Final Med Surg II Exam
A nurse assesses a client with Crohn's disease and colonic strictures. Which clinical manifestation should alert the nurse to urgently contact the health care provider? a. Distended abdomen b. Temperature of 100.0° F (37.8° C) c. Loose and bloody stool d. Lower abdominal cramps
A
A nurse cares for a client who has a Giardia infection. Which medication should the nurse anticipate being prescribed for this client? a. Metronidazole (Flagyl) b. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) c. Sulfasalazine (Azulfidine) d. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin)
A
A nurse cares for a client with ulcerative colitis. The client states, "I feel like I am tied to the toilet. This disease is controlling my life." How should the nurse respond? a. "Let's discuss potential factors that increase your symptoms." b. "If you take the prescribed medications, you will no longer have diarrhea." c. "To decrease distress, do not eat anything before you go out." d. "You must retake control of your life. I will consult a therapist to help."
A
A nurse reviews the chart of a client who has Crohn's disease and a draining fistula. Which documentation should alert the nurse to urgently contact the provider for additional prescriptions? a. Serum potassium of 2.6 mEq/L b. Client ate 20% of breakfast meal 3 c. White blood cell count of 8200/mm d. Client's weight decreased by 3 pounds
A
The nurse admitting a patient with acute diverticulitis explains that the initial plan of care is to a. administer IV fluids. b. give stool softeners and enemas. c. order a diet high in fiber and fluids. d. prepare the patient for colonoscopy.
A A patient with acute diverticulitis will be NPO and given parenteral fluids. A diet high in fiber and fluids will be implemented before discharge. Bulk-forming laxatives, rather than stool softeners, are usually given, and these will be implemented later in the hospitalization. The patient with acute diverticulitis will not have enemas or a colonoscopy because of the risk for perforation and peritonitis.
Which finding indicates to the nurse that lactulose (Cephulac) is effective for a 72-year-old man who has advanced cirrhosis? a. The patient is alert and oriented. b. The patient denies nausea or anorexia. c. The patient's bilirubin level decreases. d. The patient has at least one stool daily.
A The purpose of lactulose in the patient with cirrhosis is to lower ammonia levels and prevent encephalopathy. Although lactulose may be used to treat constipation, that is not the purpose for this patient. Lactulose will not decrease nausea and vomiting or lower bilirubin levels.
A client has been discharged to an inpatient rehabilitation center after an esophagogastrectomy. What menu selections by the client at the rehabilitation center indicate a good understanding of dietary instructions? (Select all that apply.) a. BoostTM supplement b. Greek yogurt c. Scrambled eggs d. Whole milk shake e. Whole wheat toast
A, B, C, D Malnutrition is a serious problem after this procedure. The client needs high-protein, high-calorie foods that are easy to chew and swallow. The Boost supplement, Greek yogurt, scrambled eggs, and whole milk shake are all good choices. The whole wheat bread, while heart healthy, is not a good choice as it is dry and not easy to chew and swallow.
A nurse assesses a client with peritonitis. Which clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to find? (Select all that apply.) a. Distended abdomen b. Inability to pass flatus c. Bradycardia d. Hyperactive bowel sounds e. Decreased urine output
A, B, E A client with peritonitis may present with a distended abdomen, diminished bowel sounds, inability to pass flatus or feces, tachycardia, and decreased urine output secondary to dehydration. Bradycardia and hyperactive bowel sounds are not associated with peritonitis.
A nurse is teaching clients with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) about foods to avoid. Which foods should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Chocolate b. Decaffeinated coffee c. Citrus fruits d. Peppermint e. Tomato sauce
A, C, D, E Chocolate, citrus fruits such as oranges and grapefruit, peppermint and spearmint, and tomato-based products all contribute to the reflux associated with GERD. Caffeinated teas, coffee, and sodas should be avoided.
A nurse plans care for a client with Crohn's disease who has a heavily draining fistula. Which intervention should the nurse indicate as the priority action in this client's plan of care? a. Low-fiber diet b. Skin protection c. Antibiotic administration d. Intravenous glucocorticoids
B
An older female client has been prescribed esomeprazole (Nexium) for treatment of chronic gastric ulcers. What teaching is particularly important for this client? a. Check with the pharmacist before taking other medications. b. Increase intake of calcium and vitamin D. c. Report any worsening of symptoms to the provider. d. Take the medication as prescribed by the provider.
B
Which item should the nurse offer to the patient who is to restart oral intake after being NPO due to nausea and vomiting? a. Glass of orange juice b. Dish of lemon gelatin c. Cup of coffee with cream d. Bowl of hot chicken broth
B
The nurse is caring for a 73-year-old man who has cirrhosis. Which data obtained by the nurse during the assessment will be of most concern? a. The patient complains of right upper-quadrant pain with palpation. b. The patient's hands flap back and forth when the arms are extended. c. The patient has ascites and a 2-kg weight gain from the previous day. d. The patient's skin has multiple spider-shaped blood vessels on the abdomen.
B Asterixis indicates that the patient has hepatic encephalopathy, and hepatic coma may occur. The spider angiomas and right upper quadrant abdominal pain are not unusual for the patient with cirrhosis and do not require a change in treatment. The ascites and weight gain indicate the need for treatment but not as urgently as the changes in neurologic status.
A patient in the emergency department has just been diagnosed with peritonitis caused by a ruptured diverticulum. Which prescribed intervention will the nurse implement first? a. Insert a urinary catheter to drainage. b. Infuse metronidazole (Flagyl) 500 mg IV. c. Send the patient for a computerized tomography scan. d. Place a nasogastric (NG) tube to intermittent low suction.
B Because peritonitis can be fatal if treatment is delayed, the initial action should be to start antibiotic therapy (after any ordered cultures are obtained). The other actions can be done after antibiotic therapy is initiated.
A 49-year-old man has been admitted with hypotension and dehydration after 3 days of nausea and vomiting. Which order from the health care provider will the nurse implement first? a. Insert a nasogastric (NG) tube. b. Infuse normal saline at 250 mL/hr. c. Administer IV ondansetron (Zofran). d. Provide oral care with moistened swabs.
B Because the patient has severe dehydration, rehydration with IV fluids is the priority. The other orders should be accomplished as quickly as possible after the IV fluids are initiated.
For a patient with cirrhosis, which of the following nursing actions can the registered nurse (RN) delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Assessing the patient for jaundice b. Providing oral hygiene after a meal c. Palpating the abdomen for distention d. Assisting the patient to choose the diet
B Providing oral hygiene is within the scope of UAP. Assessments and assisting patients to choose therapeutic diets are nursing actions that require higher-level nursing education and scope of practice and would be delegated to licensed practical/vocational nurses (LPNs/LVNs) or RNs.
