Exam Review (All past test)
Leisure activity
"Other external cause status" code Y99.8 includes which of the following?
-GG
(modifier) Which radiology modifier would be used with the performance and payment of a screening mammogram and diagnostic mammogram on the same patient and in the same day?
-P3
(modifier) anesthesia physical status modifier that refers to a patient with severe systemic disease
-57
(modifier) decision for surgery
-27
(modifier) hospital outpatient modifier meaning multiple outpatient hospital E/M encounters on the same date
-91
(modifier) laboratory modifier that indicates repeat clinical diagnostic laboratory test
Hemophilia
) Which of the following is a genetic disorder in which the blood takes too long to clot?
Medicare durable medical equipment coverage.
A Certificate of Medical Necessity form must be completed for:
default code.
A code listed next to the Main Term in the ICD-10-CM Index is referred to as a:
when it is stated definitively by documentation such as "hypertensive heart disease".
A coder may assume a causal relationship between hypertension and heart disease:
cholesteatoma
A cyst or benign tumor consisting of epithelial cells and fat is known as:
4500 grams.
A exceptionally large newborn is defined as one whose birth weight is more than:
trisomy
A genetic disorder in which a person has three copies, rather than two, of genetic material is known as:
Von Willebrand disease
A genetic disorder marked by bleeding of the mucosa describes:
the anatomic site where a neoplasm begins.
A neoplasm's primary site is:
first any associated physical or development disorder.
A new instructional NOT in ICD-10-CM found in the block for Mental Retardation directs coders to code:
oncologist
A physician who specializes in diagnosing and treating cancer is known as a/an:
otorhinolaryngologist.
A physician who specializes in diagnosing and treating diseases of the ear, nose, and throat is known as a/an:
endocrinologist
A physician who specializes in endocrine, nutritional, and metabolic diseases is known as a/an:
Holter monitor.
A portable ECG worn by a patient for an extended period of hours or days in order to measure heart activity over time is a/an:
Routine and Administrative exams
A pre-employment physical falls under what Z code category?
the birth results in conjoined twins.
A seventh character is assigned to identify which fetus is affected when maternal complications arise. The seventh character of zero is assigned for each of the following situations EXCEPT:
laceration
A torn or jagged wound is the definition of:
open wound.
A wound in which underlying tissue is exposed to the air is a/an:
Lou Gehrig's disease.
ALS is also known as:
cervical dysplasia.
Abnormal changes in the cells on the surface of the cervix that may lead to cancer if NOT treated is known as:
Aura
Acceptable terms that mean "intractable" include all but which of the following terms?
20 to 25%
According to the American Diabetic Association, approximately how many type 2 and secondary diabetes require insulin on a continuing basis?
70%
According to the CDD, what percentage of epilepsy is responsive to medication?
only to the inpatient setting
According to the ICD-10-CM OGCR (Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting), an uncertain diagnosis that is documented at the time of discharge is coded as if it exists. This guideline applies:
sequence the symptom first, followed by any/all contrasting diagnoses.
According to the OGCR, if the physician documents a symptom followed by two contrasting diagnoses, the coder should:
five
Advanced level coding positions typically require a minimum of how many years of proven coding experience?
conform to WHO conventions for ICD-10.
All modifications made by the United States when creating ICD-10-CM had to:
What is the underlying disease?
All of the following are key criteria for abstracting digestive system conditions EXCEPT:
Is the healing routine?
All of the following are key criteria for abstracting musculoskeletal conditions EXCEPT:
current
An AMI that occurred within the past four weeks is also referred to as a ________ MI.
subendocardial MI.
An MI that affects only a small portion of the heart wall is a/an:
Meniere's disease.
An abnormality of the fluid in the inner ear that can lead to progressive hearing loss is the definition of:
True
An activity code is reported only at the initial encounter for treatment. True or False
bulge in the wall of an artery due to weakening.
An aneurysm is a/an:
named after a person.
An eponym is:
downers.
An example of a barbiturate is:
rib brace
An example of an orthotic is a:
a pacemaker
An example of durable medical equipment is:
impacted cerumen.
An excessive accumulation of earwax is also known as:
hydronephrosis
An excessive collection of urine in the kidneys is known as:
glaucoma
An increased fluid pressure within the eye that damages optic nerve and can cause blindness is the definition of:
use an external cause code....
An instruction note at the beginning of Chapter 7 directs coders to:
RLQ pain with positive McBurney's sign, hyperglycemia—Dx: acute appendicitis
An unrelated symptom is defined as those symptoms that are NOT associated with the confirmed diagnosis and may indicate an additional problem or condition. Which of the following is an example of an unrelated condition that should be coded separately?
pernicious anemia.
Anemia due to malabsorption of vitamin B12 is also known as:
3,000
Approximately how many HCPCS codes are there in the manual?
20%
Approximately how many pregnant women experience one or more complications of pregnancy?
28
Approximately what percent of ICD-10-CM codes include a designation for laterality?
C44.212
Basal cell carcinoma, skin of right ear:
interpret the conventions presented with the code.
Before a code is verified and finalized, a coder should first:
medication use.
Bipolar disorder has numerous variations based on all of the following EXCEPT:
Rounded
Bones can be described by their shape. Which of the following is NOT a bone shape?
D04.61
Bowen's disease—localized—skin of right arm:
a malignant tumor comprised of squamous cells.
CA in situ is defined as:
decimal points.
CPT codes do NOT have:
1966
CPT codes were implemented in:
two digit suffix
CPT modifiers consist of a/an:
letter to explain how a service differs from what is usually provided.
CPT modifiers may eliminate the need for a/an:
True
CTs and MRIs are used to evaluate muscle and other soft tissue because they show more contrast between different types of soft tissues. True or False
retain the characteristics of the organ in which they originated.
