritated or damaged, myotome weakness will be found in: a. toe flexion b. toe extension c. ankle dorsiflexion d. ankle plantarflexion

b. toe extension

CH16: In hip dislocation, when the head of the femur displaces in a posterior-superior direction, the leg typically rests in what position? A) extended and externally rotated B) extended and internally rotated C) flexed and externally rotated D) flexed and internally rotated

D) flexed and internally rotated

Ch16 (T/F): The Kendall test is used to assess iliotibial band tightness.

F

Ch22: (T/F) Low back pain is common in runners who have muscle tightness in the hip flexors and hamstrings.

T

Ch22: (T/F) The sacral plexus supplies the muscles of the buttock region and, through the sciatic nerve, the muscles of the posterior thigh and entire lower leg.

T

Ch22: (T/F) The sciatic nerve can be palpated midway between the ischial tuberosity and the greater trochanter.

T

Ch22: When the body is in an upright position, the line of gravity passes where in relation to the spinal column? a. anterior to the spinal column b. posterior to the spinal column c. through the middle of the lumbar vertebrae d. through the middle of the thoracic vertebrae

a. anterior to the spinal column

Ch22: Hip flexion consists of: a. anteriorly directed sagittal plane rotation of the femur with respect to the pelvic girdle b. posteriorly directed sagittal plane rotation of the femur with respect to the pelvic girdle c. anteriorly directed movement of the anterior superior iliac spine with respect to the pubic symphysis d. posteriorly directed movement of the anterior superior iliac spine with respect to the pubic symphysis

a. anteriorly directed sagittal plane rotation of the femur with respect to the pelvic girdle

Ch22: When disc nuclear material moves into the spinal canal and impinges on adjacent nerve roots, it is called a(n): a. extruded disc b. herniated disc c. prolapsed disc d. sequestrated disc

a. extruded disc

Ch22: During spondylolysis and spondylolisthesis, muscle spasms often occur in the: a. rectus abdominis b. erector spinae and hamstrings c. erector spinae and quadriceps d. rectus abdominis and quadriceps

b. erector spinae and hamstrings

Ch22: A person with sciatica, with sensory and reflex changes, muscle weakness, and normal bowel and bladder function, may return to sports participation: a. in 6 to 12 weeks b. in 12 to 24 weeks c. after surgical decompression and rehabilitation d. probably never

b. in 12 to 24 weeks

Ch22: Actions involving stimulation of a motor neuron by a sensory neuron in the spinal cord without involvement of the brain are called: a. cauda equina b. reflexes c. segmental nerves d. spinal nerves

b. reflexes

Ch22: A patient with sciatica caused by an annular tear will report: a. pain localized over a facet joint on spinal extension b. that back pain is greater than radiating leg pain c. that radiating pain is greater than back pain d. pain that is not reproduced with straight leg raising

b. that back pain is greater than radiating leg pain

Ch22: Runners are often at risk for low back pain due to: a. tight hip extensors and quadriceps muscles b. tight hip flexors and hamstring muscles c. tight abdominal muscles d. tight back muscles

b. tight hip flexors and hamstring muscles

Ch22: The top of the iliac crest is the landmark for which vertebra? a. T 12 b. L2 c. L4 d. S1

c. L4

Ch22: The focus of a rehabilitation program following spondylolisthesis should be: a. flexibility of the quadriceps and gluteal muscles; strengthening of the abdomen b. flexibility of the quadriceps and gluteal muscles; strengthening of the back c. flexibility of the hamstrings and gluteal muscles; strengthening of the abdomen and back extensors d. flexibility of the hamstrings and gluteal muscles; strengthening of the back extensors

c. flexibility of the hamstrings and gluteal muscles; strengthening of the abdomen and back extensors

Ch22: A condition of reduced bone mineralization that is more commonly seen in women in the lumbar region is called: a. anemia b. osteochondritis dissecans c. osteopenia d. Scheuermann's disease

c. osteopenia

Ch22: A bilateral separation in the pars interarticularis that leads to anterior displacement of a vertebra is: a. lordosis b. spina bifida c. spondylolisthesis d. spondylolysis

c. spondylolisthesis

Ch22: Which of the following is not a characteristic of facet joint pathology? a. nonspecific low back pain of a deep and achy quality b. visible flattening of lumbar lordosis c. pain that radiates into the posterior thigh d. pain that radiates into the posterior lower leg

d. pain that radiates into the posterior lower leg

Ch22: Lordosis is often associated with: a. strong abdominal muscles and a posterior pelvic tilt b. strong abdominal muscles and a forward pelvic tilt c. weak abdominal muscles and a posterior tilt d. weak abdominal muscles and a forward tilt

d. weak abdominal muscles and a forward tilt

Ch22: Describe strategies for reducing low back pain in runners.

