Exam #4 Adult 1,

NPH is an example of which type of insulin? Rapid-acting Short-acting Intermediate-acting Long-acting

Intermediate-acting

Gynecomastia is a common side effect of which of the following diuretics? Spironolactone Furosemide Vasopressin Nitroglycerin (IV)

Spironolactone

A client who is 24 hours post op from laparoscopic cholecystectomy calls the nurse and reports pain in the right shoulder. How should the nurse respond to the client's report of symptoms? "Apply a heating pad to your shoulder for 15 minutes hourly as needed." "Come into the emergency room as soon as possible." "Take an over the counter analgesic as needed." "Place your shoulder in a sling to avoid moving it."

"Apply a heating pad to your shoulder for 15 minutes hourly as needed." Pain in the right shoulder may occur after laparoscopic cholecystectomy due to migration of the carbon dioxide used to insufflate the abdominal cavity during the procedure. The nurse should instruct the client to apply a heating pad to the shoulder for 15 to 20 minutes every hour as needed for pain relief.

A student accepted into a nursing program must begin receiving the hepatitis B series of injections. The student asks when the next two injections should be administered. What is the best response by the instructor? "You must have the second one in 2 weeks and the third in 1 month." "You must have the second one in 1 month and the third in 6 months." "You must have the second one in 6 months and the third in 1 year." "You must have the second one in 1 year and the third the following year."

"You must have the second one in 1 month and the third in 6 months."

What is the duration of regular insulin? 4 to 6 hours 3 to 5 hours 12 to 16 hours 24 hours

4 to 6 hours The duration of regular insulin is 4 to 6 hours; 3 to 5 hours is the duration for rapid-acting insulin such as Novolog. The duration of NPH insulin is 12 to 16 hours. The duration of Lantus insulin is 24 hours.

A client with diabetes comes to the clinic for a follow-up visit. The nurse reviews the client's glycosylated hemoglobin test results. Which result would indicate to the nurse that the client's blood glucose level has been well-controlled? 6.5% 7.5 % 8.0% 8.5%

6.5% Normally the level of glycosylated hemoglobin is less than 7%. Thus a level of 6.5% would indicate that the client's blood glucose level is well-controlled. According to the American Diabetes Association, a glycosylated hemoglobin of 7% is equivalent to an average blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL. Thus, a level of 7.5% would indicate less control. Amount of 8% or greater indicate that control of the client's blood glucose level has been inadequate during the previous 2 to 3 months.

A patient is ordered desmopressin (DDAVP) for the treatment of diabetes insipidus. What therapeutic response does the nurse anticipate the patient will experience? A decrease in blood pressure A decrease in blood glucose levels A decrease in urine output A decrease in appetite

A decrease in urine output Desmopressin (DDAVP), a synthetic vasopressin without the vascular effects of natural ADH, is particularly valuable because it has a longer duration of action and fewer adverse effects than other preparations previously used to treat the disease. DDAVP and lypressin (Diapid) reduce urine output to 2 to 3 L/24 hours. It is administered intranasally; the patient sprays the solution into the nose through a flexible calibrated plastic tube. One or two administrations daily (i.e., every 12 to 24 hours) usually control the symptoms

What is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for the client with acute pancreatitis? Deficient fluid volume Excess fluid volume Decreased cardiac output Ineffective gastrointestinal tissue perfusion

Deficient fluid volume Clients with acute pancreatitis often experience deficient fluid volume, which can lead to hypovolemic shock. Vomiting, hemorrhage (in hemorrhagic pancreatitis), and plasma leaking into the peritoneal cavity may cause the volume deficit. Hypovolemic shock will cause a decrease in cardiac output. Gastrointestinal tissue perfusion will be ineffective if hypovolemic shock occurs, but this wouldn't be the primary nursing diagnosis.

A client has developed drug-induced hepatitis from a drug reaction to antidepressants. What treatment does the nurse anticipate the client will receive to treat the reaction? Paracentesis Liver transplantation High-dose corticosteroids Azathioprine

High-dose corticosteroids Drug-induced hepatitis occurs when a drug reaction damages the liver. This form of hepatitis can be severe and fatal. High-dose corticosteroids usually administered first to treat the reaction. Liver transplantation may be necessary. Paracentesis would be used to withdrawal fluid for the treatment of ascites. Azathioprine (Imuran) may be used for autoimmune hepatitis.

Which statement is correct regarding glargine insulin? Its peak action occurs in 2 to 3 hours. It cannot be mixed with any other type of insulin. It is absorbed rapidly. It is given twice daily.

It cannot be mixed with any other type of insulin. Because this insulin is in a suspension with a pH of 4, it cannot be mixed with other insulins because this would cause precipitation. There is no peak in action. It is approved to give once daily.

A client has been recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes, and reports continued weight loss despite increased hunger and food consumption. This condition is called: polyphagia. polydipsia. polyuria. anorexia.

Polyphagia While the needed glucose is being wasted, the body's requirement for fuel continues. The person with diabetes feels hungry and eats more (polyphagia). Despite eating more, he or she loses weight as the body uses fat and protein to substitute for glucose.

Which is the primary reason for encouraging injection site rotation in an insulin dependent diabetic? Avoid infection. Promote absorption. Minimize discomfort. Prevent muscle destruction.

Promote absorption. Subcutaneous injection sites require rotation to avoid breakdown and/or buildup of subcutaneous fat, either of which can interfere with insulin absorption in the tissue.

A client is admitted to the unit with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which insulin would the nurse expect to administer intravenously? Glargine Regular NPH Lente

Regular Regular insulin is administered intravenously to treat DKA. It is added to an IV solution and infused continuously. Glargine, NPH, and Lente are only administered subcutaneously.

A client with acute pancreatitis reports muscle cramping in the lower extremities. What pathophysiology concept represents the reason the client is reporting this? Tetany related to hypocalcemia Muscle spasm related to hypokalemia Muscle pain related to referred pain manifestations Tetany related to hypercalcemia

Tetany related to hypocalcemia A client with acute pancreatitis who reports muscle cramping or pain should be suspected of having hypocalcemia and tetany of the muscles. Hypocalcemia may occur in acute pancreatitis because, when auto digestion of the pancreas occurs, calcium binds to fatty acids and calcium is decreased in the blood. This is a potentially life-threatening complication of pancreatitis and needs to be immediately addressed.

A nurse is educating a client who has been treated for hepatic encephalopathy about dietary restrictions to prevent ammonia accumulation. What should the nurse include in the dietary teaching? Decrease the amount of fats in the diet. Increase the amount of potassium in the diet. The amount of protein is not restricted in the diet. Increase the amount of magnesium in the diet.

The amount of protein is not restricted in the diet.

A client newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus asks why he needs ketone testing when the disease affects his blood glucose levels. How should the nurse respond? "The spleen releases ketones when your body can't use glucose." "Ketones will tell us if your body is using other tissues for energy." "Ketones can damage your kidneys and eyes." "Ketones help the physician determine how serious your diabetes is."

"Ketones will tell us if your body is using other tissues for energy." The nurse should tell the client that ketones are a byproduct of fat metabolism and that ketone testing can determine whether the body is breaking down fat to use for energy. The spleen doesn't release ketones when the body can't use glucose. Although ketones can damage the eyes and kidneys and help the physician evaluate the severity of a client's diabetes, these responses by the nurse are incomplete.