A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L (3.2 mmol/L) is reported for a patient with cirrhosis who has scheduled doses of spironolactone (Aldactone) and furosemide (Lasix). due. Which action should the nurse take? a. Administer both drugs. b. Administer the spironolactone. c. Withhold the spironolactone and administer the furosemide. d. Withhold both drugs until discussed with the health care provider.
B Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic and will help increase the patient's potassium level. The nurse does not need to talk with the doctor before giving the spironolactone, although the health care provider should be notified about the low potassium value. The furosemide will further decrease the patient's potassium level and should be held until the nurse talks with the health care provider.
Which assessment information will be most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider about a patient with acute cholecystitis? a. The patient's urine is bright yellow. b. The patient's stools are tan colored. c. The patient has increased pain after eating. d. The patient complains of chronic heartburn.
B Tan or grey stools indicate biliary obstruction, which requires rapid intervention to resolve. The other data are not unusual for a patient with this diagnosis, although the nurse would also report the other assessment information to the health care provider.
To detect possible complications in a patient with severe cirrhosis who has bleeding esophageal varices, it is most important for the nurse to monitor a. bilirubin levels. b. ammonia levels. c. potassium levels. d. prothrombin time.
B The protein in the blood in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract will be absorbed and may result in an increase in the ammonia level because the liver cannot metabolize protein very well. The prothrombin time, bilirubin, and potassium levels should also be monitored, but they will not be affected by the bleeding episode.
A 57-year-old man with Escherichia coli O157:H7 food poisoning is admitted to the hospital with bloody diarrhea and dehydration. Which order will the nurse question? a. Infuse lactated Ringer's solution at 250 mL/hr. b. Monitor blood urea nitrogen and creatinine daily. c. Administer loperamide (Imodium) after each stool. d. Provide a clear liquid diet and progress diet as tolerated.
C
A nurse is addressing the prevention of esophageal cancer in response to a question posed by a participant in a health promotion workshop. What action has the greatest potential to prevent esophageal cancer? A) Promotion of a nutrient-dense, low-fat diet B) Annual screening endoscopy for patients over 50 with a family history of esophageal cancer C) Early diagnosis and treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease D) Adequate fluid intake and avoidance of spicy foods
C
A nurse is completing a health history on a patient whose diagnosis is chronic gastritis. Which of the data should the nurse consider most significantly related to the etiology of the patient's health problem? A) Consumes one or more protein drinks daily. B) Takes over-the-counter antacids frequently throughout the day. C) Smokes one pack of cigarettes daily. D) Reports a history of social drinking on a weekly basis.
C
After assisting with a needle biopsy of the liver at a patient's bedside, the nurse should a. put pressure on the biopsy site using a sandbag. b. elevate the head of the bed to facilitate breathing. c. place the patient on the right side with the bed flat. d. check the patient's postbiopsy coagulation studies.
C
Which order from the health care provider will the nurse implement first for a patient who has vomited 1200 mL of blood? a. Give an IV H2 receptor antagonist. b. Draw blood for typing and crossmatching. c. Administer 1000 mL of lactated Ringer's solution. d. Insert a nasogastric (NG) tube and connect to suction.
C
A 49-year-old female patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices has a new prescription for propranolol (Inderal). Which finding is the best indicator that the medication has been effective? a. The patient reports no chest pain. b. Blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg. c. Stools test negative for occult blood. d. The apical pulse rate is 68 beats/minute.
C Because the purpose of β-blocker therapy for patients with esophageal varices is to decrease the risk for bleeding from esophageal varices, the best indicator of the effectiveness for propranolol is the lack of blood in the stools. Although propranolol is used to treat hypertension, angina, and tachycardia, the purpose for use in this patient is to decrease the risk for bleeding from esophageal varices.
A 38-year-old patient with cirrhosis has ascites and 4+ edema of the feet and legs. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care? a. Restrict daily dietary protein intake. b. Reposition the patient every 4 hours. c. Place the patient on a pressure-relieving mattress. d. Perform passive range of motion daily.
C The pressure-relieving mattress will decrease the risk for skin breakdown for this patient. Adequate dietary protein intake is necessary in patients with ascites to improve oncotic pressure. Repositioning the patient every 4 hours will not be adequate to maintain skin integrity. Passive range of motion will not take the pressure off areas such as the sacrum that are vulnerable to breakdown.
During change-of-shift report, the nurse learns about the following four patients. Which patient requires assessment first? a. 40-year-old with chronic pancreatitis who has gnawing abdominal pain b. 58-year-old who has compensated cirrhosis and is complaining of anorexia c. 55-year-old with cirrhosis and ascites who has an oral temperature of 102° F (38.8° C) d. 36-year-old recovering from a laparoscopic cholecystectomy who has severe shoulder pain
C This patient's history and fever suggest possible spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, which would require rapid assessment and interventions such as antibiotic therapy. The clinical manifestations for the other patients are consistent with their diagnoses and do not indicate complications are occurring.
A nurse working with a client who has possible gastritis assesses the client's gastrointestinal system. Which findings indicate a chronic condition as opposed to acute gastritis? (Select all that apply.) a. Anorexia b. Dyspepsia c. Intolerance of fatty foods d. Pernicious anemia e. Nausea and vomiting
C,D
After hiatal hernia repair surgery, a client is on IV pantoprazole (Protonix). The client asks the nurse why this medication is given since there is no history of ulcers. What response by the nurse is best? a. "Bacteria can often cause ulcers." b. "This operation often causes ulcers." c. "The medication keeps your blood pH low." d. "It prevents stress-related ulcers."
D
Which data will the nurse monitor in relation to the 4+ pitting edema assessed in a patient with cirrhosis? a. Hemoglobin b. Temperature c. Activity level d. Albumin level
D The low oncotic pressure caused by hypoalbuminemia is a major pathophysiologic factor in the development of edema. The other parameters should also be monitored, but they are not directly associated with the patient's current symptoms.
Which patient should the nurse assess first after receiving change-of-shift report? a. 60-year-old patient whose new ileostomy has drained 800 mL over the previous 8 hours b. 50-year-old patient with familial adenomatous polyposis who has occult blood in the stool c. 40-year-old patient with ulcerative colitis who has had six liquid stools in the previous 4 hours d. 30-year-old patient who has abdominal distention and an apical heart rate of 136 beats/minute
D The patient's abdominal distention and tachycardia suggest hypovolemic shock caused by problems such as peritonitis or intestinal obstruction, which will require rapid intervention. The other patients should also be assessed as quickly as possible, but the data do not indicate any life-threatening complications associated with their diagnoses.
The nurse is working with clients who have esophageal disorders. The nurse should assess the clients for which manifestations? (Select all that apply.) a. Aphasia b. Dysphagia c. Eructation d. Halitosis e. Weight gain
B,C,D
A 58-year-old man with blunt abdominal trauma from a motor vehicle crash undergoes peritoneal lavage. If the lavage returns brown fecal drainage, which action will the nurse plan to take next? a. Auscultate the bowel sounds. b. Prepare the patient for surgery. c. Check the patient's oral temperature. d. Obtain information about the accident.
