Field Craft 1
What is the normal evacuation configuration of the UH-60A Blackhawk? 3 Litter and 1 Ambulatory 4 Litter and 2 Ambulatory 4 Litter and 1 Ambulatory 3 Litter and 2 Ambulatory
4 Litter and 1 Ambulatory
What is the casualty carrying capacity of the M113 Armored personal carrier? 4 Litter or 10 Ambulatory or a combination of the two 6 Litter or 10 Ambulatory or a combination of the two 2 Litter or 6 Ambulatory or a combination of the two 4 Litter or 8 ambulatory or a combination of the two
4 Litter or 10 Ambulatory or a combination of the two
What is the required evacuation time for a Priority Casualty? 4 hours 6 hours 1 hour 24 hours
4 hours
How long are drags recommended for? 100 meters 150 meters 75 meters 50 meters
50 meters
During peacetime which two lines of the 9-Line MEDEVAC change? 3 and 5 6 and 9 1 and 4 5 and 6
6 and 9
You are given an order to administer 500 ml of albumin to a casualty suffering from Hypovolemic Shock your tubing set is 15 gtts/ml and the Doctor ordered it to be delivered in 30 minutes, what is your drip rate? A. 250 gtts/min B. 160 gtts/min C. 125 gtts/min D. 187 gtts/min
A. 250 gtts/min
What is an efficient medical evacuation (MEDEVAC) system? (Select all the apply) A. Minimizes mortality by rapidly and efficiently moving the sick, injured, and wounded to a MTF. B. Acts as a carrier for ammunition and non-medical personnel. C. Provides en route medical care that is essential for improving the survival and reducing disability of wounded, injured, or ill Soldiers. D. Eliminates gravely injured casualties to free up medical personnel and equipment and end suffering. E. Acts as a carrier of medical records and resupply requests.
A. Minimizes mortality by rapidly and efficiently moving the sick, injured, and wounded to a MTF. C. Provides en route medical care that is essential for improving the survival and reducing disability of wounded, injured, or ill Soldiers E. Acts as a carrier of medical records and resupply requests.
You have a casualty with injuries, present radial pulses and normal mental status, what type of vascular access do you need? A. Saline Lock B. Saline Lock with TXA C. Whole Blood D. Saline Lock with Hextend
A. Saline Lock
How should you administer Ketamine I.V. or IO while working on a combat casualty? A. Slow push B. Fast push C. Over ten minutes D. Over five minutes
A. Slow push
Which of the following is an intrinsic causes of cardiogenic shock? A. Direct damage to the heart B. Tamponade C. Massive hemorrhage D. Lung damage
A. Direct damage to the heart
The leading cause of preventable battlefield death is? A. Extremity hemorrhage B. Tension pneumothorax C. Head injury D. Abdominal injury
A. Extremity hemorrhage
You suspect your patient has internal bleeding. What are some signs and symptoms that point to internal bleeding? Swollen abdomen with excessive bowel sounds. Abdominal rigidity and tenderness. Bleeding from an open chest wound. Open fracture of the left femur.
Abdominal rigidity and tenderness.
When would you use a SKED during evacuation? Helicopter hoist missions Confined spaces and water rescues Rough and difficult terrain All of the above
All of the above
When would you use Complex Rescue methods? Tactical search and rescue. Vehicle Extraction. Structure ingress. All of the above.
All of the above.