A client with diabetes mellitus must learn how to self-administer insulin. The physician has ordered 10 units of U-100 regular insulin and 35 units of U-100 isophane insulin suspension (NPH) to be taken before breakfast. When teaching the client how to select and rotate insulin injection sites, the nurse should provide which instruction? "Inject insulin into healthy tissue with large blood vessels and nerves." "Rotate injection sites within the same anatomic region, not among different regions." "Administer insulin into areas of scar tissue or hypertrophy whenever possible." "Administer insulin into sites above muscles that you plan to exercise heavily later that day."

"Rotate injection sites within the same anatomic region, not among different regions." The nurse should instruct the client to rotate injection sites within the same anatomic region. Rotating sites among different regions may cause excessive day-to-day variations in the blood glucose level; also, insulin absorption differs from one region to the next.

A client with liver and renal failure has severe ascites. On initial shift rounds, his primary nurse finds his indwelling urinary catheter collection bag too full to store more urine. The nurse empties more than 2,000 ml from the collection bag. One hour later, she finds the collection bag full again. The nurse notifies the physician, who suspects that a bladder rupture is allowing the drainage of peritoneal fluid. The physician orders a urinalysis to be obtained immediately. The presence of which substance is considered abnormal? Creatinine Urobilinogen Chloride Albumin

Albumin Albumin is an abnormal finding in a routine urine specimen. Ascites present in liver failure contain albumin; therefore, if the bladder ruptured, ascites containing albumin would drain from the indwelling urinary catheter because the catheter is no longer contained in the bladder. Creatinine, urobilinogen, and chloride are normally found in urine.

The nurse is caring for a patient with cirrhosis of the liver and observes that the patient is having hand-flapping tremors. What does the nurse document this finding as? Constructional apraxia Fetor hepaticus Ataxia Asterixis

Asterixis Asterixis, an involuntary flapping of the hands, may be seen in stage II encephalopathy

A child is brought into the emergency department with vomiting, drowsiness, and blowing respirations. The father reports that the symptoms have been progressing throughout the day. The nurse suspects diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which action should the nurse take first in the management of DKA? Give prescribed antiemetics. Begin fluid replacements. Administer prescribed dose of insulin. Administer bicarbonate to correct acidosis.

Begin fluid replacements. Management of DKA is aimed at correcting dehydration, electrolyte loss, and acidosis before correcting the hyperglycemia with insulin.

A client who had developed jaundice 2 months earlier is brought to the ED after attending a party and developing excruciating pain that radiated over the abdomen and into the back. Upon assessment, which additional symptom would the nurse expect this client to have? Hypertension Bile-stained vomiting Warm, dry skin Weight loss

Bile-stained vomiting Nausea and vomiting are common in acute pancreatitis. The emesis is usually gastric in origin but may also be bile stained. Fever, jaundice, mental confusion, and agitation may also occur.

A client is admitted with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS). Which laboratory finding should the nurse expect in this client? Arterial pH 7.25 Plasma bicarbonate 12 mEq/L Blood glucose level 1,100 mg/dl Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 15 mg/dl

Blood glucose level 1,100 mg/dl HHNS occurs most frequently in older clients. It can occur in clients with either type 1 or type 2 diabetes mellitus but occurs most commonly in those with type 2. The blood glucose level rises to above 600 mg/dl in response to illness or infection. As the blood glucose level rises, the body attempts to rid itself of the excess glucose by producing urine. Initially, the client produces large quantities of urine. If fluid intake isn't increased at this time, the client becomes dehydrated, causing BUN levels to rise. Arterial pH and plasma bicarbonate levels typically remain within normal limits.

When inspecting the abdomen of a client with cirrhosis, the nurse observes that the veins over the abdomen are dilated. The nurse documents this finding as which of the following? Gynecomastia Cutaneous spider angioma Caput medusae Palmar erythema

Caput medusae Caput medusa is a term used to denote the appearance of dilated veins over the client's abdomen. Gynecomastia refers to enlarged breasts in a male, which may occur because the dysfunctional liver is unable to metabolize estrogen. Palmer erythema refers to the bright pink appearance of the palms and cutaneous spider angioma refers to tiny, spider-like blood vessels that may be apparent in a client with cirrhosis due to the liver's inability to inactivate estrogen.

A nurse is teaching a client about insulin infusion pump use. What intervention should the nurse include to prevent infection at the injection site? Change the needle every 3 days. Wear sterile gloves when inserting the needle. Take the ordered antibiotics before initiating treatment. Use clean technique when changing the needle.

Change the needle every 3 days. The nurse should teach the client to change the needle every 3 days to prevent infection. The client doesn't need to wear gloves when inserting the needle. Antibiotic therapy isn't necessary before initiating treatment. Sterile technique, not clean technique, is needed when changing the needle.

A nurse is caring for a client with cholelithiasis. Which sign indicates obstructive jaundice? Straw-colored urine Reduced hematocrit Clay-colored stools Elevated urobilinogen in the urine

Clay-colored stools

A nursing student is reviewing for an upcoming anatomy and physiology examination. Which of the following would the student correctly identify as a function of the liver? Select all that apply. Glucose metabolism Ammonia conversion Protein metabolism Carbohydrate metabolism Zinc storage

Glucose metabolism Protein metabolism Ammonia conversion Functions of the liver include the metabolism of glucose, protein, fat, and drugs; conversion of ammonia; storage of vitamins and iron; formation of bile; and excretion of bilirubin. The liver is not responsible for the metabolism of carbohydrates or the storage of zinc.

During a follow-up visit 3 months after a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes, a client reports exercising and following a reduced-calorie diet. Assessment reveals that the client has only lost 1 pound and did not bring the glucose-monitoring record. Which value should the nurse measure? Fasting blood glucose level Glucose via a urine dipstick test Glycosylated hemoglobin level Glucose via an oral glucose tolerance test

Glycosylated hemoglobin level

An older adult patient is in the hospital being treated for sepsis related to a urinary tract infection. The patient has started to have an altered sense of awareness, profound dehydration, and hypotension. What does the nurse suspect the patient is experiencing? Systemic inflammatory response syndrome Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome Multiple-organ dysfunction syndrome Diabetic ketoacidosis

Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS) occurs most often in older people (50 to 70 years of age) who have no known history of diabetes or who have type 2 diabetes (Reynolds, 2012). The clinical picture of HHS is one of hypotension, profound dehydration (dry mucous membranes, poor skin turgor), tachycardia, and variable neurologic signs (e.g., alteration of consciousness, seizures, hemiparesis).

While conducting a physical examination of a client, which of the following skin findings would alert the nurse to the liklihood of liver problems? Select all that apply. Jaundice Petechiae Ecchymoses Cyanosis of the lips Aphthous stomatitis

Jaundice Petechiae Ecchymoses The skin, mucosa, and sclerae are inspected for jaundice. The nurse observes the skin for petechiae or ecchymotic areas (bruises), spider angiomas, and palmar erythema. Cyanosis of the lips is indicative of a problem with respiratory or cardiovascular dysfunction. Aphthous stomatitis is a term for mouth ulcers and is a gastrointestinal abnormal finding.

