Exam review final
The nurse is admitting a client diagnosed with multiple sclerosis. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse assess?Select all that apply. 1. Muscle flaccidity. 2. Lethargy. 3. Dysmetria. 4. Fatigue. 5. Dysphagia.
1,3,4,5 Muscle flaccidity is a hallmark symptom of MS. Dysmetria is the inability to control muscular action characterized by overestimating or under estimating range of movement. Fatigue is a symptom of MS. Dysphagia, or difficulty swallowing, is associated with MS.
A client with myasthenia gravis arrives at the hospital emergency department in suspected crisis. The primary health care provider plans to administer edrophonium to differentiate between myasthenic and cholinergic crises. The nurse ensures that which medication is available in the event that the client is in cholinergic crisis? 1.Atropine sulfate 2.Morphine sulfate 3.Protamine sulfate 4.Pyridostigmine bromide
1.Atropine sulfate Cholinergic crisis: Overdose of cholinergic medications such as Pyridostigmine. Gets worse with more anticholinesterase meds such as Edrophonium. Atropine is used to reverse the effects of these anticholinesterase medications. Morphine sulfate and pyridostigmine bromide would worsen the symptoms of cholinergic crisis. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a spinal cord injury. The client reports a severe headache and is sweating profusely. Vital signs include blood pressure 220/110 mm Hg and apical heart rate 54/min. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? 1. Examine the client's skin for pressure. 2. Sit the client upright in bed. 3. Check the client's urinary catheter for blockage. 4. Administer an antihypertensive medication to the client.
2. Sit the client upright in bed. The greatest risk to the client is experiencing a stroke secondary to elevated blood pressure caused by autonomic dysreflexia. The first action the nurse should take is to elevate the head of the client's bed until the client is in an upright position. This action should lower the client's blood pressure secondary to postural hypotension.
A client has been on treatment for rheumatoid arthritis for 3 weeks. During the administration of etanercept, which is most important for the nurse to assess? 1. The injection site for itching and edema 2. The white blood cell counts and platelet counts 3. Whether the client is experiencing fatigue and joint pain 4. Whether the client is experiencing a metallic taste in the mouth, and a loss of appetite
2. The white blood cell counts and platelet counts. Patients using etanercept have an increased risk of acquiring serious and/or fatal infections, as well as lymphoma, leukemia (cancer that begins in the white blood cells), skin cancer etc.
The nurse is discussing osteoporosis with a group of women. Which factor will the nurse identify as a NONmodifiable risk factor? 1. Calcium deficiency 2. Tobacco use 3. Female gender 4. Low body weight
3. Female gender
The nurse is assessing a 48-year-old client diagnosed with multiple sclerosis. Which clinical manifestation warrants immediate intervention? 1. The client has scanning speech and diplopia. 2. The client has dysarthria and scotomas. 3. The client has muscle weakness and spasticity. 4. The client has a congested cough and dysphagia.
4.Dysphagia is a common problem of clients diagnosed with multiple sclerosis,and this places the client at risk for aspiration pneumonia. Some clients diagnosed with multiple sclerosis eventually become immobile and are at risk for pneumonia.
Which instructions will the nurse include in the teaching plan for a patient who is taking pyridostigmine (Mestinon)? (select all that apply) A) Pyridostigmine bromide must be taken on time. B) Take two times per day. C) Underdosing can result in myasthenic crisis. D) Overdosing can result in cholinergic crisis. E) Report the adverse effect of tachycardia to the health care provider.
A, C, & D A) Pyridostigmine bromide must be taken on time. C) Underdosing can result in myasthenic crisis. D) Overdosing can result in cholinergic crisis. Dosing is dependent on many factors. Adverse reaction of Mestinon include dizziness, sweating, bradycardia, abdominal cramps, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and excessive salivation.
A patient receives aspart (NovoLog) insulin at 8:00 AM. At which time would the nurse anticipate the highest risk for hypoglycemia? A. 10:00 AM B. 12:00 AM C. 2:00 PM D. 4:00 PM
A. 10:00 AM
A patient with diabetes is starting on intensive insulin therapy. Which type of insulin will the nurse discuss using for mealtime coverage? A. Lispro (Humalog) B. Glargine (Lantus) C. Detemir (Levemir) D. NPH (Humulin N)
A. Lispro (Humalog)
A hospice nurse is visiting with a dying patient. During the interaction, the patient is silent for some time. What is the best response? A. Recognize the patient's need for silence, and sit quietly at the bedside. B. Try distraction with the patient. C. Change the subject, and try to stimulate conversation. D. Leave the patient alone for a period.