Cancer cells that have metastasized:
the anatomic site.
Cardiovascular system codes must be specific to comorbidities, the nature of the disease, and:
Excludes 2
Category H35—Other Retinal Disorders—has what type of instructional note?
labeled by section.
Category I codes are:
f.
Category II codes consist of four numbers followed by the letter:
emerging technology.
Category III codes are used for:
Alcohol abuse and dependence
Category K20 has an instructional note to code which of the following?
10 blocks/subchapters
Chapter 11 of ICD-10-CM, Diseases of the Digestive System, contains:
10 subchapters divided by anatomic site.
Chapter 11 of ICD-10-CM-Diseases of the Digestive System-contains:
11
Chapter 17 of ICD-10-CM, Congenital Malformations, Deformations, and Chromosomal Abnormalities, contains how many blocks or subchapters?
20
Chapter 19, Injuries, Poisonings, and Certain Other Consequences of External Causes, contains ________ blocks or subchapters.
14
Chapter 21, Factors Influencing Health Status and Contact with Health Services contains how many blocks/subchapters?
Klinefelter's syndrome.
Chapter 4—Endocrine, Nutritional, and Metabolic Diseases—also classifies other endocrine system disorders besides diabetes. All of the following are endocrine system disorders EXCEPT:
False
Classifying fractures as displaced or nondisplaced is a concept that was introduced in ICD-9-CM. True or False
supported by a diagnosis.
Coders must report a CPT code that is:
both A and B. Answers: primary liver cancer is rare. the liver is a common site for metastasis because it filters the blood and malignancies can spread through the blood.
Coders must take care when assigning codes and sequencing the codes for malignant neoplasms of the liver because:
when the virus is confirmed as one of those listed in the inclusion note.
Coders should assign codes from subcategory J09.x only:
true
Coders use a separate Index to External Causes to locate codes, which are then verified in the Tabular List. True or False
appear in the Neoplasm chapter.
Codes for neoplasms of the eye and ocular adnexa:
False
Codes in square brackets- [ ]-should always be sequenced first. True or False
ICD-10-CM makes a distinction between burns and corrosions. Burns are classified by heat source, electricity, and radiation. Corrosions are burns due to chemicals.
Coding burns using ICD-10-CM will be different from coding burns using ICD-9-CM. Why?
16
Coma had a single code in ICD-9-CM. In ICD-10-CM there are ________ codes for coma, each with one of five extensions that reflect the Glasgow Coma Scale.
on the back cover.
Commonly used medical abbreviations are found in most CPT manuals:
All of the above
Companies and organizations develop compliance programs for which of the following reasons?
meconium aspiration syndrome.
Condition in which the newborn breathes a mixture of meconium and amniotic fluid into the lungs prior to or during delivery is known as:
False
Contact dermatitis requires depth descriptions. True or False
eclampsia
Convulsions associated with preeclampsia that occurs during pregnancy or the puerperium is the definition of:
chemicals
Corrosions are burns to the skin due to:
it is not a HIPAA-approved code set.
DSM cannot be used for insurance billing because:
acute tubular necrosis.
Damage to the renal tubules due to reduced blood flow or toxins in the urine is:
modifying terms.
Descriptive words in the Index that appear indented under the Main Term to further describe the service or procedure are:
Extensive numbers of laterality codes have been added.
Differences in codes for the chapters on Congenital Malformations, Deformations, and Chromosomal Abnormalities between ICD-9-CM and ICD-10-CM include all but which of the following?
opportunistic infections.
Diseases that attack those with weakened immune systems but do NOT develop in those with healthy immune system are known as:
Code the long-term use of specific medications.
Documentation of current and past medications, along with any medication allergies, is important to the patient's care. What should coders do with this information?
performing a medical history
Dr. Lorenzo asks his patient, Bella, questions about the pain she is currently experience in relation to the severity level, what makes it worse or better, and if she's experienced this pain before. This is an example of:
ICD-10-CM
E16.8 is an example of the code format for which HIPAA-mandated code set?
1000 grams.
ELBW is the medical abbreviation for extremely low birth weight and characterizes an infant whose birth weight is less than:
true
Encounter for fitting and adjustment of an artificial eye (Z44.2) has a code that specified laterality. True or False
False
Entries that require a seventh character extension are referred to as subcategories because it cannot be called a code until the extension is added.
dystonia
Erratic, jerky movements due to improperly functioning muscle tissue is known as a:
Because hospitals will be using PCS codes to report inpatient procedures these same physicians perform.
Even though physicians will continue to use CPT to report procedures performed in their offices, they will still be affected by ICD-10-PCS documentation requirements. Why is this?
Poisonings
External cause place, activity, and status codes do NOT apply to which of the following?
category.
F95-Tic disorder is an example of a:
Cognitive
Failure to develop or deterioration of mental comprehension is the definition of which type of mental/behavioral/neurodevelopmental disorder?
treat symptoms
For complicated problems that may take a while to diagnose, physicians may ________ to provide relief until the underlying cause is determined.
CMS website.
GEMs can be found as public domain electronic files on the:
Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System.
HCPCS stands for:
glucose attached to hemoglobin
HbA1c is a blood test that measures:
one side of the body.
Hemiplegia is paralysis of:
excessive loss of RBCs.
Hemolytic anemia is defined as anemia due to:
Z85.47
History of testicular cancer:
C81.27
Hodgkin's lymphoma of spleen-mixed cellularity:
subheadings that identify groups of related services
How are chapters in the HCPCS Tabular List organized?
E52
How is pellagra coded?
J04.0, B95.0
How is the diagnosis acute laryngitis due to streptococcus coded?
