FSC 1&2 Midterm
23. Training and performance qualifications for firefighters are specified in which NFPA standard? A) 472 B) 1001 C) 1021 D) 1500
B) 1001
25. What does the "buddy system" refer to? A) The passport personnel accountability system B) A team of two partners who maintain constant contact C) The tradition of "No one left behind" D) Two-in, two-out
B) A team of two partners who maintain constant contact
10. Where was the first fire insurance company formed in America? A) Chicago, Illinois B) Charleston, South Carolina C) New York, New York D) Boston, Massachusetts
B) Charleston, South Carolina
9. Which statement about the care and use of PPE is correct? A) Damp turnout coats provide an extra degree of thermal protection. B) In hot weather, resist the temptation to remove your turnout coat when at the rehabilitation station. C) Special cleaning solutions are available for home laundering of turnout coats. D) Accumulated dirt or contamination reduces the protective quality of turnout coats
D) Accumulated dirt or contamination reduces the protective quality of turnout coats
58. The USFA recommends establishing a rehabilitation operation when the chill factor drops to _____ or lower. A) 10ºF (-12ºC) B) 15ºF (-9ºC) C) 20ºF (-7ºC) D) 25ºF (-4ºC)
A) 10ºF (-12ºC)
78. Which NFPA standard covers fire hose? A) 1962 B) 1972 C) 1982 D) 1992
A) 1962
53. Which NFPA standard covers protective clothing and equipment for wildland firefighting? A) 1977 B) 1978 C) 1979 D) 1980
A) 1977
16. All ladder rescues should be performed with at least _____ fire fighters whenever possible. A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
A) 2
3. What is the minimum recommended pressure for water coming from a fire hydrant? A) 20 psi (138 kPa) B) 30 psi (207 kPa) C) 40 psi (276 kPa) D) 50 psi (345 kPa)
A) 20 psi (138 kPa)
74. During annual testing, supply hose is tested at _____ psi (1379 kPa). A) 200 B) 300 C) 400 D) 500
A) 200
67. The upper temperature limit in which people can survive is _____. A) 212°F (100°C) B) 270°F (132°C) C) 318°F (158°C) D) 350°F (176°C)
A) 212°F (100°C)
25. Which size of coupling are the outlets on most fire hydrants sized to fit? A) 2½" (65 cm) B) 3" (75 mm) C) 3½" (90 mm) D) 4" (100 mm)
A) 2½" (65 cm)
51. Matter exists in _____ states. A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6
A) 3
81. What is the maximum length of the connected hose during hose testing? A) 300 ft (91 m) B) 400 ft (122 m) C) 500 ft (152 m) D) 600 ft (183 m)
A) 300 ft (91 m)
34. Master streams flow a minimum of _____. A) 350 gpm (1325 lpm) B) 400 gpm (1514 lpm) C) 450 gpm (1703 lpm) D) 500 gpm (1893 lpm)
A) 350 gpm (1325 lpm)
50. What is the minimum measurement for a ventilation opening cut in a roof? A) 4 ft by 4 ft (1.2 m by 1.2 m) B) 5 ft by 5 ft (1.5 m by 1.5 m) C) 6 ft by 6 ft (1.8 m by 1.8 m) D) 6 ft by 8 ft (1.8 m by 2.4 m)
A) 4 ft by 4 ft (1.2 m by 1.2 m)
82. During hose testing, pressure is maintained for _____ minutes. A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20
A) 5
13. Most smooth-bore nozzles are designed to operate at which pressure? A) 50 psi (345 kPa) B) 75 psi (517 kPa) C) 100 psi (690 kPa) D) 125 psi (862 kPa)
A) 50 psi (345 kPa)
10. Which class of fire involves ordinary combustibles such as wood and paper? A) A B) B C) C D) D
A) A
4. Which class of fire includes cloth? A) A B) B C) C D) D
A) A
41. Which class of fire is depicted in the pictograph system by a burning trash can next to a wood fire? A) A B) B C) D D) K
A) A
9. Which class of fire extinguisher includes a number in its classification? A) A B) C C) D D) K
A) A
27. Which of the following is a component of a BLEVE? A) A pressurized flammable liquid vessel B) A "closed box" structure C) A flammable gas leak D) Contact with an energized electrical circuit
A) A pressurized flammable liquid vessel
25. Which statement best describes a primary search? A) A primary search is a quick search for victims in immediate danger. B) A primary search is a rapid initial assessment of life-threatening conditions. C) A primary search is an extensive and thorough search for potential victims. D) A primary search is a rapid search for victims after initial knockdown.
A) A primary search is a quick search for victims in immediate danger.
48. Which statement about straight streams is correct? A) A straight stream is discharged from an adjustable fog nozzle. B) A straight stream is the same as a solid stream. C) A straight stream is discharged from a smooth-bore nozzle. D) A straight stream resists breakup better than a solid stream.
A) A straight stream is discharged from an adjustable fog nozzle.
6. Which term describes a power-operated ladder that is permanently mounted on a fire apparatus? A) Aerial B) Extension C) Snorkel D) Quint
A) Aerial
57. Which statement best summarizes when a dry chemical extinguisher should be serviced and recharged? A) After any discharge B) After a discharge resulting in loss of 10 percent of pressurization C) After a discharge resulting in loss of 20 percent of pressurization D) After a discharge resulting in loss of 30 percent of pressurization
A) After any discharge
7. When is a secondary search performed? A) After the fire is under control or fully extinguished B) Immediately upon completion of the primary search C) As soon as personnel become available D) Simultaneously with the primary search
A) After the fire is under control or fully extinguished
2. What does the "A" stand for in "CAD"? A) Aided B) Automatic C) Auxiliary D) Ancillary
A) Aided
12. What is the correct procedure when a member of a fire company has to leave a structure to change an air cylinder? A) All company members exit together B) The member and his or her appointed buddy exit C) The member exits alone if he or she can do so safely D) Those members who are low on air exit together
A) All company members exit together
16. Which statement best summarizes the types of incidents for which the incident command system (ICS) be should be implemented? A) All emergency incidents B) Incidents involving more than a single company C) Incidents where the incident commander's span of control is exceeded D) Incidents exceeding a single operational period
A) All emergency incidents
63. What is a common use for a hose clamp? A) Allow a hydrant to be opened before the supply line is connected to the pump intake B) Control a burst section of hose line without interrupting water flow C) Allow for a quick-connect of an attack line to a pumper when the threads do not match D) Regulate pressure/volume in a single hose
A) Allow a hydrant to be opened before the supply line is connected to the pump intake
51. What is the most common source of saturated fats? A) Animal products B) Dark-leaf vegetables C) Cereal grains D) Fish
A) Animal products
19. When should you declare a mayday? A) As soon as you think you might be in trouble B) When you find a victim and need assistance with the rescue C) When you find yourself in an IDLH atmosphere D) When you have been unable to self-rescue
A) As soon as you think you might be in trouble
9. What is a standard method for managing the workload for fire fighters working a high-rise fire? A) Assign several companies to do the work normally assigned to one company B) Enforce a 1:1 work time/rehabilitation time rule C) Hoist, rather than carry, tools and equipment D) Do not require PPE for personnel working in smoke-proof stairwells
A) Assign several companies to do the work normally assigned to one company
53. What does the "A" stand for in "LUNAR"? A) Assignment B) Air supply C) Area D) Assistance needed
A) Assignment
55. Where should a search rope be anchored? A) At the entry point B) To each rescuer C) To a hauling system D) To a second exit
A) At the entry point
49. Which construction type is particularly susceptible to extension of fire upward through walls? A) Balloon frame B) Ordinary C) Heavy timber D) Platform
A) Balloon frame
27. Which foam application method is best for an open-top storage tank fire? A) Bankshot (bank-down) B) Rain-down C) Sweep (roll-on) D) Subsurface injection
A) Bankshot (bank-down)
59. What is one of the 10 standard wildland firefighting orders? A) Base all actions on current and expected fire behavior B) Do not attempt to outrun a fire uphill C) Focus on what is not burning, rather than what is burning D) Attack the flanks of the fire, not the head
A) Base all actions on current and expected fire behavior
38. What is the correct term for a radio system permanently mounted in a building? A) Base station B) Transmitter C) Land radio system D) Repeater system
A) Base station
18. What is the term for the burned area of a wildland fire? A) Black B) Body C) Island D) Heel
A) Black
52. Which type of rope consists of individual strands twisted together? A) Braided B) Laid C) Twine D) Twisted
A) Braided
59. Which ICS organizational level is established when the number of divisions and groups exceeds the operations section chief's span of control? A) Branch B) Division C) Group D) Unit
A) Branch
61. Which part of the ladder is placed against the ground when the ladder is raised? A) Butt B) Dog C) Heel D) Bed
A) Butt
50. How do multipurpose dry chemical agents prevent rekindling of Class A fuel? A) By forming a crust over the fuel B) By penetrating the fuel C) By attracting and holding moisture D) By interrupting the chemical chain reaction
A) By forming a crust over the fuel
28. Which statement about a wireless phone calling 911 is correct? A) Callers may report emergencies without knowing the location. B) The calls are automatically prioritized to the rear of the queue. C) Enhanced 911 system features eliminate the problem of locating the caller. D) The call is routed to a national center, resulting in considerable delay in their receipt by the local telecommunication center.
A) Callers may report emergencies without knowing the location.
35. Which of the following is a commonly used device in rope rescue operations? A) Carabiner B) Jake plate C) Power winch D) Come along
A) Carabiner
62. Which item is commonly used to connect a rope to an anchor plate? A) Carabiner B) Webbing C) Anchor sling D) Gibbs
A) Carabiner
2. Which kind of steel has been specially treated to resist cutting by normal means? A) Case-hardened B) Alloy C) Tempered D) Ductile
A) Case-hardened
1. What is the first step in the process of response? A) Checking PPE B) Mounting the apparatus C) Determining the route of travel D) Belting in
A) Checking PPE
18. What is sounding? A) Checking the condition of a roof by striking it with a tool B) Probing a closet or confined space with a tool handle C) Using a screwdriver or similar tool to check the depth of char D) Listening for fire inside concealed spaces
A) Checking the condition of a roof by striking it with a tool
55. What should be done after a self-closing door is forced? A) Chock the door in the open position B) Allow the mechanism to resume its normal operation C) Return the door to the closed position D) Cut the actuation cable
A) Chock the door in the open position
47. What is the lower structural member of a truss called? A) Chord B) Beam C) Girder D) Cantilever
A) Chord
53. Which statement about foam fire extinguishers is correct? A) Class B foam extinguishers may be used to some effect on Class A fires. B) Class A foam extinguishers may be used to some effect on Class B fires. C) Both Class A and Class B extinguishers may be used to some effect on either class of fire. D) Neither Class A nor Class B extinguishers can be used to any effect on the other class of fire
A) Class B foam extinguishers may be used to some effect on Class A fires.
24. Which type of breathing apparatus recycles the user's exhaled air? A) Closed circuit B) Air-purifying respirator C) Supplied air D) Powered air
A) Closed circuit
3. Which tool is a short pike pole designed for use in tight spaces? A) Closet hook B) K tool C) Plaster hook D) Clemens hook
A) Closet hook
25. Which knot is used to tie off a ladder halyard? A) Clove hitch B) Sheepshank C) Figure eight D) Bowline on a bight
A) Clove hitch
38. Which type of ladder can be converted from a straight ladder to an A-frame configuration? A) Combination B) Folding C) Attic D) Fresno
A) Combination
21. What is a term for rapid oxidation that produces heat and light? A) Combustion B) Catalyzation C) Vaporization D) Pyrolysis
A) Combustion
39. Which tool is a hand-operated winch? A) Come along B) Porto-Power C) Block-and-tackle D) Rabbet tool
A) Come along
4. Which of the following is a key characteristic of the incident command system? A) Common terminology B) Professional financial accounting C) Decentralized command authority D) Sharing of human resources
A) Common terminology
34. What is used to pressurize a stored-pressure water extinguisher? A) Compressed air B) Nitrogen C) Water D) Carbon dioxide
A) Compressed air
50. Which extinguishing agent is best suited for use in wildland fire operations? A) Compressed-air foam B) AFFF C) Dry chemical D) Carbon dioxide
A) Compressed-air foam
58. Which kind of rescue takes place in a location such as a tank, silo, underground electrical vault, or storm drain? A) Confined space B) Trench C) Technical D) Urban search and rescue
A) Confined space
41. The majority of fires are extinguished by which method? A) Cooling the fuel B) Excluding oxygen C) Suppressing vapor emission D) Inhibiting the chemical chain reaction
A) Cooling the fuel
10. Which saw is designed for cutting curves into wood? A) Coping B) Carpenter's handsaw C) Hacksaw D) Fret
A) Coping
48. On a two-fire-fighter shoulder ladder carry, what should the fire fighter closer to the butt end do? A) Cover the butt spur with a gloved hand B) Carry the ladder chocks C) Extend the free arm forward D) Decide on the best placement
A) Cover the butt spur with a gloved hand
27. What are laminated glass windows likely to do when exposed to a fire? A) Crack but remain in place B) Shatter into small nuggets with dull edges C) Break irregularly into long, sharp-edged shards D) Melt
A) Crack but remain in place
35. How does the fire fighter move when performing the fire fighter drag? A) Crawling on hands and knees B) Walking forward C) Walking backward D) Duck-walking
A) Crawling on hands and knees
47. What is the ICS term for a group of fire fighters with an assigned leader who are working without an apparatus? A) Crew B) Group C) Team D) Unit
A) Crew
51. Which program is specifically designed to prevent harmful emotional or psychological reactions to extremely stressful incidents? A) Critical incident stress management B) Employee assistance program C) Crisis intervention and assistance D) Peer counseling
A) Critical incident stress management
17. What is the quickest way to force entry through a security roll-up door? A) Cut the door with a torch or saw B) Pry the latch bar away from the keeper C) Pry upward from the bottom of the door D) Cut the latch bar with a rotary saw
A) Cut the door with a torch or saw
47. Which extinguishing method is being used when a foam blanket is placed over the surface of a burning liquid? A) Cutting off the oxygen supply B) Inhibiting the chemical chain reaction C) Diluting the fuel D) Cooling the fuel
A) Cutting off the oxygen supply
29. What does the second "D" stand for in "TDD"? A) Deaf B) Dispatch C) Dedicated D) Dialer
A) Deaf
20. Which type of wildland fire attack is made on the fire's burning edge? A) Direct B) Offensive C) Frontal D) Indirect
A) Direct
45. What is the most reliable method for determining whether there is hidden fire? A) Direct inspection B) Thermal imaging C) Odor/sight of smoke D) Atmospheric monitoring
A) Direct inspection
50. What is the best way to gather information about the size and location of a fire? A) Direct visual observation B) Use of thermal imaging C) Reports from occupants D) Reading the smoke
A) Direct visual observation
23. Which area is the second search priority? A) Directly above the fire B) Between the fire and the main exit C) Directly adjacent to the fire D) Directly under the fire
A) Directly above the fire
32. Which term can be defined as the set of guidelines that a department establishes for its fire fighters? A) Discipline B) Training C) Unity of command D) Span of control
A) Discipline
19. What does the "D" stand for in "CAD"? A) Dispatch B) Disaster C) Department D) Decision
A) Dispatch
38. Which of the following is one of the four basic management principles used by fire departments? A) Division of labor B) Management by objective C) Common terminology D) Delegation of authority
A) Division of labor
55. Which precaution should you take when raising the fly section of an extension ladder? A) Do not wrap the halyard around your hands B) Set the dogs after each click C) Maintain a firm grip on the rungs D) Set your feet against the inside of the rails
A) Do not wrap the halyard around your hands
48. What is the term for preparing a knot by tightening it and removing twists, kinks, and slack from the rope? A) Dressing B) Squaring C) Finishing D) Following
A) Dressing
43. Ideally, when should salvage operations begin? A) During fire attack B) After the safety officer has tested the atmosphere C) After the completion of the cause/origin investigation D) After the fire is declared under control
A) During fire attack
47. Which device is used to protect a rope when it must be dragged over a sharp or abrasive surface? A) Edge protector B) Sheath C) Pulley D) Bolster
A) Edge protector
23. From which end of the rope can a clove hitch accept tension without coming untied? A) Either end B) The working end only C) The running end only D) Neither end
A) Either end
42. What is a danger to consider when attacking a Class C fire? A) Electrical injury B) Flashover C) Permeation of PPE D) Backdraft
A) Electrical injury
31. What is the term for building components consisting of individual pieces of wood glued together? A) Engineered B) Lightweight C) Modular D) Manufactured
A) Engineered
54. What is a basic ICS concept that applies to every incident? A) Every fire fighter always reports to a single supervisor B) Command is passed to the second-in unit upon its arrival C) Command is always transferred to a ranking officer D) The operations section chief is activated on every incident
A) Every fire fighter always reports to a single supervisor
1. How much of the body is structural firefighting personal protective equipment (PPE) designed to cover? A) Every square inch B) All but the neck C) All but the ears D) All but the wrists
A) Every square inch
11. What is the method of choice for extinguishing most Class B fires? A) Excluding the oxygen B) Cooling the fuel C) Interrupting the chemical chain reaction D) Dispersing the vapors
A) Excluding the oxygen
9. What is another term for flammability limits? A) Explosive limits B) Volatility index C) Oxidation range D) Pyrophoric limits
A) Explosive limits
66. Which type of ladder should be carried by more than one fire fighter? A) Extension B) Single C) Roof D) Attic
A) Extension
58. Which lift/drag requires two rescuers? A) Extremities B) Webbing sling C) Standing D) Blanket
A) Extremities
55. Which method of communication for sharing transfer-of-command information is most effective? A) Face to face B) Radio report C) Cell phone D) Written report with diagrams
A) Face to face
39. Which agency licenses a fire department to operate a radio system? A) Federal Communications Commission B) The state office of emergency services C) Federal Office of Communications D) Federal Emergency Management Agency
A) Federal Communications Commission
55. What is the most basic method of regaining orientation in a zero-visibility environment? A) Find and follow a hose line B) Listen for the sound of the apparatus motor C) Probe the walls for a window or door D) Activate the PASS
A) Find and follow a hose line
36. Which is the primary fire hazard of ordinary construction? A) Fire extension through concealed spaces B) High fire loading C) Difficulty in ventilating the structure D) Heat-related failure of steel trusses
A) Fire extension through concealed spaces
51. What is the primary fire hazard associated with ordinary construction? A) Fire extension through concealed spaces B) High fire loading C) Difficulty in ventilating the structure D) Heat-related failure of steel trusses
A) Fire extension through concealed spaces
18. Class B foam is used for which type of fire? A) Flammable liquids B) Electronic equipment C) Combustible metals D) Organic materials
A) Flammable liquids
26. Which type of light projects a diffuse light over a wide area? A) Flood B) Spot C) Halogen D) LED
A) Flood
6. What is the rabbet tool used for? A) Forcing open a locked door B) Making a temporary repair to a burst hose C) Opening a hydrant D) Anchoring a rope
A) Forcing open a locked door
53. Which type of hose ranges in size from 1" to 1½" (25 to 38 mm) in diameter? A) Forestry B) Medium C) Handline D) Booster
A) Forestry
47. Which of the following is a portable electrical power source? A) Generator B) Alternator C) Inverter D) Transformer
A) Generator
4. What is the dispatcher's first responsibility? A) Get the information needed to dispatch the appropriate units to the correct location B) Calm and reassure the caller C) Provide the caller with real-time, emergency instructions, such as how to perform CPR D) Determine the nature and extend of the incident being reported
A) Get the information needed to dispatch the appropriate units to the correct location
48. What is the body's primary source of energy? A) Glucose B) Insulin C) Electrolytes D) Protein
A) Glucose
30. Which term means the level at which the ground intersects the foundation of a structure? A) Grade B) Camber C) Fill D) Shoulder
A) Grade
14. What is an advantage of a fog-stream nozzle? A) Greater heat absorption per gallon discharged B) Lower operating pressure C) Less disruption of thermal layering D) Longer stream reach
A) Greater heat absorption per gallon discharged
5. Which pipe pattern supplies water to hydrants from more than one direction? A) Grid B) Engineered C) Duplex D) Parallel
A) Grid
30. What is the second phase of fire? A) Growth B) Flameover C) Fully developed D) Incipient
A) Growth
8. Which material is commonly used to protect steel and wood structural members from fire? A) Gypsum B) Fiberglass C) Lightweight concrete slurry D) Expanded urethane
A) Gypsum
6. Which tool combines an adz, a pick, and a claw? A) Halligan bar B) Pick-head axe C) Ram bar D) Clemens
A) Halligan bar
34. What is the term for the rope or cable used to extend or hoist the fly section of an extension ladder? A) Halyard B) Hawser C) Sheet D) Leader
A) Halyard
30. Which item is an optional component of the structural firefighting ensemble? A) Hearing protection B) Personal alert safety system C) Protective hood D) Eye protection
A) Hearing protection
1. Which of the following is a component of the wildland fire triangle? A) Heat B) Humidity C) Fuel moi D) Wind
A) Heat
6. At which types of incidents should a rehabilitation center be established? A) High-intensity/long-duration incidents B) Incidents requiring the use of full PPE C) All fire incidents D) All incidents
A) High-intensity/long-duration incidents
15. Which item is necessary to include in a life safety rope's documentation? A) History of use B) Vendor C) Recommended storage method D) Expiration date
A) History of use
39. Which family of knots is used primarily to attach a rope around an object? A) Hitches B) Bends C) Bights D) Loops
A) Hitches
13. What is a common sign or symptom of heat stroke? A) Hot, dry skin B) Cramping C) Profuse sweating D) Bradycardia
A) Hot, dry skin
17. The structural components of a Type _____ building will not burn. A) II B) III C) IV D) V
A) II
15. Where should the tip of a ladder be placed for rescue operations from a window? A) Immediately below the sill B) Into the opening about three rungs C) On either side of the window, halfway up the opening D) About 3 feet above the window
A) Immediately below the sill
58. Who develops the incident action plan? A) Incident commander B) Operations section chief C) Planning section chief D) Command staff
A) Incident commander
44. What does the "I" stand for in "RIC"? A) Intervention B) Intermediate C) Immediate D) Initial
A) Intervention
8. When performing size-up, which question can most reliably be answered based on the time of day? A) Is the building occupied? B) Is the alarm a result of system malfunction? C) Was the fire intentionally set? D) Is the fire threatening exposures?