A. Recognize the patient's need for silence, and sit quietly at the bedside. Frequently, silence is related to the overwhelming feelings experienced at the end of life. Silence can also allow time to gather thoughts. Listening to the silence sends a message of acceptance and comfort.
Which finding indicates to the nurse that lactulose is effective for an older adult who has advanced cirrhosis? A. The patient is alert and oriented. B. The patient denies nausea or anorexia. C. The patient's bilirubin level decreases. D. The patient has at least one stool daily
A. The patient is alert and oriented. The purpose for lactulose in the patient with cirrhosis is to lower ammonia levels and prevent encephalopathy, improve mental status and nervous system leading to increased alertness and orientation in the patient.
The nurse administering α-interferon and ribavirin (Rebetol) to a patient with chronic hepatitis C will plan to monitor for: A. leukopenia. B. hypokalemia. C. polycythemia. D. hypoglycemia
A. leukopenia. Both α-interferon and ribavirin can lead to decreased white blood cell counts (leukopenia) as a side effect. Monitoring for leukopenia is important because it can increase the patient's risk of infections and other complications.
A patient with lower leg fracture has an external fixation device in place and is scheduled for discharge. Which information will the nurse include in the discharge teaching? a. "You will need to assess and clean the pin insertion sites daily." b. "The external fixator can be removed during the bath or shower." c. "You will need to remain on bed rest until bone healing is complete." d. "Prophylactic antibiotics are used until the external fixator is removed."
ANS: A Pin insertion sites should be cleaned daily to decrease the risk for infection at the site. An external fixator allows the patient to be out of bed and avoid the risks of prolonged immobility. The device is surgically placed and is not removed until the bone is stable. Prophylactic antibiotics are not routinely given when an external fixator is used.
Which finding will the nurse expect when assessing a 58-year-old patient who has osteoarthritis (OA) of the knee? a. Discomfort with joint movement b. Heberden's and Bouchard's nodes c. Redness and swelling of the knee joint d. Stiffness that increases with movement
ANS: A Initial symptoms of OA include pain with joint movement. Heberden's and Bouchard's nodes occur on the fingers, not knee. Redness of the joint is more strongly associated with rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Stiffness in OA is worse right after the patient rests and decreases with joint movement.
A patient with Parkinson's disease has a nursing diagnosis of impaired physical mobility related to bradykinesia. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Instruct the patient in activities that can be done while lying or sitting. b. Suggest that the patient rock from side to side to initiate leg movement. c. Have the patient take small steps in a straight line directly in front of the feet. d. Teach the patient to keep the feet in contact with the floor and slide them forward.
ANS: B Rocking the body from side to side stimulates balance and improves mobility.
A patient has hip replacement surgery using the posterior approach. Which patient action requires rapid intervention by the nurse? a. The patient uses crutches with a swing-to gait. b. The patient leans over to pull shoes and socks on. c. The patient sits straight up on the edge of the bed. d. The patient bends over the sink while brushing the teeth.
ANS: B Leaning over would flex the hip at greater than 90 degrees and predispose the patient to hip dislocation. The other patient actions are appropriate and do not require any immediate action by the nurse to protect the patient.
Which statement by a patient who has had a limb amputation indicates the nurse's discharge teaching has been effective? Select all that apply. a. "I will avoid elevating my residual limb on a pillow." b. "I should lie flat on my abdomen for 30 minutes 3 or 4 times a day." c. "I should change the limb sock when it becomes soiled or each week." d. "I should use lotion on the stump to prevent skin drying and cracking." e. "I will perform daily range of motion (ROM) exercises for all joints"
Ans. a, b, e Patients with a limb amputation should not sit use pillows under the residual limb. Patients should lie on their stomach for 30 minutes, three or four times a day, and stretch their hip out straight. Patients should also perform daily range of motion (ROM) exercises for all joints and engage in general strength exercises, including those for the upper extremities. c. is wrong because the residual limb sock should be changed on a daily basis. d. is wrong because patients should refrain from using lotions, alcohol, powders, or oil on the residual limb.