A patient is diagnosed with type 1 diabetes. What clinical characteristics does the nurse expect to see in this patient? Select all that apply. Ketosis-prone Little endogenous insulin Obesity at diagnoses Younger than 30 years of age Older than 65 years of age

Ketosis-prone Little endogenous insulin Younger than 30 years of age Type I diabetes mellitus is associated with the following characteristics: onset any age, but usually young (<30 y); usually thin at diagnosis, recent weight loss; etiology includes genetic, immunologic, and environmental factors (e.g., virus); often have islet cell antibodies; often have antibodies to insulin even before insulin treatment; little or no endogenous insulin; need exogenous insulin to preserve life; and ketosis prone when insulin absent.

The nurse is administering medications to a client that has elevated ammonia due to cirrhosis of the liver. What medication will the nurse give to detoxify ammonium and to act as an osmotic agent? Spironolactone Cholestyramine Lactulose Kanamycin

Lactulose Lactulose is administered to detoxify ammonium and to act as an osmotic agent, drawing water into the bowel, which causes diarrhea in some clients. Potassium-sparing diuretics such as spironolactone are used to treat ascites. Cholestyramine is a bile acid sequestrant and reduces pruritus. Kanamycin decreases intestinal bacteria and decreases ammonia but does not act as an osmotic agent.

Which type of insulin acts most quickly? Regular NPH Lispro Glargine

Lispro The onset of action of rapid-acting lispro is within 10 to 15 minutes. The onset of action of short-acting regular insulin is 30 minutes to 1 hour. The onset of action of intermediate-acting NPH insulin is 3 to 4 hours. The onset of action of very long-acting glargine is ~6 hours.

A young client with anorexia, fatigue, and jaundice is diagnosed with hepatitis B and has just been admitted to the hospital. The client asks the nurse how long the stay in the hospital will be. In planning care for the client, the nurse identifies impaired psychosocial issues and assigns the highest priority to which client outcome? Minimizing social isolation Establishing a stable home environment Reducing the spread of the disease Identifying the source of exposure to hepatitis

Minimizing social isolation The nurse identifies psychosocial issues and concerns, particularly the effects of separation from family and friends if the client is hospitalized during the acute and infective stages. Convalescence may be prolonged, with complete symptomatic recovery sometimes requiring 3 to 4 months or longer. Even if not hospitalized, the client will be unable to attend school and/or work and must avoid sexual contact. Planning is required to minimize social isolation.

The nurse is preparing to administer intermediate-acting insulin to a patient with diabetes. Which insulin will the nurse administer? NPH Iletin II Lispro (Humalog) Glargine (Lantus)

NPH ntermediate-acting insulins are called NPH insulin (neutral protamine Hagedorn) or Lente insulin. Lispro (Humalog) is rapid acting, Iletin II is short acting, and glargine (Lantus) is very long acting.

An instructor is preparing a teaching plan for a class on the various pituitary hormones. Which hormone would the instructor include as being released by the posterior pituitary gland? Somatotropin Prolactin Oxytocin Adrenocorticotropic hormone

Oxytocin The posterior pituitary gland released oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone. Somatotropin, prolactin, and adrenocorticotropic hormone are released by the anterior pituitary gland.

A client who was diagnosed with type 1 diabetes 14 years ago is admitted to the medical-surgical unit with abdominal pain. On admission, the client's blood glucose level is 470 mg/dl. Which finding is most likely to accompany this blood glucose level? Cool, moist skin Rapid, thready pulse Arm and leg trembling Slow, shallow respirations

Rapid, thready pulse This client's abnormally high blood glucose level indicates hyperglycemia, which typically causes polyuria, polyphagia, and polydipsia. Because polyuria leads to fluid loss, the nurse should expect to assess signs of deficient fluid volume, such as a rapid, thready pulse; decreased blood pressure; and rapid respirations. Cool, moist skin and arm and leg trembling are associated with hypoglycemia. Rapid respirations — not slow, shallow ones — are associated with hyperglycemia.

The nurse is explaining glycosylated hemoglobin testing to a diabetic client. Which of the following provides the best reason for this order? Provides best information on the body's ability to maintain normal blood functioning Best indicator for the nutritional state of the client Is less costly than performing daily blood sugar test Reflects the amount of glucose stored in hemoglobin over past several months.

Reflects the amount of glucose stored in hemoglobin over past several months. Hemoglobin A1c tests reflect the amount of glucose that is stored in the hemoglobin molecule during its life span of 120 days. This test provides a more accurate picture of overall glucose control in a client. Glycosylated hemoglobin test does not indicate normal blood functioning or nutritional state of the client. Self-monitoring with a glucometer is still encouraged in clients who are taking insulin or have unstable blood glucose levels.

In what location would the nurse palpate for the liver? Left lower quadrant Left upper quadrant Right lower quadrant Right upper quadrant

Right upper quadrant The liver may be palpable in the right upper quadrant. A palpable liver presents as a firm, sharp ridge with a smooth surface.

Clients with chronic liver dysfunction have problems with insufficient vitamin intake. Which may occur as a result of vitamin C deficiency? Night blindness Hypoprothrombinemia Scurvy Beriberi

Scurvy

A nurse assesses a patient diagnosed with hepatic encephalopathy. She observes a number of clinical signs, including asterixis and fetor hepaticus; the patient's electroencephalogram (EEG) is abnormal. The nurse documents that the patient is exhibiting signs of which stage of hepatic encephalopathy? Stage 1 Stage 2 Stage 3 Stage 4

Stage 2 Chart on study assist.

Which category of oral antidiabetic agents exerts the primary action by directly stimulating the pancreas to secrete insulin? Thiazolidinediones Biguanides Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors Sulfonylureas

Sulfonylureas A functioning pancreas is necessary for sulfonylureas to be effective. Thiazolidinediones enhance insulin action at the receptor site without increasing insulin secretion from the beta cells of the pancreas. Biguanides facilitate the action of insulin on peripheral receptor sites. Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors delay the absorption of glucose in the intestinal system, resulting in a lower postprandial blood glucose level.

A nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis. The nurse assesses the client at noon and discovers that the client is difficult to arouse and has an elevated serum ammonia level. The nurse should suspect which situation? The client's hepatic function is decreasing. The client didn't take his morning dose of lactulose (Cephulac). The client is relaxed and not in pain. The client is avoiding the nurse.

The client's hepatic function is decreasing. The decreased level of consciousness caused by an increased serum ammonia level indicates hepatic disfunction. If the client didn't take his morning dose of lactulose, he wouldn't have elevated ammonia levels and decreased level of consciousness this soon. These assessment findings don't indicate that the client is relaxed or avoiding the nurse.

Which medication is used to decrease portal pressure, halting bleeding of esophageal varices? Spironolactone Vasopressin Nitroglycerin Cimetidine

Vasopressin Vasopressin may be the initial therapy for esophageal varices because it produces constriction of the splanchnic arterial bed and decreases portal hypertension. Nitroglycerin has been used to prevent the side effects of vasopressin. Spironolactone and cimetidine do not decrease portal hypertension.