A) Is the building occupied?
46. What is the term for an area of unburned land surrounded by burned land? A) Island B) Pocket C) Finger D) Heel
A) Island
43. In a jacketed fire hose, which function does the outer jacket serve? A) It adds strength that allows the hose to withstand water pressure B) It is the waterproof layer of the hose C) It reduces friction loss D) It resists kinking
A) It adds strength that allows the hose to withstand water pressure
33. What qualifies a hammer as a sledgehammer? A) It is long and heavy enough to require the use of both hands. B) It has a pick on one side of the head. C) The head weighs at least 6 pounds. D) The head is round.
A) It is long and heavy enough to require the use of both hands
46. Which statement summarizes the overall effect of negative-pressure ventilation? A) It pulls smoke out. B) It displaces the contaminated atmosphere. C) It pushes smoke out. D) It releases the contaminated atmosphere.
A) It pulls smoke out.
36. When should a full rehabilitation center be established? A) It varies with conditions and the nature of the incident B) At all incidents requiring the use of PPE C) For any incident occurring in extreme weather D) At all incidents
A) It varies with conditions and the nature of the incident
64. Which class of fire involves combustible cooking oils and fats? A) K B) A C) B D) D
A) K
68. Which class of fire is depicted in the pictograph system by a fire in a frying pan? A) K B) B C) C D) D
A) K
3. What is the primary function of the moisture barrier in structural firefighting PPE? A) Keep liquids and vapors from reaching the skin B) Protect the body from high temperatures C) Promote evaporation of perspiration D) Prevent exposure to pathogens
A) Keep liquids and vapors from reaching the skin
23. What is a characteristic of fine fuels? A) Large surface area relative to volume B) Resistance to rapid changes in fuel moisture C) Long burn duration D) Difficulty in extinguishing them
A) Large surface area relative to volume
47. Which part of a door lock catches and holds the door frame? A) Latch B) Mortise C) Striker D) Shackle
A) Latch
25. What is the ICS title for the person in charge of a task force? A) Leader B) Director C) Officer D) Supervisor
A) Leader
12. What is a typical use for an air bag? A) Lifting heavy objects B) Shoring up trenches C) Extending cribbing D) Displacing a liquid or gas
A) Lifting heavy objects
70. Who first developed the RECEO tactical model? A) Lloyd Layman B) Alan Brunacini C) John Norman D) James Smith
A) Lloyd Layman
18. Which ICS section is responsible for providing needed services and support resources? A) Logistics B) Liaison C) Operations D) Safety
A) Logistics
24. During short-duration incidents, which type of nourishment is ideal for fire fighters to sustain peak performance levels? A) Low-sugar, high-protein sports bars B) Equal portions of protein, carbohydrate, and fat C) Caffeinated soda D) Plain water only
A) Low-sugar, high-protein sports bars
76. Which feature of hose couplings is used to aid in the coupling and uncoupling of hose? A) Lug B) Shank C) Higbee cut D) Spanner
A) Lug
23. What is the purpose of the Higbee indicators? A) Make hose coupling easier and faster B) Indicate when the hose may be pulling out of the coupling C) Help disoriented fire fighters find their way out of a building D) Identify the thread standard type
A) Make hose coupling easier and faster
28. Which natural fiber is commonly used to make ropes? A) Manila B) Wool C) Horse hair D) Coir
A) Manila
56. What expels the extinguishing agent from a pump tank water extinguisher? A) Manual effort B) Pressure cartridge C) Compressed air D) Gravity
A) Manual effort
7. Which type of load is most commonly used for preconnected attack lines? A) Minuteman B) Accordion C) Horseshoe D) Skid
A) Minuteman
16. What is the term for a two-way radio that is permanently mounted in a vehicle? A) Mobile radio B) Portable radio C) Hi-band radio D) Repeater
A) Mobile radio
32. Which component of structural turnout coats is critical for protecting the body from steam burns? A) Moisture barrier B) Thermal barrier C) Outer shell D) Insulation
A) Moisture barrier
39. How often should ground ladders be visually inspected? A) Monthly B) Quarterly C) Annually D) Biannually
A) Monthly
2. What is the term for the process in which heated products of combustion spread outward and downward? A) Mushrooming B) Stack effect C) Stratification D) Thermal imbalance
A) Mushrooming
24. Which critical piece of information is required by the telecommunicator to initiate a dispatch? A) Nature of the situation B) Reporting party identity C) Callback number D) Severity of the situation
A) Nature of the situation
9. When is it acceptable to use a roof ladder as a free-hanging ladder? A) Never B) If the ladder will support the weight of only one person C) If the total supported weight will not exceed 500 lb D) If the ladder was manufactured after 1993
A) Never
47. How much risk should fire fighters take to attempt to recover a victim who has no chance of surviving? A) None B) A little C) A lot D) Unlimited
A) None
25. What does the "N" stand for in "ANI"? A) Number B) Network C) Normal D) Name
A) Number
41. What is a common location for a post indicator valve? A) On an exterior wall B) Next to the water meter C) On the main system riser D) In a utility or mechanical room
A) On an exterior wall
2. Where do salvage operations usually begin? A) On the floor below the fire floor B) In high-value areas C) In the least damaged area D) As close to the seat of the fire as possible
A) On the floor below the fire floor
17. Where is water directed during hydraulic ventilation? A) Out a window or door B) Through the roof opening C) Just over the seat of the fire D) Over the roof opening
A) Out a window or door
11. A threaded stem indicates the valve position on which sprinkler control valve? A) Outside stem and yoke B) Post indicator C) Gate D) Butterfly
A) Outside stem and yoke
44. What is the floor-to-floor height of a commercial structure? A) 8-9 ft (2.5-2.75 m) B) 9-10 ft (2.75-3 m) C) 10-12 ft (3-3.65 m) D) 12-14 ft (3.65-4.25 m)
C) 10-12 ft (3-3.65 m)
33. The lighting and power equipment used on an emergency scene generally operate at ________. A) 110-volt DC B) 220-volt DC C) 110-volt AC D) 220-volt AC
C) 110-volt AC
61. Which NFPA standard requires all fire fighters to be in their seats, with seat belts secured, whenever the fire apparatus is in motion? A) 1002 B) 1021 C) 1500 D) 1921
C) 1500
24. Medical requirements for fire fighters are specified in which NFPA standard? A) 904 B) 1002 C) 1582 D) 1962
C) 1582
63. Which NFPA standard sets minimum performance standards for aerial ladders and elevating platforms? A) 1450 B) 1724 C) 1901 D) 1932
C) 1901
32. In which decade did efforts begin to establish a standardized incident command system? A) 1940s B) 1950s C) 1970s D) 1990s
C) 1970s
26. Which NFPA standard deals with protective clothing and equipment for wildland firefighting? A) 1072 B) 1214 C) 1977 D) 1982
C) 1977
27. Which NFPA standard deals with open-circuit self-contained breathing apparatus? A) 1622 B) 1801 C) 1981 D) 1990
C) 1981
50. Which NFPA standard covers the criteria for design, construction, and performance of life safety rope and related equipment? A) 1981 B) 1982 C) 1983 D) 1984
C) 1983
15. How close must a fire engine get to a static water source to be able to draft directly from it through hard suction hose? A) A distance equal to the total length of the available hard suction hose minus 10 ft B) 10 ft (3 m) C) 20 ft (6 m) D) 30 ft (9 m)
C) 20 ft (6 m)
54. What is the correct operating pressure for an in-line foam educator? A) 100 psi (689 kPa) B) 150 psi (1034 kPa) C) 200 psi (1379 kPa) D) 250 psi (1724 kPa)
C) 200 psi (1379 kPa)
2. In general, what volume does a 2½" (64-mm) handline flow? A) 175 gpm (662 lpm) B) 200 gpm (757 lpm) C) 250 gpm (946 lpm) D) 300 gpm (1135 lpm)
C) 250 gpm (946 lpm)
58. How many points of contact should a fire fighter maintain with the ladder when checking the stability of a roof surface? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
C) 3
18. The two-fire-fighter shoulder can be used with extension ladders up to _____ long. A) 24 ft (7.5 m) B) 30 ft (9 m) C) 35 ft (10.5 m) D) 40 ft (12 m)
C) 35 ft (10.5 m)
32. The distance between fire fighters in a safety zone and the flames should be a minimum of _____ times the flame height. A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
C) 4
34. Type III construction is usually limited to a maximum height of _____ stories. A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
C) 4
64. According to the NFPA, rehab should be required after _____ minutes of intense work without SCBA. A) 20 B) 30 C) 40 D) 60
C) 40
32. Generally speaking, a 1" (25 cm) booster hose can flow __________. A) 15 to 30 gpm (57 to 114 lpm) B) 20 to 40 gpm (76 to 151 lpm) C) 40 to 50 gpm (151 to 189 lpm) D) 50 to 75 gpm (189 to 284 lpm)
C) 40 to 50 gpm (151 to 189 lpm)
31. There are _____ major steps in processing a report of an emergency. A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6
C) 5
22. For a ladder contacting the wall 20 ft (6 m) above the ground, the base should be _____ from the wall. A) 3 ft (1 m) B) 4 ft (1.2 m) C) 5 ft (1.5 m) D) 6 ft (1.8 m)
C) 5 ft (1.5 m)
36. The generally accepted time for a unit to be dispatched after a communications center receives a call is _____ seconds or less. A) 30 B) 45 C) 60 D) 90
C) 60
28. Carbohydrates should account for approximately _____ of calories in a balanced diet. A) 30 percent B) 45 percent C) 60 percent D) 75 percent
C) 60 percent
26. In general, the maximum reach of a CO2 extinguisher is _____ feet. A) 32 B) 16 C) 8 D) 4
C) 8
57. The USFA recommends establishing a rehabilitation operation when the heat stress index reaches _____. A) 80ºF (27ºC) B) 85ºF (29ºC) C) 90ºF (32ºC) D) 95ºF (35ºC)
C) 90ºF (32ºC)
17. When performing size-up, what is the most reliable source of facts about a structure? A) Eyewitness accounts B) Reporting party information C) A preincident plan D) Initial report
C) A preincident plan
12. Which of the following is a component of a typical natural gas service? A) A storage tank B) A protective dome C) A pressure-reducing valve D) A cylinder-mounted petcock
C) A pressure-reducing valve
11. How has the widespread use of cellular phones affected the automatic location identification (ALI) feature of enhanced 911 systems? A) ALI does not function for wireless calls B) ALI is not needed C) ALI may be unable to provide a specific location D) The location database is updated automatically
C) ALI may be unable to provide a specific location
43. What does the "A" stand for in "IAP"? A) Annual B) Advisor C) Action D) Acting
C) Action
50. Which of the following is the best definition of salvage? A) Efforts taken to contain an incident to its area of origin B) The search for and extinguishment of hidden or residual fire C) Actions taken to save property and reduce damage caused by fire D) Procedures for the preservation of evidence of fire cause
C) Actions taken to save property and reduce damage caused by fire
59. Which of the following is a component of the seven-part rehabilitation model? A) Injury prevention B) Air cylinder replacement C) Active/passive warming/cooling D) Check-in/check-out
C) Active/passive warming/cooling
52. Which type of nozzle is used most commonly with fluoroprotein foam? A) Fog B) Water aspirating C) Aerating D) Solid bore
C) Aerating
13. Which method is usually recommended for drying ropes? A) A laundry dryer B) A hose dryer C) Air drying D) Direct sunlight
C) Air drying
12. How do thermopane windows affect fire behavior? A) Decrease the likelihood of backdraft B) Improve ventilation C) Allow for faster heat build-up within the structure D) Are more likely to break when exposed to heat
C) Allow for faster heat build-up within the structure
75. Which agent is rated for use on Class A fires? A) Potassium chloride B) Potassium bicarbonate C) Ammonium phosphate D) Sodium bicarbonate
C) Ammonium phosphate
45. In the two-part marking system for indicating which rooms have been searched, which symbol means a search is complete? A) A circle with a diagonal slash B) A diagonal slash C) An X D) The letters SC
C) An X
21. When standing upright on a rung, how far should the rung at shoulder height be from the fire fighter? A) Half an arm's length B) About 12 in. (30 cm) C) An arm's length D) About 24 in. (61 cm)
C) An arm's length
51. What is a secondary search? A) A quick search for victims performed during the initial attack B) A search for victims conducted outside the immediate fire area C) An exhaustive search for victims after the fire is brought under control D) Any search not conducted by the initial attack crew
C) An exhaustive search for victims after the fire is brought under control
53. What is a bar joist? A) Any engineered component with steel load-bearing members B) A truss with steel parallel members and wood diagonals C) An open-web steel truss D) A steel I-beam used to support a floor or roof
C) An open-web steel truss
55. Which of the following is one of a fire department's two basic resources? A) Organization B) Training C) Apparatus D) Leadership
C) Apparatus
22. Which type of foam is particularly well suited for gasoline spills? A) Protein B) Fluoroprotein C) Aqueous film-forming D) Alcohol-resistant
C) Aqueous film-forming
31. Where does the victim's arm go in the one-person walking assist? A) Around the rescuer's waist B) Linked in the rescuer's arm C) Around the rescuer's neck D) Across the victim's chest
C) Around the rescuer's neck
10. Upon arrival at a fire, how can on-call volunteer fire fighters establish team integrity? A) Operate to best tactical advantage B) Establish a staging area C) Assemble into companies D) Establish a personnel accountability system
C) Assemble into companies
14. Where should the command post be located? A) On either front corner of the building B) In a nearby, protected location C) At the forward observation limit D) Adjacent to the incident perimeter
C) At the forward observation limit
23. Within a room or space, where are the hottest gases found? A) At the lowest level B) Distributed uniformly throughout the volume C) At the highest level D) It varies depending on the composition of the gases
C) At the highest level
48. The majority of ground cover fires are extinguished with which item? A) CAFS B) Aircraft C) Backpack pump D) Backfire
C) Backpack pump
44. What is the function of the rapid intervention company? A) Provide a ready reserve of resources in the event of a change in conditions B) Reduce losses by expediting the initial fire attack C) Be ready and immediately available for rescue of fire fighters D) Provide personnel specializing in the rescue of building occupants
C) Be ready and immediately available for rescue of fire fighters
1. What are the two main structural components that run the entire length of a ladder? A) Flies B) Rungs C) Beams D) Truss blocks
C) Beams
29. What is the maximum wattage that an apparatus-mounted generator can produce? A) Less than 5000 watts B) Between 5000 and 10,000 watts C) Between 10,000 and 15,000 watts D) 20,000 or more watts
C) Between 10,000 and 15,000 watts
25. What is a common indicator of hidden fire burning within a wall? A) Deformation B) Crackling sounds C) Blistering paint D) Charring of gypsum board
C) Blistering paint
34. Which method of construction is required for life safety rope? A) Plaited B) Woven C) Block creel D) Solid braid
C) Block creel
64. How does a doughnut hose roll differ from a straight hose roll? A) Both couplings are in the middle B) The two couplings are connected C) Both couplings are on the outside D) The female coupling is on the outside
C) Both couplings are on the outside
60. Which knot is frequently used to secure the end of the rope to an anchor point? A) Overhand safety B) Becket bend C) Bowline D) Square
C) Bowline
2. Which wrench has a closed end and is used to tighten nuts or bolts? A) Adjustable B) Spanner C) Box-end D) Pipe
C) Box-end
48. Which valve is opened or closed by rotating a handle a quarter turn? A) Gate B) Siamese C) Butterfly D) Slide
C) Butterfly
6. Which class of fire involves energized electrical equipment? A) A B) B C) C D) D
C) C
67. Which class of fire is depicted in the pictograph system by a flame and an electrical plug and socket? A) K B) B C) C D) D
C) C
27. What is another term for aerial fuels? A) Raised B) Ladder C) Canopy D) Elevated
C) Canopy
16. Which fire gas kills by replacing oxygen in the blood? A) Sulfur dioxide B) Hydrogen cyanide C) Carbon monoxide D) Phosgene
C) Carbon monoxide
17. What is the function of the PTT button on a two-way radio? A) Adjust the sensitivity of signal reception B) Enable duplex transmission C) Cause the radio to transmit D) Transmit a distress signal
C) Cause the radio to transmit
16. Which type of nozzle is used to fight fires in inaccessible places such as attics and basements? A) Piercing B) Water curtain C) Cellar D) Eductor
C) Cellar
9. If individual sprinkler heads cannot be shut off, what should be done to stop the flow of water? A) Close the water service valve at the water meter B) Open the fire department connection outside C) Close the sprinkler control valve D) Open the system drain valve
C) Close the sprinkler control valve
12. What are TDD and TTY? A) Location finders in enhanced 911 systems B) Routers that direct wireless calls to the appropriate dispatch center C) Communication devices for hearing-impaired persons D) Voice-activated applications for smart phones that place a 911 call
C) Communication devices for hearing-impaired persons
20. What is the title for the individual in charge of a company? A) Resource director B) Squad leader C) Company officer D) Sector manager
C) Company officer
24. Which material is prone to spalling under fire conditions? A) Steel B) Wood C) Concrete D) Fiberglass
C) Concrete
5. Which form of heat transfer consists of kinetic energy moving from one particle to another? A) Induction B) Reduction C) Conduction D) Convection
C) Conduction
59. Of the basic fire-ground objectives, which item is third in order of priority? A) Rescue victims B) Extinguish the fire C) Confine the fire D) Protect exposures
C) Confine the fire
26. What is the most important component of fire fighter survival? A) Maintaining team integrity B) Preincident planning C) Consistently applying safe operating procedures D) Establishment of RICs
C) Consistently applying safe operating procedures
52. A Class B foam extinguisher is not rated for which fuel? A) Gasoline B) Diesel fuel C) Cooking oil D) Paint thinner
C) Cooking oil
50. What is the term for an event that threatens to exceed a fire fighter's ability to cope? A) Traumatic event B) Acute stress incident C) Critical incident D) Dissociative event
C) Critical incident
45. Which of the following is one of the three basic roof designs? A) Mansard B) Gable C) Curved D) Hip
C) Curved
49. Which of the following is one of the four major categories of door locks? A) Dead-bolt B) Recessed C) Cylindrical D) Tumbler
C) Cylindrical
33. What is the most serious consequence of untreated dehydration? A) Heat exhaustion B) Heat stroke C) Death D) Syncope
C) Death
6. You are alone in zero-visibility conditions and unable to find an exit. Which action listed below should you take first? A) Activate your personal alert safety system (PASS) B) Attempt to find a hose line or tagline C) Declare a "mayday" over your radio D) Find a wall and methodically search it for a window or door
C) Declare a "mayday" over your radio
68. Which type of attack is used to minimize risk to fire fighters? A) Combination B) Indirect C) Defensive D) Tactical
C) Defensive
55. What is the last resort for a fire fighter in danger of being overrun by a wildland fire? A) Flee to the safety zone B) Take shelter in a house C) Deploy a fire shelter D) Take shelter in a vehicle cab
C) Deploy a fire shelter
14. What is a common sign of damage to a kernmantle rope? A) Discoloration B) Loose or twisted sheath C) Depressions in the kern D) Fuzziness of the mantle
C) Depressions in the kern
50. What is a disadvantage of fire-resistive construction? A) The lack of built-in fire protection systems B) Non-fire-resistive structural members C) Difficulty in ventilating the structure D) Susceptibility to water damage
C) Difficulty in ventilating the structure
8. What is the usual response when a caller disconnects before full information can be gathered and the dispatcher cannot reconnect by calling the caller back? A) Log the incident and wait for the caller to call back B) Send a full complement of responders, including police, EMS, and fire C) Dispatch a police unit to check on the caller D) Send a single engine to assess the situation
C) Dispatch a police unit to check on the caller
24. What would be the ICS designation for each floor in a high-rise building? A) Sector B) Section C) Division D) Group
C) Division
48. What is the ICS term for resources working within the same geographical area? A) Branch B) Group C) Division D) Unit
C) Division
46. What is the most reliable way to stay well hydrated? A) Use urine color as an indicator of hydration B) Drink as much as you can during work periods C) Drink early and often D) Drink when you are thirsty
C) Drink early and often
29. What is another term for gypsum board? A) Lath B) OSB C) Drywall D) Stucco
C) Drywall
46. What is the term for a radio that transmits and receives on different frequencies? A) Repeater B) Cross-band C) Duplex D) Binary
C) Duplex
52. Which statement best describes the process of overhaul? A) Overhaul ensures that all remaining fire is discovered and extinguished after the main fire has been knocked down. B) Actions are taken to protect property from preventable smoke, fire, and water damage. C) Overhaul includes demobilization and the release of resources from the scene. D) Overhaul focuses on preservation of evidence, investigation, and determination of fire cause and origin.