What is the tactical priority in Care Under Fire? A. Effective fire B. Gaining fire superiority C. Flanking D. Surrounding the perimeter
B. Gaining fire superiority
You have made an unsuccessful IV attempt on the right forearm where should your second attempt be made? A. Move to IO B. Right hand C. Left Bicep D. Right forearm above the previous site
B. Right hand
What is the first intervention that should be completed on a casualty suffering from hemorrhagic shock? A. Don BSI, assess level of consciousness B. Stop massive hemorrhage C. Return fire and establish fire superiority D. Administer 500 mg Hextend via IV
B. Stop massive hemorrhage
After two failed attempts to get vascular access on the arm, where is the site for an IO administration for combat casualties? A. The Proximal Tibia B. The Manubrium C. The Antecubital space D. The Suprasternal notch
B. The Manubrium
Where is the F.A.S.T 1 infusion tube located? A. Inside the site shield packaging B. Within the F.A.S.T. 1 device C. With the IV administration set D. All of the Above
B. Within the F.A.S.T. 1 device
Which of the following is the definition of IV infiltration? A. Redness at the catheter insertion site B. Accumulation of fluid in the tissue surrounding an IV catheter insertion site C. Tenderness at the IV catheter insertion site D. IV fluid has a slow flow rate of infusion
B. Accumulation of fluid in the tissue surrounding an IV catheter insertion site
What is the medical priority in Care Under Fire? A. Abdominal bleeding B. Traumatic Brain Injuries C. Extremity hemorrhage control D. Upper extremity bleeding
C. Extremity hemorrhage control
Who is responsible for taking care of the M997 Ground Ambulance? 88M Truck Driver Combat Medic Tactical Commander Tactical Leader
Combat Medic
Which combat injuries do not indicate immediate antibiotics? A. Eye injuries B. Open wounds C. Abdominal injuries D. Burn injuries without penetrating trauma
D. Burn injuries without penetrating trauma
What is the required evacuation time for Urgent/Urgent Surgical Casualties? 4 Hours 30 minutes 1 hour 24 Hours
1 hour
What is the casualty capacity of the M997 Ground Ambulance? 2 Ambulatory and 4 Litter or 4 Ambulatory and 6 Litter 4 Litter and 9 Ambulatory or a combination 6 Ambulatory or 2 Litter or a combination 2 Litter and 4 Ambulatory or 4 Litter or 8 Ambulatory
2 Litter and 4 Ambulatory or 4 Litter or 8 Ambulatory
What is the required evacuation time for a Routine Casualty? 4 hours 6 hours 1 hour 24 hours
24 hours
What is the maximum time for transmitting a MEDEVAC request? 20 Seconds 25 Seconds 30 Seconds 35 Seconds
25 Seconds
What is the casualty carrying capacity of the HAGA MRAP Ambulance? 2 Litter or 4 Ambulatory 3 Litter or 6 Ambulatory 3 Litter or 5 Ambulatory 4 Litter or 4 Ambulatory
3 Litter or 6 Ambulatory
When reporting Line 6 of the 9-Line MEDEVAC, which brevity code identifies the necessity of an armed escort for the MEDEVAC platform? X (ecks-ray) N (November) P (pah pah) E (echo)
X (ecks-ray)
Line 9 of the 9-line MEDAVAC request should be relayed as none when there is no NBC threat. True False
False
What is the final Documentation required on the DD Form 1380? M.I.S.T. Report Additional Notes Medications given First responder name and last 4
First responder name and last 4
Which of the following is not a compressible hemorrhage? GSW to the chest Left arm amputation Neck wound Partial foot amputation
GSW to the chest
What casualty is loaded last? Most seriously injured. Least injured. Doesn't matter the order loaded. Decision based off the Tactical Commander
Most seriously injured.
What is the concern for the casualty airway during Care Under Fire? Insert an NPA Head-tilt, chin-lift Jaw thrust Not feasible due to limited time
Not feasible due to limited time
What is the correct Abbreviation for Right eye? Rt OD OU OS
OD
What is the correct Abbreviation for Left eye? gtts Lt OS OD
OS
How long are carries recommended for? Over 300 meters Over 150 meters Over 250 meters Up to 300 meters
Over 300 meters
What always dictates when and how much care you can provide? METC-TC Tactical Environment SITREP M.I.S.T. Report
Tactical Environment
At what time is the rescuer in the greatest vulnerability? Tactical Field Care Care under Fire The "X" Point of injury Casualty Evacuation Care
The "X" Point of injury
When should you approach a helicopter? When a crew member signals you to do so. When the helicopter lands. When the pilot signals you forward. When the rotary wings have stopped, it's the safest at this time.
