Final BUS Finance

1. Projects C and D are mutually exclusive and have normal cash flows. Project C has a higher NPV if the WACC is less than 12%, whereas Project D has a higher NPV if the WACC exceeds 12%. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. Project D probably has a higher IRR. b. Project D is probably larger in scale than Project C. c. Project C probably has a faster payback. d. Project C probably has a higher IRR. e. The crossover rate between the two projects is below 12%.

a. Project D probably has a higher IRR.

1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The IRR method appeals to some managers because it gives an estimate of the rate of return on projects rather than a dollar amount, which the NPV method provides. b. The discounted payback method eliminates all of the problems associated with the payback method. c. When evaluating independent projects, the NPV and IRR methods often yield conflicting results regarding a project's acceptability. d. To find the MIRR, we discount the TV at the IRR. e. A project's NPV profile must intersect the X-axis at the project's WACC.

a. The IRR method appeals to some managers because it gives an estimate of the rate of return on projects rather than a dollar amount, which the NPV method provides.

1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? Assume that the project being considered has normal cash flows, with one outflow followed by a series of inflows. a. A project's regular IRR is found by compounding the initial cost at the WACC to find the terminal value (TV), then discounting the TV at the WACC. b. A project's regular IRR is found by compounding the cash inflows at the WACC to find the present value (PV), then discounting the TV to find the IRR. c. If a project's IRR is smaller than the WACC, then its NPV will be positive. d. A project's IRR is the discount rate that causes the PV of the inflows to equal the project's cost. e. If a project's IRR is positive, then its NPV must also be positive.

d. A project's IRR is the discount rate that causes the PV of the inflows to equal the project's cost.

1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. An NPV profile graph shows how a project's payback varies as the cost of capital changes. b. The NPV profile graph for a normal project will generally have a positive (upward) slope as the life of the project increases. c. An NPV profile graph is designed to give decision makers an idea about how a project's risk varies with its life. d. An NPV profile graph is designed to give decision makers an idea about how a project's contribution to the firm's value varies with the cost of capital. e. We cannot draw a project's NPV profile unless we know the appropriate WACC for use in evaluating the project's NPV.

d. An NPV profile graph is designed to give decision makers an idea about how a project's contribution to the firm's value varies with the cost of capital.

1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The "break point" as discussed in the text refers to the point where the firm's tax rate increases. b. The "break point" as discussed in the text refers to the point where the firm has raised so much capital that it is simply unable to borrow any more money. c. The "break point" as discussed in the text refers to the point where the firm is taking on investments that are so risky the firm is in serious danger of going bankrupt if things do not go exactly as planned. d. The "break point" as discussed in the text refers to the point where the firm has raised so much capital that it has exhausted its supply of additions to retained earnings and thus must raise equity by issuing stock. e. The "break point" as discussed in the text refers to the point where the firm has exhausted its supply of additions to retained earnings and thus must begin to finance with preferred stock.

d. The "break point" as discussed in the text refers to the point where the firm has raised so much capital that it has exhausted its supply of additions to retained earnings and thus must raise equity by issuing stock.

1. When working with the CAPM, which of the following factors can be determined with the most precision? a. The market risk premium (RPM ). b. The beta coefficient, bi, of a relatively safe stock. c. The most appropriate risk-free rate, rRF. d. The expected rate of return on the market, rM . e. The beta coefficient of "the market," which is the same as the beta of an average stock.

e. The beta coefficient of "the market," which is the same as the beta of an average stock.

1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? Assume that the project being considered has normal cash flows, with one cash outflow at t = 0 followed by a series of positive cash flows. a. A project's MIRR is always greater than its regular IRR. b. A project's MIRR is always less than its regular IRR. c. If a project's IRR is greater than its WACC, then its MIRR will be greater than the IRR. d. To find a project's MIRR, we compound cash inflows at the regular IRR and then find the discount rate that causes the PV of the terminal value to equal the initial cost. e. To find a project's MIRR, the textbook procedure compounds cash inflows at the WACC and then finds the discount rate that causes the PV of the terminal value to equal the initial cost.

e. To find a project's MIRR, the textbook procedure compounds cash inflows at the WACC and then finds the discount rate that causes the PV of the terminal value to equal the initial cost.

1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The NPV method was once the favorite of academics and business executives, but today most authorities regard the MIRR as being the best indicator of a project's profitability. b. If the cost of capital declines, this lowers a project's NPV. c. The NPV method is regarded by most academics as being the best indicator of a project's profitability, hence most academics recommend that firms use only this one method and disregard other methods. d. A project's NPV depends on the total amount of cash flows the project produces, but because the cash flows are discounted at the WACC, it does not matter if the cash flows occur early or late in the project's life. e. The NPV and IRR methods may give different recommendations regarding which of two mutually exclusive projects should be accepted, but they always give the same recommendation regarding the acceptability of a normal, independent project.

The NPV and IRR methods may give different recommendations regarding which of two mutually exclusive projects should be accepted, but they always give the same recommendation regarding the acceptability of a normal, independent project.

1. The MacMillen Company has equal amounts of low-risk, average-risk, and high-risk projects. The firm's overall WACC is 12%. The CFO believes that this is the correct WACC for the company's average-risk projects, but that a lower rate should be used for lower-risk projects and a higher rate for higher-risk projects. The CEO disagrees, on the grounds that even though projects have different risks, the WACC used to evaluate each project should be the same because the company obtains capital for all projects from the same sources. If the CEO's position is accepted, what is likely to happen over time? a. The company will take on too many high-risk projects and reject too many low-risk projects. b. The company will take on too many low-risk projects and reject too many high-risk projects. c. Things will generally even out over time, and, therefore, the firm's risk should remain constant over time. d. The company's overall WACC should decrease over time because its stock price should be increasing. e. The CEO's recommendation would maximize the firm's intrinsic value.

The company will take on too many high-risk projects and reject too many low-risk projects.