A) Overhaul ensures that all remaining fire is discovered and extinguished after the main fire has been knocked down.
23. Which hazard should be of particular concern to fire fighters who are carrying long tools? A) Overhead wires B) Tight turns in corridors C) Self-closing doors D) Windows
A) Overhead wires
37. What is the term for the process in which oxygen combines chemically with another substance to create a new compound? A) Oxidation B) Combustion C) Pyrolysis D) Electrolysis
A) Oxidation
12. Which piece of equipment must be worn with structural firefighting PPE and SCBA? A) PASS device B) Portable radio C) Bail-out rope D) Buddy-breather
A) PASS device
14. What is one of the three types of wooden swinging doors? A) Panel B) Tambour C) Gibb D) Stopped
A) Panel
13. What is the first step in making plans to manage an emergency incident? A) Perform size-up B) Establish personnel accountability C) Establish command D) Transmit/receive the initial report
A) Perform size-up
19. Which tool is used to pull down a ceiling? A) Pike pole B) K tool C) Rabbet tool D) Kelly tool
A) Pike pole
40. What is one of the two primary methods of direct attack on a wildland fire? A) Pincer B) Frontal C) Backfire D) Aerial
A) Pincer
30. Under which condition might command be transferred from a high-ranking officer to an officer with lower rank? A) After the third benchmark B) If the incident is escalating C) During the later stages of the incident D) There are no conditions when this is appropriate
C) During the later stages of the incident
5. What does steel do when heated? A) Contract B) Harden C) Elongate D) Spall
C) Elongate
41. What is the correct procedure for deploying a triple-layer load preconnect? A) Place the nozzle and the top fold over the shoulder and walk away from the apparatus B) Once the load has cleared the bed, drag the three layers to the point of attack C) Shoulder the top two layers, with the bottom layer paying off from the bed D) Clear the hose from the bed by pulling the loop on the lowest tier
A) Place the nozzle and the top fold over the shoulder and walk away from the apparatus
53. Which tool has two retractable blades? A) Plaster hook B) A tool C) Ceiling hook D) Shove knife
A) Plaster hook
32. What is the second most common synthetic fiber used for life safety ropes? A) Polyester B) Rayon C) Monoester D) Polypropylene
A) Polyester
3. What does the "P" stand for in "GPS"? A) Positioning B) Proactive C) Personnel D) Preventive
A) Positioning
11. Which statement about the use of power saws is correct? A) Power saws can be hard to start. B) Power saws are easy to operate. C) Power saws are more portable than hand saws. D) Power saws increase operator fatigue.
A) Power saws can be hard to start.
40. What is the term for an urgent message that takes priority over all other communications? A) Mayday B) Code 30 C) Emergency traffic D) Priority message
C) Emergency traffic
23. What is the primary consideration while conducting salvage and overhaul? A) Preserving evidence of fire cause B) Careful use of water C) Leaving the structure in the best condition possible D) Thoroughly clearing the structure of debris
A) Preserving evidence of fire cause
5. What is the function of stops on an extension ladder? A) Prevent overextension B) Prevent collapse in the event of halyard failure C) Prevent the ladder from slipping on the ground D) Lock the extended fly sections in place
A) Prevent overextension
32. When should fire fighters don their PPE? A) Prior to mounting the apparatus B) Immediately upon mounting the apparatus C) En route to the scene of the incident D) Upon arrival at the scene
A) Prior to mounting the apparatus
44. What is one of the two basic categories of information on which size-up is based? A) Probabilities B) Risk C) Projections D) Estimates
A) Probabilities
24. Which device mixes foam concentrate in the water stream in the proper percentage? A) Proportioner B) Mixer C) Aerator D) Aspirator
A) Proportioner
15. Which tool is part of the basic set of interior firefighting tools? A) Prying tool B) Rotating tool C) Fulcrum tool D) Lever
A) Prying tool
15. What is one of the two styles of wooden door frames? A) Rabbet B) Finger-joint C) Ledge D) Barn
A) Rabbet
27. What is the color code for a hydrant flowing less than 500 gpm (1890 lpm)? A) Red B) Orange C) Yellow D) White
A) Red
37. What is one of the primary functions of a roof ladder? A) Reduce the risk of roof collapse during ventilation operations B) Provide lightweight, rapid access to a roof C) Reduce the number of fire fighters required for vertical ventilation D) Provide a secondary means of egress
A) Reduce the risk of roof collapse during ventilation operations
16. How are rehabilitation concerns affected by cold weather? A) Rehab should include access to dry clothing B) PPE reduces the likelihood of hypothermia C) Drinking hot liquids should be prohibited D) Recommended fluid intake is reduced
A) Rehab should include access to dry clothing
17. What should fire fighters do with their PPE in rehabilitation? A) Remove it B) Remove helmets, hoods, and gloves only C) Keep it on in cold or wet weather D) Keep it on
A) Remove it
32. What does the "R" stand for in "LUNAR"? A) Resources needed B) Rescue required C) Region (location) D) Roll call
A) Resources needed
62. Which of the following is a form of passive cooling? A) Rest in an air-conditioned environment B) Use of misting fans C) Immersion in cool water D) Application of wet towels
A) Rest in an air-conditioned environment
47. What is the term for a radio signal that alerts personnel to pull back to a safe location? A) Withdrawal order B) Mayday C) Evacuation signal D) Emergency traffic
C) Evacuation signal
23. What is the first step in cleaning SCBA? A) Rinse the entire unit with clean water from a hose B) Use compressed air to blow loose contamination off the unit C) Remove the cylinder from the harness D) Cover the regulator in a plastic bag
A) Rinse the entire unit with clean water from a hose
19. What is the greatest danger to fire fighters performing vertical ventilation? A) Roof collapse B) Smoke and heat release through the vent hole C) Fire lapping up from under an eave D) Falling off the roof or ladder
A) Roof collapse
46. Which tool is commonly used to provide a secure work platform for fire fighters working on a pitched roof? A) Roof ladder B) Halligan C) Pike pole D) Safety rope
A) Roof ladder
51. Which tool is best for breaching a floor? A) Rotary saw B) Air chisel C) Flat-head axe D) Reciprocating saw
A) Rotary saw
60. What is the correct tool to tighten a hard suction hose connection? A) Rubber mallet B) Spanner C) Hose wrench D) Strap wrench
A) Rubber mallet
40. Which part of a rope is used for hoisting? A) Running end B) Working end C) Standing part D) Free end
A) Running end
48. During a two-person rescue of a downed fire fighter, where does the first fire fighter grab the victim? A) SCBA shoulder straps B) Chest C) Arms D) Legs
A) SCBA shoulder straps
41. Which position is part of the command staff? A) Safety B) Finance/administration C) Spokesperson D) Planning
A) Safety
31. What is the term for operations undertaken to limit or reduce property loss? A) Salvage B) Overhaul C) Recovery D) Loss control
A) Salvage
65. Which term describes operations undertaken to prevent avoidable property loss? A) Salvage B) Overhaul C) Recovery D) Property conservation
A) Salvage
39. Where are the hinges placed on a casement window? A) Side B) Top C) Bottom D) Middle
A) Side
21. What is a commonly used technique for conserving SCBA air? A) Skip breathing B) Breath counting C) Pursed-lip breathing D) Inhale by mouth, exhale by nose
A) Skip breathing
28. Which hazard is of particular concern in a basement fire? A) Smoke and heat venting up the stairs toward fire fighters B) An air-tight compartment prone to backdraft C) Storage of flammable/hazardous materials D) Excessive property damage from cutting interior vent holes
A) Smoke and heat venting up the stairs toward fire fighters
34. Which item is used in negative-pressure ventilation? A) Smoke ejector B) Blower C) HVAC system D) Negative-pressure fan
A) Smoke ejector
43. Which type of door is typically used for entrance doors? A) Solid-core B) Panel C) Ledge D) Hollow-core
A) Solid-core
20. What is the most basic method for staying oriented inside a low-visibility environment? A) Staying in contact with the hose line B) Staying in contact with a partner C) Use of a guide rope D) Staying in contact with a wall
A) Staying in contact with the hose line
7. What is the term for the large discharge opening on a fire hydrant? A) Steamer B) Deluge C) Main D) Primary
A) Steamer
31. Which of the following is a type of door frame? A) Stopped B) Dadoed C) Stiled D) Jointed
A) Stopped
32. What is a common use for a wooden wedge during overhaul? A) Stopping the flow of water from a sprinkler head B) Plugging a gas leak C) Shoring unstable objects D) Pulling a meter
A) Stopping the flow of water from a sprinkler head
12. Which of the following is one of the four parts of the maintenance formula for ropes? A) Store B) Dry C) Coil D) Feel
A) Store
86. Which type of hose roll is used to store hose on a storage rack? A) Straight B) Doughnut C) Twin D) Flat
A) Straight
52. What is the ICS term for an assembly of five units of the same type with an assigned leader? A) Strike team B) Unit C) Section D) Task force
A) Strike team
25. Which statement about structural steel is correct? A) Structural steel is very strong under both tension and compression. B) Temperatures commonly produced in fires exceed structural steel's melting point. C) Structural steel maintains its shape when exposed to high temperatures. D) Structural steel is susceptible to fatigue.
A) Structural steel is very strong under both tension and compression
30. What should any incoming calls without voice from the caller be checked for? A) TDD/TTY/text phone signal B) Fax or modem initiation signals C) Instant messaging signal D) An open carrier
A) TDD/TTY/text phone signal
2. Which area is the first search priority? A) The area immediately around the fire B) Exit pathways C) The higher-level floors D) The rooms most likely to be occupied
A) The area immediately around the fire
30. Who is responsible for knowing the location of every member of a fire company at all times? A) The company officer B) The safety officer C) The accountability officer D) All personnel
A) The company officer
25. Which walls are usually opened first during overhaul? A) The most heavily damaged walls B) The least damaged walls C) Walls with chases D) Partition walls
A) The most heavily damaged walls
4. Which part of the structural firefighting PPE ensemble is designed to protect the neck and ears? A) The protective hood B) The coat collar C) The bib D) The SCBA mask
A) The protective hood
17. Which of the following knots decreases the load-bearing capacity of rope the least? A) Figure eight on a bight B) Bowline C) Figure eight follow-through D) They all decrease load capacity about equally
C) Figure eight follow-through
40. Which type of wall is used to prevent the spread of fire from one side of the wall to the other? A) Curtain B) Bearing C) Fire D) Partition
C) Fire
20. Which statement about telecommunication center voice recorders is correct? A) The recordings are useful for review of the telecommunication center's performance. B) The recordings are not discoverable for use in litigation. C) Nondisclosure laws require destruction of recordings of routine traffic after 72 hours. D) The units record only when manually activated by the telecommunicator.
A) The recordings are useful for review of the telecommunication center's performance.
12. When using the clothes drag, what supports the victim's head? A) The rescuer's arms B) A backboard or cervical collar C) The hands of the rescuer at the patient's head D) The victim's clothing
A) The rescuer's arms
36. What is the maximum reach for a 28-ft (8.5-m) ladder? A) The second-story roof B) The second-story windows with two rungs inside C) The second-story window sills only D) The third-story roof
A) The second-story roof
23. What is the most likely consequence if the butt of a ladder is placed too close to the side of the building? A) The tip will pull away from the wall B) The butt will kick out from the wall C) The ladder will have reduced weight capacity D) The ladder will be more prone to tipping sideways
A) The tip will pull away from the wall
34. When using a webbing sling drag, what helps support the victim's head and neck? A) The webbing sling B) The rescuer's hands C) The rescuer's forearms D) A roll of blanket
A) The webbing sling
23. Which statement about the numerical rating of a Class K extinguisher is correct? A) There is no numerical rating for a Class K extinguisher. B) The numerical rating indicates the relative extinguishing power of the agent. C) The numerical rating indicates the relative duration of the agent. D) A numerical rating is required for commercial hood systems.
A) There is no numerical rating for a Class K extinguisher.
38. Which term describes how readily heat will flow through a material? A) Thermal conductivity B) Combustibility C) Volatility D) Reactivity
A) Thermal conductivity
48. Which of the following is one of the four key characteristics affecting the behavior of building materials under fire conditions? A) Thermal conductivity B) Surface area/mass ratio C) Porosity D) Density
A) Thermal conductivity
43. Which tool is commonly used in interior search and rescue? A) Thermal imaging device B) Cribbing/shoring C) Acoustic detection device D) Multi-gas detector
A) Thermal imaging device
43. For the purpose of fire extinguisher placement, what is the relationship between occupancy use category and hazard classification? A) They are not necessarily related B) Occupancy determines hazard C) Hazard determines occupancy D) They are different terms for the same thing
A) They are not necessarily related
16. What is a disadvantage of positive-pressure fans? A) They can spread heat and smoke if used improperly B) Correct placement can be time consuming C) They impede entry and exit of personnel D) Favorable wind conditions are required for their use
A) They can spread heat and smoke if used improperly
57. Which statement is correct about sliding your hands long the underside of the beams while climbing a ladder? A) This practice provides you with three continuous points of contact. B) This practice is appropriate only when both hands are free. C) This practice is less secure than grabbing the rungs in a hand-over-hand manner. D) This practice is practical only on ladders with I-beam construction.
A) This practice provides you with three continuous points of contact.
2. Which part is specifically designed to prevent the beams of a wooden ladder from separating? A) Tie rod B) Protection plate C) Rung D) Spring bar
A) Tie rod
8. What does the SAID (specific adaptation to imposed demands) principle apply to? A) Training methods B) Critical incident stress C) Rehabilitation D) Tactics and strategy
A) Training methods
10. What should a call-taker do if a call comes in about an issue the fire department does not handle? A) Transfer, direct, or refer the caller to the appropriate agency B) Send the call to the back of the queue and take it when there is no priority traffic C) Politely inform the caller that the fire department does not provide assistance for his or her issue D) Advise the caller to call back on the nonemergency line
A) Transfer, direct, or refer the caller to the appropriate agency
54. What is the preferred method to cut a ventilation hole in a metal roof? A) Triangular B) Peak C) Trench D) Louvered
A) Triangular
37. Which preconnected hose load forms an S-shape in the hose bed? A) Triple layer B) Split C) Minuteman D) Skid
A) Triple layer
15. Which sign is an indication of possible backdraft conditions? A) Turbulent, pressurized smoke B) Vigorous flame productions C) Windows broken out D) Good interior visibility
A) Turbulent, pressurized smoke
29. Natural fiber ropes are created using which type of construction? A) Twisted B) Braid-on-braid C) Kernmantle D) Plaited
A) Twisted
43. When using a standpipe connection in a stairwell, how should the hose be arranged? A) Up the stairwell toward the floor above the fire B) Back and forth on the landing C) Down the stairwell toward the floor below the fire floor D) In large coils on the landing nearest the fire floor
A) Up the stairwell toward the floor above the fire
38. During an unconscious-victim ladder rescue, what is the position of the victim? A) Upright, facing the rescuer B) Horizontal, facing the ladder C) Upright, facing the ladder D) Horizontal, facing the rescuer
A) Upright, facing the rescuer
46. What is the correct procedure for a burst hose line? A) Use two lengths of hose to replace a single burst length B) Leave the burst section in operation unless the water loss is affecting nozzle flow C) Place the clamp as far from the burst section of hose as possible D) Shut the line down at the pump panel only as last resort
A) Use two lengths of hose to replace a single burst length
38. Which of the following is an acceptable method for a company officer to verify the status of a company member? A) Visual B) Auditory C) Oral D) Radio
A) Visual
5. What is the most commonly used extinguishing agent for Class A fires? A) Water B) Ammonium phosphate C) Dry chemical D) Potassium bicarbonate
A) Water
32. Which agent is approved for use in a Class K system? A) Wet chemical B) Aqueous film-forming foam C) Carbon dioxide D) Dry chemical
A) Wet chemical
11. When is a natural gas shut-off valve in the closed position? A) When the handle is at a right angle to the pipe B) When the stem is fully rotated inward C) When the bar is parallel to the pipe D) When the valve handle is fully rotated clockwise
A) When the handle is at a right angle to the pipe
38. In which situation should utility company personnel be called to interrupt power from a remote location? A) Wires outside the fire building are damaged B) Multiple hose lines are in use C) The building houses multiple living units D) Occupants are non- or semi-ambulatory
A) Wires outside the fire building are damaged
12. Which of the following activities produces the highest level of physiological stress? A) Working in a fully encapsulated suit B) A medical emergency where the victim is choking C) Vehicle accident requiring extrication D) Back-to-back incidents
A) Working in a fully encapsulated suit
26. Which metal is used in building construction primarily as a coating to protect metal parts from rust and corrosion? A) Zinc B) Copper C) Manganese D) Gypsum
A) Zinc
48. Tool staging inventory is usually determined by the __________. A) agency's SOPs B) applicable NFPA standard C) discretion of the tool staging manager D) division/group supervisor
A) agency's SOPs
26. A fire fighter with specialized training for aircraft and airport-related incidents is a(n) __________. A) aircraft rescue fire fighter B) hazardous material technician C) technical rescue technician D) aviation operations specialist
A) aircraft rescue fire fighter
13. The danger category of the heat stress index is determined by the __________. A) apparent temperature B) relative humidity C) air temperature D) duration of exposure
A) apparent temperature
19. For an extinguishing agent to be approved for use on energized electrical equipment, it must __________. A) be electrically nonconductive B) leave no residue C) form a vapor barrier D) be safe for use in a closed room
A) be electrically nonconductive
3. Hard rubber hose stored on a hose reel is __________ hose. A) booster B) attack C) forestry D) mop-up
A) booster
22. Ladder placement, use of aerial or ground ladders, and emergency exit routes all depend on __________. A) building layout B) occupancy load C) built-in suppression systems D) time of day
A) building layout
54. A carabiner is a type of __________ device. A) connecting B) anchoring C) braking D) ascending
A) connecting
10. The kern of a kernmantle rope is its __________. A) core B) sheath C) strand D) weave
A) core
24. A figure eight on a bight is used to __________. A) create a secure loop at the working end B) wrap a loop around an object C) attach a rope to an eye or ring D) join two ropes together
A) create a secure loop at the working end
69. Heavy streams are typically used in a(n) __________ attack. A) defensive B) offensive C) indirect D) tactical
A) defensive
35. During operations in traffic areas, lane and street closures should be performed according to __________. A) department SOP B) NFPA standard C) state vehicle code D) advice of law enforcement personnel
A) department SOP
27. The concept of conduction is useful for predicting __________. A) direction of fire spread B) extent of involvement C) occupant survivability D) duration of burn
A) direction of fire spread
49. The leader of a group has rank equal to that of the leader of a __________. A) division B) branch C) section D) strike team/task force
A) division
45. A hose adaptor connects two hose sections of __________. A) equal diameter but differing threads B) unequal diameter but similar threads C) equal diameter and similar threads D) unequal diameter and differing threads
A) equal diameter but differing threads
61. The first-arriving officer at the scene of a serious incident should __________ command. A) establish B) pass C) transfer D) defer
A) establish