When a crew member signals you to do so.
What is the required evacuation time for a Convenience Casualty? 4 hours 30 minutes 1 hour When medically convenient
When medically convenient
After the administration of an IV your patient begins to complain of chest pain, you have a difficult time attaining a radial pulse. What should you immediately consider the problem to be and the corrective action? A. Anxiety and to calm and reassure the patient B. The patient is going into shock and requires immediate fluid bolus C. The patient is having a heart attack, notify the Medical Officer immediately D. Air embolism and notify the Medical Officer immediately
D. Air embolism and notify the Medical Officer immediately
A casualty is suffering from hemorrhagic shock. This patient needs hypotensive resuscitation. What is the goal for hypotensive resucitation? A. A systolic blood pressure of 80 mmHG will perfuse all vital organs B. As the blood pressure decreases, the body may be able to establish and maintain clots at the site of the injury C. A systolic blood pressure above 100 mmHG is high enough to dislodge any blood clots D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Your casualty has a thoracic entrance and exit wound. In what order should the wounds be treated? A. The wounds should be treated after inspecting for DCAP-BLS and palpating for TIC. B. The wounds should be treated after gaining vascular access. C. The wounds should be treated immediately after moving the casualty off of the 'X'. D. The wounds should be treated in the breathing portion of my assessment in the order they are found.
D. The wounds should be treated in the breathing portion of my assessment in the order they are found.
A soldier walks over to you with a deep laceration on their arm. They start to describe their pain and inform you that they can still carry their weapon. Which pain medication(s) should you give this soldier? A. Morphine B. OTFC C. Ketamine D. Tylenol or Meloxicam
D. Tylenol or Meloxicam
What is the standard form of battlefield documentation for medical personnel? DD Form 1380 SF 600 Sharpie marker on tape Sharpie marker on casualty's skin
DD Form 1380
Name the preferred advanced airway in the combat environment. NPA Emergency surgical cricothyroidotomy Endo-tracheal tube OPA
Emergency surgical cricothyroidotomy
What is the advanced airway of choice in combat conditions? Emergency surgical cricothyroidotomy NPA Chest Tube King LT
Emergency surgical cricothyroidotomy
A soldier sustained wounds during a rocket attack at your base in Afghanistan. Because of the type of injuries, you know you must administer treatment to the Soldier as soon as possible in order to save his life. What is the leading cause of preventable death on the battlefield? Head injuries Amputations Internal bleeding Extremity hemorrhage
Extremity hemorrhage
You have an unconscious casualty that has a near drowning experience, what airway adjunct would you use to reduce risk of aspiration of gastric channel? OPA NPA Emergency cricothyroidotomy I-Gel
I-Gel
You are filling out a DD Form 1380 for a Soldier wounded in combat. The servicemember is Joe Snuffy and his last four are 1989. How would you write his Battle Roster #? J1989S S1989J JS1989
JS1989
What type of pain medication are you going to give a casualty with moderate to severe pain who is in shock or at-risk to go into shock or respiratory distress? OTFC Ketamine Meloxicam Morphine
Ketamine
Why are casualties normally loaded head first? So the medic can see their face. Easiest way to load the casualty. So the casualty can communicate with the driver. Less danger of further injury in the event of a rear collision.
Less danger of further injury in the event of a rear collision.
When requesting a 9-Line MEDEVAC, on which line is it necessary to include a break when reporting patients by type? Line 3 Line 4 Line 5 Line 8
Line 5
Which lines of the 9-Line MEDEVAC must be transmitted for the evacuation unit to begin the mission without delay? Lines 1-3 Lines 1-6 Lines 1-5 Line 1-2
Lines 1-5
What is the report requested following the 9-Line Request? SITREP Minority Report M.I.S.T. Report Medical AAR report
M.I.S.T. Report
Why is the NPA preferred over an OPA in a combat environment? NPAs are less likely to dislodge in transport. NPAs can be used in casualties with a gag reflex. NPAs are tolerated better. NPAs are easier to use for the medic.