The nurse is caring for a patient who requires skeletal traction after a back injury. Which of the following is appropriate nursing interventions? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY a. asses pin site for signs of infection b. maintain traction at all times c. perform a skin assessment of bony provinces every time patient is repositioned d. support the weights to prevent injurye. withhold stool softeners to prevent perineal skin breakdown
Ans. a. asses pin site for signs of infection b. maintain traction at all times c. perform a skin assessment of bony provinces every time patient is repositioned
The nurse is caring for a patient with osteoporosis who is being discharged on alendronate (Fosamax). Which statement would indicate effective teaching? A. "I should take the medication immediately before bed" B. "I should remain in an upright position for 30 minutes after taking the medication" C. "The medication is more effective if I take it with milk or dairy products" D. If I skip a dose, I can take two tablets the next time"
Answer: B- Rationale should remain upright for 30 mins. Bisphosphonates (Alendronate (Fosamax), ibandronate, risedronate, zoledronic acid, pamidronate) should be taken with 8 oz water in the early morning before eating in an empty stomach· Patient should Remain upright for 30 minutes to prevent esophageal irritation.
The patient had surgery for a hip fracture using a posterior approach. You must intervene when you notice the patient doing which activity? A. Sitting up at a 45-degree angle B. Putting on a sock using an extension aid C. Crossing legs at the knee D. Sitting on a raised toilet seat
Answer: C Rationale: Fractures treated with a posterior approach are at greater risk for dislocation of the femoral head prosthesis. Activities that predispose the patient to dislocation are more than 90 degrees of flexion, abduction, or internal rotation. This can occur when crossing the legs or feet when seated. The other options are acceptable actions.
Following a thyroidectomy, a patient complains of a tingling feeling around my mouth. The nurse will immediately check for: a. an elevated serum potassium level .b. the presence of Chvostek's sign. c. a decreased thyroid hormone level. d. bleeding on the patients dressing.
Answer: b. the presence of Chvostek's sign. The patients' symptoms indicate possible hypocalcemia, which can occur secondary to parathyroid injury/removal during thyroidectomy. There is no indication of a need to check the potassium level, the thyroid hormone level, or for bleeding.
A recently admitted patient has a small cell carcinoma of the lung, which is causing the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). The nurse will monitor carefully for: a. increased total urinary output. b. elevation of serum hematocrit. c. decreased serum sodium level. d. rapid and unexpected weight loss.
Answer: c. decreased serum sodium level. SIADH causes water retention and a decrease in serum sodium level. Weight loss, increased urine output, and elevated serum hematocrit may be associated with excessive loss of water, but not with SIADH and water retention.
A nurse is monitoring a patient who takes etanercept [Enbrel] for rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse should obtain the results of which laboratory test when evaluating for adverse effects? A) Arterial blood gases (ABGs) B) Skin test for tuberculosis C) Electrocardiogram (ECG) D) 24-hour urine collection for creatinine clearance
B) Skin test for tuberculosis Patients treated with Enbrel are at increased risk for developing serious infections. etanercept has a Black-Box Warning for tuberculosis (TB), bacterial sepsis, invasive fungal infections (such as histoplasmosis), and infections due to other opportunistic pathogens.
A patient with type 2 diabetes is scheduled for a follow-up visit in the clinic several months from now. Which test will the nurse schedule to evaluate the effectiveness of treatment for the patient? A. Fasting blood glucose B. Glycosylated hemoglobin - Hba1c C. Oral glucose tolerance test D. Urine dipstick for glucose and ketones
B. Glycosylated hemoglobin - Hba1c
The primary defect in osteomalacia is a deficiency in what? A. Vitamin B12 B. Vitamin D C. Estrogen D. Calcium
B. Vitamin D. Osteomalacia is a condition characterized by the softening and weakening of the bones, primarily due to a deficiency of vitamin D or problems with its absorption.
The nurse evaluates that administration of hepatitis B vaccine to a healthy patient has been effective when the patient's blood specimen reveals: A. HBsAg. B. anti-HBs. C. anti-HBc IgG. D. anti-HBc IgM.
B. anti-HBs. The presence of anti-HBs (antibodies against HBsAg) indicates that the patient has developed immunity against the hepatitis B virus, which is a sign of a successful response to the hepatitis B vaccine.