The nurse is administering Cephulac (lactulose) to decrease the ammonia level in a patient who has hepatic encephalopathy. What should the nurse carefully monitor for that may indicate a medication overdose? Watery diarrhea Vomiting Ringing in the ears Asterixis

Watery diarrhea

Total parental nutrition (TPN) should be used cautiously in clients with pancreatitis because such clients: cannot tolerate high-glucose concentration. are at risk for gallbladder contraction. are at risk for hepatic encephalopathy. can digest high-fat foods.

cannot tolerate high-glucose concentration.

When caring for a client with cirrhosis, which symptoms should a nurse report immediately? Select all that apply. change in mental status signs of GI bleeding anorexia and dyspepsia diarrhea or constipation

change in mental status signs of GI bleeding

A client has received a diagnosis of portal hypertension. What does portal hypertension treatment aim to reduce? Select all that apply. fluid accumulation venous pressure blood coagulation fluid output

fluid accumulation venous pressure

A physician has ordered a liver biopsy for a client with cirrhosis whose condition has recently deteriorated. The nurse reviews the client's recent laboratory findings and recognizes that the client is at risk for complications due to: low platelet count. low sodium level. decreased prothrombin time. low hemoglobin.

low platelet count. Prolonged prothrombin time (PT) and low platelet count place the client at high risk for hemorrhage. The client may receive intravenous (IV) administration of vitamin K or infusions of platelets before liver biopsy to reduce the risk of bleeding.

A nurse is assessing a postoperative client for hemorrhage. What responses associated with the compensatory stage of shock should be reported to the healthcare provider? tachycardia and tachypnea tachycardia and bradypnea bradycardia and bradypnea bradycardia and tachypnea

tachycardia and tachypnea With shock, the sympathetic nervous system "SNS" is activated due to changes in blood volume and blood pressure. The SNS stimulates the cardiovascular system, causing tachycardia; and the respiratory system, causing tachypnea. Tachycardia (not bradycardia) and tachypnea (not bradypnea) occur with the compensatory stage of shock.

Which instruction should a nurse give to a client with diabetes mellitus when teaching about "sick day rules"? "Don't take your insulin or oral antidiabetic agent if you don't eat." "It's okay for your blood glucose to go above 300 mg/dl while you're sick." "Test your blood glucose every 4 hours." "Follow your regular meal plan, even if you're nauseous."

"Test your blood glucose every 4 hours." The nurse should instruct a client with diabetes mellitus to check his blood glucose levels every 3 to 4 hours and take insulin or an oral antidiabetic agent as usual, even when he's sick. If the client's blood glucose level rises above 300 mg/dl, he should call his physician immediately. If the client is unable to follow the regular meal plan because of nausea, he should substitute soft foods, such as gelatin, soup, and custard.

A 16-year-old client newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes has a very low body weight despite eating regular meals. The client is upset because friends frequently state, "You look anorexic." Which statement by the nurse would be the best response to help this client understand the cause of weight loss due to this condition? "I will refer you to a dietician who can help you with your weight." "You may be having undiagnosed infections, causing you to lose extra weight." "Your body is using protein and fat for energy instead of glucose." "Don't worry about what your friends think; the carbohydrates you eat are being quickly digested, increasing your metabolism."

"Your body is using protein and fat for energy instead of glucose." Persons with type 1 diabetes, particularly those in poor control of the condition, tend to be thin because when the body cannot effectively utilize glucose for energy (no insulin supply), it begins to break down protein and fat as an alternate energy source. Patients may be underweight at the onset of type 1 diabetes because of rapid weight loss from severe hyperglycemia. The goal initially may be to provide a higher-calorie diet to regain lost weight and blood glucose control.

An agitated, confused client arrives in the emergency department. The client's history includes type 1 diabetes, hypertension, and angina pectoris. Assessment reveals pallor, diaphoresis, headache, and intense hunger. A stat blood glucose sample measures 42 mg/dl, and the client is treated for an acute hypoglycemic reaction. After recovery, the nurse teaches the client to treat hypoglycemia by ingesting: 2 to 5 g of a simple carbohydrate. 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate. 18 to 20 g of a simple carbohydrate. 25 to 30 g of a simple carbohydrate.

10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate. To reverse hypoglycemia, the American Diabetes Association recommends ingesting 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate, such as three to five pieces of hard candy, two to three packets of sugar (4 to 6 tsp), or 4 oz of fruit juice. Then the client should check his blood glucose after 15 minutes. If necessary, this treatment may be repeated in 15 minutes. Ingesting only 2 to 5 g of a simple carbohydrate may not raise the blood glucose level sufficiently. Ingesting more than 15 g may raise it above normal, causing hyperglycemia.

A nurse is preparing a continuous insulin infusion for a child with diabetic ketoacidosis and a blood glucose level of 800 mg/dl. Which solution is the most appropriate at the beginning of therapy? 100 units of regular insulin in normal saline solution 100 units of neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin in normal saline solution 100 units of regular insulin in dextrose 5% in water 100 units of NPH insulin in dextrose 5% in water

100 units of regular insulin in normal saline solution Continuous insulin infusions use only short-acting regular insulin. Insulin is added to normal saline solution and administered until the client's blood glucose level falls. Further along in the therapy, a dextrose solution is administered to prevent hypoglycemia.

A patient who is 6 months' pregnant was evaluated for gestational diabetes mellitus. The doctor considered prescribing insulin based on the serum glucose result of: 90 mg/dL before meals. 120 mg/dL, 1 hour postprandial. 80 mg/dL, 1 hour postprandial. 138 mg/dL, 2 hours postprandial.

138 mg/dL, 2 hours postprandial. The goals for a 2-hour, postprandial blood glucose level are less than 120 mg/dL in a patient who might develop gestational diabetes.

A nurse is teaching a client with diabetes mellitus about self-management of his condition. The nurse should instruct the client to administer 1 unit of insulin for every: 10 g of carbohydrates. 15 g of carbohydrates. 20 g of carbohydrates. 25 g of carbohydrates.

15 g of carbohydrates.

Which of the following would the nurse expect to assess in a client with hepatic encephalopathy? Increased motor activity Asterixis Negative Babinski reflex Irritability

Asterixis Hepatic encephalopathy is manifested by numerous central nervous system effects including: disorientation, confusion, personality changes, memory loss, a flapping tremor called asterixis, a positive Babinski reflex, sulfurous breath odor (referred to as fetor hepaticus), and lethargy to deep coma.

A client is seeing the physician for a suspected tumor of the liver. What laboratory study results would indicate that the client may have a primary malignant liver tumor? Elevated white blood cell count Elevated alpha-fetoprotein Decreased AST levels Decreased alkaline phosphatase levels

Elevated alpha-fetoprotein Alpha-fetoprotein, a serum protein normally produced during fetal development, is a marker that, if elevated, can induce a primary malignant liver tumor. Total bilirubin and serum enzyme levels may be elevated. White blood cell count elevation would indicate an inflammatory response.

The single modality of pharmacologic therapy for chronic type B viral hepatitis is: Alpha-interferon Hepsera Epivir Baraclude

Alpha-interferon Alpha-interferon is a biologic response modifier that is highly effective for treatment of hepatitis B. The other antiviral agents are effective but not the preferred single-agent therapy.