60. When approaching a fire with an extinguisher in hand, you should always have a(n)__________. A) exit route B) backup unit C) light source D) portable radio
A) exit route
20. A chemical reaction that produces heat is __________. A) exothermic B) thermodynamic C) isothermic D) endothermic
A) exothermic
19. Fire that is spreading to an exposure is __________. A) extending B) crowning C) running D) free-burning
A) extending
46. Turbulent smoke is an indication of impending __________. A) flashover B) mushrooming C) self-ventilation D) stratification
A) flashover
2. Complete this sentence: "We will not risk our lives at all ________." A) for persons or property that are already lost B) because to do so we become part of the problem C) for others who are already at risk D) because we will use our heads instead
A) for persons or property that are already lost
42. The primary purpose of the __________ is to transfer the weight of the building and its contents to the ground. A) foundation B) floor joists C) piers D) grade truss
A) foundation
68. The end of the hose bed closest to the apparatus cab is the __________. A) front B) bulkhead C) partition D) back
A) front
54. Localized tissue damage resulting from prolonged exposure to cold is called __________. A) frostbite B) coldsnap C) hypothermia D) frostnip
A) frostbite
42. Collectively, the section chiefs are known as the __________. A) general staff B) unified command C) tactical group D) command staff
A) general staff
29. Bromochlorodifluoromethane is a _________ agent. A) halogenated B) wet chemical C) Class D D) multipurpose dry chemical
A) halogenated
31. Compared to a natural fiber rope, a synthetic fiber rope __________. A) has a smaller diameter than a natural fiber rope of equal strength B) is weakened to a lesser degree by knots C) is more susceptible to heat damage D) is less susceptible to damage from acid or alkali exposure
A) has a smaller diameter than a natural fiber rope of equal strength
40. Fire fighters wearing fully encapsulated suits are particularly susceptible to __________. A) heat stress B) cardiac arrhythmia C) mechanical injury D) respiratory injury
A) heat stress
45. In the time it takes to consume two SCBA air cylinders, enough body fluid can be lost to result in __________. A) impaired temperature regulation B) heat exhaustion C) heat stroke D) syncope
A) impaired temperature regulation
33. A blanket drag is best suited for a victim who __________. A) is not dressed B) may have a spinal injury C) is grossly obese D) is a child
A) is not dressed
10. A silicon carbide composite circular saw blade is designed for use on __________. A) masonry B) steel C) most metals D) a wide variety of materials
A) masonry
45. Radio frequencies are designated in units of __________. A) megahertz B) hertz C) gigahertz D) terahertz
A) megahertz
33. When water is converted to steam, it occupies __________ space. A) much more B) somewhat more C) about the same D) somewhat less
A) much more
58. A potential problem with application of a multipurpose dry chemical agent to a Class K fire is __________. A) neutralization of other agents applied to the fire B) production of toxic gas C) spitting and splattering of fuel D) sudden flare-up of the fire
A) neutralization of other agents applied to the fire
26. In ordinary construction, exterior walls are made of __________. A) noncombustible or limited-combustible materials B) any standard load-bearing material C) fire-resistive materials D) combustible materials
A) noncombustible or limited-combustible materials
10. Attack lines should be connected to a standpipe system __________. A) one floor below the fire floor B) two floors below the fire floor C) on the fire floor D) one floor above the fire floor
A) one floor below the fire floor
60. A freestanding wall that extends about the roofline is a __________ wall. A) parapet B) pony C) curtain D) sleeper
A) parapet
27. At least one member of every interior firefighting team should be equipped with a __________. A) portable radio B) thermal imager C) spare SCBA cylinder D) guide rope
A) portable radio
60. The National Incident Management System (NIMS) was developed in response to a(n) __________. A) presidential directive B) federal administrative law C) national consensus standard D) act of Congress
A) presidential directive
43. A quick attempt to locate potential victims who may be in danger is a(n) __________. A) primary search B) rapid sweep C) initial survey D) secondary search
A) primary search
21. The Halligan is classified as a _________ tool. A) prying/spreading B) striking C) cutting D) pushing/pulling
A) prying/spreading
51. An escape rope must be _______ once it is used. A) replaced B) inspected C) cleaned D) tested
A) replaced
27. A Roberts head is a type of __________. A) screwdriver B) cylinder head C) axe head D) maul
A) screwdriver
21. A safety knot is most typically used to __________. A) secure the leftover working end of a rope B) prevent a rope from slipping through a pulley or eye C) form a loop around a stationary object D) connect two ropes together
A) secure the leftover working end of a rope
33. The pressure in a system when no water is flowing is called ________ pressure. A) static B) operating C) flow D) residual
A) static
68. Poles used to stabilize long extension ladders are called __________. A) staypoles B) side poles C) guy poles D) extension poles
A) staypoles
46. Overextension of the fly section of an extension ladder is prevented by __________. A) stops B) pawls C) guides D) locks
A) stops
65. When raising a ladder, it should be kept a minimum of _____ from power lines. A) 5 ft (1.5 m) B) 10 ft (3 m) C) 15 ft (4.5 m) D) 20 ft (6 m)
B) 10 ft (3 m)
15. Approximately __________ fire fighters are killed in the line of duty each year in the United States. A) 10 B) 100 C) 1000 D) 10,000
B) 100
22. Pressure readings on an SCBA cylinder gauge and the regulator or remote pressure gauge should not differ by more than _____ psi. A) 50 psi (350 kPa) B) 100 psi (700 kPa) C) 200 psi (1400 kPa) D) 250 psi (1700 kPa)
B) 100 psi (700 kPa)
17. In general, mobile water supply apparatus carry __________. A) 1000 or fewer gal (3785 L or fewer) B) 1000 to 3500 gal (3785 to 13,249 L) C) 2000 to 5000 gal (7570 to 18,927 L) D) 3000 to 6000 gal (11,356 to 22,712 L)
B) 1000 to 3500 gal (3785 to 13,249 L)
35. Which NFPA standard contains a complete list of qualifications for telecommunicators? A) 1051 B) 1061 C) 1071 D) 1081
B) 1061
10. Fire hydrants should be inspected at least once every _____ months. A) 6 B) 12 C) 18 D) 24
B) 12
31. According to the NFPA, what is the minimum distance between the center of a fire hydrant outlet and the finished grade of the ground around the hydrant? A) 12" (30 cm) B) 18" (45 cm) C) 24" (60 cm) D) 30" (75 cm)
B) 18" (45 cm)
45. Which OSHA standard mandates the use of backup teams at incidents where operations are conducted in an IDLH atmosphere? A) 1500.120 B) 1910.134 C) 2000.471 D) 2610.472
B) 1910.134
26. What is the minimum number of fire fighters required to make up a firefighting team? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
B) 2
63. According to the NFPA, rehab should be required after a fire fighter has consumed _____ 30-minute SCBA bottles(s). A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
B) 2
56. Under actual firefighting conditions, an SCBA cylinder rated for 45 minutes can be realistically expected to last approximately _____ minutes. A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 40
B) 20
14. What is the realistic minimum usable residual pressure from a water distribution system for firefighting operations? A) 0 psi (0 kPa) B) 20 psi (138 kPa) C) 30 psi (207 kPa) D) 40 psi (276 kPa)
B) 20 psi (138 kPa)
37. Fats should account for approximately _____ of calories in a balanced diet. A) 10 to 15 percent B) 25 to 30 percent C) 40 to 50 percent D) 55 to 65 percent
B) 25 to 30 percent
1. Which hose diameter is used as both supply line and attack handline? A) 1¾" (45 mm) B) 2½" (64 mm) C) 2¾" (70 mm) D) 3" (76 mm)
B) 2½" (64 mm)
33. Turnout coats and trousers have a protective system that consists of _____ layers. A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
B) 3
36. Smoke has _____ major components. A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
B) 3
87. During annual testing, attack hose is tested at what pressure? A) 200 psi (1379 kPa) B) 300 psi (2068 kPa) C) 400 psi (2757 kPa) D) 500 psi (3447 kPa)
B) 300 psi (2068 kPa)
47. Typical backpack pumps contain __________. A) 2 to 4 gal (7.5 to 15 L) B) 4 to 8 gal (15 to 30 L) C) 5 to 10 gal (19 to 38 L) D) 8 to 12 gal (30 to 45 L)
B) 4 to 8 gal (15 to 30 L)
31. A PPE ensemble weighs at least _____. A) 25 lb (11 kg) B) 40 lb (18 kg) C) 60 lb (27 kg) D) 75 lb (34 kg)
B) 40 lb (18 kg)
37. Within the ICS, what is the maximum number of people that one person should normally supervise? A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 9
B) 5
74. The hydrostatic test interval for a dry chemical extinguisher with a stainless steel shell is every _____ years. A) 3 B) 5 C) 10 D) 12
B) 5
21. Portable pumps can deliver a maximum of _____. A) 250 gpm (946 lpm) B) 500 gpm (1893 lpm) C) 750 gpm (2839 lpm) D) 1000 gpm (3785 lpm)
B) 500 gpm (1893 lpm)
8. Aerial fuels are at least _____ above the ground. A) 4 ft (1.2 m) B) 6 ft (2 m) C) 8 ft (2.5 m) D) 10 ft (3 m)
B) 6 ft (2 m)
10. Fire fighters should be able to don personal protective clothing within _____ seconds. A) 45 B) 60 C) 75 D) 90
B) 60
30. Generally speaking, a 1½" (38-mm) attack hose can flow __________. A) 50 to 100 gpm (189 to 379 lpm) B) 60 to 125 gpm (227 to 473 lpm) C) 75 to 150 gpm (284 to 566 lpm) D) 120 to 180 gpm (454 to 681 lpm)
B) 60 to 125 gpm (227 to 473 lpm)
59. A typical number fire engine carries _____ of supply hose. A) 500 to 750 ft (150 to 228 m) B) 750 to 1250 ft (228 to 380 m) C) 1000 to 1500 ft (305 to 457 m) D) 1500 to 2000 ft (457 to 610 m)
B) 750 to 1250 ft (228 to 380 m)
20. Fire fighters should drink _____ of water for every 5 to 10 minutes of physical exertion. A) 2 to 4 oz (60 to 120 mL) B) 8 to 10 oz (0.2 to 0.3 L) C) 12 to 15 oz (0.35 to 0.45 L) D) 16 to 20 oz (0.5 to 0.6 L)
B) 8 to 10 oz (0.2 to 0.3 L)
46. How much does water weigh? A) 7.5 lb per gallon (3.4 kg per liter) B) 8.3 lb per gallon (3.8 kg per liter) C) 10.5 lb per gallon (4.8 kg per liter) D) 12.2 lb per gallon (5.5 kg per liter)
B) 8.3 lb per gallon (3.8 kg per liter)
27. Who would usually be assigned the role of operations section chief? A) The senior officer B) A chief officer with a strong background in operations C) The ranking officer D) The first-arriving officer
B) A chief officer with a strong background in operations
48. What does the term "mayday" mean? A) Everyone withdraw from the hazard area B) A fire fighter is in trouble and needs assistance C) Hold all radio traffic D) Deploy the rapid intervention crew (RIC)
B) A fire fighter is in trouble and needs assistance
49. What is an approved treatment to prevent rusting of bare metal tool surfaces? A) Paint B) A light film of oil C) A nonflammable rust inhibitor D) Cosmoline
B) A light film of oil
41. In the context of fire fighter survival, what is a safe location? A) Any safe haven or building used for sheltering in place B) A location that is less hazardous than the alternatives C) A temporary staging area immediately adjacent to the hazard zone D) Any location outside the threatened area
B) A location that is less hazardous than the alternatives
50. What is used to carry a self-locking twin-doughnut hose roll? A) Webbing B) A loop of hose C) Hose strap D) Rope
B) A loop of hose
39. When there is extra hose at the entry of a building, how should that hose be arranged? A) Large, loose coils B) A serpentine pattern C) A straight line D) Similar to an accordion fold
B) A serpentine pattern
5. How does vent-entry-search differ from conventional search and rescue? A) The fire is ventilated before entry is made B) A window is used for entry and exit C) The fire fighter is attached to a guide rope D) All windows and doors are propped open during the search
B) A window is used for entry and exit
40. What is used to connect hose couplings with dissimilar threads? A) Fitting B) Adaptor C) Siamese D) Hose jacket
B) Adaptor
25. Which type of nozzle is most commonly used to apply aqueous film-forming foam? A) Aerator B) Adjustable fog C) Eductor D) Smooth-bore
B) Adjustable fog
40. Which tool can be used to operate a natural gas supply valve? A) Hydrant wrench B) Adjustable wrench C) Flat-head screwdriver D) Strap wrench
B) Adjustable wrench
8. What is the second stage of advancing an attack line? A) Pulling the line from the bed B) Advancing the line to the point of attack C) Purging the line of air D) Flaking out the line at the building entrance
B) Advancing the line to the point of attack
18. Ideally, when should overhaul operations begin? A) As soon as resources are available B) After fire investigators have examined the scene C) Anytime after extinguishment D) Concurrently with salvage
B) After fire investigators have examined the scene
26. What is the function of lugs found on couplings? A) Align the threads during coupling B) Aid in coupling and uncoupling hose C) Help the coupling slide over obstructions D) Strengthen the coupling
B) Aid in coupling and uncoupling hose
9. Why do compact fuels burn slowly? A) They have less surface area B) Air cannot circulate as freely C) They retain moisture D) They are less continuous
B) Air cannot circulate as freely
42. How should company members check into the rehab center? A) Individually B) All members together C) In assigned pairs D) On an as-needed basis
B) All members together
19. On a three-fire-fighter ladder carry, how should the fire fighters align themselves? A) Two at the butt, one at the tip B) All three on the same side of the ladder C) Two on one side, one on the other D) Two at the tip, one at the butt
B) All three on the same side of the ladder
26. What does an automatic location identification (ALI) system rely on to be effective? A) A direct line B) An accurate and current database C) A minimum 30-second call duration D) The caller's name
B) An accurate and current database
8. What is a distinguishing feature of the oriented search method? A) All searchers are tied into a search rope B) An officer stays at the door during a room search C) Room access is through an exterior opening D) Contact with a wall is maintained at all times
B) An officer stays at the door during a room search
18. What is required to perform vertical ventilation? A) A positive-pressure fan B) An opening in the top of the building C) A smoke ejector D) A roof ladder
B) An opening in the top of the building
3. What is the relationship between resistance and heat as electricity flows through a wire? A) There is no relationship between the two B) As resistance increases, heat increases C) As resistance decreases, heat increases D) As resistance increases, heat decreases
B) As resistance increases, heat increases
15. Which type of fog-stream nozzle provides a flow between 90 and 225 gpm (340 and 852 lpm)? A) Fixed-gallonage B) Automatic-adjusting C) Adjustable-gallonage D) Variable pattern
B) Automatic-adjusting
14. For the purpose of extinguisher selection and placement, light hazard environments usually contain a limited amount of combustibles of which class? A) K B) B C) C D) D
B) B
28. Flammable liquid fires are considered Class _____. A) A B) B C) C D) D
B) B
62. Which class of fire includes flammable and combustible liquids? A) A B) B C) C D) D
B) B
66. Which class of fire is depicted in the pictograph system by a flame and gasoline can? A) A B) B C) C D) D
B) B
14. What does smoke puffing in and out of a structure indicate? A) Impending structural collapse B) Backdraft conditions C) Growth-phase fire D) Imminent flashover
B) Backdraft conditions
27. In which construction type are there uninterrupted channels in the walls from foundation to attic? A) Lightweight truss B) Balloon frame C) Heavy timber D) Unreinforced masonry
B) Balloon frame
37. Which wood-frame construction system uses studs that run continuously from the basement to the roof? A) Western B) Balloon frame C) Conventional D) Platform
B) Balloon frame
47. What is the term for high-volume, high-velocity, turbulent, ultra-dense black smoke? A) Turbulent fire B) Black fire C) Endothermic fire D) Laminar fire
B) Black fire
15. Which rank is directly above a lieutenant in the fire service? A) Division/group supervisor B) Captain C) Division chief D) Battalion chief
B) Captain
7. Which extinguishing agent is suitable for use on a Class C fire? A) Carbon tetrachloride B) Carbon dioxide C) Dry powder D) Aqueous film-forming foam (AFFF)
B) Carbon dioxide
70. Which fire extinguishing agent is best for use on sensitive electronic equipment? A) Loaded stream B) Carbon dioxide C) Aqueous film-forming foam (AFFF) D) Ammonium phosphate
B) Carbon dioxide
6. Where are dry-barrel hydrants typically used? A) Static water supplies B) Cold climates C) Dedicated fire protection water systems D) Areas subject to frequent vandalism
B) Cold climates
2. What is one of the four key characteristics affecting the behavior of building materials under fire conditions? A) Composition B) Combustibility C) Load D) Stability
B) Combustibility
21. Which term is a measure of whether a material will burn? A) Conductivity B) Combustibility C) Pyrolytic index D) Specific heat
B) Combustibility
38. What is the term for a rapid chemical process in which the combination of a substance with oxygen produces heat and light? A) Oxidation B) Combustion C) Pyrolysis D) Convection
B) Combustion
40. For forcible entry, who usually determines the point of entry and method to be used? A) Chief officer B) Company officer C) Fire fighter D) Incident commander
B) Company officer
15. How can churning be eliminated during smoke ejection? A) Pull the fan back a few inches B) Completely block the opening around the fan C) Increase the number or size of exhaust openings D) Raise the fan in the opening
B) Completely block the opening around the fan
5. Which of the following is a key characteristic of the incident command system? A) Resource conservation B) Consolidated incident action plans C) Preincident planning D) Reciprocal aid agreements
B) Consolidated incident action plans
8. Why is the age of a building relevant during size-up? A) Required fire flow increases with age B) Construction methods change over time C) Reliability of suppression systems is suspect in older buildings D) Older buildings are more difficult to ventilate
B) Construction methods change over time
26. In which type of search pattern do fire fighters turn right upon entry to a room and then turn left at each corner around the room? A) Oriented B) Counterclockwise C) Left-hand D) Standard
B) Counterclockwise
75. What is used to connect individual sections of hose together to extend their length? A) Appliance B) Coupling C) Higbee D) Rocker
B) Coupling
39. What is the term for the weather-resistant surface of a roof? A) Decking B) Covering C) Skin D) Tar paper
B) Covering
38. What is a common salvage operation? A) Utility control B) Covering ventilation openings C) Pulling ceilings D) Determining the cause and origin of the fire
B) Covering ventilation openings
57. Which carry works best for children and small adults? A) Chair B) Cradle-in-arms C) Extremities D) Incline
B) Cradle-in-arms
52. What does the "C" stand for in "CISM"? A) Crisis B) Critical C) Company D) Casualty
B) Critical
43. Which term means the weight of a building without contents? A) Net weight B) Dead load C) Live load D) Curb weight
B) Dead load
5. What is slash? A) Partially decomposed organic matter B) Debris from logging or clearing operations C) Seasonal ground cover D) Partially burned fuel
B) Debris from logging or clearing operations
14. What is a consequence of falling relative humidity? A) Falling burn index B) Decreased fuel moisture C) Decreased ignitability D) Increased lapse rate
B) Decreased fuel moisture
2. On which basis are wildland fuels classified? A) Weight B) Diameter C) Moisture content D) Composition
B) Diameter
22. What is the ICS title for the person in charge of a branch? A) Chief B) Director C) Manager D) Supervisor
B) Director
14. What does the "D" stand for in "ADA"? A) Dangerous B) Disabilities C) Distressed D) Directional
B) Disabilities
39. What is hard suction hose most commonly used for? A) Transferring water from a pressurized source to a pump B) Drafting from a static water source C) Relay pumping D) Filling a portable tank
B) Drafting from a static water source
32. Which method is best suited for removing an unconscious victim from a dangerous location? A) Carry B) Drag C) Assist D) Lift
B) Drag
70. A short fold in a supply hose load that prevents a coupling from flipping around when the hose is being laid out is a __________. A) bowtie B) Dutchman C) reverse D) flip
B) Dutchman
8. Which item of information is tracked by a personnel accountability system? A) Chain of command B) Each crew's assignment C) Time spent in an IDLH atmosphere D) Progress benchmarks
B) Each crew's assignment
47. Which statement about the use of existing roof openings for vertical ventilation is correct? A) Existing roof openings are generally impractical to force open. B) Existing roof openings should be used whenever possible. C) No additional openings should be cut in a roof that has preexisting openings. D) Existing roof openings are generally too small to be useful.
B) Existing roof openings should be used whenever possible.