B
A client has been taught about alginic acid and sodium bicarbonate (Gaviscon). What statement by the client indicates that teaching has been effective? a. "I can only take this medicine at night." b. "I should take this on a full stomach." c. "This drug decreases stomach acid." d. "This should be taken 1 hour before meals."
B
A nurse assesses a client who has ulcerative colitis and severe diarrhea. Which assessment should the nurse complete first? a. Inspection of oral mucosa b. Recent dietary intake c. Heart rate and rhythm d. Percussion of abdomen
C
A nurse assesses a client who is experiencing a cluster headache. Which clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to find? (Select all that apply.) a. Ipsilateral tearing of the eye b. Miosis c. Abrupt loss of consciousness d. Neck and shoulder tenderness e. Nasal congestion f. Exophthalmos
A, B, E Cluster headache is usually accompanied by ipsilateral tearing, miosis, rhinorrhea or nasal congestion, ptosis, eyelid edema, and facial sweating. Abrupt loss of consciousness, neck and shoulder tenderness, and exophthalmos are not associated with cluster headaches.
The nurse will plan to monitor a patient with an obstructed common bile duct for a. melena. b. steatorrhea. c. decreased serum cholesterol levels. d. increased serum indirect bilirubin levels.
B A common bile duct obstruction will reduce the absorption of fat in the small intestine, leading to fatty stools. Gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding is not caused by common bile duct obstruction. Serum cholesterol levels are increased with biliary obstruction. Direct bilirubin level is increased with biliary obstruction.
A patient who experienced an upper GI bleed due to gastritis has had the bleeding controlled and the patient's condition is now stable. For the next several hours, the nurse caring for this patient should assess for what signs and symptoms of recurrence? A) Tachycardia, hypotension, and tachypnea B) Tarry, foul-smelling stools C) Diaphoresis and sudden onset of abdominal pain D) Sudden thirst, unrelieved by oral fluid administration
A
The nurse caring for a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome has identified the priority client problem of decreased mobility for the client. What actions by the nurse are best? (Select all that apply.) a. Ask occupational therapy to help the client with activities of daily living. b. Consult with the provider about a physical therapy consult. c. Provide the client with information on support groups. d. Refer the client to a medical social worker or chaplain. e. Work with speech therapy to design a high-protein diet.
A, B, E Improving mobility and strength involves the collaborative assistance of occupational therapy, physical therapy, and speech therapy. While support groups, social work, or chaplain referrals may be needed, they do not help with mobility.
The nurse working in the orthopedic clinic knows that a client with which factor has an absolute contraindication for having a total joint replacement? a. Needs multiple dental fillings b. Over age 85 c. Severe osteoporosis d. Urinary tract infection
C Osteoporosis is a contraindication to joint replacement because the bones have a high risk of shattering as the new prosthesis is implanted. The client who needs fillings should have them done prior to the surgery. Age greater than 85 is not an absolute contraindication. A urinary tract infection can be treated prior to surgery.
The nurse caring for clients with gastrointestinal disorders should understand that which category best describes the mechanism of action of sucralfate (Carafate)? a. Gastric acid inhibitor b. Histamine receptor blocker c. Mucosal barrier fortifier d. Proton pump inhibitor
C Sucralfate is a mucosal barrier fortifier (protector). It is not a gastric acid inhibitor, a histamine receptor blocker, or a proton pump inhibitor.
A nurse is caring for a patient hospitalized with an exacerbation of chronic gastritis. What health promotion topic should the nurse emphasize? A) Strategies for maintaining an alkaline gastric environment B) Safe technique for self-suctioning C) Techniques for positioning correctly to promote gastric healing D) Strategies for avoiding irritating foods and beverages
D Measures to help relieve pain include instructing the patient to avoid foods and beverages that may be irritating to the gastric mucosa and instructing the patient about the correct use of medications to relieve chronic gastritis. An alkaline gastric environment is neither possible nor desirable. There is no plausible need for self-suctioning. Positioning does not have a significant effect on the presence or absence of gastric healing.
The nurse learns that the pathophysiology of Guillain-Barré syndrome includes segmental demyelination. The nurse should understand that this causes what? a. Delayed afferent nerve impulses b. Paralysis of affected muscles c. Paresthesia in upper extremities d. Slowed nerve impulse transmission
D Demyelination leads to slowed nerve impulse transmission. The other options are not correct.
A 49-year-old man has been admitted with hypotension and dehydration after 3 days of nausea and vomiting. Which order from the health care provider will the nurse implement first? a. Insert a nasogastric (NG) tube. b. Infuse normal saline at 250 mL/hr. c. Administer IV ondansetron (Zofran). d. Provide oral care with moistened swabs.
B
A nurse is preparing to administer pantoprazole (Protonix) intravenously. What actions by the nurse are most appropriate? (Select all that apply.) a. Administer the drug through a separate IV line. b. Infuse pantoprazole using an IV pump. c. Keep the drug in its original brown bag. d. Take vital signs frequently during infusion. e. Use an in-line IV filter when infusing.
A,B,E
Which topic is most important to include in patient teaching for a 41-year-old patient diagnosed with early alcoholic cirrhosis? a. Maintaining good nutrition b. Avoiding alcohol ingestion c. Taking lactulose (Cephulac) d. Using vitamin B supplements
B The disease progression can be stopped or reversed by alcohol abstinence. The other interventions may be used when cirrhosis becomes more severe to decrease symptoms or complications, but the priority for this patient is to stop the progression of the disease.
A staff educator is reviewing the causes of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) with new staff nurses. What area of the GI tract should the educator identify as the cause of reduced pressure associated with GERD? A) Pyloric sphincter B) Lower esophageal sphincter C) Hypopharyngeal sphincter D) Upper esophageal sphincter
B The lower esophageal sphincter, also called the gastroesophageal sphincter or cardiac sphincter, is located at the junction of the esophagus and the stomach. An incompetent lower esophageal sphincter allows reflux (backward flow) of gastric contents. The upper esophageal sphincter and the hypopharyngeal sphincter are synonymous and are not responsible for the manifestations of GERD. The pyloric sphincter exists between the stomach and the duodenum.
After teaching a client with a parasitic gastrointestinal infection, a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statements made by the client indicate that the client correctly understands the teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "I'll have my housekeeper keep my toilet clean." b. "I must take a shower or bathe every day." c. "I should have my well water tested." d. "I will ask my sexual partner to have a stool test." e. "I must only eat raw vegetables from my own garden."
B,C,D
A client with Guillain-Barré syndrome is admitted to the hospital. The nurse plans caregiving priority to interventions that address which priority client problem? a. Anxiety b. Low fluid volume c. Inadequate airway d. Potential for skin breakdown
C Airway takes priority. Anxiety is probably present, but a physical diagnosis takes priority over a psychosocial one. The client has no reason to have low fluid volume unless he or she has been unable to drink for some time. If present, airway problems take priority over a circulation problem. An actual problem takes precedence over a risk for a problem.