decreasing pain should start with a flexible training program that progresses in distance, speed, and hill work. flexibility and strength exercises should also be included for hip and legs to decrease risk of injury

Ch22: (T/F) Repeated, extreme lumbar hyperextension is associated with increased risk of a stress fracture of the pars interarticularis region of the spine.

T

Ch21: What is the clinical significance of Erb point? A) It is the most superficial position of the brachial plexus. B) It is the best location to palpate the carotid artery. C) It is the best location to palpate the facet joints. D) It is the most superficial position of the middle scalene.

A) It is the most superficial position of the brachial plexus.

Ch21: Osteochondrosis of the spine because of abnormal epiphyseal plate behavior that allows for herniation of the disk into the vertebral body is termed A) Scheuermann disease. B) intervertebral disk disease. C) spinal stenosis. D) Brown-Séquard syndrome.

A) Scheuermann disease.

Ch17: A painful arc is characterized by a(n): A) inability to actively abduct the arm between 70 and 120 degrees B) inability to actively adduct the arm between 70 and 120 degrees C) inability to passively abduct the arm between 70 and 120 degrees D) inability to passively adduct the arm between 70 and 120 degrees

A) inability to actively abduct the arm between 70 and 120 degrees

Ch21: In an injury involving the spinal cord, a transient loss of somatic and autonomic reflex activity below the level of neurological damage is called A) spinal shock. B) neurogenic shock. C) neurapraxia. D) paralysis.

A) spinal shock.

Ch17: The _____ bursa may be irritated when repeatedly compressed during the overhand throwing motion. A) subacromial B) subscapularis C) biceps D) subcoracoid

A) subacromial

Ch17: Circumduction and pendulum swings are examples of range-of-motion exercises collectively known as: A) closed-chain exercises B) Codman's exercises C) Theraband exercises D) T-bar exercises

B) Codman's exercises

Ch21: Which of the following characteristics would suggest a cervical sprain rather than strain? A) Restricted ROM B) Symptoms that persists for several days C) Pain D) Stiffness

B) Symptoms that persists for several days

Ch17: The primary shoulder flexors are the: A) anterior deltoid and sternal portion of the pectoralis major B) anterior deltoid and clavicular portion of the pectoralis major C) middle deltoid, pectoralis major, and biceps D) middle deltoid, supraspinatus, and biceps

B) anterior deltoid and clavicular portion of the pectoralis major

Ch17: An athlete reports with his head turned to the right side and supporting his right arm with the left arm. What injury should be suspected? A) scapular fracture B) clavicular fracture C) torn biceps tendon D) brachial plexus injury

B) clavicular fracture

Ch17: Nearly all injuries at the SC joint result from: A) bending B) compression C) shear D) tension

B) compression

Ch17: Most injuries to the rotator cuff occur during which phase of throwing? A) cocking phase B) deceleration phase C) acceleration phase D) stride phase

B) deceleration phase

Ch17: Which one of the following is not a rotator cuff muscle? A) teres minor B) pectoralis major C) supraspinatus D) subscapularis

B) pectoralis major

Ch17: A type II acromioclavicular sprain involves a: A) rupture of the AC ligament and partial tear of the coracoclavicular ligament B) rupture of the AC ligament and tear of the coracoclavicular ligament C) tear of the AC ligament and capsule D) rupture of the AC ligament, tear of the coracoclavicular ligament, and tearing of the deltoid and trapezius fascia

B) rupture of the AC ligament and tear of the coracoclavicular ligament

Ch21: A classic sign of an acute burner is muscle weakness in actions involving A) shoulder adduction and internal rotation. B) shoulder abduction and external rotation. C) shoulder flexion. D) shoulder extension.