The nurse is assessing a client with hepatic cirrhosis for mental deterioration. For what clinical manifestations will the nurse monitor? Select all that apply. Alterations in mood Agitation Decreased deep tendon reflexes Report of headache Insomnia

Alterations in mood Agitation insomnia

Which instruction about insulin administration should a nurse give to a client? "Always follow the same order when drawing the different insulins into the syringe." "Shake the vials before withdrawing the insulin." "Store unopened vials of insulin in the freezer at temperatures well below freezing." "Discard the intermediate-acting insulin if it appears cloudy."

"Always follow the same order when drawing the different insulins into the syringe." The nurse should instruct the client to always follow the same order when drawing the different insulins into the syringe. Insulin should never be shaken because the resulting froth prevents withdrawal of an accurate dose and may damage the insulin protein molecules. Insulin should never be frozen because the insulin protein molecules may be damaged. The client doesn't need to discard intermediate-acting insulin if it's cloudy; this finding is normal.

After teaching a client with type 1 diabetes who is scheduled to undergo an islet cell transplant, which client statement indicates successful teaching? "This transplant will provide me with a cure for my diabetes." "I will receive a whole organ with extra cells to produce insulin." "They'll need to create a connection from the pancreas to allow enzymes to drain." "I might need insulin later on but probably not as much or as often."

"I might need insulin later on but probably not as much or as often." Transplanted islet cells tend to lose their ability to function over time, and approximately 70% of recipients resume insulin administration in 2 years. However, the amount of insulin and the frequency of its administration are reduced because of improved control of blood glucose levels. Thus, this type of transplant doesn't cure diabetes. It requires the use of two human pancreases to obtain sufficient numbers of islet cells for transplantation. A whole organ transplant requires a means for exocrine enzyme drainage and venous absorption of insulin.

Which statement best indicates that a client understands how to administer his own insulin injections? "I need to be sure no air bubbles remain." "I need to wash my hands before I give myself my injection." "If I'm not feeling well, I can get a friend or neighbor to help me." "I wrote down the steps in case I forget what to do."

"I wrote down the steps in case I forget what to do." The fact that the client has written down each step of insulin administration provides the best assurance that he'll follow through with all the proper steps. Awareness of air bubbles and hand washing indicate that the client understands certain aspects of giving an injection, but doesn't confirm he understands all of the steps. Saying that he can ask a friend or neighbor for help indicates a need for further instruction.

A client with type 1 diabetes has a highly elevated glycosylated hemoglobin (Hb) test result. In discussing the result with the client, the nurse is most accurate in stating: "The test must be repeated following a 12-hour fast." "It looks like you aren't following the ordered diabetic diet." "It tells us about your sugar control for the last 3 months." "Your insulin regimen must be altered significantly."

"It tells us about your sugar control for the last 3 months." The nurse is providing accurate information to the client when she states that the glycosylated Hb test provides an objective measure of glycemic control over a 3-month period. The test helps identify trends or practices that impair glycemic control, and it doesn't require a fasting period before blood is drawn. The nurse can't conclude that the result occurs from poor dietary management or inadequate insulin coverage.

Which statement is true regarding gestational diabetes? It occurs in most pregnancies. Onset usually occurs in the first trimester. A glucose challenge test should be performed between 24 and 28 weeks. There is a low risk for perinatal complications.

A glucose challenge test should be performed between 24 and 28 weeks. A glucose challenge test should be performed between 24 and 48 weeks in women at average risk. It occurs in 2% to 5% of all pregnancies. Onset usually occurs in the second or third trimester. There is an above-normal risk for perinatal complications.

A client is suspected of having cirrhosis of the liver. What diagnostic procedure will the nurse prepare the client for in order to obtain a confirmed diagnosis? A liver biopsy A CT scan A prothrombin time Platelet count

A liver biopsy

A nurse is caring for a diabetic patient with a diagnosis of nephropathy. What would the nurse expect the urinalysis report to indicate? Albumin Bacteria Red blood cells White blood cells

Albumin Albumin is one of the most important blood proteins that leak into the urine. Although small amounts may leak undetected for years, its leakage into the urine is among the earliest signs that can be detected. Clinical nephropathy eventually develops in more than 85% of people with microalbuminuria but in fewer than 5% of people without microalbuminuria. The urine should be checked annually for the presence of microalbumin.

A client reporting shortness of breath is admitted with a diagnosis of cirrhosis. A nursing assessment reveals an enlarged abdomen with striae, an umbilical hernia, and 4+ pitting edema of the feet and legs. What is the most important data for the nurse to monitor? Temperature Albumin Hemoglobin Bilirubin

Albumin With the movement of albumin from the serum to the peritoneal cavity, the osmotic pressure of the serum decreases. This, combined with increased portal pressure, results in movement of fluid into the peritoneal cavity. The low oncotic pressure caused by hypoalbuminemia is a major pathophysiologic factor in the development of ascites and edema.

The nurse is caring for a client with a biliary disorder who has an elevated amylase level. If this elevation correlates to dysfunction, which body process does the nurse recognize may be impaired? Carbohydrate digestion Protein synthesis Fat digestion Protein digestion

Carbohydrate digestion Amylase is a pancreatic enzyme involved in the breakdown and digestion of carbohydrates. Trypsin aids in the digestion of proteins. Lipase aids in the digestion of fats.

A client is given a diagnosis of hepatic cirrhosis. The client asks the nurse what findings led to this determination. Which of the following clinical manifestations would the nurse correctly identify? Select all that apply. Enlarged liver size Ascites Accelerated behaviors and mental processes Hemorrhoids Excess storage of vitamin C

Enlarged liver size Ascites Hemorrhoids Early in the course of cirrhosis, the liver tends to be large, and the cells are loaded with fat. The liver is firm and has a sharp edge that is noticeable on palpation. Portal obstruction and ascites, late manifestations of cirrhosis, are caused partly by chronic failure of liver function and partly by obstruction of the portal circulation. The obstruction to blood flow through the liver caused by fibrotic changes also results in the formation of collateral blood vessels in the GI system and shunting of blood from the portal vessels into blood vessels with lower pressures. These distended blood vessels form varices or hemorrhoids, depending on their location. Because of inadequate formation, use, and storage of certain vitamins (notably vitamins A, C, and K), signs of deficiency are common, particularly hemorrhagic phenomena associated with vitamin K deficiency. Additional clinical manifestations include deterioration of mental and cognitive function with impending hepatic encephalopathy and hepatic coma, as previously described.

The mode of transmission of hepatitis A virus (HAV) includes which of the following? Fecal-oral Blood Semen Saliva

Fecal-oral The mode of transmission of hepatitis A virus (HAV) occurs through fecal-oral route, primarily through person to person contact and/or ingestion of fecal contaminated food or water. Hepatitis B virus (HBV) is transmitted primarily through blood. HBV can be found in blood, saliva, semen, and can be transmitted through mucous membranes and breaks in the skin.