A nurse assesses a client who is hospitalized with an exacerbation of Crohn's disease. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find? a. Positive Murphy's sign with rebound tenderness to palpitation b. Dull, hypoactive bowel sounds in the lower abdominal quadrants c. High-pitched, rushing bowel sounds in the right lower quadrant d. Reports of abdominal cramping that is worse at night
C The nurse expects high-pitched, rushing bowel sounds due to narrowing of the bowel lumen in Crohn's disease. A positive Murphy's sign is indicative of gallbladder disease, and rebound tenderness often indicates peritonitis. Dullness in the lower abdominal quadrants and hypoactive bowel sounds are not commonly found with Crohn's disease. Nightly worsening of abdominal cramping is not consistent with Crohn's disease.
Which patient should the nurse assess first after receiving change-of-shift report? a. A patient with nausea who has a dose of metoclopramide (Reglan) due b. A patient who is crying after receiving a diagnosis of esophageal cancer c. A patient with esophageal varices who has a blood pressure of 92/58 mm Hg d. A patient admitted yesterday with gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding who has melena
C The patient's history and blood pressure indicate possible hemodynamic instability caused by GI bleeding. The data about the other patients do not indicate acutely life-threatening complications.
A 57-year-old man with Escherichia coli O157:H7 food poisoning is admitted to the hospital with bloody diarrhea and dehydration. Which order will the nurse question? a. Infuse lactated Ringer's solution at 250 mL/hr. b. Monitor blood urea nitrogen and creatinine daily. c. Administer loperamide (Imodium) after each stool. d. Provide a clear liquid diet and progress diet as tolerated.
C Use of antidiarrheal agents is avoided with this type of food poisoning. The other orders are appropriate.
After teaching a client who is diagnosed with new-onset status epilepticus and prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin), the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. "To prevent complications, I will drink at least 2 liters of water daily." b. "This medication will stop me from getting an aura before a seizure." c. "I will not drive a motor vehicle while taking this medication." d. "Even when my seizures stop, I will continue to take this drug."
D Discontinuing antiepileptic drugs can lead to the recurrence of seizures or status epilepticus. The client does not need to drink more water and can drive while taking this medication. The medication will not stop an aura before a seizure.
An older client is hospitalized with Guillain-Barré syndrome. A family member tells the nurse the client is restless and seems confused. What action by the nurse is best? a. Assess the client's oxygen saturation. b. Check the medication list for interactions. c. Place the client on a bed alarm. d. Put the client on safety precautions.
A In the older adult, an early sign of hypoxia is often confusion and restlessness. The nurse should first assess the client's oxygen saturation. The other actions are appropriate, but only after this assessment occurs.
Which statement to the nurse from a patient with jaundice indicates a need for teaching? a. "I used cough syrup several times a day last week." b. "I take a baby aspirin every day to prevent strokes." c. "I use acetaminophen (Tylenol) every 4 hours for back pain." d. "I need to take an antacid for indigestion several times a week"
C Chronic use of high doses of acetaminophen can be hepatotoxic and may have caused the patient's jaundice. The other patient statements require further assessment by the nurse, but do not indicate a need for patient education.
A nurse is teaching a client with chronic migraine headaches. Which statement related to complementary therapy should the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "Place a warm compress on your forehead at the onset of the headache." b. "Wear dark sunglasses when you are in brightly lit spaces." c. "Lie down in a darkened room when you experience a headache." d. "Set your alarm to ensure you do not sleep longer than 6 hours at one time."
C At the onset of a migraine attack, the client may be able to alleviate pain by lying down and darkening the room. He or she may want both eyes covered and a cool cloth on the forehead. If the client falls asleep, he or she should remain undisturbed until awakening. The other options are not recognized therapies for migraines.
A 16-year-old presents at the emergency department complaining of right lower quadrant pain and is subsequently diagnosed with appendicitis. When planning this patient's nursing care, the nurse should prioritize what nursing diagnosis? A) Imbalanced Nutrition: Less Than Body Requirements Related to Decreased Oral Intake B) Risk for Infection Related to Possible Rupture of Appendix C) Constipation Related to Decreased Bowel Motility and Decreased Fluid Intake D) Chronic Pain Related to Appendicitis
B
The nurse is aware that which factors are related to the development of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)? (Select all that apply.) a. Delayed gastric emptying b. Eating large meals c. Hiatal hernia d. Obesity e. Viral infections
A, B, C, D Many factors predispose a person to GERD, including delayed gastric emptying, eating large meals, hiatal hernia, and obesity. Viral infections are not implicated in the development of GERD, although infection with Helicobacter pylori is.
A nurse plans care for a client with epilepsy who is admitted to the hospital. Which interventions should the nurse include in this client's plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. Have suction equipment at the bedside. b. Place a padded tongue blade at the bedside. c. Permit only clear oral fluids. d. Keep bed rails up at all times. e. Maintain the client on strict bedrest. f. Ensure that the client has IV access.
A, D, F Oxygen and suctioning equipment with an airway must be readily available. The bed rails should be up at all times while the client is in the bed to prevent injury from a fall if the client has a seizure. If the client does not have an IV access, insert a saline lock, especially for those clients who are at significant risk for generalized tonic-clonic seizures. The saline lock provides ready access if IV drug therapy must be given to stop the seizure. Padded tongue blades may pose a danger to the client during a seizure and should not be used. Dietary restrictions and strict bedrest are not interventions associated with epilepsy. The client should be encouraged to eat a well-balanced diet and ambulate while in the hospital.
The nurse has taught a client about lifestyle modifications for gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). What statements by the client indicate good understanding of the teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "I just joined a gym, so I hope that helps me lose weight." b. "I sure hate to give up my coffee, but I guess I have to." c. "I will eat three small meals and three small snacks a day." d. "Sitting upright and not lying down after meals will help." e. "Smoking a pipe is not a problem and I don't have to stop."
A,B,C,D
A client is admitted with Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS). What assessment takes priority? a. Bladder control b. Cognitive perception c. Respiratory system d. Sensory functions
C Clients with GBS have muscle weakness, possibly to the point of paralysis. If respiratory muscles are paralyzed, the client may need mechanical ventilation, so the respiratory system is the priority. The nurse will complete urinary, cognitive, and sensory assessments as part of a thorough evaluation.
A nurse cares for a client who is prescribed mesalamine (Asacol) for ulcerative colitis. The client states, "I am having trouble swallowing this pill." Which action should the nurse take? a. Contact the clinical pharmacist and request the medication in suspension form. b. Empty the contents of the capsule into applesauce or pudding for administration. c. Ask the health care provider to prescribe the medication as an enema instead. d. Crush the pill carefully and administer it in applesauce or pudding.