1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The WACC as used in capital budgeting is an estimate of a company's before-tax cost of capital. b. The percentage flotation cost associated with issuing new common equity is typically smaller than the flotation cost for new debt. c. The WACC as used in capital budgeting is an estimate of the cost of all the capital a company has raised to acquire its assets. d. There is an "opportunity cost" associated with using retained earnings, hence they are not "free." e. The WACC as used in capital budgeting would be simply the after-tax cost of debt if the firm plans to use only debt to finance its capital budget during the coming year.

There is an "opportunity cost" associated with using retained earnings, hence they are not "free."

1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. If a project with normal cash flows has an IRR greater than the WACC, the project must also have a positive NPV. b. If Project A's IRR exceeds Project B's, then A must have the higher NPV. c. A project's MIRR can never exceed its IRR. d. If a project with normal cash flows has an IRR less than the WACC, the project must have a positive NPV. e. If the NPV is negative, the IRR must also be negative.

a. If a project with normal cash flows has an IRR greater than the WACC, the project must also have a positive NPV.

1. Projects S and L are equally risky, mutually exclusive, and have normal cash flows. Project S has an IRR of 15%, while Project L's IRR is 12%. The two projects have the same NPV when the WACC is 7%. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. If the WACC is 10%, both projects will have positive NPVs. b. If the WACC is 6%, Project S will have the higher NPV. c. If the WACC is 13%, Project S will have the lower NPV. d. If the WACC is 10%, both projects will have a negative NPV. Project S's NPV is more sensitive to changes in WACC than Project L's

a. If the WACC is 10%, both projects will have positive NPVs.

1. Safeco Company and Risco Inc are identical in size and capital structure. However, the riskiness of their assets and cash flows are somewhat different, resulting in Safeco having a WACC of 10% and Risco a WACC of 12%. Safeco is considering Project X, which has an IRR of 10.5% and is of the same risk as a typical Safeco project. Risco is considering Project Y, which has an IRR of 11.5% and is of the same risk as a typical Risco project. Now assume that the two companies merge and form a new company, Safeco/Risco Inc. Moreover, the new company's market risk is an average of the pre-merger companies' market risks, and the merger has no impact on either the cash flows or the risks of Projects X and Y. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. If the firm evaluates these projects and all other projects at the new overall corporate WACC, it will probably become riskier over time. b. If evaluated using the correct post-merger WACC, Project X would have a negative NPV. c. After the merger, Safeco/Risco would have a corporate WACC of 11%. Therefore, it should reject Project X but accept Project Y. d. Safeco/Risco's WACC, as a result of the merger, would be 10%. e. After the merger, Safeco/Risco should select Project Y but reject Project X. If the firm does this, its corporate WACC will fall to 10.5%.

a. If the firm evaluates these projects and all other projects at the new overall corporate WACC, it will probably become riskier over time.

1. Projects A and B have identical expected lives and identical initial cash outflows (costs). However, most of one project's cash flows come in the early years, while most of the other project's cash flows occur in the later years. The two NPV profiles are given below: Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. More of Project A's cash flows occur in the later years. b. More of Project B's cash flows occur in the later years. c. We must have information on the cost of capital in order to determine which project has the larger early cash flows. d. The NPV profile graph is inconsistent with the statement made in the problem. e. The crossover rate, i.e., the rate at which Projects A and B have the same NPV, is greater than either project's IRR.

a. More of Project A's cash flows occur in the later years.

1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. Projects with "normal" cash flows can have only one real IRR. b. Projects with "normal" cash flows can have two or more real IRRs. c. Projects with "normal" cash flows must have two changes in the sign of the cash flows, e.g., from negative to positive to negative. If there are more than two sign changes, then the cash flow stream is "nonnormal." d. The "multiple IRR problem" can arise if a project's cash flows are "normal." e. Projects with "nonnormal" cash flows are almost never encountered in the real world.

a. Projects with "normal" cash flows can have only one real IRR

1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The NPV method assumes that cash flows will be reinvested at the WACC, while the IRR method assumes reinvestment at the IRR. b. The NPV method assumes that cash flows will be reinvested at the risk-free rate, while the IRR method assumes reinvestment at the IRR. c. The NPV method assumes that cash flows will be reinvested at the WACC, while the IRR method assumes reinvestment at the risk-free rate. d. The NPV method does not consider all relevant cash flows, particularly cash flows beyond the payback period. e. The IRR method does not consider all relevant cash flows, particularly cash flows beyond the payback period.

a. The NPV method assumes that cash flows will be reinvested at the WACC, while the IRR method assumes reinvestment at the IRR.

1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. When calculating the cost of debt, a company needs to adjust for taxes, because interest payments are deductible by the paying corporation. b. When calculating the cost of preferred stock, companies must adjust for taxes, because dividends paid on preferred stock are deductible by the paying corporation. c. Because of tax effects, an increase in the risk-free rate will have a greater effect on the after-tax cost of debt than on the cost of common stock as measured by the CAPM. d. If a company's beta increases, this will increase the cost of equity used to calculate the WACC, but only if the company does not have enough retained earnings to take care of its equity financing and hence must issue new stock. e. Higher flotation costs reduce investors' expected returns, and that leads to a reduction in a company's WACC.

a. When calculating the cost of debt, a company needs to adjust for taxes, because interest payments are deductible by the paying corporation.

1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The component cost of preferred stock is expressed as rp(1 − T). This follows because preferred stock dividends are treated as fixed charges, and as such they can be deducted by the issuer for tax purposes. b. A cost should be assigned to retained earnings due to the opportunity cost principle, which refers to the fact that the firm's stockholders would themselves expect to earn a return on earnings that were paid out rather than retained and reinvested. c. No cost should be assigned to retained earnings because the firm does not have to pay anything to raise them. They are generated as cash flows by operating assets that were raised in the past, hence they are "free." d. Suppose a firm has been losing money and thus is not paying taxes, and this situation is expected to persist into the foreseeable future. In this case, the firm's before-tax and after-tax costs of debt for purposes of calculating the WACC will both be equal to the interest rate on the firm's currently outstanding debt, provided that debt was issued during the past 5 years. e. If a firm has enough retained earnings to fund its capital budget for the coming year, then there is no need to estimate either a cost of equity or a WACC.

b. A cost should be assigned to retained earnings due to the opportunity cost principle, which refers to the fact that the firm's stockholders would themselves expect to earn a return on earnings that were paid out rather than retained and reinvested.