NPAs are tolerated better.
What type of objects can you utilize to reduce friction between your casualty and the ground? Talon litters, WALK Kits Litter straps, Rig lines Manual carries, including two man carries Poncho, tarp, blanket, drag litter or SKED
Poncho, tarp, blanket, drag litter or SKED
What is the standard form of documentation for Aeromedical and Battalion Aid Station personnel? DD Form 1380 SF 600 Sharpie marker on tape Sharpie marker on casualty's skin
SF 600
If you have a casualty with significant injuries, present radial pulses and normal mental status, what type of vascular access do you need? Saline Lock Saline Lock with TXA Whole Blood Saline Lock with Hextend
Saline Lock
What are the two themes of Rescue? Simple and Complex Easy and Hard Rough and Smooth Critical and Simple
Simple and Complex
What are the three most common devices used by the hoist to extract casualties? Scoop litter, talon litter and pole less litter. Talon litter, Rope with D Ring capability and Scoop litter. SKED, Talon litter and pole less litter. Stokes basket, Jungle penetrator and SKED
Stokes basket, Jungle penetrator and SKED.
While suctioning blood from a wounded casualty's mouth, you notice the casualty is becoming hypoxic. What could be causing this? CSF drainage from the nose. Suctioning for longer than 15 seconds. The casualty's NPA is too long. Vagal dysrhythmias.
Suctioning for longer than 15 seconds.
During peacetime what is reported on line 9 of the 9-Line MEDEVAC? Patient Name and Date of Birth Patients allergy status Terrain Replacement Medical Supplies needed
Terrain
After placing an ET tube into your casualty's trachea, you notice your casualty has unilateral rise and fall of the chest and diminished breath sounds on the left side. What is your casualty's problem? The ET tube was inserted too far and is in the right main stem bronchi. The ET tube was inserted too far and is in the left main stem bronchi. The ET tube was placed into the esophagus. The ET tube is defective.
The ET tube was inserted too far and is in the right main stem bronchi.
As soon as you identify the need for medical evacuation who must you notify? The Squad Leader The Senior Medic The Tactical Leader The Platoon Leader
The Tactical Leader
What is the difference between a hasty and deliberate tourniquet? The hasty is placed 1 to 2 inches above the wound, on the skin, while the deliberate is high and above the clothing. The deliberate is placed 1 to 2 inches above the wound, on the skin, while the hasty is high and above the clothing. There is no difference. The hasty is done in tactical field care.
The deliberate is placed 1 to 2 inches above the wound, on the skin, while the hasty is high and above the clothing
What does the hemostatic agent in Combat Gauze do? They stimulate clotting. They burn the vessels shut. They do not work. They have chemicals that create a super glue when mixed with T cells.
They stimulate clotting.
Why do we convert tourniquets? To save as much of the limb tissue as possible. For patient comfort. To ensure the TXA gets to the injury. Your never convert.
To save as much of the limb tissue as possible.