C Asacol is the oral formula for mesalamine and is produced as an enteric-coated pill that should not be crushed, chewed, or broken. Asacol is not available as a suspension or elixir. If the client is unable to swallow the Asacol pill, a mesalamine enema (Rowasa) may be administered instead, with a provider's order.
The nurse is preparing a client for a Tensilon (edrophonium chloride) test. What action by the nurse is most important? a. Administering anxiolytics b. Having a ventilator nearby c. Obtaining atropine sulfate d. Sedating the client
C Atropine is the antidote to edrophonium chloride and should be readily available when a client is having a Tensilon test. The nurse would not want to give medications that might cause increased weakness or sedation. A ventilator is not necessary to have nearby, although emergency equipment should be available.
A patient presents to the walk-in clinic complaining of vomiting and burning in her mid-epigastria. The nurse knows that in the process of confirming peptic ulcer disease, the physician is likely to order a diagnostic test to detect the presence of what? A) Infection with Helicobacter pylori B) Excessive stomach acid secretion C) An incompetent pyloric sphincter D) A metabolic acid-base imbalance
A
A patient was treated in the emergency department and critical care unit after ingesting bleach. What possible complication of the resulting gastritis should the nurse recognize? A) Esophageal or pyloric obstruction related to scarring B) Uncontrolled proliferation of H. pylori C) Gastric hyperacidity related to excessive gastrin secretion D) Chronic referred pain in the lower abdomen
A
A patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) has a diagnosis of Barrett's esophagus with minor cell changes. Which of the following principles should be integrated into the patient's subsequent care? A) The patient will require an upper endoscopy every 6 months to detect malignant changes. B) Liver enzymes must be checked regularly, as H2 receptor antagonists may cause hepatic damage. C) Small amounts of blood are likely to be present in the stools and are not cause for concern. D) Antacids may be discontinued when symptoms of heartburn subside.
A In the patient with Barrett's esophagus, the cells lining the lower esophagus have undergone change and are no longer squamous cells. The altered cells are considered precancerous and are a precursor to esophageal cancer. In order to facilitate early detection of malignant cells, an upper endoscopy is recommended every 6 months. H2 receptor antagonists are commonly prescribed for patients with GERD; however, monitoring of liver enzymes is not routine. Stools that contain evidence of frank bleeding or that are tarry are not expected and should be reported immediately. When antacids are prescribed for patients with GERD, they should be taken as ordered whether or not the patient is symptomatic.
A patient with GERD has undergone diagnostic testing and it has been determined that increasing the pace of gastric emptying may help alleviate symptoms. The nurse should anticipate that the patient may be prescribed what drug? A) Metoclopramide (Reglan) B) Omeprazole (Prilosec) C) Lansoprazole (Prevacid) D) Famotidine (Pepcid)
A Metoclopramide (Reglan) is useful in promoting gastric motility. Omeprazole and lansoprozole are proton pump inhibitors that reduce gastric acid secretion. Famotidine (Pepcid) is an H2 receptor antagonist, which has a similar effect.
An elderly patient comes into the emergency department complaining of an earache. The patient and has an oral temperature of 100.2ºF and otoscopic assessment of the ear reveals a pearly gray tympanic membrane with no evidence of discharge or inflammation. Which action should the triage nurse take next? A) Palpate the patient's parotid glands to detect swelling and tenderness. B) Assess the temporomandibular joint for evidence of a malocclusion. C) Test the integrity of cranial nerve XII by asking the patient to protrude the tongue. D) Inspect the patient's gums for bleeding and hyperpigmentation.
A Older adults and debilitated patients of any age who are dehydrated or taking medications that reduce saliva production are at risk for parotitis. Symptoms include fever and tenderness, as well as swelling of the parotid glands. Pain radiates to the ear. Pain associated with malocclusion of the temporomandibular joint may also radiate to the ears; however, a temperature elevation would not be associated with malocclusion. The 12th cranial nerve is not associated with the auditory system. Bleeding and hyperpigmented gums may be caused by pyorrhea or gingivitis. These conditions do not cause earache; fever would not be present unless the teeth were abscessed.
A patient with gastritis required hospital treatment for an exacerbation of symptoms and receives a subsequent diagnosis of pernicious anemia due to malabsorption. When planning the patient's continuing care in the home setting, what assessment question is most relevant? A) "Does anyone in your family have experience at giving injections?" B) "Are you going to be anywhere with strong sunlight in the next few months?" C) "Are you aware of your blood type?" D) "Do any of your family members have training in first aid?"
A Patients with malabsorption of vitamin B12 need information about lifelong vitamin B12 injections; the nurse may instruct a family member or caregiver how to administer the injections or make arrangements for the patient to receive the injections from a health care provider. Questions addressing sun exposure, blood type and first aid are not directly relevant.
A nurse assesses a client who has appendicitis. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find? a. Severe, steady right lower quadrant pain b. Abdominal pain associated with nausea and vomiting c. Marked peristalsis and hyperactive bowel sounds d. Abdominal pain that increases with knee flexion
A Right lower quadrant pain, specifically at McBurney's point, is characteristic of appendicitis. Usually if nausea and vomiting begin first, the client has gastroenteritis. Marked peristalsis and hyperactive bowel sounds are not indicative of appendicitis. Abdominal pain due to appendicitis decreases with knee flexion.
A nurse teaches a client who has viral gastroenteritis. Which dietary instruction should the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "Drink plenty of fluids to prevent dehydration." b. "You should only drink 1 liter of fluids daily." c. "Increase your protein intake by drinking more milk." d. "Sips of cola or tea may help to relieve your nausea."
A The client should drink plenty of fluids to prevent dehydration. Milk products may not be tolerated. Caffeinated beverages increase intestinal motility and should be avoided.
To palpate the liver during a head-to-toe physical assessment, the nurse a. places one hand on the patient's back and presses upward and inward with the other hand below the patient's right costal margin. b. places one hand on top of the other and uses the upper fingers to apply pressure and the bottom fingers to feel for the liver edge. c. presses slowly and firmly over the right costal margin with one hand and withdraws the fingers quickly after the liver edge is felt. d. places one hand under the patient's lower ribs and presses the left lower rib cage forward, palpating below the costal margin with the other hand.
A The liver is normally not palpable below the costal margin. The nurse needs to push inward below the right costal margin while lifting the patient's back slightly with the left hand. The other methods will not allow palpation of the liver.
A female patient is awaiting surgery for acute peritonitis. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Position patient with the knees flexed. b. Avoid use of opioids or sedative drugs. c. Offer frequent small sips of clear liquids. d. Assist patient to breathe deeply and cough.
A There is less peritoneal irritation with the knees flexed, which will help decrease pain. Opioids and sedatives are typically given to control pain and anxiety. Preoperative patients with peritonitis are given IV fluids for hydration. Deep breathing and coughing will increase the patient's discomfort.