Through the instructional note "Code first" for the systemic infection
How is the order for sequencing codes for infectious diseases is indicated in the Tabular List?
6 weeks
How long is the postpartum period?
Seven
How many alphanumeric characters does each ICD-10-PCS code have?
15
How many appendices does the CPT manual contain?
12
How many blocks or subchapters does ICD-10-CM Chapter 16, Certain Conditions Originating in the Perinatal Period contain?
Five
How many categories for diabetes mellitus does ICD-10-CM have?
One
How many codes are needed to accurately code hyperemesis gravidarum with metabolic disturbance in an 18 weeks pregnant patient?
Two
How many codes are needed to report insulin pump failure?
Over 4,000
How many congenital abnormalities have been identified by physicians?
G00.0
How should haemophilus meningitis be coded?
Any change will most likely be negligible. The code set used for assigning codes is generally unseen by patients.
How will patients be affected by the change from ICD-9-CM to ICD-10-CM/PCS?
J35.2
Hypertrophy of adenoids is coded to:
22
ICD-10-CM Chapter 1, Infectious and Parasitic Diseases has ________ blocks or subchapters which are divided by the type of infection
conditions affecting the mother.
ICD-10-CM Chapter 16, Certain Conditions Originating in the Perinatal Period includes all of the following conditions EXCEPT:
14
ICD-10-CM Chapter 18 has how many blocks or subchapters?
True
ICD-10-CM Chapter 18, Symptoms, Signs, and Abnormal Clinical and Laboratory Findings, NEC contains ill-defined conditions that do NOT fit anywhere else in ICD- 10-CM. True or False
diseases of the circulatory system
ICD-10-CM Chapter 9 is:
newborn
ICD-10-CM defines all codes using ________ instead of fetus, which was used in many code titles in ICD-9-CM.
Codes for both the congenital and acquired variations will start with Q.
ICD-10-CM distinguishes between conditions that can be both congenital in origin and acquired. Which of the following is NOT true when coding such conditions?
True
ICD-10-CM has NO chapter-specific guidelines for coding and reporting digestive system diseases. True or False
Three
ICD-10-CM has how many additional indexes for specialized codes?
Both B and C. Coders will need to search the documentation further for the weeks of gestation. Coders will have to develop a new methodology.
ICD-10-CM requires coders to determine the weeks of gestation for pregnant women. Which of the following is TRUE in regards to the impact this might have on diagnosis abstracting?
Codes beginning with D classify metastatic neoplasms.
ICD-10-CM, Chapter 2-Neoplasms, contains codes that begin with the letter C and the letter D. Which of the following is NOT true?
There will be no real impact because they are not expected to document using these terms.
ICD-10-PCS contains a number of new procedural terms. What impact does this have on physicians?
International Classification of Diseases, 10th Revision, Procedure Classification System.
ICD-10-PCS stands for:
1998
ICD-10-PCS was initially published in:
True
ICD-9-CM required coders to select multiple codes when coding pressure ulcers. True or False
NCHS
ICD-9-CM was developed by which organization?
Assign a personal history code to identify the history of the condition.
If a congenital condition has been corrected, the coder should do which of the following?
search the Main Term for both conditions.
If hypertension exists with another condition, the coder should:
True
If the physician documents symptoms, signs, and abnormal findings but does NOT provide a confirmed diagnosis, the main reason for the encounter is sequenced as the first listed/principal diagnosis. True or False
omit the code
If the place of occurrence is NOT documented, the coder should:
common descriptor.
In the Tabular List, the shared portion of the code listed before the semicolon convention is the:
block
Inflammatory diseases of the central nervous system (G00 to G09) is an example of a:
D05.12
Intraductal CA in situ, left breast:
approximately five years.
It is estimated that the overall process to plan, implement, and monitor the transition to ICD-10-CM/PCS will take:
Alphanumeric keyboarding
It is important for coders to be proficient in what type of keyboarding?
All of the above. Learn the new code sets. Learn any associated new and/or updated software. Update their professional certifications as needed.
It is important that coders do which of the following in order to transition to ICD-10-CM/PCS?
C50.821
John Jones is 56-year-old male with a history of right breast CA six years ago. He had a recurrence of the cancer with breast tissue found at the mastectomy site.
B20, C46.50
Kaposi's sarcoma of the lung. Patient has AIDS.
alcoholism
Known causes of epilepsy include all of the following EXCEPT:
Most disorders of the breast
Laterality applies to which of the anatomic sites in Diseases of the Genitourinary System?
multiple drug resistant organism.
MDRO stands for:
D39.2
Malignant hydatidiform mole:
C02.1, Z87.891
Malignant neoplasm tip of tongue; patient has a history of smoking, though has not smoked in 30 years.
C78.7
Metastatic liver cancer:
side of the body affected.
Modifiers that identify laterality show the:
to show manifestations of the DM.
Multiple coding is required for diabetes in each of the following circumstances EXCEPT:
C90.01
Multiple myeloma in remission:
a 7th-character extension.
Nearly all external cause codes require:
All of the Above Topography Behavior Cell type
Neoplasms are classified by which of the following?
parentheses
Nonessential modifiers are identified by the use of:
Five
Not counting modifiers, how many numbers does a CPT code have?
subcategory
O10.91 is an example of a:
external cause codes are never used as a first listed or principal diagnosis code.
OGCR1.C.20.a.1 and OBCR 1.C.20.a.6 state that:
the codes assigned and the circumstances of the encounter
Official coding guidelines require proper sequencing of diagnosis and procedure codes. The sequencing depends on:
their stance is that providers should know about it and follow it.