33. What is the second priority in basic fire-ground objectives? A) Salvage B) Exposure protection C) Extinguishment D) Confinement
B) Exposure protection
23. Which is the term for areas adjacent to a burning building? A) Zones B) Exposures C) Sectors D) Divisions
B) Exposures
46. What is the term for the substance that puts out the fire? A) Propellant B) Extinguishing agent C) Dry charge D) Live load
B) Extinguishing agent
45. Which mechanical device is needed to accomplish negative-pressure ventilation? A) Chainsaw B) Fan C) Fog stream D) Draft curtain
B) Fan
22. What is a common sign or symptom of low blood sugar? A) Excessive thirst B) Feeling weak and shaky C) Muscle cramps D) Nausea and vomiting
B) Feeling weak and shaky
32. What is a ladder I-beam usually made of? A) Alloy B) Fiberglass C) Truss blocks D) Wood
B) Fiberglass
54. Which type of respiratory protection is normally used in wildland firefighting? A) SCBA B) Filter mask C) APR D) PAPR
B) Filter mask
19. Which ICS section is responsible for the financial and accounting aspect of an incident? A) Legal/Accounting B) Finance/Administration C) Planning D) Logistics
B) Finance/Administration
26. What is a strike team? A) A group of resources that travels to the incident, to be deployed individually upon arrival B) Five units of the same type with an assigned supervisor C) A team of resources that remains intact throughout its involvement in the incident D) Any combination of resources temporarily assembled for a specific purpose
B) Five units of the same type with an assigned supervisor
17. What is another term for fire point? A) Ignition point B) Flame point C) Flash point D) Autoignition temperature
B) Flame point
43. What is the term for temperature in a room reaching the point where all the combustible contents of the room ignite? A) Autoignition B) Flashover C) Backdraft D) Rollover
B) Flashover
40. Which two tools are often used in combination to pry a door open? A) Sledge hammer and pick-head axe B) Flat-head axe and Halligan tool C) K tool and flat-head screwdriver D) Pry bar and wooden wedge
B) Flat-head axe and Halligan tool
21. Which type of foam contains a surface-active agent that produces a fast-spreading film? A) High expansion B) Fluoroprotein C) Aqueous film-forming D) Class A
B) Fluoroprotein
62. Which part of the ladder is raised or extended from the bed section? A) Tip B) Fly C) Extension D) Guide
B) Fly
22. How often should power equipment be tested? A) Daily B) Frequently C) Weekly D) Monthly
B) Frequently
17. Which level of personal protective equipment should fire fighters wear during overhaul? A) Coveralls and gloves B) Full PPE with SCBA C) Turnout gear without SCBA D) Regular uniform clothing
B) Full PPE with SCBA
18. What is the term for the transparent part of a window? A) Glass B) Glazing C) Lens D) Light
B) Glazing
19. Which method of evacuation for victims above ground should be avoided whenever possible? A) Aerial device B) Ground ladder C) Fire escape D) Interior stairway
B) Ground ladder
21. What is the ICS term for companies or crews working on the same task or function? A) Division B) Group C) Unit D) Branch
B) Group
27. Which fire-ground situation is most likely to result in bloating? A) Heavy exertion B) Gulping water C) Use of positive-pressure SCBA D) Stress and anxiety
B) Gulping water
41. Which tool should always accompany interior firefighting teams? A) Chainsaw B) Hand light C) K tool D) Adze
B) Hand light
1. Which of the following is a side of the fire triangle? A) Catalyst B) Heat C) Chemical chain reaction D) Ignition source
B) Heat
29. Which of the following is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate medical care? A) Heat exhaustion B) Heat stroke C) Heat shock D) None of the above
B) Heat stroke
41. Which of the following is one of the three factors that determine friction loss? A) Ambient temperature B) Hose diameter C) Atmospheric pressure D) Water source
B) Hose diameter
34. Which fire gas is a product of burning plastic? A) Acrolein B) Hydrogen cyanide C) Carbon dioxide D) Hydrogen sulfide
B) Hydrogen cyanide
41. Which condition is defined as an internal body temperature less than 95ºF (35ºC)? A) Cold stroke B) Hypothermia C) Frost bite D) Exposure
B) Hypothermia
55. Which class of harness is used to support a fire fighter in a rescue situation? A) I B) II C) III D) IV
B) II
25. What is the lowest temperature at which a fuel-air mixture will ignite spontaneously called? A) Fire point B) Ignition temperature C) Flash point D) Specific heat
B) Ignition temperature
43. Which benefit is most likely to result from properly performed ventilation? A) Reduced fire intensity B) Improved conditions within the structure C) Prevention of fire extension to uninvolved areas D) Protection of exterior exposures
B) Improved conditions within the structure
2. What is a defining characteristic of utility rope? A) It is de-rated or expired rescue rope. B) It must not be used to support the weight of a person. C) It features natural fiber construction. D) It has a minimum breaking strength of 300 lb (135 kg).
B) It must not be used to support the weight of a person
21. What happens if a CAD system detects that an invalid address is being entered? A) It sends a full first alarm assignment to each possible location B) It prompts the telecommunicator to ask the caller for additional information C) It offers a best estimate of the correct location D) It sends a single unit to the nearest valid location
B) It prompts the telecommunicator to ask the caller for additional information
4. Which statement about positive-pressure ventilation is correct? A) It uses a smoke ejector to draw smoke out of a building. B) It should be used only if attack crews have access to all fire. C) It can be used only under favorable wind conditions. D) It requires the use of a built-in HVAC system.
B) It should be used only if attack crews have access to all fire.
34. Which exemptions or privileges do fire fighters have when responding to an emergency in their personal vehicles? A) The same as emergency vehicles B) It varies by jurisdiction C) None; they are treated just like any other private car D) They are permitted to regard stoplights as stop signs
B) It varies by jurisdiction
12. Which tool is specifically designed to open double doors equipped with panic bars? A) Slim Jim B) J tool C) Bar fly D) Key tool
B) J tool
5. Which term means the spread of fire from one floor to another via exterior windows? A) Laddering B) Leap-frogging C) Stack effect D) Crowning
B) Leap-frogging
7. What is an approved material for structural firefighting boots? A) Extos® B) Leather C) Polymeric synthetic D) Gore-Tex®
B) Leather
31. What is dry lightning? A) A lightning strike that does not cause fire B) Lightning without rain C) Lightning occurring in otherwise fair weather D) Lightning that does not contact the ground
B) Lightning without rain
22. How much risk to fire fighters is acceptable in attempting to save valuable property? A) None B) Limited C) Significant D) Unlimited
B) Limited
44. What is the main purpose of the secondary search? A) Remove remaining occupants B) Locate deceased victims C) Double-check the primary search area D) Find evidence of cause and origin
B) Locate deceased victims
23. What is the second step in the five-step process of receiving and dispatching emergency calls? A) Classification/prioritization B) Location validation C) Confirmation D) Caller interrogation
B) Location validation
46. Which knot component is part of a clove hitch? A) Round turn B) Loop C) Follow-though D) Bight
B) Loop
49. Which coupling goes on the inside of a straight hose roll? A) Female B) Male C) Either D) Both couplings are attached
B) Male
30. Which circular saw blade is susceptible to damage from gasoline vapors? A) All blades B) Masonry C) Wood D) Polycarbonate
B) Masonry
5. Which type of hose ranges in size from 2½" (65 mm) to 3" (75 mm) in diameter? A) Supply B) Medium C) Large D) Master
B) Medium
79. What should be used to clean fire hoses? A) A dilute bleach solution B) Mild detergent C) TSP (trisodium phosphate) D) Class A foam
B) Mild detergent
30. What is a common cause of deterioration in natural fiber ropes? A) Storage in a low-humidity environment B) Mildew C) Storage in a rope bag D) Infrequent use
B) Mildew
33. For which application is dynamic rope especially well suited? A) Rescue B) Mountaineering C) Hoisting D) Static loads
B) Mountaineering
60. The priorities of the basic five fire-ground objectives are __________. A) Separate and exclusive B) Not separate and not exclusive C) Separate but not exclusive D) Not separate but exclusive
B) Not separate and not exclusive
1. Which term refers to how a building is used? A) Classification B) Occupancy C) Group D) Type
B) Occupancy
20. Which type of attack is typically used for a small fire in a room? A) Combination B) Offensive C) Quick D) Transitional
B) Offensive
5. When are company officers and safety officers involved in risk-benefit analysis? A) When assigned this task by the incident commander B) On a continuous basis C) At each completion benchmark D) At the beginning and end of each operational period
B) On a continuous basis
39. When lowering an unconscious child down a ladder, where should the rescuer's hands be? A) On the same rung B) On the beams C) On different rungs D) One on a rung, the other on a beam
B) On the beams
40. When rescuing an unconscious victim from a window, how many fire fighters enter the window to assist the victim? A) None B) One C) Two D) Three
B) One
32. Which action should be avoided when performing horizontal ventilation? A) Use of fans or blowers B) Opening upward windows first C) Use on a windy day D) Initiating a fire attack prior to ventilation
B) Opening upward windows first
17. Which ICS section is responsible for taking direct action to control the incident? A) Division B) Operations C) Tactics D) Command
B) Operations
28. What is the color code for a hydrant flowing 500 to 999 gpm (1890 to 3780 lpm)? A) Red B) Orange C) Green D) Light blue
B) Orange
32. What is the term for operations undertaken to find and extinguish any remaining pockets of fire? A) Cold-trailing B) Overhaul C) Breaching D) Secondary search
B) Overhaul
66. What is the term for the process of finding and completely extinguishing any remaining pockets of fire? A) Salvage B) Overhaul C) Mop-up D) Investigation
B) Overhaul
11. Which component of the fire triangle is in greatest abundance in a wildland fire? A) Reducing agent B) Oxygen C) Fuel D) Heat
B) Oxygen
5. What is a flame-resistant material used in PPE? A) Durex B) PBI C) Treated cotton duck D) Thermax
B) PBI
47. Which step should be performed before beginning search and rescue? A) Go directly to the most severely threatened area of the structure B) Perform a risk-benefit analysis C) Deploy a hose line or tagline D) Perform a primary survey
B) Perform a risk-benefit analysis
16. What do company officers do when the incident commander requests a personnel accountability report (PAR)? A) Report with the company to the staging area B) Physically verify that all assigned members are present C) Report with the company to rehab D) Collect the passports from company members
B) Physically verify that all assigned members are present
26. Which action is potentially hazardous while raising an extension ladder? A) Hoisting the halyard with the hands in the "thumbs up" position B) Placing a foot on a rung C) Anchoring the ladder with a foot against a rail D) Tying off the halyard on a bed-section rung
B) Placing a foot on a rung
7. Which construction technique builds one floor at a time with a firestop between each floor? A) Flitch plate B) Platform frame C) Balloon D) Ordinary
B) Platform frame
37. What is the area between the fingers of a wildland fire? A) Peninsula B) Pocket C) Island D) Joint
B) Pocket
22. What is the term for a water-soluble flammable liquid? A) Hypergolic fuel B) Polar solvent C) Solute D) Miscible liquid
B) Polar solvent
52. What is the best source of information for identifying building layout, stairways, and exits? A) 360° survey B) Preincident plan C) Occupant description D) Initial entry crews
B) Preincident plan
20. Which type of foam is made from animal by-products? A) Class A B) Protein C) Aqueous film-forming D) Organic
B) Protein
42. What is one of the basic hand tools that an interior search and rescue team should carry? A) Long pike pole B) Prying tool C) Reciprocating saw D) Rotating tool
B) Prying tool
39. Which tool combines an axe with an adze? A) Brush hook B) Pulaski C) McLeod D) Council rake
B) Pulaski
12. What is the term for the chemical change that occurs to wood when it is heated? A) Catagenesis B) Pyrolysis C) Reduction D) Oxidization
B) Pyrolysis
19. What is the process called when a material decomposes upon being exposed to heat in the absence of oxygen? A) Vaporization B) Pyrolysis C) Oxidation D) Electrolysis
B) Pyrolysis
49. What is the term for the process of reducing the effects of fatigue during an emergency operation? A) Recuperation B) Rehabilitation C) Restoration D) Recovery
B) Rehabilitation
13. What is the ratio of water in air compared to the maximum amount of water vapor the air can hold at a given temperature? A) Saturation index B) Relative humidity C) Barometric pressure D) Moisture ratio
B) Relative humidity
48. What is the first priority for a victim who is in a hazardous area and in need of medical treatment? A) Package the patient for removal B) Remove the patient from the hazard C) Complete the primary survey D) Begin medical treatment
B) Remove the patient from the hazard
37. What does the "R" stand for in "PAR"? D) Rescue A) Roster B) Report C) Resource
B) Report
18. After company officers carry out a PAR, what do they do next? A) Check the air status of all personnel within the company B) Report the results to the incident commander C) Send the passport to the command post D) Resume operations
B) Report the results to the incident commander
24. What should company officers do if they believe there is a change in the balance of risk to benefit during an incident? A) Change their tactics accordingly B) Report their observations to the incident commander C) Continue with their assignments D) Withdraw without delay
B) Report their observations to the incident commander
5. What is the effect of rest on physical endurance? A) There is no significant effect B) Rest improves endurance C) The effect varies with the type of exertion D) Rest decreases endurance
B) Rest improves endurance
14. What is a primary goal of rehabilitation? A) Reinforcing team integrity B) Restoring normal body temperature C) Replacement of SCBA cylinders D) Minimizing exposure to critical incident stress
B) Restoring normal body temperature
1. What is the term for the evaluation of an action's potential positive results and its potential negative consequences? A) Size-up B) Risk-benefit analysis C) Primary survey D) Strategic analysis
B) Risk-benefit analysis
47. Which type of ladder is usually carried up another ladder before being put into place? A) Chimney B) Roof C) Attic D) Fresno
B) Roof
22. Which knot is used to prevent the end of a rope from slipping through the primary knot? A) Bowline B) Safety C) Half hitch D) Clove hitch
B) Safety
9. What is the most important reason for team integrity in firefighting operations? A) Chain of command B) Safety of personnel C) Span of control D) Tactical effectiveness
B) Safety of personnel
45. What does the "S" stand for in "RECEO-VS"? A) Span of control B) Salvage C) Size-up D) Search
B) Salvage
26. Which tool is classified as a rotating tool? A) Pike pole B) Screwdriver C) Halligan D) Pry bar
B) Screwdriver
49. Which building feature would create the greatest challenge for fire fighters in gaining access to trapped victims? A) Hung acoustic ceilings B) Security bars on windows C) Solid-core doors D) Self-closing fire doors
B) Security bars on windows
2. A structural firefighting PPE ensemble includes which specific piece of equipment? A) Portable radio B) Self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) C) Thermal imager D) Safety harness
B) Self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)
19. How does foam extinguish flammable liquid fires? A) Inhibits the chemical chain reaction B) Separates the fuel from the fire C) Dilutes the fuel D) Cools the fire
B) Separates the fuel from the fire
33. Which tool is inserted between an older-style latch and the door frame to force the latch back and open the door? A) J tool B) Shove knife C) Slim Jim D) Hack saw blade
B) Shove knife
39. What is the best way to extinguish a Class C fire? A) Withdraw to a safe distance and let the fire burn itself out B) Shut off the power and treat it as a Class A or B fire C) Use a Class C extinguisher D) Shut off the fuel flow at a valve
B) Shut off the power and treat it as a Class A or B fire
62. Which hose appliance combines two hose lines into one? A) Wye B) Siamese C) Reducer D) Manifold
B) Siamese
56. Which process enables the incident commander to determine which resources will be needed to control the situation? A) Personnel accountability B) Size-up C) Preincident planning D) Chain of command
B) Size-up
55. Smoke that is produced by ordinary household materials when they are first heated has which sort of appearance? A) Mustard yellow and lazy B) Slow moving and white C) Brown and fast moving D) Black and thick
B) Slow moving and white
14. Which statement about the operation of HVAC equipment during fire ventilation operations is correct? A) HVAC systems are designed to automatically shut down when smoke is detected. B) Some HVAC systems incorporate features that are useful for clearing smoke. C) It is important to maintain power to the HVAC system at all times. D) HVAC systems should be shut down as soon as possible.
B) Some HVAC systems incorporate features that are useful for clearing smoke
3. Which of the following is a key characteristic of the incident command system? A) Delegation of authority B) Span of control C) Preprogrammed response D) Management by objective
B) Span of control
56. When assisting a conscious victim down a ladder, how can the rescuer maintain control of the victim's descent? A) Tie the victim to a rope looped over a rung B) Squeeze the victim against the ladder C) Tie the victim to the rescuer D) Stand on the same rung as the victim
B) Squeeze the victim against the ladder
3. What does a CMU contain? A) Void space B) Steel reinforcing rods C) Thermal expansion joints D) I-bars
B) Steel reinforcing rods
58. What is the term for cool, stagnant interior smoke? A) Layering B) Stratification C) Stacking D) Inversion
B) Stratification
24. Which type of tool is used to apply an impact force directly on another tool or object? A) Impact B) Striking C) Swinging D) Lever
B) Striking
3. Forcible entry tools are classified by type. What is one of those classifications? A) Lever B) Striking C) Nondestructive D) Rotary
B) Striking
65. What does a rating of 40 on a Class B extinguisher mean? A) BTU absorption comparable to 40 gallons of water B) Sufficient extinguishing power for 40 square feet of burning fuel C) Sufficient extinguishing power for 40 gallons of burning fuel D) Discharge duration of at least 40 seconds
B) Sufficient extinguishing power for 40 square feet of burning fuel
18. What is the primary function of the purge valve on an SCBA? A) Switch between pressure and pressure-demand modes B) Supply air in the event of a regulator malfunction C) De-fog the face piece interior D) Bleed off residual pressure after the cylinder valve has been closed
B) Supply air in the event of a regulator malfunction
43. Which term means the evaluation of structure fire conditions to determine if occupants could be alive? A) Size-up B) Survivability profiling C) Risk management D) Triage
B) Survivability profiling
52. Ideally, when forcible entry is used, what should fire fighters do before leaving the scene? A) Make the occupant aware of the unsecured openings B) Take steps to secure the building C) Bring the matter to the attention of law enforcement personnel D) Photograph and document the damage
B) Take steps to secure the building
29. How are tasks assigned on the fire ground? A) Individuals are assigned tasks individually B) Tasks are assigned to and performed by intact companies C) Resources are pooled and deployed according to task D) Individuals are assigned tasks singly by the company officer
B) Tasks are assigned to and performed by intact companies
31. If one member of a company needs rehabilitation, who goes to the rehabilitation area? A) All members who need it B) The entire company C) The member and his or her assigned buddy D) That member only
B) The entire company
49. What is an advantage of an automatic fog nozzle? A) The nozzle reaction remains constant despite variations in pump pressure B) The flow rate adjusts to maintain the rated nozzle pressure C) The flow from the nozzle remains constant despite variations in pressure D) The flow rate remains constant regardless of the discharge pattern
B) The flow rate adjusts to maintain the rated nozzle pressure
24. Which statement about opening a ceiling is correct? A) Work while facing the exit door. B) The hook should be pointed away from you. C) Start in the least damaged area. D) Pull the hook toward you.
B) The hook should be pointed away from you.
11. Unified command is used to address which situation? A) All command and general staff positions have been activated B) The incident involves more than one jurisdiction or agency C) The duration of the incident will span several operational periods D) There is a lack of consensus among command staff
B) The incident involves more than one jurisdiction or agency
11. Which part of the body should be used for a heavy lift? A) The waist B) The legs C) The abdomen D) The shoulder girdle
B) The legs
3. Which statement best summarizes an apparatus operator's legal responsibility for the safe operation of that vehicle? A) The operator is not legally responsible for the safe operation of the vehicle; instead, legal responsibility is borne by the agency. B) The operator is legally responsible for the safe operation of the vehicle at all times. C) The operator is legally exempt from liability during an emergency response. D) The operator is not legally responsible for the safe operation of the vehicle, but is considered morally responsible.
B) The operator is legally responsible for the safe operation of the vehicle at all times.
55. When ventilating the basement, where is the preferred location to ventilate? A) The most accessible location B) The point farthest away from the entrance used by the fire attack crew C) The stairway from the upper level D) Any preexisting opening
B) The point farthest away from the entrance used by the fire attack crew
59. Which statement is correct regarding Class D extinguishing agents? A) Application methods are similar regardless of the agent and fuel involved. B) The specific agent must be matched to the specific fuel. C) Most agents are effective on several Class D fuels. D) Some agents are also rated for other classes of fire
B) The specific agent must be matched to the specific fuel.