The student nurse studying stomach disorders learns that the risk factors for acute gastritis include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Alcohol b. Caffeine c. Corticosteroids d. Fruit juice e. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
A,B,C,E
A nurse assesses a client with ulcerative colitis. Which complications are paired correctly with their physiologic processes? (Select all that apply.) a. Lower gastrointestinal bleeding - Erosion of the bowel wall b. Abscess formation - Localized pockets of infection develop in the ulcerated bowel lining c. Toxic megacolon - Transmural inflammation resulting in pyuria and fecaluria d. Nonmechanical bowel obstruction - Paralysis of colon resulting from colorectal cancer e. Fistula - Dilation and colonic ileus caused by paralysis of the colon
A,B,D
A nurse teaches a community group about food poisoning and gastroenteritis. Which statements should the nurse include in this group's teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "Rotavirus is more common among infants and younger children." b. "Escherichia coli diarrhea is transmitted by contact with infected animals." c. "To prevent E. coli infection, don't drink water when swimming." d. "Clients who have botulism should be quarantined within their home." e. "Parasitic diseases may not show up for 1 to 2 weeks after infection."
A,C,E
A nurse teaches a community group ways to prevent Escherichia coli infection. Which statements should the nurse include in this group's teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "Wash your hands after any contact with animals." b. "It is not necessary to buy a meat thermometer." c. "Stay away from people who are ill with diarrhea." d. "Use separate cutting boards for meat and vegetables." e. "Avoid swimming in backyard pools and using hot tubs."
A,D
Which information in a 67-year-old woman's health history will alert the nurse to the need for a more focused assessment of the musculoskeletal system? a. The patient sprained her ankle at age 13. b. The patient's mother became shorter with aging. c. The patient takes ibuprofen (Advil) for occasional headaches. d. The patient's father died of complications of miliary tuberculosis.
B A family history of height loss with aging may indicate osteoporosis, and the nurse should perform a more thorough assessment of the patient's current height and other risk factors for osteoporosis. A sprained ankle during adolescence does not place the patient at increased current risk for musculoskeletal problems. A family history of tuberculosis is not a risk factor. Occasional nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID) use does not indicate any increased musculoskeletal risk.
After teaching a client who is prescribed adalimumab (Humira) for severe ulcerative colitis, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a. "I will avoid large crowds and people who are sick." b. "I will take this medication with my breakfast each morning." c. "Nausea and vomiting are common side effects of this drug." d. "I must wash my hands after I play with my dog."
B Adalimumab (Humira) is an immune modulator that must be given via subcutaneous injection. It does not need to be given with food or milk. Nausea and vomiting are two common side effects. Adalimumab can cause immune suppression, so clients receiving the medication should avoid large crowds and people who are sick, and should practice good handwashing.
A nurse is teaching a client who experiences migraine headaches and is prescribed a beta blocker. Which statement should the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "Take this drug only when you have prodromal symptoms indicating the onset of a migraine headache." b. "Take this drug as ordered, even when feeling well, to prevent vascular changes associated with migraine headaches." c. "This drug will relieve the pain during the aura phase soon after a headache has started." d. "This medication will have no effect on your heart rate or blood pressure because you are taking it for migraines."
B Beta blockers are prescribed as prophylactic treatment to prevent the vascular changes that initiate migraine headaches. Heart rate and blood pressure will also be affected, and the client should monitor these side effects. The other responses do not discuss appropriate uses of the medication.
After teaching a client who was hospitalized for Salmonella food poisoning, a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a. "I will let my husband do all of the cooking for my family." b. "I'll take the ciprofloxacin until the diarrhea has resolved." c. "I should wash my hands with antibacterial soap before each meal." d. "I must place my dishes into the dishwasher after each meal."
B Ciprofloxacin should be taken for 10 to 14 days to treat Salmonella infection, and should not be stopped once the diarrhea has cleared. Clients should be advised to take the entire course of medication. People with Salmonella should not prepare foods for others because the infection may be spread in this way. Hands should be washed with antibacterial soap before and after eating to prevent spread of the bacteria. Dishes and eating utensils should not be shared and should be cleaned thoroughly. Clients can be carriers for up to 1 year.
A client is scheduled for a traditional esophagogastrostomy. All preoperative teaching has been completed and the client and family show good understanding. What action by the nurse is best? a. Arrange an intensive care unit tour. b. Assess the client's psychosocial status. c. Document the teaching and response. d. Have the client begin nutritional supplements.
B Clients facing this long, difficult procedure are often anxious and fearful. The nurse should now assess the client's psychosocial status and provide the care and teaching required based on this assessment. An intensive care unit tour may help decrease stress but is too limited in scope to be the best response. Documentation should be thorough, but the nurse needs to do more than document. The client should begin nutritional supplements prior to the operation, but again this response is too limited in scope.
The nurse determines that teaching regarding cobalamin injections has been effective when the patient with chronic atrophic gastritis states which of the following? a. "The cobalamin injections will prevent gastric inflammation." b. "The cobalamin injections will prevent me from becoming anemic." c. "These injections will increase the hydrochloric acid in my stomach." d. "These injections will decrease my risk for developing stomach cancer."
B Cobalamin supplementation prevents the development of pernicious anemia. Chronic gastritis may cause achlorhydria, but cobalamin does not correct this. The loss of intrinsic factor secretion with chronic gastritis is permanent, and the patient will need lifelong supplementation with cobalamin. The incidence of stomach cancer is higher in patients with chronic gastritis, but cobalamin does not reduce the risk for stomach cancer.
Which information will the nurse include for a patient with newly diagnosed gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)? a. "Peppermint tea may reduce your symptoms." b. "Keep the head of your bed elevated on blocks." c. "You should avoid eating between meals to reduce acid secretion." d. "Vigorous physical activities may increase the incidence of reflux."
B Elevating the head of the bed will reduce the incidence of reflux while the patient is sleeping. Peppermint will decrease lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure and increase the chance for reflux. Small, frequent meals are recommended to avoid abdominal distention. There is no need to make changes in physical activities because of GERD.
A nurse cares for a client who is experiencing status epilepticus. Which prescribed medication should the nurse prepare to administer? a. Atenolol (Tenormin) b. Lorazepam (Ativan) c. Phenytoin (Dilantin) d. Lisinopril (Prinivil)
B Initially, intravenous lorazepam is administered to stop motor movements. This is followed by the administration of phenytoin. Atenolol, a beta blocker, and lisinopril, an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor, are not administered for seizure activity. These medications are typically administered for hypertension and heart failure.