Once Medicare publishes a final rule:
True
One of the differences between ICD-9-CM and ICD-10-CM pertains to codes for hemorrhoids. In ICD-9-CM, the codes for hemorrhoids were located in the circulatory system. In ICD-10-CM, they have been moved to the digestive system chapter. True or False
bacteria
One-celled germs that multiply quickly and may release toxins that create illness are known as:
Stapes
Otosclerosis is loss of mobility of which bone?
C56.1, C56.2
Ovarian cancer, bilaterally:
symptoms
Pain, fatigue, anxiety, and nausea are examples of:
It is usually diagnosed only after it has metastasized widely.
Pancreatic cancer accounts for 3% of new cancer cases, but survival rates are usually poor. Why is this?
subluxation
Partial dislocation of bones in a joint is known as:
second degree burn
Partial thickness (blistering) of skin that usually heals within 5 to 21 days describes a:
childbirth
Parturition is the medical term for:
Disorders of adult personality and behavior
Pathologic gambling falls under which subcategory in Chapter 5, Mental, Behavioral, and Neurodevelopmental Disorders?
contact/exposure.
Patients that have NO signs or symptoms of a disease but who are suspected to have been in an area where a disease is epidemic would be assigned a Z code to describe their:
Request additional information to verify whether or not the service is covered.
Payers are allowed to do which of the following in order to process a claim for payment?
schizothymia
Persistent withdrawal from social relationships describes:
pulmonologists
Physicians specializing in the diagnosis and treatment of respiratory conditions are:
There is no actual medical specialty; any physician can treat injuries and poisonings.
Physicians specializing in the treatment of injuries and poisonings are known as:
dermatologists
Physicians who specialize in diagnosing and treating conditions of the skin and subcutaneous tissue are:
True
Physicians who specialize in diagnosing and treating diseases of the circulatory system are cardiologists. True or False
gastroenterologists
Physicians who specialize in the study, diagnosis, and treatment of digestive system diseases are known as:
D44.3
Pituitary tumor, uncertain behavior:
age of the patient.
Pressure ulcer codes are combination codes that include all of the following EXCEPT:
Review all subterms and locate a more specific code if available.
Prior to assigning a default code, the coder should do which of the following?
42 completed weeks of gestation.
Prolonged pregnancy is defined as more than:
Medicare might deny the service.
Providers must have patients sign an Advance Beneficiary Notice when:
food
Psychoactive substance disorders involve all of the following EXCEPT:
small hemorrhages in the skin.
Purpura is the medical term for:
Breast primary, colon secondary
Read the following diagnosis statement and then identify which is the primary site and which is the secondary site: Breast cancer with mets to colon.
Lung primary, unknown secondary site
Read the following diagnosis statement and then identify which is the primary site and which is the secondary site: Metastatic lung cancer.
stomatitis
Redness, ulcers, and/or bleeding of the mouth due to bacteria, fungi, or viruses, is known as:
False
Sebaceous cyst of the eyelids has a code that represents "bilateral eyelids."
All of the above. coding guidelines for inconclusive diagnoses. Diagnostic Coding and Reporting Guidelines for Outpatient Services. coding guidelines for uncertain diagnoses.
Section IV of the OGCR contains:
VIII
Sound waves are converted to impulses that are transmitted to the brain through which cranial nerve?
G80.1
Spastic cerebral palsy is coded:
code first underlying disease....
Subcategory code H62.4 has an instructional note that states:
indented
Subterms in the HCPCS Index are:
ambulatory surgery
Surgical encounters that do not require an overnight inpatient stay in the hospital are known as:
Z11.1
TB screening:
screening
Testing for a disease in a seemingly healthy individual so that it can be detected early is known as:
code also any therapeutic drug level monitoring.
The "code also" note for long-term (current) drug therapy states:
code also associated ESRD (N18.6).
The "code also" note found at the renal dialysis Z code states:
sequela
The 7th-character extension ________ is used for conditions or complications that are a direct result of an injury after the healing phase is complete.
every year
The CPT manual is updated:
describes how to code when multiple sites with the respiratory system are affected.
The Diseases of the Respiratory System begins with an instructional note that:
It was intended to combat widespread fraud when contractors sold the government faulty rifles, ammunition, rotten food, and sick horses.
The FCA was passed during the Civil War for what reason?
False
The FIRST step in assigning ICD-10-CM diagnosis codes is to search the Tabular List by the condition. True or False
is a worldwide reporting system for classifying diseases.
The International Classification of Diseases, 10th revision:
synthesis, storage, and release of glucagons.
The Islets of Langerhans are responsible for:
basal cell carcinoma.
The MOST common cancer in the integumentary system is:
metastatic bone disease.
The MOST common cancer in the musculoskeletal system is:
breast and lung.
The MOST common cancers that metastasize to the eye are:
blockage of a coronary artery by plaque.
The MOST common cause of an MI is:
retinoblastoma
The MOST common eye cancer in children is:
intraocular melanoma.
The MOST common primary malignant neoplasm in adult eyes is:
bladder
The MOST common urinary system cancer is:
True
The Main Term is the name of the condition or reason for the visit, usually presented as a noun in the ICD-10-CM Index to Diseases and Injuries. True or FalseWhich of the following is NOT a key rule for abstracting inpatient diagnoses?
nearly 25%
The National Institutes of Health estimates ________ of adults experience a mental health disorder each year.
Chapter-Specific Coding Guidelines—guidelines for specific diagnoses or conditions divided by IC-10-CM chapter
The OGCR Section I.C. contains which of the following?
Department of Health and Human Services.
The Office of the Inspector General (OIG) is a division of the:
Though they were previously not required to establish a voluntary compliance program, they are now required to do so if they want to continue serving Medicare beneficiaries.