1. Assume a project has normal cash flows. All else equal, which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. A project's IRR increases as the WACC declines. b. A project's NPV increases as the WACC declines. c. A project's MIRR is unaffected by changes in the WACC. d. A project's regular payback increases as the WACC declines. e. A project's discounted payback increases as the WACC declines.

b. A project's NPV increases as the WACC declines.

1. Which of the following is NOT a capital component when calculating the weighted average cost of capital (WACC) for use in capital budgeting? a. Long-term debt. b. Accounts payable. c. Retained earnings. d. Common stock. e. Preferred stock.

b. Accounts payable.

1. You are considering two mutually exclusive, equally risky, projects. Both have IRRs that exceed the WACC. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? Assume that the projects have normal cash flows, with one outflow followed by a series of inflows. a. If the two projects' NPV profiles do not cross, then there will be a sharp conflict as to which one should be selected. b. If the cost of capital is greater than the crossover rate, then the IRR and the NPV criteria will not result in a conflict between the projects. One project will rank higher by both criteria. c. If the cost of capital is less than the crossover rate, then the IRR and the NPV criteria will not result in a conflict between the projects. One project will rank higher by both criteria. d. For a conflict to exist between NPV and IRR, the initial investment cost of one project must exceed the cost of the other. e. For a conflict to exist between NPV and IRR, one project must have an increasing stream of cash flows over time while the other has a decreasing stream. If both sets of cash flows are increasing or decreasing, then it would be impossible for a conflict to exist, even if one project is larger than the other.

b. If the cost of capital is greater than the crossover rate, then the IRR and the NPV criteria will not result in a conflict between the projects. One project will rank higher by both criteria.

1. Bankston Corporation forecasts that if all of its existing financial policies are followed, its proposed capital budget would be so large that it would have to issue new common stock. Since new stock has a higher cost than retained earnings, Bankston would like to avoid issuing new stock. Which of the following actions would REDUCE its need to issue new common stock? a. Increase the dividend payout ratio for the upcoming year. b. Increase the percentage of debt in the target capital structure. c. Increase the proposed capital budget. d. Reduce the amount of short-term bank debt in order to increase the current ratio. e. Reduce the percentage of debt in the target capital structure.

b. Increase the percentage of debt in the target capital structure.

1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. One advantage of the NPV over the IRR is that NPV takes account of cash flows over a project's full life whereas IRR does not. b. One advantage of the NPV over the IRR is that NPV assumes that cash flows will be reinvested at the WACC, whereas IRR assumes that cash flows are reinvested at the IRR. The NPV assumption is generally more appropriate. c. One advantage of the NPV over the MIRR method is that NPV takes account of cash flows over a project's full life whereas MIRR does not. d. One advantage of the NPV over the MIRR method is that NPV discounts cash flows whereas the MIRR is based on undiscounted cash flows. e. Since cash flows under the IRR and MIRR are both discounted at the same rate (the WACC), these two methods always rank mutually exclusive projects in the same order.

b. One advantage of the NPV over the IRR is that NPV assumes that cash flows will be reinvested at the WACC, whereas IRR assumes that cash flows are reinvested at the IRR. The NPV assumption is generally more appropriate.

1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? Assume that the project being considered has normal cash flows, with one outflow followed by a series of inflows. a. The longer a project's payback period, the more desirable the project is normally considered to be by this criterion. b. One drawback of the payback criterion for evaluating projects is that this method does not properly account for the time value of money. c. If a project's payback is positive, then the project should be rejected because it must have a negative NPV. d. The regular payback ignores cash flows beyond the payback period, but the discounted payback method overcomes this problem. e. If a company uses the same payback requirement to evaluate all projects, say it requires a payback of 4 years or less, then the company will tend to reject projects with relatively short lives and accept long-lived projects, and this will cause its risk to increase over time.

b. One drawback of the payback criterion for evaluating projects is that this method does not properly account for the time value of money.

1. Projects S and L both have an initial cost of $10,000, followed by a series of positive cash inflows. Project S's undiscounted net cash flows total $20,000, while L's total undiscounted flows are $30,000. At a WACC of 10%, the two projects have identical NPVs. Which project's NPV is more sensitive to changes in the WACC? a. Project S. b. Project L. c. Both projects are equally sensitive to changes in the WACC since their NPVs are equal at all costs of capital. d. Neither project is sensitive to changes in the discount rate, since both have NPV profiles that are horizontal. e. The solution cannot be determined because the problem gives us no information that can be used to determine the projects' relative IRRs.

b. Project L.

1. Project X's IRR is 19% and Project Y's IRR is 17%. The projects have the same risk and the same lives, and each has constant cash flows during each year of their lives. If the WACC is 10%, Project Y has a higher NPV than X. Given this information, which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The crossover rate must be less than 10%. b. The crossover rate must be greater than 10%. c. If the WACC is 8%, Project X will have the higher NPV. d. If the WACC is 18%, Project Y will have the higher NPV. e. Project X is larger in the sense that it has the higher initial cost.

b. The crossover rate must be greater than 10%.

1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? Assume that the project being considered has normal cash flows, with one outflow followed by a series of inflows. a. A project's NPV is generally found by compounding the cash inflows at the WACC to find the terminal value (TV), then discounting the TV at the IRR to find its PV. b. The higher the WACC used to calculate the NPV, the lower the calculated NPV will be. c. If a project's NPV is greater than zero, then its IRR must be less than the WACC. d. If a project's NPV is greater than zero, then its IRR must be less than zero. e. The NPVs of relatively risky projects should be found using relatively low WACCs.

b. The higher the WACC used to calculate the NPV, the lower the calculated NPV will be.