The nurse explains to a patient with advanced cancer about the differences between hospice and palliative care. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates that teaching was effective? A) "Hospice care is not available if I am in the hospital." B) "Palliative care provides better methods of pain control." C) "Hospice care will help me and my family prepare for death." D) "Palliative care does not include any advance directives."
C Hospice care provides compassion, concern, and support for the dying. The emphasis of care at end of life is on symptom management, advance care planning, spiritual care, and family support, including bereavement. Hospice care may be delivered in a variety of settings, including home, inpatient settings, and long-term care facilities.
The nurse is assessing a patient with pancreatitis. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find? a. Jaundice b. Polyuria c. Hypoglycemia d. Decreased abdominal pain with movement
a. Jaundice
In the administration of a drug such as levothyroxine (Synthroid), you should teach the client to: A. That therapy typically lasts about 6 months. B. That the drug may be taken every other day if diarrhea occurs C. To report weight loss, anxiety, insomnia, and palpitations D. That weekly laboratory tests for T4 levels will be required.
C. To report weight loss, anxiety, insomnia, and palpitations
A patient has manifestations of autonomic dysreflexia. Which of these assessments would indicate a possible cause for this condition?Select all that apply. 1. hypertension 2. kinked catheter tubing 3. respiratory wheezes and stridor 4. diarrhea 5. fecal impaction
Correct Answer: 2,5 Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia can be caused by kinked catheter tubing allowing the bladder to become full, triggering massive vasoconstriction below the injury site, producing the manifestations of this process. Acute symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia, including a sustained elevated blood pressure, may indicate fecal impaction. The other answers will not cause autonomic dysreflexia.
The nurse is completing discharge teaching with an 80-year-old male patient who underwent right total hip arthroplasty. The nurse identifies a need for further instruction if the patient states the need to A avoid crossing his legs. B use a toilet elevator on toilet seat. C notify future caregivers about the prosthesis. D maintain hip in adduction and internal rotation.
D maintain hip in adduction and internal rotation. The patient should not force hip into adduction or force hip into internal rotation as these movements could displace the hip replacement. Avoiding crossing the legs, using a toilet elevator on a toilet seat, and notifying future caregivers about the prosthesis indicate understanding of discharge teaching.
A nurse educates a patient starting on a Sulfonylurea about the risk of hypoglycemia. What should the nurse advise the patient to do if they experience symptoms of hypoglycemia? A) Skip the next dose of the medication B) Eat a high-carbohydrate meal immediately C) Increase the medication dose D) Consume a glass of apple juice
D) Consume a glass of apple juice
Which statement is the most important for a nurse to make to a patient who is taking methimazole? A) "You need to notify your doctor if you have a sore throat and fever." B) "Another medication can be given if you experience any nausea." C) "You may experience some muscle soreness with this medicine." D) "Headache and dizziness may occur but not very frequently."
D. You need to notify your doctor if you have a sore throat and fever." Agranulocytosis is a serious condition characterized by a dramatic reduction in white blood cell needed to fight infection. Sore throat and fever may be the earliest indications, and patients should be instructed to report these immediately.
An elderly patient with a fractured hip is placed in Buck's traction. The primary purpose for Buck's traction for the patient is: A. To decrease muscle spasm B. To prevent the need for surgery C. To alleviate the pain associated with the fracture D. To prevent bleeding associated with the hip fractures
Rationale: Answer A is correct. Buck's traction is a skin traction used to decrease muscle spasms. Buck's traction will not prevent the need for surgery. It also will not alleviate the pain associated with the fracture or prevent bleeding.
A 28-year-old woman who has multiple sclerosis (MS) asks the nurse about risks associated with pregnancy. Which response by the nurse is accurate? a. "MS symptoms may be worsen after the pregnancy." b. "Women with MS frequently have premature labor." c. "Symptoms of MS are likely to become worse during pregnancy." d. "MS is associated with a slightly increased risk for congenital defects."
a. "MS symptoms may be worsen after the pregnancy." The risk of relapses may increase in the postpartum period. MS does not typically impact fertility, and most women with MS can conceive naturally. Many women experience a decrease in relapses during pregnancy, particularly in the second and third trimesters.