The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act was passed in 2010. The PPACA placed a greater burden on smaller healthcare providers for which of the following reasons?
includes financial rewards to whistleblowers that turn in violators
The Qui Tam provision of the False Claims Act:
V
The Salter-Harris fracture classification has how many types?
six
The Table of Neoplasms has ________ columns for each anatomic site.
code and classify mortality data.
The United States has been using ICD-10-CM since January 1, 1999 to:
False
The Z code for personal history of irradiation includes occupational exposure to irradiation. True or False
T-term births; P-preterm births; A-spontaneous or induced abortions; L-living children.
The abbreviation TPAL stands for:
IT
The abbreviation for a drug injected into the fluid around the spinal cord is:
H. pylori
The bacteria that cause stomach ulcers is:
spermatocele
The benign cystic swelling of sperm in the ducts of the epididymis is known as:
use additional code (F70 to F79) to identify associated mental retardation.
The category for congenital-iodine deficiency syndrome has an instructional note that states:
the reason/problem for which the patient sought treatment.
The chief complaint is defined as:
heart and blood vessels.
The circulatory system consists of the:
Sheathing
The codes for retinal vascular sheathing are indexed under what Main Term?
CPT and HCPCS.
The codes that use modifiers are:
cartilage
The combining form chondr/o means:
chole/o
The combining form for gall or bile is:
connective tissue
The combining form sarc/o means:
split
The combining form schiz/o means:
knob or bump.
The combining form tuberculo means:
False
The conventions NOS and NEC are used interchangeably.
equilibrium
The ear maintains the sense of balance, which is also known as:
reduced anxiety.
The effects of tranquilizers include:
alimentary canal
The esophagus, stomach, small and large intestines are all parts of:
refers to any encounter during active treatment.
The extension for the initial episode of care:
Coordination and Maintenance Committee.
The four cooperating parties are part of the federal interdepartmental committee known as the:
and pass waste to endocrine organs.
The function of the hemic system is to all of the following EXCEPT transport:
nephron
The functioning part of each kidney that filters waste from the blood is known as the:
Prader-Willi syndrome
The genetic disorder due to a deletion of paternal chromosome 15, patients with this syndrome are characterized by short stature, intellectual disability, abnormally small hands and feet, and uncontrolled appetite which leads to extreme obesity is known as:
Prader-Willi syndrome.
The genetic disorder due to a deletion of paternal chromosome 15, patients with this syndrome are characterized by short stature, intellectual disability, abnormally small hands and feet, and uncontrolled appetite which leads to extreme obesity is known as:
use additional external cause code to identify activity causing the disorder.
The instructional note for bursitis of the hand states:
used on the initial birth record only
The instructional note found at Z38 indicates that the Z code is:
there is no instructional note for post-traumatic headache.
The instructional note found at post-traumatic headache states:
Code any related psychological factors associated with pain
The instructional note found at the code for Pain, NOT elsewhere classifiable, states which of the following?
source of the radiation.
The instructional note found under L58, Radiodermatitis, instructs coders to use an additional code to identify the:
exocrine glands.
The integumentary system consists of all of the following EXCEPT:
publisher specific convention information.
The introduction of the HCPCS manual provides:
cerebrum
The largest structure in the brain that controls motor activity is the:
when the patient contacts the physician to make an appointment.
The lifecycle of an insurance claim begins:
pneumoconiosis
The lung condition cause by inhalation of various dust particles such as coal or iron dust is known as:
one side.
The medical prefix hemi- means:
dentists
The medical professionals who specialize in the study, diagnosis, and treatment of disorders of the oral cavity are known as:
weakness
The medical suffix -asthenia means:
recording
The medical suffix -gram means a:
opening
The medical suffix -tresia means:
-tonia.
The medical suffix for the word "contraction" is:
dysphagia
The medical term for difficulty swallowing is:
many
The medical word root poly- means:
contracts to pump blood.
The myocardium:
congenital
The nonessential modifier found after the Main Term accessory in the Index is:
aftercare
The patient is seen for fitting and adjustment of an artificial arm. This is an example of:
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.
The pediatric BMI codes are used for people from age 2 to 20. The percentiles are based on growth charts published by the:
the 28th day following birth.
The perinatal period begins before birth and continues through:
attending physician
The physician usually treats a patient throughout the patient's stay at an inpatient facility is known as the:
exchange
The process of obtaining oxygen, distributing it to the cells, and then removing the gaseous waste products is known as:
not included in the CPT.
The purpose of the HCPCS codes is to classify and report services and supplies:
axial skeleton and appendicular skeleton.
The skeleton has two main divisions:
Lifestyle habits
The social history is an integral part of a patient's health record and can provide information that could potentially be coded. Which of the following information should be coded?
lack of.
The suffix -penia means:
voice
The suffix -phonia means:
breathing
The suffix -pnea means:
K81.9
The suffix -ptysis means:
WHO Study Group on the Prevention of Blindness.
The table found under Category H54 provides a classification of severity of visual impairment recommended by the:
detailed.
The term granular means:
group health plans, self-insured plans, individual plans.
The three major sources of private health insurance are:
supplemental thyroid hormone.
The treatment for non-toxic goiter is:
tricuspid, mitral, aortic, and pulmonary.
The valves that control the flow of blood are:
document accidental intent
The vast majority of intent/cause codes are to:
both A and B. Answers: encephal/o. cerebr/o.
The word root/combining form that means brain is:
The outcome of delivery codes is no longer required.
There are three major changes that were implemented in the ICD-10-CM version of the Obstetrics, Childbirth and the Puerperium chapter. Which of the following is NOT one of the changes?
True
There is a Z code for dependence on a ventilator True or False
In ICD-9-CM, and acute MI is defined as one occurring within the last eight weeks. In ICD-10-CM, the timeframe is within the last four weeks.