1. Projects A and B are mutually exclusive and have normal cash flows. Project A has an IRR of 15% and B's IRR is 20%. The company's WACC is 12%, and at that rate Project A has the higher NPV. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The crossover rate for the two projects must be less than 12%. b. Assuming the timing pattern of the two projects' cash flows is the same, Project B probably has a higher cost (and larger scale). c. Assuming the two projects have the same scale, Project B probably has a faster payback than Project A. d. The crossover rate for the two projects must be 12%. e. Since B has the higher IRR, then it must also have the higher NPV if the crossover rate is less than the WACC of 12%.

c. Assuming the two projects have the same scale, Project B probably has a faster payback than Project A.

1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The discounted cash flow method of estimating the cost of equity cannot be used unless the growth rate, g, is expected to be constant forever. b. If the calculated beta underestimates the firm's true investment risk—i.e., if the forwardlooking beta that investors think exists exceeds the historical beta—then the CAPM method based on the historical beta will produce an estimate of rs and thus WACC that is too high. c. Beta measures market risk, which is, theoretically, the most relevant risk measure for a publicly-owned firm that seeks to maximize its intrinsic value. This is true even if not all of the firm's stockholders are well diversified. d. An advantage shared by both the DCF and CAPM methods when they are used to estimate the cost of equity is that they are both "objective" as opposed to "subjective," hence little or no judgment is required. e. The specific risk premium used in the CAPM is the same as the risk premium used in the bond-yield-plus-risk- premium approach.

c. Beta measures market risk, which is, theoretically, the most relevant risk measure for a publicly-owned firm that seeks to maximize its intrinsic value. This is true even if not all of the firm's stockholders are well diversified.

1. Firm M's earnings and stock price tend to move up and down with other firms in the S&P 500, while Firm W's earnings and stock price move counter cyclically with M and other S&P companies. Both M and W estimate their costs of equity using the CAPM, they have identical market values, their standard deviations of returns are identical, and they both finance only with common equity. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. M should have the lower WACC because it is like most other companies, and investors like that fact. b. M and W should have identical WACCs because their risks as measured by the standard deviation of returns are identical. c. If M and W merge, then the merged firm MW should have a WACC that is a simple average of M's and W's WACCs. d. Without additional information, it is impossible to predict what the merged firm's WACC would be if M and W merged. e. Since M and W move counter cyclically to one another, if they merged, the merged firm's WACC would be less than the simple average of the two firms' WACCs.

c. If M and W merge, then the merged firm MW should have a WACC that is a simple average of M's and W's WACCs.

1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. Since debt capital can cause a company to go bankrupt but equity capital cannot, debt is riskier than equity, and thus the after-tax cost of debt is always greater than the cost of equity. b. The tax-adjusted cost of debt is always greater than the interest rate on debt, provided the company does in fact pay taxes. c. If a company assigns the same cost of capital to all of its projects regardless of each project's risk, then the company is likely to reject some safe projects that it actually should accept and to accept some risky projects that it should reject. d. Because no flotation costs are required to obtain capital as retained earnings, the cost of retained earnings is generally lower than the after-tax cost of debt. e. Higher flotation costs tend to reduce the cost of equity capital.

c. If a company assigns the same cost of capital to all of its projects regardless of each project's risk, then the company is likely to reject some safe projects that it actually should accept and to accept some risky projects that it should reject.

1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? Assume that all projects being considered have normal cash flows and are equally risky. a. If a project's IRR is equal to its WACC, then, under all reasonable conditions, the project's NPV must be negative. b. If a project's IRR is equal to its WACC, then under all reasonable conditions, the project's IRR must be negative. c. If a project's IRR is equal to its WACC, then under all reasonable conditions the project's NPV must be zero. d. There is no necessary relationship between a project's IRR, its WACC, and its NPV. e. When evaluating mutually exclusive projects, those projects with relatively long lives will tend to have relatively high NPVs when the cost of capital is relatively high.

c. If a project's IRR is equal to its WACC, then under all reasonable conditions the project's NPV must be zero.

1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? Assume that the project being considered has normal cash flows, with one outflow followed by a series of inflows. a. A project's MIRR is always greater than its regular IRR. b. A project's MIRR is always less than its regular IRR. c. If a project's IRR is greater than its WACC, then the MIRR will be less than the IRR. d. If a project's IRR is greater than its WACC, then the MIRR will be greater than the IRR. e. To find a project's MIRR, we compound cash inflows at the IRR and then discount the terminal value back to t = 0 at the WACC.

c. If a project's IRR is greater than its WACC, then the MIRR will be less than the IRR.

1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? Assume that the project being considered has normal cash flows, with one outflow followed by a series of inflows. a. A project's NPV is found by compounding the cash inflows at the IRR to find the terminal value (TV), then discounting the TV at the WACC. b. The lower the WACC used to calculate it, the lower the calculated NPV will be. c. If a project's NPV is less than zero, then its IRR must be less than the WACC. d. If a project's NPV is greater than zero, then its IRR must be less than zero. e. The NPV of a relatively low-risk project should be found using a relatively high WACC.

c. If a project's NPV is less than zero, then its IRR must be less than the WACC.

1. McCall Manufacturing has a WACC of 10%. The firm is considering two normal, equally risky, mutually exclusive, but not repeatable projects. The two projects have the same investment costs, but Project A has an IRR of 15%, while Project B has an IRR of 20%. Assuming the projects' NPV profiles cross in the upper right quadrant, which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. Each project must have a negative NPV. b. Since the projects are mutually exclusive, the firm should always select Project B. c. If the crossover rate is 8%, Project B will have the higher NPV. d. Only one project has a positive NPV. e. If the crossover rate is 8%, Project A will have the higher NPV.

c. If the crossover rate is 8%, Project B will have the higher NPV.

1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The NPV, IRR, MIRR, and discounted payback (using a payback requirement of 3 years or less) methods always lead to the same accept/reject decisions for independent projects. b. For mutually exclusive projects with normal cash flows, the NPV and MIRR methods can never conflict, but their results could conflict with the discounted payback and the regular IRR methods. c. Multiple IRRs can exist, but not multiple MIRRs. This is one reason some people favor the MIRR over the regular IRR. d. If a firm uses the discounted payback method with a required payback of 4 years, then it will accept more projects than if it used a regular payback of 4 years. e. The percentage difference between the MIRR and the IRR is equal to the project's WACC.

c. Multiple IRRs can exist, but not multiple MIRRs. This is one reason some people favor the MIRR over the regular IRR.