Which type of deficiency results in macrocytic anemia? Folic acid Vitamin C Vitamin A Vitamin K

Folic acid

Which assessment finding is most important in determining nursing care for a client with diabetes mellitus? Respirations of 12 breaths/minute Cloudy urine Blood sugar 170 mg/dL Fruity breath

Fruity breath The rising ketones and acetone in the blood can lead to acidosis and be detected as a fruity odor on the breath. Ketoacidosis needs to be treated to prevent further complications such as Kussmaul respirations (fast, labored breathing) and renal shutdown. A blood sugar of 170 mg/dL is not ideal but will not result in glycosuria and/or trigger the classic symptoms of diabetes mellitus. Cloudy urine may indicate a UTI.

A client has an elevated serum ammonia concentration and is exhibiting changes in mental status. The nurse should suspect which condition? Hepatic encephalopathy Portal hypertension Asterixis Cirrhosis

Hepatic encephalopathy Hepatic encephalopathy is a central nervous system dysfunction resulting from liver disease. It is frequently associated with an elevated ammonia concentration that produces changes in mental status, altered level of consciousness, and coma. Portal hypertension is an elevated pressure in the portal circulation resulting from obstruction of venous flow into and through the liver. Asterixis is an involuntary flapping movement of the hands associated with metabolic liver dysfunction.

A client and spouse are visiting the clinic. The client recently experienced a seizure and says she has been having difficulty writing. Before the seizure, the client says that for several weeks she was sleeping late into the day but having restlessness and insomnia at night. The client's husband says that he has noticed the client has been moody and slightly confused. Which of the following problems is most consistent with the client's clinical manifestations? Hepatic encephalopathy Esophageal varices Hepatitis C Portal hypertension

Hepatic encephalopathy The earliest symptoms of hepatic encephalopathy include minor mental changes and motor disturbances. The client appears slightly confused and unkempt and has alterations in mood and sleep patterns. The client tends to sleep during the day and have restlessness and insomnia at night. As hepatic encephalopathy progresses, the client may become difficult to awaken and completely disoriented with respect to time and place. With further progression, the client lapses into frank coma and may have seizures. Simple tasks, such as handwriting, become difficult.

Which is the best nursing explanation for the symptom of polyuria in a client with diabetes mellitus? With diabetes, drinking more results in more urine production. Increased ketones in the urine promote the manufacturing of more urine. High sugar pulls fluid into the bloodstream, which results in more urine production. The body's requirement for fuel drives the production of urine.

High sugar pulls fluid into the bloodstream, which results in more urine production. The hypertonicity from concentrated amounts of glucose in the blood pulls fluid into the vascular system, resulting in polyuria. The urinary frequency triggers the thirst response, which then results in polydipsia. Ketones in the urine and body requirements do not affect the production of urine.

Clients diagnosed with esophageal varices are at risk for hemorrhagic shock. Which is a sign of potential hypovolemia? Polyuria Bradycardia Hypotension Warm moist skin

Hypotension Signs of potential hypovolemia include cool, clammy skin; tachycardia; decreased blood pressure; and decreased urine output.

The nurse is educating the client with diabetes on setting up a sick plan to manage blood glucose control during times of minor illness such as influenza. Which is the most important teaching item to include? Increase frequency of glucose self-monitoring. Decrease food intake until nausea passes. Do not take insulin if not eating. Take half the usual dose of insulin until symptoms resolve.

Increase frequency of glucose self-monitoring. Minor illnesses such as influenza can present a special challenge to a diabetic client. The body's need for insulin increases during illness. Therefore, the client should take the prescribed insulin dose, increase the frequency of glucose monitoring, and maintain adequate fluid intake to counteract the dehydrating effects of hyperglycemia. Clear liquids and juices are encouraged. Taking less than normal dose of insulin may lead to ketoacidosis.

A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which finding suggests that the client has developed hyperglycemia? Cheyne-Stokes respirations Increased urine output Decreased appetite Diaphoresis

Increased urine output Glucose supplies most of the calories in TPN; if the glucose infusion rate exceeds the client's rate of glucose metabolism, hyperglycemia arises. When the renal threshold for glucose reabsorption is exceeded, osmotic diuresis occurs, causing an increased urine output. A decreased appetite and diaphoresis suggest hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by a period of apnea lasting 10 to 60 seconds, followed by gradually increasing depth and frequency of respirations. Cheyne-Stokes respirations typically occur with cerebral depression or heart failure.

The client who is managing diabetes through diet and insulin control asks the nurse why exercise is important. Which is the best response by the nurse to support adding exercise to the daily routine? Increases ability for glucose to get into the cell and lowers blood sugar Creates an overall feeling of well-being and lowers risk of depression Decreases need for pancreas to produce more cells Decreases risk of developing insulin resistance and hyperglycemia

Increases ability for glucose to get into the cell and lowers blood sugar

A nurse explains to a client that she will administer his first insulin dose in his abdomen. How does absorption at the abdominal site compare with absorption at other sites? Insulin is absorbed more slowly at abdominal injection sites than at other sites. Insulin is absorbed rapidly regardless of the injection site. Insulin is absorbed more rapidly at abdominal injection sites than at other sites. Insulin is absorbed unpredictably at all injection sites.

Insulin is absorbed more rapidly at abdominal injection sites than at other sites. Subcutaneous insulin is absorbed most rapidly at abdominal injection sites, more slowly at sites on the arms, and slowest at sites on the anterior thigh. Absorption after injection in the buttocks is less predictable.

The nurse is preparing a presentation for a group of adults at a local community center about diabetes. Which of the following would the nurse include as associated with type 2 diabetes? Onset most common during adolescence Insulin production insufficient Less common than type 1 diabetes Little to no relation to pre-diabetes

Insulin production insufficient Type 2 diabetes is characterized by insulin resistance or insufficient insulin production. It is more common in aging adults, and now accounts for 20% of all newly diagnosed cases. Type 1 diabetes is more likely in childhood and adolescence although it can occur at any age. It accounts for approximately 5% to 10% of all diagnosed cases of diabetes. Pre-diabetes can lead to type 2 diabetes.

A patient who is diagnosed with type 1 diabetes would be expected to: Be restricted to an American Diabetic Association diet. Have no damage to the islet cells of the pancreas. Need exogenous insulin. Receive daily doses of a hypoglycemic agent.

Need exogenous insulin. Type 1 diabetes is characterized by the destruction of pancreatic beta cells that require exogenous insulin.

A client is actively bleeding from esophageal varices. Which medication would the nurse most expect to be administered to this client? Octreotide Spironolactone Propranolol Lactulose

Octreotide In an actively bleeding client, medications are administered initially because they can be obtained and administered quicker than other therapies. Octreotide (Sandostatin) causes selective splanchnic vasoconstriction by inhibiting glucagon release and is used mainly in the management of active hemorrhage. Propranolol (Inderal) and nadolol (Corgard), beta-blocking agents that decrease portal pressure, are the most common medications used both to prevent a first bleeding episode in clients with known varices and to prevent rebleeding. Beta-blockers should not be used in acute variceal hemorrhage, but they are effective prophylaxis against such an episode. Spironolactone (Aldactone), an aldosterone-blocking agent, is most often the first-line therapy in clients with ascites from cirrhosis. Lactulose (Cephulac) is administered to reduce serum ammonia levels in clients with hepatic encephalopathy.