There is a change in the definition of acute MI from ICD-9-CM to ICD-10-CM. What is the change?
Circulatory disorders
There is an Excludes 2 note at the beginning of the Diseases of the Digestive System chapter. Which is NOT one of the conditions noted in the Excludes note?
osteoporosis
Thinning of bone tissue and loss of bone density is known as:
86%
Third-party payers are entities other than the physician or patient who pay for healthcare services. What percentage of healthcare services in the United States is paid by third-party payers?
oval window.
This is a thin membrane that covers the opening to the inner ear and passes vibrations to the cochlea:
Huntington's chorea
This is an inherited progressive, degenerative disease involving loss of muscle control and personality changes.
benign neoplasm.
This type of neoplasm does NOT have the ability to invade surrounding tissue is:
Tonic
This type of seizure is characterized by prolonged muscle contractions or a stiffening of the body.
C32.3
Thyroid cartilage CA:
Disease process
Traumatic fractures are described based on a combination of criteria. Which of the following is NOT one of the criteria?
False
Tuberculosis erythema nodosum is coded to L52. True or False
MRSA
Type of staph bacteria that does NOT respond to commonly used antibiotics is:
MSSA
Type of staph bacteria that responds to commonly used antibiotics:
When the claims manager has a hunch, something is inaccurate.
Typically, which of the following is NOT a reason claims for payment may be suspended?
Other joint disorders
Unequal humerus length (acquired) is found under which subchapter of Chapter 13?
abuse
Use of a substance in a quantity or frequency that can create legal and social problems or places the individual at physical risk is the definition for:
vaginal birth after cesarean.
VBAC is the abbreviation for:
there is no need to verify codes in the Tabular List.
Verifying a code in the Tabular List is essential for all the following reasons EXCEPT:
loss of pigmentation.
Vitiligo is a disorder of the integumentary system that results in:
Code first any associated physical or developmental disorders.
What condition should be sequenced prior to assigning mental retardation codes according to the instructional note found at the beginning of the block?
procedures
What do suffixes in CPT coding describe?
Code first any current condition in newborn.
What instructional note is found at the beginning of category P02
See also condition
What instructional note is found in the Index when accessing the Main Term congenital?
A benign tumor of the vestibular cochlear nerve
What is an acoustic neuroma?
Serum assays
What is the BEST way to diagnose an endocrine disorder?
A nephrologist specializes in diagnosing and treating kidney conditions; the urologist specializes in diagnosing and treating conditions of the urinary tract and the male reproductive system.
What is the difference between a nephrologist and an urologist?
Arrange or sequence the codes in the correct order.
What is the final step in diagnosis coding when there is more than one diagnosis?
identify the Main Term
What is the first step in locating a preliminary code in the Index?
Abdominal wall NEC
What is the first subterm when looking up the Main Term anomaly in the Index?
Either therapy may be sequenced first.
What is the guideline that addresses when more than one type of antineoplastic therapy is provided in the same encounter?
Use additional code to identify any associated medical condition and mental retardation.
What is the instructional note found under the category code for pervasive developmental disorders?
Excludes upper respiratory infection
What is the instructional note under the code for unspecified acute lower respiratory infection?
to identify billable services provided to patients
What is the purpose of CPT codes?
to prevent overpayment associated with incorrect coding
What is the purpose of reimbursement edits?
Note: for definition of visual impairment categories, see table below
What note is found under Category H65, Blindness and Low Vision?
hyphen
What often separates the modifier from the code number?
AMA
What organization developed and published the first edition of CPT?
47%
What percent of adults age 75 years or older have hearing impairment?
47%
What portion of health benefit plans are funded by federal and state programs?
H00 to H59
What range of codes is included in the chapter Diseases of the Eye and Adnexa?
E00 to E89
What range of codes is included in the chapter for Endocrine, Nutritional, and Metabolic Diseases?
a letter
What represents a group of similar services, supplies, drugs and equipment in the HCPCS code?
Code the information only if the provider documents their clinical significance.
What should coders do when they encounter abnormal lab and clinical findings documented in an inpatient health record?
unlisted
What type of procedure is reported when a physician provides a unique service that is not adequately described by an existing CPT code?
Hematologist
What type of provider specializes in diagnosing and treating conditions of the blood and blood-forming organs?
1979
What year was ICD-9-CM first implemented?
True
When a coder encounters a "Use additional code" note, the coder should NOT assign a code from the list unless it is documented in the record. True or False
Both A and B. Return the overpayment. Report the overpayment to Medicare. Keep it.
When a healthcare provider is overpaid by Medicare, what should they do?
assign the code for not having achieved remission.
When a patient has lymphoma, and the record does NOT document the status of the disease, the coders should:
needs to investigate the situation
When a payment for service is denied by the insurance company, an accounts receivable specialist:
A procedure code would also be used to identify the services provided.
When a person has a healthcare encounter related to reproduction, a Z code is used to describe the reason for the encounter. Which of the following is TRUE?
History, personal
When a physician documents a past medical condition that NO longer exists, which of the following is the Main Term for the Z code?
Z18
When an injury involves a retained foreign body, the coder should assign an additional code from:
Report the resistance with a combination code that identifies the organism and its resistance, if one is available.
When an organism is stated as resistant to antibiotics or other drugs, what should the coder do?
sequence either code first.
When both a confirmed diagnosis and an unrelated symptom are equally responsible for services provided:
failure in the Index.
When coding CHF, search for the Main Term:
infarct in the Index.
When coding an AMI, locate the Main Term:
ICD-10-CM guidelines direct coders to sequence always the anemia first.
When coding anemia in cancer, which of the following is NOT true?