1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The MIRR and NPV decision criteria can never conflict. b. The IRR method can never be subject to the multiple IRR problem, while the MIRR method can be. c. One reason some people prefer the MIRR to the regular IRR is that the MIRR is based on a generally more reasonable reinvestment rate assumption. d. The higher the WACC, the shorter the discounted payback period. e. The MIRR method assumes that cash flows are reinvested at the crossover rate.

c. One reason some people prefer the MIRR to the regular IRR is that the MIRR is based on a generally more reasonable reinvestment rate assumption.

1. Assume that the economy is enjoying a strong boom, and as a result interest rates and money costs generally are relatively high. The WACC for two mutually exclusive projects that are being considered is 12%. Project S has an IRR of 20% while Project L's IRR is 15%. The projects have the same NPV at the 12% current WACC. However, you believe that the economy will soon fall into a mild recession, and money costs and thus your WACC will soon decline. You also think that the projects will not be funded until the WACC has decreased, and their cash flows will not be affected by the change in economic conditions. Under these conditions, which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. You should reject both projects because they will both have negative NPVs under the new conditions. b. You should delay a decision until you have more information on the projects, even if this means that a competitor might come in and capture this market. c. You should recommend Project L, because at the new WACC it will have the higher NPV. d. You should recommend Project S, because at the new WACC it will have the higher NPV. e. You should recommend Project L because it will have both a higher IRR and a higher NPV under the new conditions.

c. You should recommend Project L, because at the new WACC it will have the higher NPV

1. You are on the staff of Camden Inc. The CFO believes project acceptance should be based on the NPV, but Steve Camden, the president, insists that no project should be accepted unless its IRR exceeds the project's risk-adjusted WACC. Now you must make a recommendation on a project that has a cost of $15,000 and two cash flows: $110,000 at the end of Year 1 and −$100,000 at the end of Year 2. The president and the CFO both agree that the appropriate WACC for this project is 10%. At 10%, the NPV is $2,355.37, but you find two IRRs, one at 6.33% and one at 527%, and a MIRR of 11.32%. Which of the following statements best describes your optimal recommendation, i.e., the analysis and recommendation that is best for the company and least likely to get you in trouble with either the CFO or the president? a. You should recommend that the project be rejected because its NPV is negative and its IRR is less than the WACC. b. You should recommend that the project be rejected because, although its NPV is positive, it has an IRR that is less than the WACC. c. You should recommend that the project be accepted because (1) its NPV is positive and (2) although it has two IRRs, in this case it would be better to focus on the MIRR, which exceeds the WACC. You should explain this to the president and tell him that that the firm's value will increase if the project is accepted. d. You should recommend that the project be rejected because (1) its NPV is positive and (2) it has two IRRs, one of which is less than the WACC, which indicates that the firm's value will decline if the project is accepted. e. You should recommend that the project be rejected because, although its NPV is positive, its MIRR is less than the WACC, and that indicates that the firm's value will decline if it is accepted.

c. You should recommend that the project be accepted because (1) its NPV is positive and (2) although it has two IRRs, in this case it would be better to focus on the MIRR, which exceeds the WACC. You should explain this to the president and tell him that that the firm's value will increase if the project is accepted.

1. Four of the following statements are truly disadvantages of the regular payback method, but one is not a disadvantage of this method. Which one is NOT a disadvantage of the payback method? a. Lacks an objective, market-determined benchmark for making decisions. b. Ignores cash flows beyond the payback period. c. Does not directly account for the time value of money. d. Does not provide any indication regarding a project's liquidity or risk. e. Does not take account of differences in size among projects.

d. Does not provide any indication regarding a project's liquidity or risk.

1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. A change in a company's target capital structure cannot affect its WACC. b. WACC calculations should be based on the before-tax costs of all the individual capital components. c. Flotation costs associated with issuing new common stock normally reduce the WACC. d. If a company's tax rate increases, then, all else equal, its weighted average cost of capital will decline. e. An increase in the risk-free rate will normally lower the marginal costs of both debt and equity financing.

d. If a company's tax rate increases, then, all else equal, its weighted average cost of capital will decline.

1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. For a project to have more than one IRR, then both IRRs must be greater than the WACC. b. If two projects are mutually exclusive, then they are likely to have multiple IRRs. c. If a project is independent, then it cannot have multiple IRRs. d. Multiple IRRs can only occur if the signs of the cash flows change more than once. e. If a project has two IRRs, then the smaller one is the one that is most relevant, and it should be accepted and relied upon.

d. Multiple IRRs can only occur if the signs of the cash flows change more than once.

1. A company is choosing between two projects. The larger project has an initial cost of $100,000, annual cash flows of $30,000 for 5 years, and an IRR of 15.24%. The smaller project has an initial cost of $51,600, annual cash flows of $16,000 for 5 years, and an IRR of 16.65%. The projects are equally risky. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. Since the smaller project has the higher IRR, the two projects' NPV profiles cannot cross, and the smaller project's NPV will be higher at all positive values of WACC. b. Since the smaller project has the higher IRR, the two projects' NPV profiles will cross, and the larger project will look better based on the NPV at all positive values of WACC. c. If the company uses the NPV method, it will tend to favor smaller, shorter-term projects over larger, longer- term projects, regardless of how high or low the WACC is. d. Since the smaller project has the higher IRR but the larger project has the higher NPV at a zero discount rate, the two projects' NPV profiles will cross, and the larger project will have the higher NPV if the WACC is less than the crossover rate. e. Since the smaller project has the higher IRR and the larger NPV at a zero discount rate, the two projects' NPV profiles will cross, and the smaller project will look better if the WACC is less than the crossover rate.

d. Since the smaller project has the higher IRR but the larger project has the higher NPV at a zero discount rate, the two projects' NPV profiles will cross, and the larger project will have the higher NPV if the WACC is less than the crossover rate.