Medical personnel are required to complete a medical AAR on DA form 4700 04.1 after a significant event. True False
True
True or False: Should you consider performing an emergency cricothyroidotomy be performed on a conscious casualty with inhalation burns / edema? True False
True
What type of pain medication are you going to give a casualty with mild to moderate pain that can still fight? Morphine OTFC Ketamine Tylenol or Meloxicam
Tylenol or Meloxicam
You suspect that your patient may have internal into his abdomen. How many liters of blood and IV solution can a typical adult casualty hemorrhage into the abdomen? Up to 6 Up to 4 Up to 10 Up to 8
Up to 10
You come across a patient injured in close proximity to a blast. The patient has suffered a laceration and extrusion of their right eye. What category of precedence would this casualty be? Routine Convenience Urgent Urgent Surgical
Urgent
You are working in a Battalion Aid Station when a patient arrives with stomach pain. The PA suspects that the patient is suffering from acute appendicitis. What category of precedence would this casualty be? Priority Urgent Urgent Surgical Convenience
Urgent Surgical
What nerve is being stimulated if suctioning is too aggressive? Vagus nerve Facial nerve Trigeminal nerve Glossopharyngeal nerve
Vagus nerve
What is the first choice of occlusive dressing/ chest seal for treating open and/or sucking chest wounds to the thorax? Unvented Vented Improvised None of the above
Vented
You have a casualty with penetrating trauma to the left side of the chest at the second intercostal space that is having progressive respiratory distress. At what location would you place the NDC? 4th intercostal space, anterior axillary line, directly over the 5th rib, on the injured side. 5th intercostal space, anterior axillary line, directly over the 6th rib on the injured side. 5th intercostal space, mid clavicular line, directly below the 6th rib on the injured side. 4th intercostal space, mid clavicular line, directly below the 5th rib on the injured side.
5th intercostal space, anterior axillary line, directly over the 6th rib on the injured side.
What is the length and gauge of needle catheter required to perfom a Needle Decompression? A. 14 gauge, 3.25 inch needle catheter B. 10 gauge, 1.25 inch needle catheter C. 18 gauge, 3.25 inch needle catheter D. 12 gauge, 1.25 inch needle catheter
A. 14 gauge, 3.25 inch needle catheter
What is the criteria for administering an intraosseous infusion to a combat casualty? A. After two failed IV attempts B. If time is limited C. If the patient has an amputation D. The casualty requires fluid resuscitation
A. After two failed IV attempts
How is blood pressure estimated in a combat environment? A. Checking for palpable radial pulses to estimate the systolic blood pressure B. Stimson method C. Assessing level of consciousness, breathing, and color and temperature of the skin D. Estimate the blood lost through visual inspection
A. Checking for palpable radial pulses to estimate the systolic blood pressure
List some of the Tactical Personal Protective Equipment available for the battlefield? A. IBA/IOTV, ACH, eye pro and gloves B. Knee pads and neck gaiter C. Elbow pads, FLC, and aid bag.
A. IBA/IOTV, ACH, eye pro and gloves
In what part of the assessment should you (the medic) assess for and treat thoracic injuries? A. In Tactical Field Care, after you have assessed and treated Hemorrhage and Airway. B. In Tactical Field Care, after you have only assessed and treated Hemorrhage. C. In Tactical Field Care, before you have assessed and treated Airway. D. In Tactical Field Care, before you have assessed and treated Hemorrhage.
A. In Tactical Field Care, after you have assessed and treated Hemorrhage and Airway.
Where is the cricothyroid membrane located? Above the first cricoid cartilage ring and below the thyroid cartilage. Below the first cricoid cartilage ring and above the thyroid cartilage. Above the thyroid cartilage between the cricoid cartilage. Below the first cricoid cartilage ring and below the thyroid membrane.
Above the first cricoid cartilage ring and below the thyroid cartilage.
Who is responsible for overseeing the loading of the Aeromedical platforms? Flight medics only. Aeromedical evacuation personnel. Combat medic. Tactical Commander.
Aeromedical evacuation personnel.
What type of tools do we use for cover and concealment? Smoke Armored Tactical Vehicles Buildings All of the above
All of the above
Which of these are an anchor point for junctional wounds? Shoulder Belt Axillary All the above
All the above
What is the easiest way to maintain an open airway on a conscious casualty? NPA Head-tilt / chin-lift Position of comfort Allow the casualty to naturally position themselves
Allow the casualty to naturally position themselves
A Soldier stepped on an IED. Upon arrival to the seen, the casualty has a below the knee amputation but with minimal bleeding. How would you treat this injury? Use an emergency trauma bandage. Pack the wound with gauze and wrap with an ace wrap. Apply a tourniquet. Immediately start an IV.
Apply a tourniquet.