A patient with type 1 diabetes is prescribed rapid-acting insulin. When should the patient administer this type of insulin in relation to meals? a. 30 minutes before a meal b. Immediately after a meal c. At bedtime d. With the first bite of a meal
a. 30 minutes before a meal
A patient with gallbladder stones complains of severe pain in the upper right abdomen radiating to the back. The nurse suspects an obstructed common bile duct. What additional assessment findings should the nurse expect? a. Low-grade fever b. Increased blood pressure c. Bradycardia d. Frequent urination
a. Low-grade fever
A patient with chronic pancreatitis presents with severe abdominal pain. What medication should the nurse anticipate administering for pain management? a. Morphine b. Acetaminophen c. Ibuprofen d. Prednisone
a. Morphine
What complications could the nurse anticipate for a patient with Huntington's Disease? Select all that apply. a) slurred speech b) Chorea c) Cognitive impairment d) muscle spasms e) dysphagia f) dementia
b) Chorea c) Cognitive impairment f) dementia
A patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed a sulfonylurea medication. What education should the nurse provide to the patient regarding this medication? a. "Take it with a high-fat meal to enhance absorption." b. "It primarily lowers blood sugar by increasing insulin production." c. "You can skip doses if your blood sugar is within the target range." d. "It does not cause hypoglycemia."
b. "It primarily lowers blood sugar by increasing insulin production."
The nurse is educating a client newly diagnosed with Huntington's Disease. Which of the following statements would be appropriate to include in the patient's teaching? a. "Huntington's Disease is a neuromuscular disorder marked by the loss of motor neurons" b. "The offspring of a person with Huntington's Disease have a 50% risk for inheriting it." c. "You will need to reduce your caloric intake by 300-500 calories a day to prevent unexplained weight gain." d. "There are medications that can cure Huntington's Disease"
b. "The offspring of a person with Huntington's Disease have a 50% risk for inheriting it." HD is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner, meaning that if a parent has the HD mutation, each child has a 50% chance of inheriting it.
A patient with type 1 diabetes is admitted to the emergency department with symptoms of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which interventions should the nurse prioritize for this patient? a. Administering a high-carbohydrate meal b. Administering a continuous insulin infusion c. Encouraging increased oral fluid intake d. Administering corticosteroids
b. Administering a continuous insulin infusion
A patient with hepatitis C asks the nurse about potential long-term complications. Which of the following complications is associated with chronic hepatitis C infection? a. Liver abscess b. Cirrhosis c. Pancreatitis d. Pneumonia
b. Cirrhosis
A patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed a sodium-glucose co-transporter-2 (SGLT2) inhibitor. What potential adverse effect should the nurse monitor for in this patient? a. Hypoglycemia. b. Dehydration and urinary tract infections. c. Weight gain. d. Gastrointestinal disturbances.
b. Dehydration and urinary tract infections. SGLT2 inhibitors can increase urinary glucose excretion, leading to an increased risk of dehydration and urinary tract infections. This is an important adverse effect to monitor for when a patient is taking this class of medication.
A patient with cirrhosis is scheduled for a paracentesis. What should the nurse explain to the patient regarding the purpose of this procedure? a. Paracentesis is performed to assess liver enzyme levels. b. Paracentesis is done to drain ascitic fluid from the abdomen. c. Paracentesis aims to measure blood glucose levels. d. Paracentesis is used to evaluate blood clotting function.
b. Paracentesis is done to drain ascitic fluid from the abdomen.
A patient presents with acute cholecystitis. What signs and symptoms should the nurse expect to assess in this patient? a. Jaundice, elevated blood pressure, and weight loss. b. Severe abdominal pain, fever, and tenderness in the right upper quadrant. c. Excessive thirst, excessive urination, and frequent hunger. d. Shortness of breath, chest pain, and cyanosis.
b. Severe abdominal pain, fever, and tenderness in the right upper quadrant.
A patient with hepatitis C asks the nurse how the virus is primarily transmitted. What is the most accurate response by the nurse? a. "Hepatitis C is mostly transmitted through sexual contact." b. "You can contract hepatitis C through contaminated food." c. "Sharing needles for drug use is a common mode of transmission." d. "Hepatitis C is mainly spread through casual contact."
c. "Sharing needles for drug use is a common mode of transmission."