B) shoulder abduction and external rotation

Ch17: The most commonly injured bursa in the shoulder is the: A) biceps bursa B) subacromial bursa C) subcoracoid bursa D) subscapularis bursa

B) subacromial bursa

Ch17: The coracoclavicular joint is a ______ joint, formed by the binding together of the coracoid process of the scapula and the inferior surface of the clavicle by the coracoclavicular ligament. A) diarthrotic B) syndesmosis C) gliding D) synovial

B) syndesmosis

Ch21: The function of the intervertebral disks is A) to allow the spine to bend. B) to serve as shock absorbers. C) to protect the spinal cord. D) to prevent excessive spinal movement.

B) to serve as shock absorbers.

Ch17: In a rotator cuff strain, pain increases when the arm moves actively between what degrees of abduction? A) 0 to 30 B) 40 to 70 C) 70 to 120 D) 120 to 180

C) 70 to 120

Ch17: In a glenohumeral dislocation, the glenoid labrum can be damaged or avulsed from the anterior lip of the glenoid fossa, leading to what type of injury? A) anterior deformity B) anterior stress lesion C) Bankart lesion D) impingement lesion

C) Bankart lesion

Ch17: Apley's scratch test is used primarily to determine: A) rotator cuff pathology B) ROM of flexion/extension C) ROM of internal and external rotation D) inferior glenohumeral dislocations

C) ROM of internal and external rotation

Ch21: Which of the following signs and symptoms is not related to neurological deficits or damage? A) Radiating pain B) Loss of bladder control C) Referred pain D) Weakness in myotomes

C) Referred pain

Ch17: A more effective method of testing the integrity of the biceps brachii tendon is: A) the biceps brachii reflex test B) an impingement test C) Speed's test D) Yergason's test

C) Speed's test

Ch17: An athlete with a distal clavicle fracture may exhibit clinical signs and symptoms similar to those of: A) subacromial bursitis B) rotator cuff tendinitis C) an acromioclavicular sprain D) impingement

C) an acromioclavicular sprain

Ch21: During a brachial plexus injury, muscular weakness is evident in the A) internal rotators and deltoid. B) external rotators and deltoid. C) external rotators, deltoid, and biceps brachii. D) internal rotators, deltoid, and biceps brachii.

C) external rotators, deltoid, and biceps brachii.

Ch17: The middle portion of the deltoid is responsible for what motion? A) flexion, horizontal adduction B) extension, horizontal adduction C) flexion and extension D) abduction, horizontal abduction

C) flexion and extension

Ch16: Which of the following limits hip hyperextension? A) acetabulum B) ischiofemoral ligament C) iliofemoral ligament D) gluteus maximus

C) iliofemoral ligament

Ch17: Nearly 80% of all clavicular fractures occur where? A) at the acromion process B) medial one third C) middle one third D) distal one third

C) middle one third

CH16: Acute inflammation of a vein is called: A) arteriosclerosis B) phlebothrombosis C) thrombophlebitis D) venous cavitation

C) thrombophlebitis

Ch21: After executing a tackle by leading with his head, a football player is down on the field. All of the following suggest an unstable neck EXCEPT A) the player is unconscious. B) the player is conscious and reports numbness in the upper extremities. C) the player is conscious, neurologically intact, and reports neck pain. D) None of the above

D) None of the above

Ch21: Which of the following signs or symptoms would NOT indicate a cervical spinal injury? A) Muscular weakness in extremities B) Absent or weak reflexes C) Sensory changes in the upper clavicular area D) Positive Babinski test result

D) Positive Babinski test result

Ch21: The most common mechanism of injury for a cervical fracture is A) a lateral blow causing rapid lateral flexion of the neck. B) a violent muscle contraction. C) forceful hyperextension. D) axial loading and violent neck flexion.

D) axial loading and violent neck flexion

Ch17: Tendinitis of the anterior shoulder muscles is common: A) after sustaining a direct blow to the lateral upper arm B) during the preparatory or cocking phase of the overhand throwing motion C) during the acceleration or delivery phase of the overhand throwing motion D) during the deceleration phase of the overhand throwing motion

D) during the deceleration phase of the overhand throwing motion

Ch17: Maximum shearing force of the glenohumeral joint has been found when the arm is _____ to approximately _____. A) rotated, 60 degrees B) rotated, 90 degrees C) rotated, 120 degrees D) elevated, 60 degrees