17. How should an unconscious child be carried down a ladder? A) The rescuer's arms under the victim's arms, the victim's crotch on the rescuer's knee B) The victim cradled across the rescuer's arms C) The victim placed over the rescuer's shoulder, one arm holding the knees against the rescuer's chest D) The victim supported at the crotch and chest by the rescuer's arms
B) The victim cradled across the rescuer's arms
52. Which technology is commonly used to find hidden fire? A) Photo ionization detector B) Thermal imaging device C) Flame ionization detector D) Infrared sonography
B) Thermal imaging device
23. Which form of heat transfer travels in all directions? A) Convection B) Thermal radiation C) Conduction D) Direct contact
B) Thermal radiation
14. What happens to the personnel accountability passports at the scene of an incident? A) They are carried by the company officer B) They are left with a designee at the command post or hazardous area entry point C) They are left in the cab of the apparatus to be collected by a designee D) They are distributed to the company members
B) They are left with a designee at the command post or hazardous area entry point
14. What is a limitation of backpack water vacuums? A) Lift is limited to approximately 3 ft B) They cannot be worn with SCBA C) They must be used in a well-ventilated area D) They cannot be used with dirty water
B) They cannot be worn with SCBA
1. How do heated gases move in a room? A) They disperse evenly throughout the entire volume of the room B) They rise to the ceiling and spread outward C) They spread laterally to the walls and then begin to rise D) They seek the lowest point and settle there
B) They rise to the ceiling and spread outward
39. How is natural gas usually delivered? A) From a large outdoor cylinder or tank B) Through underground pipes C) In portable cylinders D) As a liquefied gas
B) Through underground pipes
31. As more companies are deployed at an incident, why must the incident management structure expand? A) To establish personnel accountability B) To maintain span of control C) To maintain unity of command D) To establish the modular organization
B) To maintain span of control
49. What is correct ladder placement for breaking a window for ventilation? A) Centered on the window, tip just below the sill B) To the side of the window, tip level with the top of the window C) Centered on the window, tip on the wall just above the window D) To the side of the window, tip level with the sill
B) To the side of the window, tip level with the top of the window
1. What does the Golden Rule mean when applied to the fire service? A) Working as a team is essential to success B) Treat everyone else as if they were a member of your family C) Stay humble and teachable, and be willing to teach others D) Honor the job by working hard and doing your best
B) Treat everyone else as if they were a member of your family
33. Which type of roof opening extends all the way across the roof from one exterior wall to the other? A) Band B) Trench C) Transverse D) Cross
B) Trench
20. Which structural component is composed of relatively small and lightweight components arranged in a series of triangles? A) Joist B) Truss C) Lintel D) Chord
B) Truss
41. Which construction assembly is the most susceptible to total failure resulting from the failure of a single component? A) Cantilever B) Truss C) Bearing wall D) Roof panel
B) Truss
40. What are gusset plates? A) Long strips of metal that are sandwiched by wood beam members B) Truss-component connecting plates made of lightweight metal C) The vertical members of a truss assembly D) Structural sheathing designed to resist shear forces
B) Truss-component connecting plates made of lightweight metal
55. Which motion best accomplishes the removal of the pin and tamper seal from a portable fire extinguisher? A) A strong pull directly outward B) Twisting motion C) Side-to-side motion D) Push, then pull
B) Twisting motion
10. What is an ideal location for the rehabilitation center at a high-rise fire? A) In a safe location on the fire floor B) Two or three floors below the fire C) In the lobby of the fire building D) Outside but nearby the fire building
B) Two or three floors below the fire
5. How many people are needed to use a battering ram? A) Two B) Two to four C) Four to six D) Six
B) Two to four
36. Which principle requires each person to have only one direct supervisor? A) Management by objectives B) Unity of command C) Span of control D) Chain of command
B) Unity of command
52. When should the fire fighter at the hydrant charge the supply line? A) As soon as it is connected to the hydrant B) Upon receiving a signal from the driver/operator C) After the supply line is connected to the pump intake D) After placing the hose clamp
B) Upon receiving a signal from the driver/operator
65. What is the last step in rolling a straight hose roll? A) Connect the couplings together B) Use a foot to align protruding hose C) Create a fold to protect the outer coupling D) Tie the slip knot
B) Use a foot to align protruding hose
11. What does it mean when a fire extinguisher has a pictograph with a red slash through it? A) Use on that class of fire would be ineffective B) Use on that class of fire could be hazardous C) The fire extinguisher has not been tested for use on that class of fire D) The fire extinguisher is rated for use on that class of fire
B) Use on that class of fire could be hazardous
22. What is the fastest way for a mobile water supply apparatus to offload water into a portable tank? A) Connect to the drafting pumper B) Use the dump valve C) Engage the tender's auxiliary pump D) Use large-diameter hose
B) Use the dump valve
42. Which of the following is one of the 16 Firefighter Life Safety Initiatives? A) Promote the establishment of an annual Fire Fighter Safety Stand Down B) Utilize technology wherever it can produce higher levels of safety and health C) Develop and promote national standards for rapid intervention team operations D) Ensure a mandatory rest period following full consumption of a single SCBA cylinder
B) Utilize technology wherever it can produce higher levels of safety and health
34. What is a method commonly used to attach individual fire fighters' personnel accountability tags to the board on the apparatus? A) Torx-head screw B) Velcro™ C) Clear vinyl pockets D) Spring clips
B) Velcro™
21. Which tool can be used to unscrew a lock cylinder? A) Strap wrench B) Vise grips C) Channel locks D) Chain whip
B) Vise grips
44. Where should a fire fighter stand when breaking windows? A) Windward side of the window with the hands below the break B) Windward side of the window with the hands above the break C) Leeward side of the window with the hands below the break D) Leeward side of the window with the hands above the break
B) Windward side of the window with the hands above the break
19. What is Type V construction? A) Fire resistive B) Wood frame C) Ordinary D) Lightweight
B) Wood frame
38. Which attack line load is particularly useful when there is a long distance between the engine and the fire? A) Triple layer B) Wyed lines C) Minuteman D) Skid
B) Wyed lines
47. Compared to fog nozzle streams, smooth-bore nozzle streams __________. A) are more effective for hydraulic ventilation B) absorb less heat C) cause more disruption of thermal layering D) have a lower discharge volume
B) absorb less heat
34. An endothermic reaction is one that __________. A) requires a catalyst B) absorbs heat C) occurs in the absence of oxygen D) releases energy
B) absorbs heat
7. Telecommunicators should use _________ listening. A) critical B) active C) interrogatory D) interpretive
B) active
28. Before raising an extension ladder, you should check to make sure the __________. A) foot is heeled B) area is clear of overhead obstructions C) halyard is secure D) dogs are locked
B) area is clear of overhead obstructions
44. For an area to qualify for the classification of "light hazard," most of the combustibles present must be ___________. A) extinguishable by a portable fire extinguisher B) arranged so that a fire is unlikely to spread C) no more than moderately combustible D) Class A only
B) arranged so that a fire is unlikely to spread
36. The first portable light should be set up __________. A) on the "A" side of the structure B) at the entry point into the structure C) on the "C" side of the structure D) as close as possible to the seat of the fire
B) at the entry point into the structure
66. When charging a supply line at a hydrant, the fire fighter should __________. A) place the hose clamp before opening the hydrant B) avoid standing between the hose line and the hydrant C) check that the hydrant strap is secure D) fully open the stem and then back it off one full turn
B) avoid standing between the hose line and the hydrant67.
18. The NFPA standard requires that a communications center be equipped with __________. A) a HEPA-grade air filtration system B) backup systems for all the critical equipment C) a reception area with a staffed watch desk D) a private water supply
B) backup systems for all the critical equipment
29. Adding foam concentrate to a fire apparatus tank is called __________. A) premixing B) batch mixing C) tank mixing D) bulk mixing
B) batch mixing
41. A fire department communication center functions most like a(n) __________. A) freeway interchange B) brain C) Internet search engine D) coach
B) brain
53. The ICS title of director is applied to the supervisor of a __________. A) section B) branch C) division D) company
B) branch
30. The amount of rest needed to recover from physical exertion is __________ related to the intensity of the work performed. A) somewhat B) directly C) inversely D) not
B) directly
33. Organizing an incident by breaking down the overall strategy into a series of smaller tasks is an example of __________. A) discipline B) division of labor C) unity of command D) span of control
B) division of labor
20. Dry chemical extinguishers may be used on Class C fires because they __________. A) are chemically similar to water B) do not conduct electricity C) are noncorrosive D) leave no residue
B) do not conduct electricity
34. Another term for head pressure is __________ pressure. A) static B) elevation C) flow D) residual
B) elevation
10. A Class C extinguisher is rated for use on __________. A) radioactive materials involved in flame B) energized electrical equipment C) flammable chemicals D) wood, paper, or cloth
B) energized electrical equipment
55. The volume of water that is being moved through a pipe or hose is termed the __________. A) pressure B) flow C) throughput D) stream
B) flow
37. Class D agents work primarily by __________. A) penetrating the fuel B) forming a crust over the fuel C) suppressing vapor production D) inhibiting the chemical chain reaction
B) forming a crust over the fuel
27. When under great pressure, most people's behavior will revert to ________. A) instinct B) habit C) common sense D) previous experience
B) habit
28. The use of Halon 1211 is strictly controlled because it is __________. A) mutagenic B) harmful to the environment C) a chemical asphyxiant D) carcinogenic
B) harmful to the environment
45. The location near where a wildland fire began is the __________. A) source B) heel C) launch D) origin
B) heel
29. The incident commander outlines the steps needed to bring an incident under control in the __________. A) situation status report B) incident action plan C) initial report D) report on conditions
B) incident action plan
13. The primary function of a fire helmet's __________ is intended to provide thermal protection. A) outer shell B) inner liner C) vapor barrier D) suspension system
B) inner liner
4. During salvage operations, rolls of plastic film are particularly useful for protecting __________. A) high-piled stock B) long surfaces C) office equipment D) cabinets/bookshelves
B) long surfaces
2. The pipes that deliver water from the treatment facility for distribution are __________. A) secondaries B) mains C) distributors D) trunks
B) mains
13. Fire-retardant wood is treated with __________. A) aluminum oxide B) mineral salts C) calcium sulfate D) urea
B) mineral salts
42. According to NFPA 10, the maximum floor area that can be protected by each extinguisher depends on the __________. A) presence of a built-in suppression system B) occupancy type C) construction class D) occupancy load
B) occupancy type
37. It is of particular importance to control utilities prior to __________. A) setting up positive-pressure ventilation B) opening walls C) beginning salvage operations D) ventilating the roof
B) opening walls
16. A fire cannot be considered fully extinguished until _______ is complete. A) loss control B) overhaul C) secondary search D) the suppression operation
B) overhaul
51. When lifting a ladder from the ground into the carrying position during the three-fire-fighter flat-shoulder carry, all three fire fighters should __________. A) step toward the butt B) pivot during the lift C) move their hands from the beam to the rung D) move to the same side
B) pivot during the lift
17. The use of a fan to blow clean air into a structure and force fire gases out is known as__________ ventilation. A) mechanical B) positive-pressure C) horizontal D) ejection
B) positive-pressure
6. Heat transfer in the form of invisible waves is called __________. A) conduction B) radiation C) convection D) emission
B) radiation
26. A company officer gives the incident commander the results of inspection and exploration of a specified area in a__________. A) report on conditions B) reconnaissance report C) size-up D) situation status report
B) reconnaissance report
26. Upon release from rehabilitation, fire fighters should __________. A) be medically evaluated B) report for reassignment C) be released from the scene D) return to their previous assignment
B) report for reassignment
31. A loaded stream extinguisher is designed to __________. A) prevent unnecessary water damage B) resist freezing C) improve fuel penetration D) create a foam blanket
B) resist freezing
40. A temporary location that provides refuge while awaiting rescue or finding a method of self-rescue from a hazardous situation is a(n) __________. A) in-place shelter B) safe location C) secure room D) emergency refuge
B) safe location
61. A Class K agent's effect on the fuel is known as __________. A) emulsification B) saponification C) dissolution D) hydrolyzation
B) saponification
16. A dry hydrant provides access to a __________. A) municipal water system B) static water source C) portable water tank D) cistern or well
B) static water source
67. A ladder consisting of a single section is called a _________ ladder. A) ground B) straight C) roof D) fly
B) straight
34. The majority of fire fighter injuries are __________. A) soft-tissue injuries B) strains and sprains C) burns D) inhalation injuries
B) strains and sprains
33. The rails of a trussed beam are separated by __________. A) tie rods B) truss blocks C) A-plates D) I-beams
B) truss blocks
36. Freelancing is considered __________. A) necessary B) unacceptable C) commendable D) responsible
B) unacceptable
58. The two-fire-fighter stiff-arm method is used to __________. A) advance a charged line B) uncouple hose C) reload LDH into a hose bed D) make hard suction hose connections
B) uncouple hose
41. The NFPA defines wildland fires as unplanned and uncontrolled fires burning in ________ fuel. A) organic B) vegetative C) living D) natural
B) vegetative
29. The quantity of wildland fuel available in a specific area is fuel __________. A) loading B) volume C) continuity D) density
B) volume
33. When responding to domestic disputes or other scenes involving violence, fire fighters should __________. A) attempt to mediate the dispute B) wait for law enforcement to declare the scene safe C) call for a critical incident stress debriefing team D) remove the involved individuals to separate rooms
B) wait for law enforcement to declare the scene safe
47. When rescuing a downed fire fighter, what is the first step once the fire fighter is reached? A) Check the downed fire fighter's air supply B) Attach the downed fire fighter to the RIC-universal air connection C) Package the downed fire fighter for removal D) Assess the downed fire fighter's condition
D) Assess the downed fire fighter's condition
7. You are alone in zero-visibility conditions and unable to find an exit. Which action listed below should you take last? A) Declare a "mayday" over your radio B) Give a LUNAR report C) Activate your personal alert safety system (PASS) D) Attempt self-rescue
D) Attempt self-rescue
42. What is the sudden, explosive ignition of fire gases that occurs when oxygen is introduced into a superheated space? A) Mushrooming B) Rollover C) Flashover D) Backdraft
D) Backdraft
50. Breaching of which type of wall is most likely to result in structural collapse? A) Partition B) Exterior C) Sleeper D) Bearing
D) Bearing
61. Which knot is typically used to tie together two ropes of unequal size? A) Bowline B) Half hitch C) Square D) Becket bend
D) Becket bend
57. Which of the following is a second line attached to a rescuer that serves as a backup if the main line fails? A) Tag B) Lifeline C) Tether D) Belay
D) Belay
41. What is formed by reversing the direction of a rope to form a "U" bend with two parallel ends? A) Loop B) Bend C) Round turn D) Bight
D) Bight
27. What is the term for a small opening in which a prying tool can be inserted? A) Maw B) Anchor C) Purchase D) Bite
D) Bite
10. Which tool will be needed to shut off a main sprinkler control valve without the necessary key? A) Vise-grips B) A pipe wrench C) A pry bar D) Bolt cutters
D) Bolt cutters
52. Which type of truss has a curved upper member and a straight lower member? A) Lightweight B) Engineered C) Open web D) Bowstring
D) Bowstring
34. What is a common fire service use for a spring-loaded center punch? A) Gaining purchase on a metal surface B) Performing through-the-lock forcible entry C) Deflating tires D) Breaking tempered glass
D) Breaking tempered glass
4. If, during training, you observe an unsafe practice, what should you do? A) Stay focused on your own assignment B) Alert the members in closest proximity to the hazard C) Take immediate action to reduce the hazard D) Bring it to the attention of the instructor or designated safety officer
D) Bring it to the attention of the instructor or designated safety officer
37. A caller is connected directly to a telecommunicator through which device? A) Local alarm B) Fire alarm box C) Central alarm station D) Call box
D) Call box
29. Which type of circular saw blade is specially designed to cut through hard surfaces or wood? A) Diamond B) Aluminum oxide composite C) Silicon oxide composite D) Carbide-tipped
D) Carbide-tipped
50. Which fuel is used most readily by the body during high-intensity physical activities? A) Saturated fat B) Amino acids C) Starch D) Carbohydrates
D) Carbohydrates
54. If you encounter a closed door during a search, what should you do before entering? A) Try before you pry B) Gap the door C) Loudly identify yourself and your intentions D) Check the door for heat
D) Check the door for heat
52. Which form of energy causes spontaneous heating of a pile of linseed oil-soaked rags? A) Organic B) Hypergolic C) Exothermic D) Chemical
D) Chemical
42. What the third step in the five-step process of receiving and dispatching an emergency call? A) Caller instruction B) Unit notification C) Unit selection D) Classification and prioritization
D) Classification and prioritization
18. What is the correct procedure for vent-entry-search? A) Use this process in combination with horizontal ventilation B) Vent the window as soon as possible after entering the room C) Searchers must be equipped with a hose line D) Close the door as soon as possible after making entry
D) Close the door as soon as possible after making entry
24. What is the best way to stop the flow of liquefied petroleum (LP) gas into a structure? A) Rotate the quarter-turn valve on the supply pipe B) Turn the valve on the meter to the closed position C) Disconnect the cylinder D) Close the valve on the storage tank
D) Close the valve on the storage tank
45. Which knot would typically be used to attach a rope to a tree or pole? A) Square knot B) Bowline on a bight C) Figure eight on a bight D) Clove hitch
D) Clove hitch
50. What is the best way to confirm everyone has safely evacuated a building? A) Question occupants B) Conduct a head count C) Conduct a personnel accountability report D) Conduct a thorough search
D) Conduct a thorough search
62. What does the "C" stand for in "RECEO-VS"? A) Conduction B) Command C) Convection D) Confinement
D) Confinement
24. What is the term for the transfer of heat through a circulating medium of liquid or gas? A) Conduction B) Radiation C) Condensation D) Convection
D) Convection
40. The movement of heated gases in a fire is an example of which form of heat transfer? A) Circulation B) Radiation C) Conduction D) Convection
D) Convection
53. Upward spread of fire within a structure is primarily caused by which form of heat transfer? A) Circulation B) Radiation C) Conduction D) Convection
D) Convection
36. Which of the following is a common type of handsaw? A) Band B) Chop C) Lanier D) Coping
D) Coping
4. Which type of tool is a pick-head axe? A) Prying B) Combination C) Striking D) Cutting
D) Cutting
63. Which class of fire involves combustible metals? A) K B) A C) B D) D
D) D
32. What is the term for a phone line that connects two predetermined points? A) Dedicated circuit B) Private line C) Local circuit D) Direct line
D) Direct line
80. Which type of adaptor is used to connect two female couplings to each other? A) Wye B) Double female C) Siamese D) Double male
D) Double male
25. Which sort of air movement is likely on a hot day in an air-conditioned tall building? A) Updraft B) Churning C) Stratification D) Downdraft
D) Downdraft
49. Which statement about dry chemical agents is correct? A) Dry chemical agents are noncorrosive. B) Dry chemical agents are compatible with all types of foam. C) All dry chemical agents have a multipurpose rating. D) Dry chemical agents are not subject to freezing.
D) Dry chemical agents are not subject to freezing
33. What is an appropriate use for a 1" (25-mm) booster line? A) Exposure protection B) Car fire C) Appliance fire D) Dumpster fire
D) Dumpster fire
13. When should fire fighters begin to think about which tools they might need for a given call? A) At the beginning of the shift B) After size-up C) Upon arrival at the scene D) During the response
D) During the response
30. What is the difference between dry powder and dry chemical extinguishing agents? A) "Dry powder" and "dry chemical" are both terms for the same class of agents. B) A dry powder is compatible with foam; a dry chemical is not. C) A dry powder is harmful to the environment; a dry chemical is not. D) Each is rated for a different class of fire.
D) Each is rated for a different class of fire.
46. Which of the following is an ICS single resource? A) Unit B) Company officer C) Strike team D) Engine company
D) Engine company
60. What does the "E" in LCES stand for? A) Establish lookouts B) Expect surprises C) Establish accountability D) Escape routes
D) Escape routes
20. How often should SCBA face pieces be fit-tested? A) Monthly B) Every 3 months C) Every 6 months D) Every 12 months
D) Every 12 months
35. Which phrase best summarizes the smallest operations for which an ICS should be established? A) Incidents involving multiple agencies B) Incidents involving multiple units C) Operations in IDLH atmospheres D) Everyday operations
D) Everyday operations
19. How much damage is caused by forcing the locks on double-hung windows? A) None B) Minor C) Moderate D) Extensive
D) Extensive
45. Which hazard category includes automotive service or repair facilities? A) Severe B) Moderate C) Ordinary D) Extra
D) Extra
33. Which organization developed the first standard incident command system? A) NFPA B) FEMA C) USFA D) FIRESCOPE
D) FIRESCOPE
3. What is an advantage of portable fire extinguishers over hose lines? A) Greater heat absorption B) Controllable rates of flow C) Longer duration D) Faster deployment
D) Faster deployment
24. In which type of fuel will a fire spread the most rapidly? A) Compacted B) Brush C) Slash D) Fine
D) Fine
4. What is usually the main type of fuel present in ground cover fires? A) Coarse B) Light C) Heavy D) Fine
D) Fine
17. What is the term for a long, narrow extension of fire projecting out from the main body of a wildland fire? A) Island B) Spot C) Run D) Finger
D) Finger
7. What is the term for the lowest temperature at which a liquid produces enough flammable vapor to burn momentarily? A) Fire point B) Ignition temperature C) Flammable range D) Flash point
D) Flash point
25. Which tool is part of the "irons"? A) Mallet B) Pick head axe C) Pry-bar D) Flat-head axe
D) Flat-head axe
55. What is high-expansion foam particularly used for? A) Unignited fuel spills B) Exposure protection C) Transportation accidents D) Flooding of large enclosed areas
D) Flooding of large enclosed areas
36. How many fire fighters are necessary to properly execute a long-backboard rescue? A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four or more
D) Four or more
23. What is the term for acting without a superior's orders or outside of department SOPs? A) Independent action B) Initiative C) Decentralized authority D) Freelancing
D) Freelancing
38. What is the decrease in pressure that occurs as water moves through a hose? A) Kinetic energy B) Residual pressure C) Water hammer D) Friction loss
D) Friction loss
11. Which type of harness is used in the fire service? A) Climbing B) Web C) Utility D) Full Body
D) Full Body
34. Which device interrupts the current when there is a problem with an electrical ground? A) ECB B) EGR C) GCI D) GFI
D) GFI
4. What is the term for a rope used on an extension ladder to raise a fly section? A) Uphaul B) Bunt C) Fly line D) Halyard
D) Halyard
38. In which type of incident is the rehab center located farthest from the operational area? A) High-rise B) Wildland C) Confined space D) Hazardous materials
D) Hazardous materials
25. Which fuel classification includes large brush? A) Ground B) Moderate C) Median D) Heavy
D) Heavy
42. What is the term for keeping a ladder from slipping by applying one's weight to the underside of it? A) Securing B) Tying-in C) Anchoring D) Heeling
D) Heeling
85. Which tool is used to protect a hose line that is being hoisted over a sharp edge? A) Hose ramp B) Edge protector C) Hose pulley D) Hose roller
D) Hose roller
54. What is a critical factor to consider when evaluating the potential for collapse of a burning structure? A) Size of the collapse zone B) Reflex time C) Weather conditions D) How long it has been burning
D) How long it has been burning
37. Which statement about hydraulic ventilation is correct? A) A medium-diameter line is required. B) A straight or solid stream is used. C) The ventilation crew is not exposed to products of combustion. D) Hydraulic ventilation effectively moves large volumes of smoke and heat.