A nurse assesses a client with a history of epilepsy who experiences stiffening of the muscles of the arms and legs, followed by an immediate loss of consciousness and jerking of all extremities. How should the nurse document this activity? a. Atonic seizure b. Tonic-clonic seizure c. Myoclonic seizure d. Absence seizure
B Seizure activity that begins with stiffening of the arms and legs, followed by loss of consciousness and jerking of all extremities, is characteristic of a tonic-clonic seizure. An atonic seizure presents as a sudden loss of muscle tone followed by postictal confusion. A myoclonic seizure presents with a brief jerking or stiffening of extremities that may occur singly or in groups. Absence seizures present with automatisms, and the client is unaware of his or her environment.
A nurse obtains a health history on a client prior to administering prescribed sumatriptan succinate (Imitrex) for migraine headaches. Which condition should alert the nurse to hold the medication and contact the health care provider? a. Bronchial asthma b. Prinzmetal's angina c. Diabetes mellitus d. Chronic kidney disease
B Sumatriptan succinate effectively reduces pain and other associated symptoms of migraine headache by binding to serotonin receptors and triggering cranial vasoconstriction. Vasoconstrictive effects are not confined to the cranium and can cause coronary vasospasm in clients with Prinzmetal's angina. The other conditions would not affect the client's treatment.
which medications will the nurse teach the patient about whose peptic ulcer disease is associated with Helicobacter pylori? a. Sucralfate (Carafate), nystatin (Mycostatin), and bismuth (Pepto-Bismol) b. Amoxicillin (Amoxil), clarithromycin (Biaxin), and omeprazole (Prilosec) c. Famotidine (Pepcid), magnesium hydroxide (Mylanta), and pantoprazole (Protonix) d. Metoclopramide (Reglan), bethanechol (Urecholine), and promethazine (Phenergan)
B The drugs used in triple drug therapy include a proton pump inhibitor such as omeprazole and the antibiotics amoxicillin and clarithromycin. The other combinations listed are not included in the protocol for H. pylori infection.
A nurse witnesses a client begin to experience a tonic-clonic seizure and loss of consciousness. Which action should the nurse take? a. Start fluids via a large-bore catheter. b. Turn the client's head to the side. c. Administer IV push diazepam. d. Prepare to intubate the client.
B The nurse should turn the client's head to the side to prevent aspiration and allow drainage of secretions. Anticonvulsants are administered on a routine basis if a seizure is sustained. If the seizure is sustained (status epilepticus), the client must be intubated and should be administered oxygen, 0.9% sodium chloride, and IV push lorazepam or diazepam.
Results of a patient barium swallow suggest that the patient has GERD. The nurse is planning health education to address the patient's knowledge of this new diagnosis. Which of the following should the nurse encourage? A) Eating several small meals daily rather than 3 larger meals B) Keeping the head of the bed slightly elevated C) Drinking carbonated mineral water rather than soft drinks D) Avoiding food or fluid intake after 6:00 p.m.
B The patient with GERD is encouraged to elevate the head of the bed on 6- to 8-inch (15- to 20-cm) blocks. Frequent meals are not specifically encouraged and the patient should avoid food and fluid within 2 hours of bedtime. All carbonated beverages should be avoided.
After teaching a client with perineal excoriation caused by diarrhea from acute gastroenteritis, a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a. "I'll rinse my rectal area with warm water after each stool and apply zinc oxide ointment." b. "I will clean my rectal area thoroughly with toilet paper after each stool and then apply aloe vera gel." c. "I must take a sitz bath three times a day and then pat my rectal area gently but thoroughly to make sure I am dry." d. "I shall clean my rectal area with a soft cotton washcloth and then apply vitamin A and D ointment."
B Toilet paper can irritate the sensitive perineal skin, so warm water rinses or soft cotton washcloths should be used instead. Although aloe vera may facilitate healing of superficial abrasions, it is not an effective skin barrier for diarrhea. Skin barriers such as zinc oxide and vitamin A and D ointment help protect the rectal area from the excoriating effects of liquid stools. Patting the skin is recommended instead of rubbing the skin dry.
An older adult client is hospitalized with Guillain-Barré syndrome. The client is given amitriptyline (Elavil). After receiving the hand-off report, what actions by the nurse are most important? (Select all that apply.) a. Administering the medication as ordered b. Advising the client to have help getting up c. Consulting the provider about the drug d. Cutting the dose of the drug in half e. Placing the client on safety precautions
B, C, E Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant and is considered inappropriate for use in older clients due to concerns of anticholinergic effects, confusion, and safety risks. The nurse should tell the client to have help getting up, place the client on safety precautions, and consult the provider. Since this drug is not appropriate for older clients, cutting the dose in half is not warranted.
A nurse is teaching a client who has chronic headaches. Which statements about headache triggers should the nurse include in this client's plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. "Increase your intake of caffeinated beverages." b. "Incorporate physical exercise into your daily routine." c. "Avoid all alcoholic beverages." d. "Participate in a smoking cessation program." e. "Increase your intake of fruits and vegetables."
B, D, E Triggers for headaches include caffeine, smoking, and ingestion of pickled foods, so these factors should be avoided. Clients are taught to eat a balanced diet and to get adequate exercise and rest. Alcohol does not trigger chronic headaches but can enhance headaches during the headache period.
A nurse assesses a client who is experiencing an absence seizure. For which clinical manifestations should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.) a. Intermittent rigidity b. Lip smacking c. Sudden loss of muscle tone d. Brief jerking of the extremities e. Picking at clothing f. Patting of the hand on the leg
B, E, F Automatisms are characteristic of absence seizures. These behaviors consist of lip smacking, picking at clothing, and patting. Rigidity of muscles is associated with the tonic phase of a seizure, and jerking of the extremities is associated with the clonic phase of a seizure. Loss of muscle tone occurs with atonic seizures.
A 68-year-old male patient with a stroke is unconscious and unresponsive to stimuli. After learning that the patient has a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), the nurse will plan to do frequent assessments of the patient's a. apical pulse. b. bowel sounds. c. breath sounds. d. abdominal girth.
C Because GERD may cause aspiration, the unconscious patient is at risk for developing aspiration pneumonia. Bowel sounds, abdominal girth, and apical pulse will not be affected by the patient's stroke or GERD and do not require more frequent monitoring than the routine.
A nurse assesses a client who has a history of migraines. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse identify as an early sign of a migraine with aura? a. V ertigo b. Lethargy c. Visual disturbances d. Numbness of the tongue
C Early warning of impending migraine with aura usually consists of visual changes, flashing lights, or diplopia. The other manifestations are not associated with an impending migraine with aura.
A nurse is providing health promotion education to a patient diagnosed with an esophageal reflux disorder. What practice should the nurse encourage the patient to implement? A) Keep the head of the bed lowered. B) Drinka cup of hot tea before bedtime. C) Avoid carbonated drinks. D) Eat a low-protein diet.
C For a patient diagnosed with esophageal reflux disorder, the nurse should instruct the patient to keep the head of the bed elevated. Carbonated drinks, caffeine, and tobacco should be avoided. Protein limitation is not necessary.