D) elevated, 60 degrees

Ch17: In a moderate AC joint sprain, what motion will cause increased pain and a snapping sound at the joint? A) glenohumeral flexion B) glenohumeral rotation C) horizontal abduction D) horizontal adduction

D) horizontal adduction

Ch17: After receiving a blow to the sternum, an athlete has difficulty swallowing, a diminished pulse, and hoarseness. What injury may have occurred? A) glenohumeral dislocation B) fracture of the sternum C) fractured clavicle D) posterior displacement of the clavicle

D) posterior displacement of the clavicle

Ch21: Actions involving stimulation of a motor neuron by a sensory neuron in the spinal cord without involvement of the brain are called: A) cauda equina. B) reflexes. C) segmental nerves. D) spinal nerves.

D) spinal nerves.

Ch21: A loss of cerebrospinal fluid around the spinal cord because of deformation of the spinal cord or a narrowing of the neural canal is called A) spina bifida. B) Scheuermann disease. C) spinal occlusion. D) spinal stenosis.

D) spinal stenosis.

Ch17: A condition in which nerves and/or vessels become compressed in the root of the neck or axilla, leading to numbness in the arm, is called: A) dead arm syndrome B) impingement syndrome C) little league shoulder D) thoracic outlet syndrome

D) thoracic outlet syndrome

Ch17: (T/F) Fractures of the lesser tubercle of the humerus are often associated with anterior glenohumeral dislocations

F

Ch17: (T/F) Impingement syndrome is typically seen in individuals under 25 years of age

F

Ch17: (T/F) In recurrent anterior glenohumeral dislocations, the forces needed to produce the injury are increased

F

Ch17: (T/F) The mechanism of injury for a posterior glenohumeral dislocation is a fall on an outstretched arm that is forced into abduction and external rotation.

F

Ch17: (T/F) The subcoracoid bursa cushions the rotator cuff muscles from the overlying bony acromion

F

Ch21: (T/F) A cervical fracture or dislocation automatically produces signs of a serious neck injury, namely, sensory or motor problems

F

Ch21: (T/F) Cervical fractures occur more frequently than cervical dislocations

F

Ch17: (T/F) A Hill-Sachs lesion is a small defect in the articular cartilage of the humeral head associated with an anterior dislocation of the glenohumeral joint

T

Ch17: (T/F) A SLAP lesion is a superior labral tear that may disrupt the attachment of the long head of the biceps tendon

T

Ch17: (T/F) Closed-chain exercises may be performed immediately after injury

T

Ch17: (T/F) During 90 to 180 degrees of glenohumeral abduction, the infraspinatus, subscapularis, and teres minor produce inferiorly directed force to neutralize the superiorly directed dislocating force of the middle deltoid

T

Ch17: (T/F) If the inferior angle of the scapula on the dominant arm is a greater distance from the spine, one should suspect weak rhomboids on the dominant arm side

T

Ch17: (T/F) In a rotator cuff injury, pain increases when the arm is in 30 degrees of horizontal adduction and then moves through active and resisted movement between 70 and 120 degrees of abduction

T

Ch17: (T/F) Most direct causes of anterior glenohumeral dislocations are situations in which the arm is forced into abduction and external rotation

T

Ch17: (T/F) The SC joint is a ball-and-socket synovial joint that enables rotation of the clavicle with respect to the sternum.

T

Ch17: (T/F) The point at which the clavicle changes shape and contour presents a structural weakness, and the largest number of fractures to the bone occurs at this point.

T

Ch17: (T/F) The rhomboids must relax to enable anterior movement of the glenohumeral joint during the throwing motion

T

Ch17: (T/F) Thoracic outlet compression syndrome is often aggravated in overhead rotational stresses while the muscles are loaded

T

Ch17: (T/F) When an athlete has sustained a clavicle fracture, he/she will support the injured arm with the unaffected arm.

T

Ch21: (T/F) A cervical sprain has the same mechanism of injury as a cervical strain, but the action is more violent in nature for the sprain

T

Ch21: (T/F) A cervical sprain usually involves the sternocleidomastoid and the trapezius.