D) Hydraulic ventilation effectively moves large volumes of smoke and heat.
29. Which gas is most commonly produced by residential or commercial fires? A) Anhydrous ammonia B) Nitrous oxide C) Hydrogen sulfide D) Hydrogen cyanide
D) Hydrogen cyanide
6. In a building fire, you observe warped steel structural members. What is the correct action to take? A) No specific action is required B) Direct a hose stream on the members C) Inform the incident commander of your observations D) Immediately withdraw from the building
D) Immediately withdraw from the building
42. Who has the responsibility to account for all fire fighters involved in an emergency incident? A) Company officer B) Safety officer C) Fire fighter D) Incident commander
D) Incident commander
15. Which condition will generally result in lower relative humidity? A) Higher fuel moisture B) Precipitation C) Nighttime D) Increasing temperature
D) Increasing temperature
57. What is the preferred method to ventilate a large building? A) Vertical ventilation B) Multiple roof openings C) Trench cut D) Individual ventilation of interior compartments
D) Individual ventilation of interior compartments
30. What is plasterboard commonly used for? A) Shear wall B) Roof fascia and soffits C) Roof sheathing D) Interior walls and ceilings
D) Interior walls and ceilings
22. Which statement about an RIC is correct? A) It is not permitted to perform any non-RIC tasks. B) It is required only on hazardous materials and confined-space rescue incidents. C) A backup hose line crew operating inside the hazard zone may function as the RIC. D) It is an extension of the two-in/two-out rule.
D) It is an extension of the two-in/two-out rule.
26. How does the rabbet tool work? A) It cuts the latch or bolt B) It displaces the lock cylinder C) It shears the hinges D) It spreads the door from the frame
D) It spreads the door from the frame
12. Fires involving combustible cooking media, such as oils and grease, are considered Class _____. A) E B) F C) G D) K
D) K
59. What is the preferred type for rope for rescue operations? A) Braided B) Twisted C) Plaited D) Kernmantle
D) Kernmantle
30. What is the color code for a hydrant flowing 1500 gpm (5678 lpm) or more? A) White B) Orange C) Green D) Light blue
D) Light blue
12. What is an advantage of a smooth-bore nozzle? A) Greater heat absorption per gallon discharged B) Operation at a higher nozzle pressure C) Creation of more air turbulence D) Longer stream reach
D) Longer stream reach
53. Which action should fire fighters perform first before forcing a door? A) Gap the door B) Check for the presence of a dead-bolt C) Sound the surrounding wall D) Look for a glass panel in or adjacent to the door
D) Look for a glass panel in or adjacent to the door
12. What is the likely result of a ladder striking an overhead obstruction while it is being raised? A) Damage to the ladder that is not readily apparent B) Sudden collapse of the fly section C) A broken or weakened halyard D) Loss of control of the ladder
D) Loss of control of the ladder
46. Who is generally the most valuable and reliable source of information about a building? A) Neighbors B) Occupants C) Witnesses D) Maintenance personnel
D) Maintenance personnel
45. Lightweight trusses are typically used in which roof type(s)? A) Arched B) Pitched C) Flat D) Many types
D) Many types
23. Which statement about masonry materials is correct? A) Masonry materials are susceptible to pyrolysis. B) Masonry materials have high thermal conductivity. C) Masonry materials expand significantly when heated. D) Masonry materials are fire resistive
D) Masonry materials are fire resistive
19. Which tool is a combination of hoe and rake? A) Pulaski B) Forestry hoe C) Combination D) McLeod
D) McLeod
42. Which type of cutting blade can be damaged by gasoline vapors? A) Carbide tip B) Wood C) Plastic D) Metal
D) Metal
27. Which feature of some carbon dioxide extinguishers makes them dangerous for use on Class C fires? A) Loaded stream B) External cartridge C) Steel cylinder D) Metal horn
D) Metal horn
34. In the United States, data from incident reports are compiled and analyzed through the __________. A) Fire Incident Information Collection System B) U.S. Fire Incident Data System C) National Incident Management Information System D) National Fire Incident Reporting System
D) National Fire Incident Reporting System
6. Which statement about natural fiber ropes is correct? A) Natural fiber ropes are no longer approved for fire service use. B) Natural fiber ropes absorb less water than synthetic ropes. C) Some natural fiber ropes are approved for life-safety use. D) Natural fiber ropes deteriorate even if stored properly.
D) Natural fiber ropes deteriorate even if stored properly.
35. Churning most frequently occurs with which form of ventilation? A) Positive-pressure B) Vertical C) Horizontal D) Negative-pressure
D) Negative-pressure
22. When is freelancing acceptable during emergency operations? A) Prior to the establishment of an incident command structure B) In response to sudden changes in circumstances or conditions C) Whenever such action will result in a favorable outcome D) Never
D) Never
25. What residue does a CO2 fire extinguisher leave when discharged? A) Carbon B) Iron oxide C) Mineral salt D) None
D) None
25. Which statement about hazard recognition is correct? A) Hazards tend to be the same regardless of the nature of the incident. B) The most obvious hazards tend to pose the least danger. C) Hazards decrease as the duration of the incident increases. D) Not all hazardous conditions are evident through observation
D) Not all hazardous conditions are evident through observation
28. Under which circumstances does the first-arriving officer become command? A) Upon arrival of a second officer B) When multiple units will be needed to manage the incident C) When necessary to maintain span of control D) On every incident
D) On every incident
44. How should fire fighters space themselves when advancing an uncharged line up a ladder? A) 10 ft (3 m) apart B) 15 ft (5 m) apart C) Only the fire fighter with the nozzle should be on the ladder D) One fire fighter on each ladder section
D) One fire fighter on each ladder section
37. When rescuing a conscious person from a window using a ladder, where does the second fire fighter stand? A) On the bottom rung of the ladder B) About six rungs down from the top C) On a rung level with the opening D) One rung below the windowsill
D) One rung below the windowsill
37. What should be done to avoid water hammer? A) Always maintain a minimum residual pressure of 20 psi B) Never connect a hard suction hose to a pressurized water supply C) Purge air from the line before opening a valve or nozzle D) Open and close all valves slowly
D) Open and close all valves slowly
46. What is the easiest, quickest way to ventilate interior spaces in a building? A) Use natural ventilation through windows B) Use the building's HVAC system C) Create a vertical opening D) Open interior doors
D) Open interior doors
49. The smothering method of extinguishment is most frequently used in which wildland operation? A) Direct attack B) Cold trailing C) Indirect attack D) Overhaul
D) Overhaul
39. In which process is a new compound created from the combination of oxygen and another substance? A) Catagenesis B) Pyrolysis C) Combustion D) Oxidation
D) Oxidation
17. Which of the following is one of the three basic components required for fire? A) An ignition source B) A catalyst C) Carbon D) Oxygen
D) Oxygen
3. How does wearing PPE affect the body's ability to regulate temperature? A) Heat is efficiently conducted from the skin to the shell B) The perspiration-soaked inner liner enhances cooling by convection C) Cool SCBA cylinder air improves respiratory cooling D) PPE prevents evaporative cooling
D) PPE prevents evaporative cooling
3. Which style of leadership does the fire department use? A) Top centralized B) Distributed C) Decentralized D) Paramilitary
D) Paramilitary
15. What is the term for a roll call taken by a supervisor at an emergency incident? A) Resource status report B) Status and location check C) Personnel safety check D) Personnel accountability report
D) Personnel accountability report
35. Which fire gas is a product of incomplete combustion of common household items? A) Acrolein B) Hydrogen chloride C) Sulfur dioxide D) Phosgene
D) Phosgene
20. Which construction feature is most commonly found in Type V buildings? A) Pre-stressed concrete B) Treated lumber C) Bar joists D) Platform-frame construction
D) Platform-frame construction
9. Which fiber is commonly used in water rescue rope? A) Polyester B) Spectra C) Olefin D) Polypropylene
D) Polypropylene
35. What is the term for ladders that are designed to be removed from the apparatus? A) Articulating ladders B) Bangor ladders C) Pompier ladders D) Portable ladders
D) Portable ladders
27. Which statement about the use of inverters is correct? A) Inverters must be used in a well-ventilated area. B) Inverters must be used in tandem with a generator. C) Inverters can be carried to areas that are inaccessible to vehicles. D) Power output is limited.
D) Power output is limited.
6. What is the term for a hose line that is stored on an engine connected to a discharge and equipped with a nozzle for immediate deployment? A) Skid load B) Ready load C) Bundle D) Preconnect
D) Preconnect
72. Which term means the amount of energy in a body or stream of water? A) Flow B) Watts C) Volume D) Pressure
D) Pressure
21. What are smoke, heat, and toxic gases called collectively? A) Fire gases B) Black fire C) Smoke D) Products of combustion
D) Products of combustion
59. What is a characteristic of bowstring trusses? A) Lack of a cockloft or storage space B) Commonly used in lightweight residential construction C) Commonly used in fire-resistive construction D) Prone to sudden collapse in fire conditions
D) Prone to sudden collapse in fire conditions
23. What is the main component in tissue growth and repair? A) Carbohydrates B) Lipids C) Unsaturated fats D) Protein
D) Protein
28. Which tool is designed for both cutting and prying? A) Bam-bam B) Ram bar C) Halligan D) Pry axe
D) Pry axe
52. What is the term for the capability of an apparatus to pump water while moving? A) Auxiliary drive B) Power take-off C) Dual drive D) Pump and roll
D) Pump and roll
8. How is a sprinkler wedge used to stop flow from an activated sprinkler? A) Insert the wedge into the orifice and drive it into place with a striking tool B) Tap a wedge into place between the orifice and the deflector C) Tap two wedges into place above and below the deflector D) Push two wedges together from opposite sides between the orifice and the deflector
D) Push two wedges together from opposite sides between the orifice and the deflector
60. Which term describes the top or bottom section of a trussed beam? A) Dog B) Block C) Rung D) Rail
D) Rail
16. What does the "R" stand for in "RIC"? A) Responder B) Response C) Rescue D) Rapid
D) Rapid
38. Which type of saw is most commonly used in vehicle extrication? A) Rotary B) Chain C) Circular D) Reciprocating
D) Reciprocating
10. Which characteristic is an advantage of unified command? A) Delegates decision making to a single incident commander B) Maintains and reinforces the span of control C) Eliminates the need for unity of command D) Reduced conflict and duplication of effort
D) Reduced conflict and duplication of effort
46. Which item is used to attach a smaller hose to a larger one? A) Adaptor B) Fitting C) Gate D) Reducer
D) Reducer
17. What is a benefit of Class A foam? A) Does not conduct electricity B) Forms a vapor barrier on fuel spills C) Is compatible with many other foam types D) Reduces the surface tension of water
D) Reduces the surface tension of water
15. How are rehabilitation concerns affected by high humidity? A) Time spent is rehab can be reduced B) Rehab time must be doubled C) The likelihood of hypothermia increases with humidity D) Regulation of body temperature is more difficult
D) Regulation of body temperature is more difficult
29. Which statement about rehabilitation is correct? A) Rehab should be limited to high-intensity or long-duration incidents. B) The need for rehab should be determined by line personnel. C) A rehab center should be established at every incident. D) Rehab should be a consideration on every incident.
D) Rehab should be a consideration on every incident.
12. Which factor has the greatest effect on the moisture content of fuels? A) Continuity B) Wind C) Temperature D) Relative humidity
D) Relative humidity
7. Which statement best describes the concept of unified command? A) Each subordinate is accountable to only one supervisor. B) All members of the command staff agree to the same set of objectives, tactics, and strategy for the incident. C) The chain of command is clearly defined and strictly adhered to. D) Representatives from different agencies share command authority.
D) Representatives from different agencies share command authority.
17. Which ladder is carried with the tip forward? A) Straight B) Extension C) Attic D) Roof
D) Roof
27. Which part of a ladder directly bears the weight of the person climbing it? A) Tie rod B) Truss block C) Spur D) Rung
D) Rung
53. Which type of raise is typically used when the ladder is raised perpendicular to the target surface? A) Beam B) Overhead C) Throw D) Rung
D) Rung
19. Who has the authority to directly and immediately stop any activity on the fire ground that he or she judges to be unsafe? A) All personnel B) Company officer C) Division/group supervisors D) Safety officer
D) Safety officer
20. What are electrolytes? A) Nutrients required for body temperature regulation B) Specialized tissues that conduct nerve impulses C) Compounds that provide energy for physical exertion D) Salts and other chemicals dissolved in body fluids
D) Salts and other chemicals dissolved in body fluids
13. Which item is commonly used to improvise a water chute? A) Hard suction hose B) Water vacuum C) Attic ladder D) Salvage cover
D) Salvage cover
3. What is the term for the main area of the fire? A) Origin B) Body C) Heel D) Seat
D) Seat
9. What is another term for gypsum board? A) Chalkboard B) Paneling C) Cement board D) Sheetrock
D) Sheetrock
51. Which phase of a fire-ground operation involves the observation and evaluation of factors used to determine the strategy and tactics to be employed? A) Evaluation B) Investigation C) Initial assessment D) Size-up
D) Size-up
21. Which of the following is the best option for extinguishing hot spots during overhaul? A) 2.5 gallon water or Class A fire extinguisher B) Medium-diameter hose line C) Booster line D) Small-diameter hose line
D) Small-diameter hose line
30. What is the phenomenon in which smoke hangs low to the ground on a calm, cool, damp day? A) Ground effect B) Pooling C) Downdrafting D) Smoke inversion
D) Smoke inversion
4. What are butt spurs on a ladder? A) Mechanical locks that hold the fly section in place B) Devices to secure the ladder to a roof ridge C) Bumps and dents that occur on the foot pad as a result of use D) Spikes on the base that keep it from slipping
D) Spikes on the base that keep it from slipping
53. Which supply line load is capable of laying both single and dual supply lines? A) Twin B) Detroit C) Horseshoe D) Split bed
D) Split bed
47. Which description best fits a hose jacket device? A) Soft rubber sheet B) Stiff canvas patch C) Wound plastic coil D) Split metal cylinder
D) Split metal cylinder
32. The rate of combustion of wood is most directly related to which factor? A) Age B) Use of adhesives C) Volatility D) Surface area
D) Surface area
46. On which principle does a thermal imaging camera operate? A) Ultraviolet light detection B) Diffraction spectroscopy C) Digital image enhancement D) Temperature differentials
D) Temperature differentials
46. Which type of glass is normally used in automobile side and rear windows? A) Annealed B) Polycarbonate C) Laminated D) Tempered
D) Tempered
18. Which geometric figure is used to represent the four elements required for a self-sustaining fire? A) Pyramid B) Square C) Polygon D) Tetrahedron
D) Tetrahedron
13. The Americans with Disabilities Act requires that communications centers be able to receive calls by which medium? A) Personal digital assistant (PDA) B) Walk-in C) Radio transmission D) Text message
D) Text message
15. How does the Canadian emergency reporting system differ from the 911 system used in the United States? A) Canadian callers must dial seven-digit numbers to report an emergency B) Emergency reporting numbers in Canada vary between provinces and territories C) Canadian callers must dial "0" to report an emergency D) The U.S. and Canadian systems are essentially the same
D) The U.S. and Canadian systems are essentially the same
23. Which location presents the most immediate life-safety hazard for an apartment fire? A) The apartment directly underneath the fire B) The apartments adjacent to the fire C) The uppermost floor of the building D) The apartment directly above the fire
D) The apartment directly above the fire
39. What is the ICS term for the headquarter location of an incident? A) The staging area B) The planning sector C) The forward observation point D) The command post
D) The command post
14. As an incident progresses, what is an additional factor to be evaluated in the ongoing size-up? A) Establishment of an overall goal for the incident B) Actions that can be safely accomplished C) Additional resources needed D) The effectiveness of the initial plan
D) The effectiveness of the initial plan
49. Which situation is indicated if you open a door and the smoke rises and the opening clears out? A) The fire is ventilation controlled B) The fire is in the decay phase C) The fire is extinguished D) The fire is above the level of the door
D) The fire is above the level of the door
50. Which situation is indicated when you open a door and the smoke thins, but the smoke still fills the door? A) The fire has reached thermal equilibrium B) The fire has ventilated through another opening C) There is a slow-moving, low-intensity fire D) The fire is below the level of the door
D) The fire is below the level of the door
45. Which statement about operating a nozzle from a ground ladder is correct? A) This is a risky operation that should be avoided whenever possible. B) The ladder should be tied off to the building. C) Two parallel ladders are required for this operation. D) The hose must be tied securely to the ladder.
D) The hose must be tied securely to the ladder.
20. Which statement about the use of a thermal imager during overhaul operations is correct? A) A thermal imager is particularly useful for scanning through heavy insulating materials. B) Some ambient light is required for the unit to produce a useful image. C) Imagers used for search and rescue should not be used for overhaul. D) The imager depicts the temperature differential between an object and its surroundings.
D) The imager depicts the temperature differential between an object and its surroundings.
4. What is the correct procedure during a clockwise room search? A) The crew turns left at each corner B) The crew turns right at the entry point C) The left hand sweeps the middle of the room D) The left hand maintains contact with the wall
D) The left hand maintains contact with the wall
39. Who is responsible for determining when removal of SCBA is permissible after a fire has been extinguished? A) Each individual is responsible for this decision B) The company officer C) The incident commander D) The safety officer
D) The safety officer
25. Which statement about painting hand tools is correct? A) Rust-inhibiting paint should be applied to the nonworking surfaces of metal tools. B) Paint will extend the life of wood handles. C) Paint will evolve flammable vapors in a fire environment. D) The use of paint on tools can hide defects or damage.
D) The use of paint on tools can hide defects or damage.
32. How does PPE prevent evaporative cooling? A) The liner reflects evaporative heat B) Perspiration is absorbed in the layers C) The thermal barrier prevents heat transfer D) The vapor barrier prevents evaporation of sweat
D) The vapor barrier prevents evaporation of sweat
7. Which statement is correct about glass blocks in a wall? A) Glass blocks are extremely difficult to breach. B) Glass blocks quickly fail under fire conditions. C) The wall will contain structural steel. D) The wall is non-load bearing.
D) The wall is non-load bearing.