After being in remission from Hodgkin's disease for 18 months, a client develops a fever of unknown origin. A healthcare provider orders a liver biopsy to rule out advancing Hodgkin's disease and infection. Twenty-four hours after the biopsy, the client has a fever, complains of severe abdominal pain, and seems increasingly confused. What should the nurse suspect? Peritonitis from bleeding in the liver caused by the liver biopsy Perforation of the colon caused by the liver biopsy An allergic reaction to the contrast media used during the liver biopsy Normal postprocedural pain, with a change in the level of consciousness resulting from the pre-existing fever

Peritonitis from bleeding in the liver caused by the liver biopsy After any invasive procedure, the nurse must stay alert for complications in the affected region—in this case, the abdomen. This client exhibits classic signs and symptoms of peritonitis caused by blood or bile after the liver biopsy. There is a reason to suspect bleeding resulting from the liver biopsy. It is rare to have a perforation of the colon after a biopsy

Which is the most common cause of esophageal varices? Jaundice Portal hypertension Ascites Asterixis

Portal hypertension Esophageal varices are almost always caused by portal hypertension, which results from obstruction of the portal circulation within the damaged liver.

A nurse is teaching a diabetic support group about the causes of type 1 diabetes. The teaching is determined to be effective when the group is able to attribute which factor as a cause of type 1 diabetes? Presence of autoantibodies against islet cells Obesity Rare ketosis Altered glucose metabolism

Presence of autoantibodies against islet cells There is evidence of an autoimmune response in type 1 diabetes. This is an abnormal response in which antibodies are directed against normal tissues of the body, responding to these tissues as if they were foreign. Autoantibodies against islet cells and against endogenous (internal) insulin have been detected in people at the time of diagnosis and even several years before the development of clinical signs of type 1 diabetes.

Which clinical characteristic is associated with type 1 diabetes (previously referred to as insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus)? Presence of islet cell antibodies Obesity Rare ketosis Requirement for oral hypoglycemic agents

Presence of islet cell antibodies Individuals with type 1 diabetes often have islet cell antibodies and are usually thin or demonstrate recent weight loss at the time of diagnosis. These individuals are prone to experiencing ketosis when insulin is absent and require exogenous insulin to preserve life.

A patient is prescribed Sandostatin for the treatment of esophageal varices. The nurse knows that the purpose of this cyclic octapeptide is to reduce portal pressure by: Constricting the splanchnic arteries. Using a beta-adrenergic blocking action. Selective vasodilation of the portal system. Reducing blood pressure in the portal.

Selective vasodilation of the portal system. Sandostatin slows the flow of blood (via vasodilation) from internal organs to the portal system, thus reducing pressure. The other choices are actions of different drugs used for the treatment of esophageal varices. Refer to Table 25-1 in the text.

The diabetic client asks the nurse why shoes and socks are removed at each office visit. Which assessment finding is most significant in determining the protocol for inspection of feet? Autonomic neuropathy Retinopathy Sensory neuropathy Nephropathy

Sensory neuropathy Neuropathy results from poor glucose control and decreased circulation to nerve tissues. Neuropathy involving sensory nerves located in the periphery can lead to lack of sensitivity, which increases the potential for soft tissue injury without client awareness. The feet are inspected on each visit to insure no injury or pressure has occurred. Autonomic neuropathy, retinopathy, and nephropathy affect nerves to organs other than feet.

A client with diabetes mellitus has a prescription for 5 units of U-100 regular insulin and 25 units of U-100 isophane insulin suspension (NPH) to be taken before breakfast. At about 4:30 p.m., the client experiences headache, sweating, tremor, pallor, and nervousness. What is the most probable cause of these signs and symptoms? Serum glucose level of 450 mg/dl Serum glucose level of 52 mg/dl Serum calcium level of 8.9 mg/dl Serum calcium level of 10.2 mg/dl

Serum glucose level of 52 mg/dl Headache, sweating, tremor, pallor, and nervousness typically result from hypoglycemia, an insulin reaction in which serum glucose level drops below 70 mg/dl. Hypoglycemia may occur 4 to 18 hours after administration of isophane insulin suspension or insulin zinc suspension (Lente), which are intermediate-acting insulins. Although hypoglycemia may occur at any time, it usually precedes meals. Hyperglycemia, in which serum glucose level is above 180 mg/dl, causes such early manifestations as fatigue, malaise, drowsiness, polyuria, and polydipsia. A serum calcium level of 8.9 mg/dl or 10.2 mg/dl is within normal range and wouldn't cause the client's symptoms.

After being sick for 3 days, a client with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted to the hospital with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The nurse should evaluate which diagnostic test results to prevent dysrhythmias? Serum potassium level Serum calcium level Serum sodium level Serum chloride level

Serum potassium level The nurse should monitor the client's potassium level because during periods of acidosis, potassium leaves the cell, causing hyperkalemia. As blood glucose levels normalize with treatment, potassium reenters the cell, causing hypokalemia if levels aren't monitored closely. Hypokalemia places the client at risk for cardiac arrhythmias such as ventricular tachycardia. DKA has a lesser affect on serum calcium, sodium, and chloride levels. Changes in these levels don't typically cause cardiac arrhythmias.

A client with status asthmaticus requires endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation. Twenty-four hours after intubation, the client is started on the insulin infusion protocol. The nurse must monitor the client's blood glucose levels hourly and watch for which early signs and symptoms associated with hypoglycemia? Sweating, tremors, and tachycardia Dry skin, bradycardia, and somnolence Bradycardia, thirst, and anxiety Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia

Sweating, tremors, and tachycardia Sweating, tremors, and tachycardia, thirst, and anxiety are early signs of hypoglycemia. Dry skin, bradycardia, and somnolence are signs and symptoms associated with hypothyroidism. Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia are signs and symptoms of diabetes mellitus.

Insulin is a hormone secreted by the Islets of Langerhans and is essential for the metabolism of carbohydrates, fats, and protein. The nurse understands the physiologic importance of gluconeogenesis, which refers to the: Transport of potassium. Release of glucose. Synthesis of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources. Storage of glucose as glycogen in the liver.

Synthesis of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources. Gluconeogenesis refers to the making of glucose from noncarbohydrates. This occurs mainly in the liver. Its purpose is to maintain the glucose level in the blood to meet the body's demands.

Ammonia, the major etiologic factor in the development of encephalopathy, inhibits neurotransmission. Increased levels of ammonia are damaging to the body. The largest source of ammonia is from: The digestion of dietary and blood proteins. Excessive diuresis and dehydration. Severe infections and high fevers. Excess potassium loss subsequent to prolonged use of diuretics.

The digestion of dietary and blood proteins. Circumstances that increase serum ammonia levels tend to aggravate or precipitate hepatic encephalopathy. The largest source of ammonia is the enzymatic and bacterial digestion of dietary and blood proteins in the GI tract. Ammonia from these sources increases as a result of GI bleeding (i.e., bleeding esophageal varices, chronic GI bleeding), a high-protein diet, bacterial infection, or uremia.

The pancreas continues to release a small amount of basal insulin overnight, while a person is sleeping. The nurse knows that if the body needs more sugar: The pancreatic hormone glucagon will stimulate the liver to release stored glucose. Insulin will be released to facilitate the transport of sugar. Glycogenesis will be decreased by the liver. The process of gluconeogenesis will be inhibited.