Disorder
When coding bipolar disorder, the Main Term in the Index is which of the following?
Genitourinary
When coding influenza, coders should assign a code that describes any manifestation(s). Which of the following is NOT one of the manifestation choices?
Secondary diabetes is also known as type II diabetes.
When coding secondary diabetes, which of the following is NOT true?
Meningeal
When looking up the Main Term sarcomatosis, what is the FIRST subterm found in the Index?
disorder
When looking up vertiginous syndrome in the Index, the Main Term is:
adjuvant therapy.
When more than one type of therapy is used to treat a neoplasm, the additional treatments are known as:
insure the patient will not file a medical malpractice suit.
When processing claims, excellent documentation in a patient's paper or electronic health record can do all of the following EXCEPT:
descending order of price.
When reporting multiple CPT codes for billing, the codes should be sequenced on the 837P electronic claim or CMS-1500 in:
"burn."
When searching the Index for burns caused by a hot object search under the Main Term:
temporary.
When the coder encounters the subterm "transitory" in the Index, the term means:
List the additional diagnoses in order of importance to the encounter.
When the first listed diagnosis is unclear, what should the coder do when sequencing additional diagnoses?
underlying condition should be sequenced first.
When there is a "Code first" note and an underlying condition is present the:
follow the chapter-specific guidelines.
When there is a difference between a general coding guideline and a chapter-specific guideline, the coder should:
mandated services
Whenever a service is required by a third-party payer, court or other authority, which modifier alerts the payer?
Appendix A
Where can a full definition of all modifiers be found?
Femur
Which bone is the longest bone in the body?
#
Which convention symbol identifies resequenced codes?
statistical codes
Which is NOT a category of HCPCS codes?
subtopics
Which is NOT a division of a section within the CPT manual?
Produce blood cells
Which is NOT a function of the muscular system?
Secrete reproductive hormones.
Which is NOT a function of the nervous system?
Is the condition related to pregnancy?
Which is NOT a key criterion for abstracting diabetes mellitus?
Is this condition genetic?
Which is NOT a key criterion for abstracting integumentary conditions?
failure to use seatbelts
Which is NOT an instructional note under Transport Accidents? Use additional code to identify:
Birth weight
Which is NOT one of the items that the newborn status code identifies?
The character for the right side is always "1."
Which is NOT true about Chapter 7 codes and laterality?
Shoulder
Which is the MOST frequently dislocated joint in the body?
Bilateral lids
Which is the following is NOT true about how levels of laterality codes are expressed in Chapter 7?
Accident, transport, type of vehicle, driver/passenger
Which is the proper order of the FIRST few steps when searching the Index for motor vehicle accident?
Sarc/o
Which medical term means connective tissue or flesh?
-GA
Which modifier informs Medicare that an Advance Beneficiary Notice has been signed?
CBCS
Which of the following coding certifications is NOT offered by either AAPC or AHIMA?
Lactose intolerance
Which of the following disorders is not classified in Chapter 11-Diseases of the Digestive System?
All of the above. ICD-10-CM has an instructional note to use a procedure code to identify the type of immunization provided. ICD-9-CM has approximately 36 separate codes for encounters for immunizations; ICD-10-CM has one. ICD-9-CM immunizations are code using V codes.
Which of the following distinguishes the difference in coding immunizations in ICD-9-CM and ICD-10-CM?
The baby was delivered via use of forceps.
Which of the following examples would cause the coder to assign a code OTHER than O80?
Malignant melanoma
Which of the following integumentary system neoplasms causes 75% of all skin cancer deaths?
Swimming
Which of the following is NOT a commonly used Main Term in the Index to External Causes?
Secrete hormones
Which of the following is NOT a function of the GI system?
Maintain body posture
Which of the following is NOT a function of the skeletal system?
Is the patient married?
Which of the following is NOT a key criterion for abstracting conditions of pregnancy?
How old is the patient?
Which of the following is NOT a key criterion for abstracting conditions related to congenital abnormalities?
Is the condition due to prematurity?
Which of the following is NOT a key criterion for abstracting encounters after the birth episode?
Does the patient have a condition that is due to pseudomonas aeruginosa?
Which of the following is NOT a key criterion for abstracting infectious and parasitic diseases?
What is the laterality?
Which of the following is NOT a key criterion for abstracting ophthalmic complications of diabetes?
Is there history of STDs?
Which of the following is NOT a key criterion for abstracting urinary symptom conditions?
Is the condition genetic?
Which of the following is NOT a key criterion when abstracting conditions of the ear and mastoid process?
Uncertain diagnoses should never be coded.
Which of the following is NOT a key rule for abstracting inpatient diagnoses?
Do code conditions that are resolved
Which of the following is NOT a key rule for abstracting outpatient diagnoses?
There are more combination codes in ICD-10-CM.
Which of the following is NOT a new coding concept in ICD-10-CM?
Illicit drug use
Which of the following is NOT a primary concern when abstracting for diagnoses of the ear and mastoid processes?
Polycythemia
Which of the following is NOT a sign of sepsis?
RLQ pain
Which of the following is NOT a sign/symptom of a stroke?
Segmental
Which of the following is NOT a type of fracture?
Glycosuria
Which of the following is NOT an acute complication of DM?
Gender identity disorder
Which of the following is NOT an example of a mood disorder?
CXR
Which of the following is NOT an example of a screening exam for neoplasms?
First Urgent care encounter
Which of the following is NOT an example of a subsequent encounter?
Anomaly
Which of the following is NOT an example of an external cause code?
It will help to reduce the cost of providing healthcare in the United States.
Which of the following is NOT an expected benefit from using ICD-10-CM/PCS?
Service was performed in a hospital setting.