T

Ch21: (T/F) Because the intervertebral disks are avascular, they rely on changes in posture and body position to produce a pumping action to bring in nutrients

T

Ch21: (T/F) The spinal nerve is composed of two roots. One root is responsible for motor function; the other root is responsible for sensory function

T

Ch22: Which of the following tests is not used to assess sacroiliac dysfunction? a. approximation test b. Faber test c. Gaenslen's test d. Oppenheim test

d. Oppenheim test

Ch22: Lumbar facet pathology may involve: a. subluxation or dislocation of the facet b. facet joint syndrome c. degeneration of the facet d. all of the above

d. all of the above

Ch22: Compression loads on the lumbar spine are greatest during: a. walking b. back hyperextension c. trunk flexion d. sitting in a slouched position

d. sitting in a slouched position

Ch22: (T/F) Because the intervertebral discs are avascular, they rely on changes in posture and body position to produce a pumping action to bring in nutrients

T

CH16: In a femoral shaft fracture, the thigh appears: A) shortened and externally rotated B) shortened and internally rotated C) to be the same length, but externally rotated D) to be the same length, but internally rotated

A) shortened and externally rotated

Ch22: (T/F) Because the spinal cord ends at about the L1 or L2 level, fractures of the lumbar vertebrae below this point do not pose a serious threat but should be handled with care to minimize potential nerve damage to the cauda equina.

T

Ch22: (T/F) During the straight leg raising test, pain that occurs opposite the leg lifted indicates a herniated disc.

T

CH16: Avascular necrosis of the proximal femoral epiphysis is called: A) Larsen-Johansson disease B) Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease C) Osgood-Schlatter disease D) osteochondritis dissecans

B) Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease

Ch16 (T/F): The hamstrings are important dynamic stabilizers of the knee and, therefore, strengthening exercises for this muscle group should be a major component of any hip or knee rehabilitation program

T

Ch21: (T/F) Axial compression loading has been identified as the leading mechanism of injury for severe cervical spine injuries

T

Ch21: (T/F) Extension exercises reduce load on the intervertebral disks and allow self-mobilization of the motion segments

T

Ch21: (T/F) Fractures and dislocations commonly occur at the 4th, 5th, and 6th cervical vertebrae.

T

Ch21: (T/F) In a brachial plexus injury, pain is usually transient and resolves itself in 5 to 10 minutes

T

Ch22: (T/F) A bony defect in spondylolysis tends to occur before age 8, yet often does not produce symptoms until ages 10 to 15.

T

Ch16 (T/F): The femur angles laterally downward from the hip during the support phase of walking and running, enabling single-leg support beneath the body's center of gravity.

F

Ch16 (T/F): The quadriceps muscles are the most frequently strained muscles in the body.

F

Ch21: (T/F) Approximately 70% to 90% of all cases of scoliosis can be directly linked to overdevelopment of muscles on the dominant side of the thorax or to a leg length discrepancy.

F

Ch22: (T/F) A lumbar fracture at the L5 level could be catastrophic if a bony fragment pierces the spinal cord, and could result in total nerve disruption distal to that site.

F

Ch22: (T/F) An extruded disc is associated with a definite deformity produced by the eccentric nucleus as it works its way through the fibers of the annulus

F

Ch22: (T/F) If the sciatic nerve is compressed by the piriformis muscle, pain increases during external rotation of the thigh

F

Ch22: (T/F) Most of the axial compression load on the spine is borne by the facet joints

F

Ch22: (T/F) Sciatica with hard signs is characterized by some sensory changes, mild or no reflex change, normal muscle strength, and normal bowel and bladder function.

F

Ch22: (T/F) Scoliosis can be directly linked to overdevelopment of muscles on the dominant side of the thorax or to a leg length discrepancy

F

Ch22: (T/F) Spinal rotation capability is greatest in the lower lumbar region.

F

Ch22: (T/F) The lumbar region permits the largest cumulative range of motion in flexion/extension with 46 degrees, compared with 16 degrees in the thoracic region.

F

Ch22: (T/F) The most commonly herniated discs are the lower two lumbar discs, with ruptures occurring on the anterior or anterolateral aspect of the disc.

F

Ch22: (T/F) To reduce some compressive loading on the lumbar region, runners should run with a slight forward lean and avoid overstriding to increase speed.

F

Ch22: (T/F) Weak ankle plantarflexion and a reduced Achilles tendon reflex indicate an L5 nerve root injury.

F

Ch22: (T/F) A potential sign of sciatica due to disc herniation is pain that increases with forward sitting, coughing, and sneezing.

T