Which medication information will the nurse identify as a concern for a patient's musculoskeletal status? a. The patient takes a daily multivitamin and calcium supplement. b. The patient takes hormone therapy (HT) to prevent "hot flashes." c. The patient has severe asthma and requires frequent therapy with oral corticosteroids. d. The patient has migraine headaches treated with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
C Frequent or chronic corticosteroid use may lead to skeletal problems such as avascular necrosis and osteoporosis. The use of HT and calcium supplements will help prevent osteoporosis. NSAID use does not increase the risk for musculoskeletal problems.
A 46-year-old female with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is experiencing increasing discomfort. Which patient statement indicates that additional teaching about GERD is needed? a. "I take antacids between meals and at bedtime each night." b. "I sleep with the head of the bed elevated on 4-inch blocks." c. "I eat small meals during the day and have a bedtime snack." d. "I quit smoking several years ago, but I still chew a lot of gum."
C GERD is exacerbated by eating late at night, and the nurse should plan to teach the patient to avoid eating at bedtime. The other patient actions are appropriate to control symptoms of GERD.
Which patient choice for a snack 2 hours before bedtime indicates that the nurse's teaching about gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) has been effective? a. Chocolate pudding b. Glass of low-fat milk c. Cherry gelatin with fruit d. Peanut butter and jelly sandwich
C Gelatin and fruit are low fat and will not decrease lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure. Foods such as chocolate are avoided because they lower LES pressure. Milk products increase gastric acid secretion. High-fat foods such as peanut butter decrease both gastric emptying and LES pressure.
A client has gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). The provider prescribes a proton pump inhibitor. About what medication should the nurse anticipate teaching the client? a. Famotidine (Pepcid) b. Magnesium hydroxide (Maalox) c. Omeprazole (Prilosec) d. Ranitidine (Zantac)
C Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor used in the treatment of GERD. Famotidine and ranitidine are histamine blockers. Maalox is an antacid.
The nurse will anticipate teaching a patient experiencing frequent heartburn about a. a barium swallow. b. radionuclide tests. c. endoscopy procedures. d. proton pump inhibitors.
D Because diagnostic testing for heartburn that is probably caused by gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is expensive and uncomfortable, proton pump inhibitors are frequently used for a short period as the first step in the diagnosis of GERD. The other tests may be used but are not usually the first step in diagnosis.
A patient has just been diagnosed with acute gastritis after presenting in distress to the emergency department with abdominal symptoms. What would be the nursing care most needed by the patient at this time? A) Teaching the patient about necessary nutritional modification B) Helping the patient weigh treatment options C) Teaching the patient about the etiology of gastritis D) Providing the patient with physical and emotional support
D For acute gastritis, the nurse provides physical and emotional support and helps the patient manage the symptoms, which may include nausea, vomiting, heartburn, and fatigue. The scenario describes a newly diagnosed patient; teaching about the etiology of the disease, lifestyle modifications, or various treatment options would be best provided at a later time.
A patient seeking care because of recurrent heartburn and regurgitation is subsequently diagnosed with a hiatal hernia. Which of the following should the nurse include in health education? A) "Drinking beverages after your meal, rather than with your meal, may bring some relief." B) "It's best to avoid dry foods, such as rice and chicken, because they're harder to swallow." C) "Many patients obtain relief by taking over-the-counter antacids 30 minutes before eating." D) "Instead of eating three meals a day, try eating smaller amounts more often."
D Management for a hiatal hernia includes frequent, small feedings that can pass easily through the esophagus. Avoiding beverages and particular foods or taking OTC antacids are not noted to be beneficial.
The nurse who notes that a 59-year-old female patient has lost 1 inch in height over the past 2 years will plan to teach the patient about a. discography studies. b. myelographic testing. c. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). d. dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA).
D The decreased height and the patient's age suggest that the patient may have osteoporosis and that bone density testing is needed. Discography, MRI, and myelography are typically done for patients with current symptoms caused by musculoskeletal dysfunction and are not the initial diagnostic tests for osteoporosis.
After teaching a client newly diagnosed with epilepsy, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a. "I will wear my medical alert bracelet at all times." b. "While taking my epilepsy medications, I will not drink any alcoholic beverages." c. "I will tell my doctor about my prescription and over-the-counter medications." d. "If I am nauseated, I will not take my epilepsy medication."
D The nurse must emphasize that antiepileptic drugs must be taken even if the client is nauseous. Discontinuing the medication can predispose the client to seizure activity and status epilepticus. The client should not drink alcohol while taking seizure medications. The client should wear a medical alert bracelet and should make the doctor aware of all medications to prevent complications of polypharmacy.
A 27-year-old female patient is admitted to the hospital for evaluation of right lower quadrant abdominal pain with nausea and vomiting. Which action should the nurse take? a. Encourage the patient to sip clear liquids. b. Assess the abdomen for rebound tenderness. c. Assist the patient to cough and deep breathe. d. Apply an ice pack to the right lower quadrant.
D The patient's clinical manifestations are consistent with appendicitis, and application of an ice pack will decrease inflammation at the area. Checking for rebound tenderness frequently is unnecessary and uncomfortable for the patient. The patient should be NPO in case immediate surgery is needed. The patient will need to know how to cough and deep breathe postoperatively, but coughing will increase pain at this time.
The nurse explaining esomeprazole (Nexium) to a patient with recurring heartburn describes that the medication a. reduces gastroesophageal reflux by increasing the rate of gastric emptying. b. neutralizes stomach acid and provides relief of symptoms in a few minutes. c. coats and protects the lining of the stomach and esophagus from gastric acid. d. treats gastroesophageal reflux disease by decreasing stomach acid production.
D The proton pump inhibitors decrease the rate of gastric acid secretion. Promotility drugs such as metoclopramide (Reglan) increase the rate of gastric emptying. Cryoprotective medications such as sucralfate (Carafate) protect the stomach. Antacids neutralize stomach acid and work rapidly.
A client is being taught about drug therapy for Helicobacter pylori infection. What assessment by the nurse is most important? a. Alcohol intake of 1 to 2 drinks per week b. Family history of H. pylori infection c. Former smoker still using nicotine patches d. Willingness to adhere to drug therapy
D Treatment for this infection involves either triple or quadruple drug therapy, which may make it difficult for clients to remain adherent. The nurse should assess the client's willingness and ability to follow the regimen. The other assessment findings are not as critical.
A 50-year-old man vomiting blood-streaked fluid is admitted to the hospital with acute gastritis. To determine possible risk factors for gastritis, the nurse will ask the patient about a. the amount of saturated fat in the diet. b. any family history of gastric or colon cancer. c. a history of a large recent weight gain or loss. d. use of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
D Use of an NSAID is associated with damage to the gastric mucosa, which can result in acute gastritis. Family history, recent weight gain or loss, and fatty foods are not risk factors for acute gastritis.