The IV Solution, IV tubing and IV catheter are replaced in accordance with local SOP or commonly every A. IV Solution- 48 hours, IV tubing- 24 Hours, IV catheter- 72 hours B. IV Solution- 24 hours, IV tubing- 48 Hours, IV catheter- 72 hours C. IV Solution- 48 hours, IV tubing- 24 Hours, IV catheter- 72 hours D. IV Solution- 48 hours, IV tubing- 24 Hours, IV catheter- 72 hours
B. IV Solution- 24 hours, IV tubing- 48 Hours, IV catheter- 72 hours
You are in the tactical field care phase of treating a patient who had arterial bleeding from the lower extremities caused by shrapnel from an IED. Your patient has no radial pulse but has a carotid pulse. What is your patient's blood pressure and what is the fluid of choice for this patient (you have no blood products available to you at this moment)? A. Blood pressure of at least 90 mmHG and administer 1000 mL of Lactated Ringers B. Blood pressure of at least 60 mmHG and administer 500 mL of Hextend C. Blood pressure of at least 80 mmHG and administer 500 mL of Lactated Ringers D. Blood pressure of at least 80 mmHG and administer 500 mL of Hextend
B. Blood pressure of at least 60 mmHG and administer 500 mL of Hextend
What are the extrinsic causes of cardiogenic shock? A. Pressure on the great vessels B. Cardiac Tamponade and Tension pneumothorax C. Direct damage to the heart D. Hypovolemia
B. Cardiac Tamponade and Tension pneumothorax
Where on the body are the majority of combat wounds suffered? A. Torso B. Extremities C. Head D. Abdominal
B. Extremities
An alternative to OTFC pain medication is: A. Albuterol. B. IV Morphine. C. Naloxone. D. Zofran.
B. IV Morphine.
A casualty in need of clinical labs, limited x-ray or operational dental support should be sent to which role of care? A. Role 1 B. Role 2 C. Role 3 D. Role 4
B. Role 2
How are thoracic injuries dealt with during Care Under Fire? A. Thoracic injuries should only be addressed after identifying tracheal deviation B. Thoracic injuries should be addressed by directing the casualty to perform self-aid by placing their hand over the wound C. Thoracic injuries should only be addressed in the breathing portion of Tactical Field Care D. Thoracic injuries should only be addressed in the airway portion of Tactical Field Care
B. Thoracic injuries should be addressed by directing the casualty to perform self-aid by placing their hand over the wound
Your PA has ordered an IV infusion of 150 ml of Normal Saline over 1 hour. The Administration set being used delivers 20 gtts/ml. Calculate the drops / minute to be administered A. 60 gtts/ min B. 30 gtts/ min C. 50 gtts/ min D. 40 gtts/ min
C. 50 gtts/ min
Your PA has ordered an IV infusion of 1000 ml of Lactated Ringers over 3 hours. The Administration set being used delivers 10 gtts/ml. Calculate the drops / minute to be administered A. 62 gtts/ min B. 70 gtts/ min C. 55 gtts/ min D. 40 gtts/ min
C. 55 gtts/ min
What is one of the four types of distributive shock? A. Pyogenic shock B. Cardiogenic shock C. Anaphylactic shock D. Empyema
C. Anaphylactic shock
What is the definitive treatment for a pneumothorax? A. Surgical Cricothyroidotomy B. Bilateral Needle Chest Decompressions C. Chest Tube D. Needle Chest Decompression inserted at the 5th intercostal space anterior axillary line, directly over the 6th rib
C. Chest Tube
What is the first intervention that should be completed on a casualty suffering from hemorrhagic shock? A. With salty snacks, rest and a profile B. Administer an IV of NaCL (normal saline) C. Have the casualty drink water D. Administer Hextend
C. Have the casualty drink water
Which antibiotic is given to patients that are able to swallow and is found in the Combat Wound Medication Pack/Combat Pill Pack? A. Ertapenem 1g B. Septra 400mg C. Moxifloxacin 400mg D. Cefotetan 2g
C. Moxifloxacin 400mg
Which types of cardiogenic shock can be treated by in the combat environment? A. Heart Muscle Failure B. Valvular disruptions C. Tension Pneumothorax D. Hypovolemia