Which of the following is NOT key criteria for abstracting CPT modifiers?
What is the place of occurrence?
Which of the following is NOT one of the key criteria for abstracting conditions of the nervous system?
Does it have psychotic features?
Which of the following is NOT one of the key criteria for abstracting general psychiatric disorders?
Identify any HACs and assign appropriate codes.
Which of the following is NOT part of sequencing codes when a patient with HIV disease is admitted for a condition unrelated to the HIV?
Larynx
Which of the following is NOT part of the digestive system?
Skene's gland
Which of the following is NOT part of the kidney?
Larynx
Which of the following is NOT part of the lower respiratory tract?
Mouth
Which of the following is NOT part of the upper respiratory tract?
They are the same as a birthing coach known as a doula.
Which of the following is NOT true about CNMs-certified nurse midwives?
They appear only in the ICD-10-CM Draft Conventions.
Which of the following is NOT true about ICD-10-CM conventions?
It covers inpatient stays at a skilled nursing facility.
Which of the following is NOT true about Medicare Part B?
Breast cancer affects one in seven women at some point in their lifetime.
Which of the following is NOT true about breast cancer?
All signs/symptoms/abnormal findings that are documented by the physician should be coded.
Which of the following is NOT true about coding and abstracting signs and symptoms?
The terms congenital and perinatal are NEVER used interchangeably.
Which of the following is NOT true about congenital and perinatal conditions?
It is up to the individual facility whether or not to use external cause codes.
Which of the following is NOT true about external cause codes?
It is caused by a virus.
Which of the following is NOT true about lobar pneumonia?
It is the most common cause of death from cancer in men over age 80.
Which of the following is NOT true about prostate cancer?
It is treated with antibiotics.
Which of the following is NOT true about pulmonary edema?
When a patient intentionally harms himself/herself, it is coded to suicide attempt.
Which of the following is NOT true about the ICD-10-CM Table of Drugs and Chemicals?
They are always published on October 1st of each year, just like the updated coding manual.
Which of the following is NOT true about the OGCR?
There are 650 skeletal muscles.
Which of the following is NOT true about the muscular system?
It is unimportant to the patient's current condition in most instances.
Which of the following is NOT true about the surgical history?
Monoamniotic twins have the lowest mortality rate.
Which of the following is NOT true about twin pregnancies?
Bleeding in ICD-9-CM refers only to ulcers.
Which of the following is NOT true in relation to the terminology differences between ICD-9-CM and ICD-10-CM/PCS?
Codes for outcome of delivery are used on the newborn record.
Which of the following is NOT true when using ICD-10-CM for coding newborn conditions?
all guidelines for Z codes can be found in section 1.C.21.
Which of the following is NOT true? ICD-10-CM OGCR Section 1.C.21 refers to Z codes and contains:
It replaces ICD-9-CM Volume 1 and II.
Which of the following is TRUE about ICD-10-CM?
Managed care plans seek to achieve better outcomes while controlling the cost of healthcare.
Which of the following is TRUE about managed care plans?
They are not indexed under the Main Term for the eye condition.
Which of the following is TRUE when assigning codes for diabetic ophthalmic manifestations?
Is dementia documented?
Which of the following is a key criterion for abstracting Parkinson's disease?
Is the sepsis a complication of a procedure that was performed?
Which of the following is a key criterion for abstracting sepsis and septic shock?
Both B and C Inpatient colonoscopy without a valid medical reason Outpatient colonoscopy Inpatient colonoscopy with a valid medical reason
Which of the following is an example of a "least restrictive setting" in regards to medical necessity criteria?
Femur
Which of the following is an example of a long bone?
Allergic reaction to first dose of metformin
Which of the following is an example of a poisoning?
An allergic reaction to an initial dose of sulfa
Which of the following is an example of an adverse effect?
Occupational therapists
Which of the following professionals does NOT treat mental, behavioral, and neurodevelopmental disorders?
Assign codes based on the documentation in the chart.
Which of the following things should a coder do when coding an encounter?
HR generalists
Which of the following type of healthcare employees might NOT use codes as part of their jobs?
Spleen
Which organ destroys old red blood cells?
AMA
Which organization developed CPT?
Department of Health and Human Services
Which organization developed National Drug Codes?
Section I. A.
Which section of the OGCR reflects any new and updated conventions?
The ADA holds the copyright to D codes.
Which statement is true about HCPCS D codes?
all codes should be verified in the Tabular list
Which statement is true about assigning codes for physician prescribed drugs?
They are most frequently used with surgical codes.
Which statement is true about modifiers?
-77
Which surgical/procedural modifier would be used when a repeat procedure is performed by another physician or other qualified health care professional?
technical and professional
Which two components often comprise radiology codes?
Status codes
Which type of Z code is rarely used as a sole diagnosis code for an encounter?
Rheumatologists
Which type of physician specializes in diagnosing and treating arthritis and other diseases of joints, muscles, and bones?
hip replacement
Which would be an example of a procedure that requires a modifier to indicate laterality?
the transport service
Who bills for service when a patient is taken to a hospital by ambulance van?
block or subchapter.
Within in the ICD-10-CM chapters, a contiguous range of codes within a chapter is known as a:
Appraising
Your Career and Coding, which of the following is NOT one of an "ace" coder's skills?
15
Z codes are classified into ________ categories.
Manifestations
________ are symptoms and signs that occur as the result of an underlying condition.
Marfan syndrome
________ is a genetic disorder of connective tissue characterized by elongated bones, ocular,
Metastasis
________ is the condition resulting from the spread of diseased cells.
Staging
________ is the process of determining how far a cancer has spread.
Neurologist
________ specialize in diagnosing and treating conditions of the nervous system.
-62
two surgeons