1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The internal rate of return method (IRR) is generally regarded by academics as being the best single method for evaluating capital budgeting projects. b. The payback method is generally regarded by academics as being the best single method for evaluating capital budgeting projects. c. The discounted payback method is generally regarded by academics as being the best single method for evaluating capital budgeting projects. d. The net present value method (NPV) is generally regarded by academics as being the best single method for evaluating capital budgeting projects. e. The modified internal rate of return method (MIRR) is generally regarded by academics as being the best single method for evaluating capital budgeting projects.

d. The net present value method (NPV) is generally regarded by academics as being the best single method for evaluating capital budgeting projects.

1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. Although some methods used to estimate the cost of equity are subject to severe limitations, the CAPM is a simple, straightforward, and reliable model that consistently produces accurate cost of equity estimates. In particular, academics and corporate finance people generally agree that its key inputs—beta, the riskfree rate, and the market risk premium—can be estimated with little error. b. The DCF model is generally preferred by academics and financial executives over other models for estimating the cost of equity. This is because of the DCF model's logical appeal and also because accurate estimates for its key inputs, the dividend yield and the growth rate, are easy to obtain. c. The bond-yield-plus-risk-premium approach to estimating the cost of equity may not always be accurate, but it has the advantage that its two key inputs, the firm's own cost of debt and its risk premium, can be found by using standardized and objective procedures. d. Surveys indicate that the CAPM is the most widely used method for estimating the cost of equity. However, other methods are also used because CAPM estimates may be subject to error, and people like to use different methods as checks on one another. If all of the methods produce similar results, this increases the decision maker's confidence in the estimated cost of equity. e. The DCF model is preferred by academics and finance practitioners over other cost of capital models because it correctly recognizes that the expected return on a stock consists of a dividend yield plus an expected capital gains yield.

d. Surveys indicate that the CAPM is the most widely used method for estimating the cost of equity. However, other methods are also used because CAPM estimates may be subject to error, and people like to use different methods as checks on one another. If all of the methods produce similar results, this increases the decision maker's confidence in the estimated cost of equity.

1. Norris Enterprises, an all-equity firm, has a beta of 2.0. The chief financial officer is evaluating a project with an expected return of 14%, before any risk adjustment. The risk-free rate is 5%, and the market risk premium is 4%. The project being evaluated is riskier than the firm's average project, in terms of both its beta risk and its total risk. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The project should definitely be accepted because its expected return (before any risk adjustments) is greater than its required return. b. The project should definitely be rejected because its expected return (before risk adjustment) is less than its required return. c. Riskier-than-average projects should have their expected returns increased to reflect their higher risk. Clearly, this would make the project acceptable regardless of the amount of the adjustment. d. The accept/reject decision depends on the firm's risk-adjustment policy. If Norris' policy is to increase the required return on a riskier-than-average project to 3% over rS, then it should reject the project. e. Capital budgeting projects should be evaluated solely on the basis of their total risk. Thus, insufficient information has been provided to make the accept/reject decision.

d. The accept/reject decision depends on the firm's risk-adjustment policy. If Norris' policy is to increase the required return on a riskier-than-average project to 3% over rS, then it should reject the project.

1. For a company whose target capital structure calls for 50% debt and 50% common equity, which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The interest rate used to calculate the WACC is the average after-tax cost of all the company's outstanding debt as shown on its balance sheet. b. The WACC is calculated on a before-tax basis. c. The WACC exceeds the cost of equity. d. The cost of equity is always equal to or greater than the cost of debt. e. The cost of retained earnings typically exceeds the cost of new common stock.

d. The cost of equity is always equal to or greater than the cost of debt.

1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The cost of capital used to evaluate a project should be the cost of the specific type of financing used to fund that project, i.e., it is the after-tax cost of debt if debt is to be used to finance the project or the cost of equity if the project will be financed with equity. b. The after-tax cost of debt that should be used as the component cost when calculating the WACC is the average after-tax cost of all the firm's outstanding debt. c. Suppose some of a publicly-traded firm's stockholders are not diversified; they hold only the one firm's stock. In this case, the CAPM approach will result in an estimated cost of equity that is too low in the sense that if it is used in capital budgeting, projects will be accepted that will reduce the firm's intrinsic value. d. The cost of equity is generally harder to measure than the cost of debt because there is no stated, contractual cost number on which to base the cost of equity. e. The bond-yield-plus-risk-premium approach is the most sophisticated and objective method for estimating a firm's cost of equity capital.

d. The cost of equity is generally harder to measure than the cost of debt because there is no stated, contractual cost number on which to base the cost of equity.

1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The regular payback method recognizes all cash flows over a project's life. b. The discounted payback method recognizes all cash flows over a project's life, and it also adjusts these cash flows to account for the time value of money. c. The regular payback method was, years ago, widely used, but virtually no companies even calculate the payback today. d. The regular payback is useful as an indicator of a project's liquidity because it gives managers an idea of how long it will take to recover the funds invested in a project. e. The regular payback does not consider cash flows beyond the payback year, but the discounted payback overcomes this defect.

d. The regular payback is useful as an indicator of a project's liquidity because it gives managers an idea of how long it will take to recover the funds invested in a project.

1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The bond-yield-plus-risk-premium approach to estimating the cost of common equity involves adding a risk premium to the interest rate on the company's own long-term bonds. The size of the risk premium for bonds with different ratings is published daily in The Wall Street Journal or is available online. b. The WACC is calculated using a before-tax cost for debt that is equal to the interest rate that must be paid on new debt, along with the after-tax costs for common stock and for preferred stock if it is used. c. An increase in the risk-free rate is likely to reduce the marginal costs of both debt and equity. d. The relevant WACC can change depending on the amount of funds a firm raises during a given year. Moreover, the WACC at each level of funds raised is a weighted average of the marginal costs of each capital component, with the weights based on the firm's target capital structure. e. Beta measures market risk, which is generally the most relevant risk measure for a publicly-owned firm that seeks to maximize its intrinsic value. However, this is not true unless all of the firm's stockholders are well diversified.

d. The relevant WACC can change depending on the amount of funds a firm raises during a given year. Moreover, the WACC at each level of funds raised is a weighted average of the marginal costs of each capital component, with the weights based on the firm's target capital structure.