The pancreatic hormone glucagon will stimulate the liver to release stored glucose. When sugar levels are low, glucagon promotes hyperglycemia by stimulating the release of stored glucose. Glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis will both be increased. Insulin secretion would promote hypoglycemia.

A nurse is preparing to administer two types of insulin to a client with diabetes mellitus. What is the correct procedure for preparing this medication? The short-acting insulin is withdrawn before the intermediate-acting insulin. The intermediate-acting insulin is withdrawn before the short-acting insulin. Different types of insulin are not to be mixed in the same syringe. If administered immediately, there is no requirement for withdrawing one type of insulin before another.

The short-acting insulin is withdrawn before the intermediate-acting insulin. When combining two types of insulin in the same syringe, the short-acting regular insulin is withdrawn into the syringe first and the intermediate-acting insulin is added next. This practice is referred to as "clear to cloudy."

A client with diabetes mellitus develops sinusitis and otitis media accompanied by a temperature of 100.8° F (38.2° C). What effect do these findings have on his need for insulin? They have no effect. They decrease the need for insulin. They increase the need for insulin. They cause wide fluctuations in the need for insulin.

They increase the need for insulin. Insulin requirements increase in response to growth, pregnancy, increased food intake, stress, surgery, infection, illness, increased insulin antibodies, and some medications. Insulin requirements are decreased by hypothyroidism, decreased food intake, exercise, and some medications.

Which of the following diagnostic studies definitely confirms the presence of ascites? Ultrasound of liver and abdomen Abdominal x-ray Colonoscopy Computed tomography of abdomen

Ultrasound of liver and abdomen

The nurse is caring for a patient with ascites due to cirrhosis of the liver. What position does the nurse understand will activate the renin-angiotensin aldosterone and sympathetic nervous system and decrease responsiveness to diuretic therapy? Prone Supine Left-lateral Sims' Upright

Upright In patients with ascites, an upright posture is associated with activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system and sympathetic nervous system. This causes reduced renal glomerular filtration and sodium excretion and a decreased response to loop diuretics.

Which intervention is essential when performing dressing changes on a client with a diabetic foot ulcer? Applying a heating pad Debriding the wound three times per day Using sterile technique during the dressing change Cleaning the wound with a povidone-iodine solution

Using sterile technique during the dressing change The nurse should perform the dressing changes using sterile technique to prevent infection. Applying heat should be avoided in a client with diabetes mellitus because of the risk of injury. Cleaning the wound with povidone-iodine solution and debriding the wound with each dressing change prevents the development of granulation tissue, which is essential in the wound healing process.

A client with severe and chronic liver disease is showing manifestations related to inadequate vitamin intake and metabolism. He reports difficulty driving at night because he cannot see well. Which of the following vitamins is most likely deficient for this client? Vitamin A Thiamine Riboflavin Vitamin K

Vitamin A Problems common to clients with severe chronic liver dysfunction result from inadequate intake of sufficient vitamins. Vitamin A deficiency results in night blindness and eye and skin changes. Thiamine deficiency can lead to beriberi, polyneuritis, and Wernicke-Korsakoff psychosis. Riboflavin deficiency results in characteristic skin and mucous membrane lesions. Vitamin K deficiency can cause hypoprothrombinemia, characterized by spontaneous bleeding and ecchymoses.

A client with carcinoma of the head of the pancreas is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following should a nurse administer to the client before surgery? Potassium Vitamin K Vitamin B Oral bile acids

Vitamin K Clients with carcinoma of the head of the pancreas typically require vitamin K before surgery to correct a prothrombin deficiency. Potassium would be given only if the client's serum potassium levels were low. Oral bile acids are not prescribed for a client with carcinoma of the head of the pancreas; they are given to dissolve gallstones. Vitamin B has no implications in the surgery.

The nurse is teaching a client about self-administration of insulin and about mixing regular and neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin. Which information is important to include in the teaching plan? If two different types of insulin are ordered, they need to be given in separate injections. When mixing insulin, the NPH insulin is drawn up into the syringe first. When mixing insulin, the regular insulin is drawn up into the syringe first. There is no need to inject air into the bottle of insulin before withdrawing the insulin.

When mixing insulin, the regular insulin is drawn up into the syringe first. When rapid-acting or short-acting insulins are to be given simultaneously with longer-acting insulins, they are usually mixed together in the same syringe; the longer-acting insulins must be mixed thoroughly before being drawn into the syringe. The American Diabetic Association recommends that the regular insulin be drawn up first. The most important issues are that patients (1) are consistent in technique, so the wrong dose is not drawn in error or the wrong type of insulin, and (2) do not inject one type of insulin into the bottle containing a different type of insulin. Injecting cloudy insulin into a vial of clear insulin contaminates the entire vial of clear insulin and alters its action.

A client has just been diagnosed with hepatitis A. On assessment, the nurse expects to note: severe abdominal pain radiating to the shoulder. anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. eructation and constipation. abdominal ascites.

anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. Early hallmark signs and symptoms of hepatitis A include anorexia, nausea, vomiting, fatigue, and weakness. Abdominal pain may occur but doesn't radiate to the shoulder. Eructation and constipation are common in gallbladder disease, not hepatitis A. Abdominal ascites is a sign of advanced hepatic disease, not an early sign of hepatitis A.

A client with type 1 diabetes asks the nurse about taking an oral antidiabetic agent. The nurse explains that these medications are effective only if the client: prefers to take insulin orally. has type 2 diabetes. has type 1 diabetes. is pregnant and has type 2 diabetes.

has type 2 diabetes. Oral antidiabetic agents are effective only in adult clients with type 2 diabetes. Oral antidiabetic agents aren't effective in type 1 diabetes. Pregnant and lactating women aren't ordered oral antidiabetic agents because the effect on the fetus or breast-fed infant is uncertain.

A client with diabetes mellitus is receiving an oral antidiabetic agent. When caring for this client, the nurse should observe for signs of: hypoglycemia polyuria blurred vision polydipsia

hypoglycemia The nurse should observe the client receiving an oral antidiabetic agent for the signs of hypoglycemia. The time when the reaction might occur is not predictable and could be from 30 to 60 minutes to several hours after the drug is ingested.

Most of the liver's metabolic functions are performed by: parenchymal cells. Kupffer cells. islets of Langerhans. canaliculi cells.

parenchymal cells.

A client with acute liver failure exhibits confusion, a declining level of consciousness, and slowed respirations. The nurse finds him very difficult to arouse. The diagnostic information which best explains the client's behavior is: elevated liver enzymes and low serum protein level. subnormal serum glucose and elevated serum ammonia levels. subnormal clotting factors and platelet count. elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels and hyperglycemia.

subnormal serum glucose and elevated serum ammonia levels. In acute liver failure, serum ammonia levels increase because the liver can't adequately detoxify the ammonia produced in the GI tract. In addition, serum glucose levels decline because the liver isn't capable of releasing stored glucose. Elevated serum ammonia and subnormal serum glucose levels depress the level of a client's consciousness. Elevated liver enzymes, low serum protein level, subnormal clotting factors and platelet count, elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatine levels, and hyperglycemia aren't as directly related to the client's level of consciousness.