A patient with chronic hepatitis C is receiving antiviral treatment with interferon. What important side effect should the nurse monitor for in this patient? a. Hyperglycemia b. Hypotension c. Bone marrow suppression d. Hypokalemia
c. Bone marrow suppression Interferon therapy can potentially cause bone marrow suppression, which can lead to a decrease in the production of blood cells (anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia). Monitoring for changes in blood cell counts is essential to ensure the patient's safety during interferon treatment.
A patient with chronic pancreatitis is at risk for malabsorption. What dietary recommendations should the nurse provide to manage this issue? a. A high-protein diet to compensate for nutrient loss. b. A diet high in simple carbohydrates for energy. c. Enzyme supplements and a low-fat, high-protein diet. d. A diet high in fiber to improve digestion.
c. Enzyme supplements and a low-fat, high-protein diet.
A patient is diagnosed with cholelithiasis and experiences severe abdominal pain after consuming a high-fat meal. What should the nurse explain as the primary reason for this pain? a. Inflammation of the liver b. Gallbladder inflammation c. Gallstone obstruction of the common bile duct d. Pancreatic cancer
c. Gallstone obstruction of the common bile duct
A patient with cirrhosis is experiencing symptoms of portal hypertension. What is the primary cause of portal hypertension in this patient? a. Increased blood glucose levels b. Elevated levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) c. Increased resistance to blood flow through the liver d. Altered kidney function
c. Increased resistance to blood flow through the liver
The nurse is caring for a patient with Huntington's Disease. When assessing the patient for complications with Huntington's disease, what might they find? a. Pill rolling b. Decrease in chorea c. Psychosis d. Compromised respiratory function
c. Psychosis Antipsychotic drugs like Haldol helps manage psychiatric symptoms.
A patient with cirrhosis-related portal hypertension is prescribed beta-blockers. What is the primary purpose of this medication in such patients? a. To improve liver function b. To reduce systemic blood pressure c. To prevent variceal bleeding d. To enhance insulin sensitivity
c. To prevent variceal bleeding
A nurse is providing discharge education to a patient with acute hepatitis A. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include regarding preventing the spread of the virus? a. Avoid sharing needles for recreational drug use. b. Use condoms during sexual intercourse. c. Wash hands thoroughly after using the restroom. d. Consume a high-protein diet.
c. Wash hands thoroughly after using the restroom.
A nurse is preparing to administer oral potassium for a client who has a potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? a. Administer a hypertonic solution b. Repeat the potassium level c. Withhold the medication d. Monitor for paresthesia
c. Withhold the medication
A nurse is assessing a client with acute pancreatitis. Which of the following is a priority to report to the provider? a. History of cholelithiasis b. Serum amylase levels three times greater than the expected value c. Client report of severe pain radiating to the back that is rated at an "8" d. Hand spasms present when blood pressure is checked.
d. Hand spasms present when blood pressure is checked. The greatest risk to the client is hypocalcemia due to the risk of cardiac dysrhythmia. Hand spasms when taking a blood pressure is an indication of hypocalcemia (tetany) and is the priority finding to report to the provider.
A patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed a DPP-4 inhibitor (e.g., sitagliptin). What should the nurse teach the patient about this medication? a. It stimulates insulin production. b. It should be taken with high-fat meals. c. It may cause hyperglycemia. d. It prolongs the action of incretin hormones.
d. It prolongs the action of incretin hormones.
A patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin (Glucophage). What should the nurse educate the patient about this medication? a. Metformin increases insulin production in the pancreas. b. Metformin is not recommended for use in type 2 diabetes. c. It can cause hypoglycemia, so monitor blood sugar frequently. d. Metformin improves insulin sensitivity and decreases glucose production by the liver.
d. Metformin improves insulin sensitivity and decreases glucose production by the liver.
A patient has been diagnosed with cholecystitis and is scheduled for laparoscopic cholecystectomy. What preoperative nursing care should be provided to this patient? a. Administer high-dose furosemide b. Encourage a high-fat meal the night before surgery. c. Administer a laxative to cleanse the bowels. d. NPO (nothing by mouth) status
d. NPO (nothing by mouth) status
A patient with type 2 diabetes is taking a sodium-glucose co-transporter-2 (SGLT2) inhibitor. How does this medication class primarily work to lower blood sugar levels? a. Increasing insulin production b. Stimulating insulin secretion from the pancreas c. Slowing carbohydrate absorption d. Promoting glucose excretion in the urine
d. Promoting glucose excretion in the urine