1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? Assume that the project being considered has normal cash flows, with one outflow followed by a series of inflows. a. A project's regular IRR is found by compounding the cash inflows at the WACC to find the terminal value (TV), then discounting this TV at the WACC. b. A project's regular IRR is found by discounting the cash inflows at the WACC to find the present value (PV), then compounding this PV to find the IRR. c. If a project's IRR is greater than the WACC, then its NPV must be negative. d. To find a project's IRR, we must solve for the discount rate that causes the PV of the inflows to equal the PV of the project's costs. e. To find a project's IRR, we must find a discount rate that is equal to the WACC.

d. To find a project's IRR, we must solve for the discount rate that causes the PV of the inflows to equal the PV of the project's costs.

1. Assume that the economy is in a mild recession, and as a result interest rates and money costs generally are relatively low. The WACC for two mutually exclusive projects that are being considered is 8%. Project S has an IRR of 20% while Project L's IRR is 15%. The projects have the same NPV at the 8% current WACC. However, you believe that the economy is about to recover, and money costs and thus your WACC will also increase. You also think that the projects will not be funded until the WACC has increased, and their cash flows will not be affected by the change in economic conditions. Under these conditions, which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. You should reject both projects because they will both have negative NPVs under the new conditions. b. You should delay a decision until you have more information on the projects, even if this means that a competitor might come in and capture this market. c. You should recommend Project L, because at the new WACC it will have the higher NPV. d. You should recommend Project S, because at the new WACC it will have the higher NPV. e. You should recommend Project L because it will have the higher IRR at the new WACC.

d. You should recommend Project S, because at the new WACC it will have the higher NPV.

1. If a typical U.S. company correctly estimates its WACC at a given point in time and then uses that same cost of capital to evaluate all projects for the next 10 years, then the firm will most likely a. become riskier over time, but its intrinsic value will be maximized. b. become less risky over time, and this will maximize its intrinsic value. c. accept too many low-risk projects and too few high-risk projects. d. become more risky and also have an increasing WACC. Its intrinsic value will not be maximized. e. continue as before, because there is no reason to expect its risk position or value to change over time as a result of its use of a single cost of capital.

d. become more risky and also have an increasing WACC. Its intrinsic value will not be maximized.

1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. In the WACC calculation, we must adjust the cost of preferred stock (the market yield) to reflect the fact that 70% of the dividends received by corporate investors are excluded from their taxable income. b. We should use historical measures of the component costs from prior financings that are still outstanding when estimating a company's WACC for capital budgeting purposes. c. The cost of new equity (re) could possibly be lower than the cost of retained earnings (rs) if the market risk premium, risk-free rate, and the company's beta all decline by a sufficiently large amount. d. Its cost of retained earnings is the rate of return stockholders require on a firm's common stock. e. The component cost of preferred stock is expressed as rp(1 − T), because preferred stock dividends are treated as fixed charges, similar to the treatment of interest on debt.

d.) Its cost of retained earnings is the rate of return stockholders require on a firm's common stock.

1. Projects S and L both have normal cash flows, and the projects have the same risk, hence both are evaluated with the same WACC, 10%. However, S has a higher IRR than L. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. Project S must have a higher NPV than Project L. b. If Project S has a positive NPV, Project L must also have a positive NPV. c. If the WACC falls, each project's IRR will increase. d. If the WACC increases, each project's IRR will decrease. e. If Projects S and L have the same NPV at the current WACC, 10%, then Project L, the one with the lower IRR, would have a higher NPV if the WACC used to evaluate the projects declined.

e. If Projects S and L have the same NPV at the current WACC, 10%, then Project L, the one with the lower IRR, would have a higher NPV if the WACC used to evaluate the projects declined.

1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. Since the costs of internal and external equity are related, an increase in the flotation cost required to sell a new issue of stock will increase the cost of retained earnings. b. Since its stockholders are not directly responsible for paying a corporation's income taxes, corporations should focus on before-tax cash flows when calculating the WACC. c. An increase in a firm's tax rate will increase the component cost of debt, provided the YTM on the firm's bonds is not affected by the change in the tax rate. d. When the WACC is calculated, it should reflect the costs of new common stock, retained earnings, preferred stock, long-term debt, short-term bank loans if the firm normally finances with bank debt, and accounts payable if the firm normally has accounts payable on its balance sheet. e. If a firm has been suffering accounting losses that are expected to continue into the foreseeable future, and therefore its tax rate is zero, then it is possible for the after-tax cost of preferred stock to be less than the after-tax cost of debt.

e. If a firm has been suffering accounting losses that are expected to continue into the foreseeable future, and therefore its tax rate is zero, then it is possible for the after-tax cost of preferred stock to be less than the after-tax cost of debt.

1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. If a project has "normal" cash flows, then its IRR must be positive. b. If a project has "normal" cash flows, then its MIRR must be positive. c. If a project has "normal" cash flows, then it will have exactly two real IRRs. d. The definition of "normal" cash flows is that the cash flow stream has one or more negative cash flows followed by a stream of positive cash flows and then one negative cash flow at the end of the project's life. e. If a project has "normal" cash flows, then it can have only one real IRR, whereas a project with "nonnormal" cash flows might have more than one real IRR.

e. If a project has "normal" cash flows, then it can have only one real IRR, whereas a project with "nonnormal" cash flows might have more than one real IRR.

1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? Assume that the project being considered has normal cash flows, with one outflow followed by a series of inflows. a. If Project A has a higher IRR than Project B, then Project A must have the lower NPV. b. If Project A has a higher IRR than Project B, then Project A must also have a higher NPV. c. The IRR calculation implicitly assumes that all cash flows are reinvested at the WACC. d. The IRR calculation implicitly assumes that cash flows are withdrawn from the business rather than being reinvested in the business. e. If a project has normal cash flows and its IRR exceeds its WACC, then the project's NPV must be positive.

e. If a project has normal cash flows and its IRR exceeds its WACC, then the project's NPV must be positive.