C. Tension Pneumothorax
What causes a pneumothorax? A. A pneumothorax is caused by an accumulation of air within the inferior and superior vena cava B. A pneumothorax is caused by an accumulation of air within the pulmonary artery and vein C. A pneumothorax is caused by an accumulation of air within the potential space between the visceral and parietal pleura D. A pneumothorax is caused by an accumulation of air within the second and third intercostal space
C. A pneumothorax is caused by an accumulation of air within the potential space between the visceral and parietal pleura
What is the single biggest obstacle you will face when providing battlefield care? A. Distance B. Contamination C. Enemy fire D. Supply shortage
C. Enemy fire
You are the medic for a convoy carrying supplies to one of the outlying FOBs near Baghdad. One of the vehicles in the convoy was just hit by an IED. Several Soldiers were injured as a result of the blast near their vehicle. At the same time, enemies open fire with small arms and RPGs. What is the most significant obstacle to you providing care to the wounded Soldiers? A. Broken down vehicles. B. Medical equipment limitations. C. Enemy fire. D. Fully kitted Soldiers weighing over 300 pounds.
C. Enemy fire.
What are some characteristics of a Role 2 level of care and an example of a Role 2 organization? A. CLS, Combat and Operational stress prevention, casualty location and asquisition. A Battalion Aid Station (BAS). B. Resuscitation, Damage Control Surgery, and Postoperative treatment. A Combat Support Hospital. C. Limited x-ray, dental support, and packed red blood cells. Forward Surgical Teams. D. None of the above.
C. Limited x-ray, dental support, and packed red blood cells. Forward Surgical Teams
When it comes to evacuation in Care under Fire, what should the Combat Medic always direct the casualty to do? Self-Aid Casualty to move under own control Buddy-Aid Play dead
Casualty to move under own control
What is the brevity code for requesting Extraction equipment when calling in a 9-Line MEDEVAC? Bravo Alpha Delta Charlie
Charlie
When requesting line 7 of a 9-Line MEDEVAC, which brevity code identifies method of marking the pick up site as a smoke signal? Bravo Charlie Delta
Charlie
When the body attempts to compensate for shock, to which structures are blood shunted? A. Skin, muscle and bone B. Intestine, liver and spleen C. Endocrine system D. Brain, heart, lungs and kidneys
D. Brain, heart, lungs and kidneys
A small child was brought to your BAS with severe wounds she sustained from an IED explosion just outside the FOB's main gate. All major bleeding was controlled and an IV was initiated at the scene of the injury. While assessing your patient you find an elevated blood pressure, distended neck veins, rapid breathing, and shortness of breath, tachycardia and rhonchi. You suspect the patient is experiencing A. Phlebitis B. Infiltration C. Air embolism D. Circulatory overload
D. Circulatory overload
About how much blood can be lost before the casualty's blood pressure will drop? A. <500 mL B. 500 mL - 1000 mL C. 1000 mL - 1500 mL D. 1500 mL - 2000 mL
D. 1500 mL - 2000 mL
With a tubing set of 10 gtts/ml the casualty is ordered to receive 500 ml (1 unit) of packed red blood cells over 1 hour. Calculate the required drip rate A. 90 gtts/min B. 70 gtts/min C. 74 gtts/ min D. 83 gtts/min
D. 83 gtts/min
What can you do if the casualty begins to develop progressive respiratory distress even after the wound has been dressed with an occlusive dressing and a NDC has already been placed? A. Insert a second needle directly alongside (laterally) the first NDC. B. Flush the previously placed catheter with 1-2 mL of sterile IV solution. C. None of the above. D. A & B are correct.
D. A & B are correct.
Which of the following is a good example of compressible hemorrhage? Abdominal evisceration Leg amputation Head injury Open clavicle fracture
Leg amputation