1. Suppose a firm relies exclusively on the payback method when making capital budgeting decisions, and it sets a 4-year payback regardless of economic conditions. Other things held constant, which of the following statements is most likely to be true? a. It will accept too many short-term projects and reject too many long-term projects (as judged by the NPV). b. It will accept too many long-term projects and reject too many short-term projects (as judged by the NPV). c. The firm will accept too many projects in all economic states because a 4-year payback is too low. d. The firm will accept too few projects in all economic states because a 4-year payback is too high. e. If the 4-year payback results in accepting just the right set of projects under average economic conditions, then this payback will result in too few long-term projects when the economy is weak.

e. If the 4-year payback results in accepting just the right set of projects under average economic conditions, then this payback will result in too few long-term projects when the economy is weak.

1. Westchester Corp. is considering two equally risky, mutually exclusive projects, both of which have normal cash flows. Project A has an IRR of 11%, while Project B's IRR is 14%. When the WACC is 8%, the projects have the same NPV. Given this information, which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. If the WACC is 13%, Project A's NPV will be higher than Project B's. b. If the WACC is 9%, Project A's NPV will be higher than Project B's. c. If the WACC is 6%, Project B's NPV will be higher than Project A's. d. If the WACC is greater than 14%, Project A's IRR will exceed Project B's. e. If the WACC is 9%, Project B's NPV will be higher than Project A's.

e. If the WACC is 9%, Project B's NPV will be higher than Project A's.

1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. For a project with normal cash flows, any change in the WACC will change both the NPV and the IRR. b. To find the MIRR, we first compound cash flows at the regular IRR to find the TV, and then we discount the TV at the WACC to find the PV. c. The NPV and IRR methods both assume that cash flows can be reinvested at the WACC. However, the MIRR method assumes reinvestment at the MIRR itself. d. If two projects have the same cost, and if their NPV profiles cross in the upper right quadrant, then the project with the higher IRR probably has more of its cash flows coming in the later years. e. If two projects have the same cost, and if their NPV profiles cross in the upper right quadrant, then the project with the lower IRR probably has more of its cash flows coming in the later years.

e. If two projects have the same cost, and if their NPV profiles cross in the upper right quadrant, then the project with the lower IRR probably has more of its cash flows coming in the later years.

1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. One defect of the IRR method is that it does not take account of cash flows over a project's full life. b. One defect of the IRR method is that it does not take account of the time value of money. c. One defect of the IRR method is that it does not take account of the cost of capital. d. One defect of the IRR method is that it values a dollar received today the same as a dollar that will not be received until sometime in the future. e. One defect of the IRR method is that it assumes that the cash flows to be received from a project can be reinvested at the IRR itself, and that assumption is often not valid.

e. One defect of the IRR method is that it assumes that the cash flows to be received from a project can be reinvested at the IRR itself, and that assumption is often not valid.

1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. One defect of the IRR method versus the NPV is that the IRR does not take account of cash flows over a project's full life. b. One defect of the IRR method versus the NPV is that the IRR does not take account of the time value of money. c. One defect of the IRR method versus the NPV is that the IRR does not take account of the cost of capital. d. One defect of the IRR method versus the NPV is that the IRR values a dollar received today the same as a dollar that will not be received until sometime in the future. e. One defect of the IRR method versus the NPV is that the IRR does not take proper account of differences in the sizes of projects.

e. One defect of the IRR method versus the NPV is that the IRR does not take proper account of differences in the sizes of projects.

1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? Assume that the firm is a publicly-owned corporation and is seeking to maximize shareholder wealth. a. If a firm has a beta that is less than 1.0, say 0.9, this would suggest that the expected returns on its assets are negatively correlated with the returns on most other firms' assets. b. If a firm's managers want to maximize the value of the stock, they should, in theory, concentrate on project risk as measured by the standard deviation of the project's expected future cash flows. c. If a firm evaluates all projects using the same cost of capital, and the CAPM is used to help determine that cost, then its risk as measured by beta will probably decline over time. d. Projects with above-average risk typically have higher-than-average expected returns. Therefore, to maximize a firm's intrinsic value, its managers should favor high-beta projects over those with lower betas. e. Project A has a standard deviation of expected returns of 20%, while Project B's standard deviation is only 10%. A's returns are negatively correlated with both the firm's other assets and the returns on most stocks in the economy, while B's returns are positively correlated. Therefore, Project A is less risky to a firm and should be evaluated with a lower cost of capital.

e. Project A has a standard deviation of expected returns of 20%, while Project B's standard deviation is only 10%. A's returns are negatively correlated with both the firm's other assets and the returns on most stocks in the economy, while B's returns are positively correlated. Therefore, Project A is less risky to a firm and should be evaluated with a lower cost of capital.

1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The WACC is calculated using before-tax costs for all components. b. The after-tax cost of debt usually exceeds the after-tax cost of equity. c. For a given firm, the after-tax cost of debt is always more expensive than the after-tax cost of non-convertible preferred stock. d. Retained earnings that were generated in the past and are reported on the firm's balance sheet are available to finance the firm's capital budget during the coming year. e. The WACC that should be used in capital budgeting is the firm's marginal, after-tax cost of capital.

e. The WACC that should be used in capital budgeting is the firm's marginal, after-tax cost of capital.

1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. When calculating the cost of preferred stock, a company needs to adjust for taxes, because preferred stock dividends are deductible by the paying corporation. b. All else equal, an increase in a company's stock price will increase its marginal cost of retained earnings, rs. c. All else equal, an increase in a company's stock price will increase its marginal cost of new common equity, re. d. Since the money is readily available, the after-tax cost of retained earnings is usually much lower than the after-tax cost of debt. e. If a company's tax rate increases but the YTM on its noncallable bonds remains the same, the after-tax cost of its debt will fall.

e.) If a company's tax rate increases but the YTM on its noncallable bonds remains the same, the after-tax cost of its debt will fall.