1. Rotating tools are used to assemble parts that are connected by which means? A) Welds B) Nails C) Rivets D) Threaded fasteners
D) Threaded fasteners
33. A portable fire extinguisher is bested suited for which situation? A) Car fire B) Room and contents fire C) Fire in a wastebasket D) Vegetation fire
C) Fire in a wastebasket
38. Positive-pressure ventilation is the least suitable approach for which situation? A) Fire attack is in progress B) Structure with large interior spaces C) Fire in structural void spaces D) High-rise fire
C) Fire in structural void spaces
44. What is the term for the lowest temperature at which a liquid produces enough vapor to sustain a continuous fire? A) Vaporization temperature B) Flash point C) Flame point D) Ignition temperature
C) Flame point
54. What is the term for the spontaneous ignition of hot gases at the upper level of a room? A) Ghosting B) Flashover C) Flameover D) Mushrooming
C) Flameover
41. What occurs when room temperature reaches the ignition point of the combustibles within it? A) Mushrooming B) Backdraft C) Flashover D) Lapping
C) Flashover
35. Which pressure must be measured to calculate the quantity of water flowing through a hydrant discharge? A) Head B) Operating C) Flow D) Residual
C) Flow
30. Which component is part of a Halligan tool? A) Cutting blade B) Spring-loaded hook C) Forked claw D) Hydrant spanner
C) Forked claw
41. What is the minimum acceptable level of protective equipment when conducting forcible entry during fire suppression operations? A) Helmet and eye protection B) Gloves and eye protection C) Full structural firefighting PPE D) Helmet, coat, and gloves
C) Full structural firefighting PPE
31. Flashover occurs during which phase of fire? A) Growth B) Incipient C) Fully developed D) Ignition
C) Fully developed
6. Which items are best overhauled outside the structure? A) Appliances B) Books/documents C) Furniture D) Clothing/wardrobe
C) Furniture
37. Who developed the first fire hydrant? A) Ben Franklin B) John Lofton C) George Smith D) Hans Hautsch
C) George Smith
7. Which of the following was one of the major U.S. fires of 1871? A) Great New Orleans Fire B) Great Fire of Pittsburgh C) Great Chicago Fire D) Great Boston Fire
C) Great Chicago Fire
28. Which characteristic is associated with modern lightweight construction techniques? A) Higher dead load B) A more air-tight structure C) Greater susceptibility to collapse D) Unstopped stud bays
C) Greater susceptibility to collapse
29. What is the color code for a hydrant flowing 1000 to 1499 gpm (3785 to 5674 lpm)? A) Yellow B) Light blue C) Green D) Orange
C) Green
26. What is another term for surface fuels? A) Litter B) Duff C) Ground D) Understory
C) Ground
42. What is the most common type of wildland fire? A) Crown B) Forest C) Ground cover D) Brush
C) Ground cover
21. What is the relationship between habits developed in training and performance on the fire ground? A) In the stress of emergency operations, habits are overridden by instincts B) Habits formed in training necessarily become abbreviated and rushed on the fire ground C) Habits developed in training will continue on the fire ground D) Fire-ground performance is not significantly altered through habituation
C) Habits developed in training will continue on the fire ground
44. Which knot is used to keep the hoisting rope aligned with the handle of a tool being hoisted? A) Half sheepshank B) Directional figure eight C) Half hitch D) Overhand
C) Half hitch
40. Which part(s) of a ladder should not be exposed to solvents? A) All parts B) Beams C) Halyard D) Pawls
C) Halyard
36. What is the term for a piece of rescue equipment worn by a person to secure that individual to a rope? A) Cam-lock B) Tie-in C) Harness D) Ladder belt
C) Harness
16. Which question is important to consider when inspecting life safety ropes? A) Has the rope ever been under load? B) How long has the rope been in storage? C) Has the rope been subject to shock loading? D) Has the rope been exposed to sunlight?
C) Has the rope been subject to shock loading?
30. Which type of company specializes in incidents involving spilled or leaking hazardous chemicals? A) Engine B) Truck C) Hazardous material D) Salvage
C) Hazardous material
35. What is Type IV construction? A) Wood frame B) Masonry on synthetics C) Heavy timber D) Synthetics
C) Heavy timber
53. During a fire, where is a missing child likely to be located? A) In his or her parent's bed B) In the kitchen C) Hiding in a closet D) In an exit pathway
C) Hiding in a closet
30. When lives can be saved, how much risk is justified in trying to save them? A) Minimal B) Moderate C) High D) Unlimited
C) High
11. Which type of building is the most prone to the stack effect? A) Warehouse B) Cold-storage facility C) High-rise D) Shopping mall
C) High-rise
6. Which item meets the minimum requirements for visibility for personnel working a vehicle accident? A) Turnout coats and pants with reflective strips B) Yellow turnout coats and pants C) High-visibility safety vests D) Any PPE with reflective strips
C) High-visibility safety vests
48. Which type of ventilation relies on doors and windows on the same level as the fire? A) Positive-pressure B) Passive C) Horizontal D) Natural
C) Horizontal
18. Which type of construction is heavy timber? A) II B) III C) IV D) V
C) IV
15. What is the best way to cut off electrical service to a structure? A) Pull the meter B) Throw the pole-mounted breaker C) Cut the service drop D) Throw the main switch at the circuit breaker box
D) Throw the main switch at the circuit breaker box
9. When is an exception made to the two-in/two-out rule? A) There are no exceptions; the rule applies to all IDLH entries B) When it will delay operations due to lack of personnel C) In life-threatening situations where immediate action can save a life D) In IDLH entries where there is no visible fire
C) In life-threatening situations where immediate action can save a life
58. Who is responsible for determining the strategic incident objectives? A) Command staff B) Planning officer C) Incident commander D) Operations section chief
C) Incident commander
51. If a wildland or ground cover fire is too dangerous for a direct attack, which type of fire attack should be used? A) Head B) Pincer C) Indirect D) Flanking
C) Indirect
7. During salvage, what is the best way to quickly stop the flow from a single sprinkler head? A) Close the branch line valve B) Replace the bulb or link C) Insert a sprinkler wedge D) Install a replacement head
C) Insert a sprinkler wedge
44. What is one of the three categories of wildland fire causes? A) Spontaneous B) Criminal C) Intentional D) Conditional
C) Intentional
8. Which development led to the widespread use of the mechanized pumping apparatus? A) Wagon-mounted steam engines B) Jacketed hose C) Internal combustion engines D) Private insurance companies
C) Internal combustion engines
48. What is the primary extinguishing mechanism of dry chemical agents? A) Suppressing vapor production B) Forming a crust over the fuel C) Interrupting the chemical chain reaction D) Displacing oxygen
C) Interrupting the chemical chain reaction
14. Which statement regarding the fire fighter drag is correct? A) It requires no equipment to carry out. B) It is well suited to stairways. C) It can be used when the victim is heavier than the rescuer. D) It requires cooperation on the part of the victim.
C) It can be used when the victim is heavier than the rescuer.
49. What is the biggest drawback of the two-person seat carry? A) Rescuers must maintain a stooped posture B) It is difficult to travel long distances C) It is difficult to move through doors D) The carry requires access to a chair
C) It is difficult to move through doors
59. When vent-entry-search is performed with two fire fighters, where is the second fire fighter located? A) In constant physical contact with the first searcher B) At the anchor point C) Just outside the window D) The doorway
C) Just outside the window
11. Which tool is designed specifically to cut into a lock cylinder? A) Hux bar B) J tool C) K tool D) Pry axe
C) K tool
14. Which tool is designed to pull a lock cylinder out of a door? A) Rabbet tool B) Hux bar C) K tool D) Lock cutter
C) K tool
28. What is one of the 10 standard wildland firefighting orders? A) Avoid downhill fire line construction B) Establish and maintain chain of command and span of control C) Keep informed on weather conditions and forecasts D) Beware of unburned fuel between you and the fire
C) Keep informed on weather conditions and forecasts
28. Which tool is classified as a prying/spreading tool? A) Spanner B) K tool C) Kelly tool D) Axe
C) Kelly tool
1. If a private residence has a single fire extinguisher, where should it be located? A) Garage B) Near the bedrooms C) Kitchen D) Laundry area
C) Kitchen
45. Which type of glass is normally used in automobile windshields? A) Annealed B) Reinforced C) Laminated D) Tempered
C) Laminated
42. When referring to hose, what does the "L" stand for in "LDH"? A) Limited B) Low C) Large D) Light
C) Large
22. Which material is a component of mortar? A) Pea gravel B) Diatomaceous earth C) Lime D) Calcium sulfate
C) Lime
23. Which term best describes how much risk is acceptable in attempting to protect savable property? A) None B) Minor C) Limited D) Significant
C) Limited
44. Which term means the weight of a building's contents? A) Dead load B) Gross building weight C) Live load D) Tare weight
C) Live load
15. Which piece of equipment should be used whenever possible during an emergency drag from a vehicle? A) Short backboard B) Webbing C) Long backboard D) Blanket
C) Long backboard
29. What is a safety rule for climbing a ladder? A) Avoid holding onto the beams during the climb B) Avoid standing with both feet on the same rung C) Look upward only when necessary D) Carry, rather than hoist, tools whenever possible
C) Look upward only when necessary
19. What is formed by making a circle in a rope? A) Bight B) Snub C) Loop D) Coil
C) Loop
11. Which nozzle type has the highest flow rate? A) Adjustable B) Handline C) Master stream D) Smooth bore
C) Master stream
4. Which term best describes how much risk is acceptable in attempting to save endangered lives? A) None B) Minor C) Measured D) Unlimited
C) Measured
35. Which of the following is a component of the seven-part rehabilitation model? A) Stress management B) Debriefing C) Medical monitoring D) Rotation
C) Medical monitoring
35. For which preconnected hose load does the fire fighter shoulder part of the load, with hose paying off the top of that load as the fire fighter advances? A) Triple layer B) Skid C) Minuteman D) Forestry
C) Minuteman
42. Which attack line load is particularly useful when the line must be advanced up a stairway? A) Triple layer B) Wyed lines C) Minuteman D) Skid
C) Minuteman
57. What do fire departments commonly use to manage incidents that require more resources than are immediately available? A) Isolation and withdrawal policies B) A regional emergency operations center C) Mutual aid agreements D) A local incident management system
C) Mutual aid agreements
30. What is one of the three categories of wildland fire causes? A) Proximal B) Mechanical C) Natural D) Electrical
C) Natural
63. Which type of fire attack consists of overpowering a small fire with water or another extinguishing agent? A) Interior B) Quick C) Offensive D) Defensive
C) Offensive
16. In the one-fire-fighter carry, where is the top beam of the ladder? A) Above the head B) Under the arm C) On the shoulder D) In the hands
C) On the shoulder
20. What is another term for a safety knot? A) Rescue knot B) Finishing knot C) Overhand knot D) Half hitch
C) Overhand knot
31. How do most volunteer fire fighters receive dispatch messages? A) Phone B) Siren or horn C) Pager D) Home receiver
C) Pager
29. What is the K tool used for? A) Prying B) Breaking the shackle of a padlock C) Performing through-the-lock entry D) Removing laminated glass
C) Performing through-the-lock entry
29. Which fuel produces large quantities of black, roiling smoke that rises in a vertical column? A) Vegetation B) Wood C) Petroleum products D) Textiles
C) Petroleum products
10. Why should ground ladders that are unused be cleaned periodically? A) To prevent oxidation B) To prevent halyard deterioration C) To keep step and grab surfaces tacky D) To remove accumulated road grime
D) To remove accumulated road grime
53. Which type of ventilation opening is used to stop fire spread in a long, narrow building? A) Peak B) Louvered C) Triangular D) Trench
D) Trench
34. Which term describes representatives from several different agencies working together to manage a multijurisdictional incident in a coordinated manner? A) Group command B) Area command C) Operational control D) Unified command
D) Unified command
10. For natural ventilation, which windows should be opened last? A) Those windows in rooms not directly involved in fire B) Those windows opening directly into the fire room C) Leeward windows D) Upwind windows
D) Upwind windows
8. How can you determine that a dry-barrel hydrant is still draining? A) Place a hand on the stem nut and feel for vibration B) Look for a continuing trickle from the discharge outlet C) Place a hand over an outlet and feel for suction D) Listen carefully for a hissing sound
C) Place a hand over an outlet and feel for suction
5. Which activity is acceptable while riding in a moving apparatus? A) Riding without a safety belt in a fully enclosed cab B) Briefly unbelting to don PPE on the way to a call C) Tailboard riding with a safety strap D) Use of hearing protection
D) Use of hearing protection
46. If a fire fighter becomes disoriented, how can the hose line be used to assist in egress? A) Move in the direction of the shank without lugs B) Place one hand on the swivel and one hand on the shank; move in the direction of the swivel C) Place both hands on a coupling; travel in the direction of the hand holding the male coupling D) The male coupling is on the end of the hose nearest the apparatus
C) Place both hands on a coupling; travel in the direction of the hand holding the male coupling
44. Which ICS section is responsible for the collection, evaluation, dissemination, and use of information relevant to the incident? A) Strategy B) Staging C) Planning D) Logistics
C) Planning
33. What is the correct term for the small two-way radios carried by individual fire fighters? A) Mobile radios B) Walkie-talkies C) Portable radios D) Pocket radios
C) Portable radios
12. When water is motionless, which kind of energy does it have? A) Residual B) Static C) Potential D) Kinetic
C) Potential
54. Which statement about outward-opening doors is correct? A) These doors are typically found on residential structures. B) These doors can be identified by their exposed stiles. C) These doors are designed to facilitate exit. D) The hinges of these doors are not accessible.
C) These doors are designed to facilitate exit.
3. During salvage, what should be done with any pictures on the walls? A) They should be left in place and covered with plastic sheeting B) They should be left in place and turned toward the wall C) They should be removed and placed with the furniture D) They should be placed face-down under a bed
C) They should be removed and placed with the furniture
16. What is the term for the natural and human-made features of land? A) Cartography B) Geography C) Topography D) Geology
C) Topography
43. What is the function of an automatic vehicle locator system? A) Determine the location of mobile phone callers B) Prioritize resources based upon location C) Track apparatus location via GPS D) Display fire department vehicle location on an electronic map
C) Track apparatus location via GPS
45. Which term refers to the weight of a gas compared to air? A) Specific density B) Specific gravity C) Vapor gravity D) Vapor density
D) Vapor density
31. What is the most common use for a hydraulic spreader? A) Lifting heavy objects B) Vehicle stabilization C) Shoring D) Vehicle extrication
D) Vehicle extrication
44. Which form of ventilation is best for potential backdraft conditions? A) Positive-pressure B) Horizontal C) Negative-pressure D) Vertical
D) Vertical
8. Which of the following is one of the three methods by which team members working in a hazardous area should maintain contact with one another at all times? A) Radio B) Rope C) O-A-T-H D) Visual
D) Visual
13. What is the function of a personnel accountability system? A) Establish and maintain team integrity B) Organize resources into divisions, groups, and crews C) Track the location and assignments of all personnel D) Prevent freelancing and deviation from SOPs
C) Track the location and assignments of all personnel
1. Before beginning any forcible entry, which reminder phrase should fire fighters keep in mind? A) Doors are replaceable; lives are not. B) Without a hose, the fire grows. C) Try before you pry. D) Get low before you go
C) Try before you pry.
20. How are jalousie windows normally opened and closed? A) Sliding the sash within the frame B) Using a remote-operated electric motor C) Turning a small hand-crank D) Pulling the chain attached to the drum
C) Turning a small hand-crank
70. What is the maximum personnel load for a fire-service ladder? A) One fire fighter plus one victim B) Two fire fighters C) Two fire fighters plus one victim D) Three fire fighters
C) Two fire fighters plus one victim
43. Which federal government agency manages wildland incidents occurring on federal lands? A) Occupational Health and Safety Administration B) Federal Emergency Management Agency C) U.S. Forest Service D) U.S. Fire Administration
C) U.S. Forest Service
2. Which of the following is a key characteristic of the incident command system? A) Scalar organization B) Mutual aid agreements C) Unity of command D) Standard operating procedures
C) Unity of command
44. When does the rest phase begin during the rehabilitation process? A) After rehydration and calorie replacement B) After the initial medical evaluation C) Upon arrival at the rehabilitation center D) After body temperature has been restored
C) Upon arrival at the rehabilitation center
17. A personnel accountability report is commonly performed in which situation? A) As each resource checks in to the command post B) Upon entry of a company into the hazardous area C) Upon occurrence of a significant event D) Upon activation of a low-air alarm
C) Upon occurrence of a significant event
2. Which state must a fuel be in for combustion to take place? A) Solid B) Liquid C) Vapor D) Solid, liquid, or vapor
C) Vapor
48. What is an inverter? A) Lightweight portable generator B) Vehicle-mounted generator C) Vehicle-mounted DC-to-AC transformer D) AC-to-DC plug-in adapter
C) Vehicle-mounted DC-to-AC transformer
28. Which hazard is of particular concern when running an electrical generator in an enclosed space? A) Hearing protection B) Grounding C) Ventilation D) Heat from the exhaust system
C) Ventilation
9. Which type of ventilation uses openings in roofs or floors so that heat and smoke can escape the structure in an upward direction? A) Horizontal B) Mechanical C) Vertical D) Negative-pressure
C) Vertical
41. What is a critical factor to evaluate in size-up for search and rescue? A) Reflex time B) Type of fire attack C) Victims' ability to self-evacuate D) Age of victims
C) Victims' ability to self-evacuate
39. When should a sprinkler system be shut down? A) Prior to beginning salvage operations B) When overhaul is complete C) When the IC declares the fire to be under control D) Upon connection to the FDC
C) When the IC declares the fire to be under control
27. When is the use of utility rope appropriate? A) When the total load is less than 750 lb (340 kg) B) For static loads only C) When the rope will not be supporting people D) In situations where the rope will likely be damaged
C) When the rope will not be supporting people
11. What is the most common application for an engineered wood product? A) Short load-bearing members B) Where high fire-resistance is required C) Where extra-long beams are required D) Stair treads and risers
C) Where extra-long beams are required
28. Which type of glass is most typically used in fire doors and windows? A) Pyrex B) Laminated C) Wired D) Safety
C) Wired
54. What should be done with the excess halyard once an extension ladder is placed and extended? A) Use it to form an anchor point B) Let it hang between the ladder and the building C) Wrap it around rungs of the ladder D) Use it to tie off the bed section
C) Wrap it around rungs of the ladder
61. Which device splits one hose stream into two hose streams? A) Siamese B) Splitter C) Wye D) Water thief
C) Wye
84. What makes a water thief different from a wye is the addition of __________. A) a second inlet B) ball valves C) a 2½" (65-mm) outlet D) clapper valves
C) a 2½" (65-mm) outlet
27. The number of emergency reports received from wireless phones is __________ those received from land lines. A) far fewer than B) fewer than C) about the same as D) far more than
C) about the same as
41. A gas valve that has been shut off may be reopened __________. A) after completion of overhaul B) if the fire was confined to room contents only C) after the system has been inspected by a qualified person D) upon restoration of electrical power
C) after the system has been inspected by a qualified person
14. When a ladder is used to gain access to a roof, a minimum of _____ rungs should show above the roofline. A) one B) three C) five D) seven
C) five
52. When placed at the correct angle for climbing, the ratio of the ladder's vertical reach to distance of the butt from the structure is _____ to one. A) two B) three C) four D) five
C) four
12. Operating a PIV handle is similar to operating a ________. A) nozzle bale B) pump panel pull-valve C) hydrant wrench D) ball valve
C) hydrant wrench
2. As fatigue increases, the risk of injury __________. A) decreases B) stays the same C) increases D) becomes unavoidable
C) increases
73. Hose that is at least 3½" (88 mm) in diameter is considered __________ diameter. A) small B) medium C) large D) master
C) large
7. A short-handled hammer with a round head is called a __________. A) sledge B) maul C) mallet D) trip
C) mallet
9. Using a spring-loaded center punch to break tempered automobile glass results in __________. A) irregular pieces of glass of varying sizes and shapes B) a sheet of spidered glass C) many small, uniform-sized pieces of glass D) large, sharp-edged shards of glass
C) many small, uniform-sized pieces of glass
31. All forms of ventilation that use fans or other powered equipment are classified as __________ ventilation. A) assisted B) hydraulic C) mechanical D) positive-pressure
C) mechanical
35. Friction is a form of __________ energy. A) radiant B) molecular C) mechanical D) kinetic
C) mechanical
37. Ropes should be cleaned with __________. A) a mild bleach solution B) castile soap C) mild detergent D) water only
C) mild detergent
13. Pressure in a water distribution system during average consumption is __________ pressure. A) residual B) mean C) normal operating D) static
C) normal operating
13. A duck-billed lock breaker is used to __________. A) displace a lock cylinder B) force casement and double-hung windows C) open a padlock D) displace automotive door locks
C) open a padlock
33. Tracking every company working at an incident from the time they arrive until the time they are released is the function of the __________ system. A) resource tracking B) roll call C) personnel accountability D) check-in
C) personnel accountability
16. An event or outcome that is predicted based on known facts, common sense, and previous experience is a __________. A) fact B) possibility C) probability D) projection
C) probability
50. A specialized tool for tightening or loosening hose couplings is the __________ wrench. A) strap B) hose C) spanner D) ring
C) spanner
53. A rope with minimal stretch under load is __________. A) dynamic B) fixed C) static D) pliant
C) static
5. The individual fibers of a natural fiber ropes are twisted together to form a __________. A) twill B) plait C) strand D) creel
C) strand
55. Safety begins with __________. A) realistic training B) developing good habits C) taking personal responsibility D) leadership by example
C) taking personal responsibility
8. The traditional symbol for a Class D fire extinguisher is a(n) __________. A) orange circle B) blue square C) yellow star D) green triangle
C) yellow star
19. If overhaul operations may disturb possible evidence, what should fire fighters do before continuing with their work? A) Have a law enforcement officer evaluate the situation B) Take photos or make sketches of the evidence in an undisturbed state C) Tag and bag the evidence D) Wait for investigators to examine it
D) Wait for investigators to examine it
54. What is the most common error when making a mayday call? A) Making inadequate efforts at self-rescue before making the call B) Issuing the call prematurely C) Failing to activate the PASS after making the call D) Waiting too long before making the call
D) Waiting too long before making the call
39. What is the function of an EOSTI? A) Emit an audible alarm when the wearer becomes motionless B) Broadcast a mayday signal C) Emit an audible alarm in the presence of certain gases D) Warn an SCBA wearer of low cylinder pressure
D) Warn an SCBA wearer of low cylinder pressure
13. Which emergency drag is best for fast removal from a dangerous area? A) Clothes B) Blanket C) Extremities D) Webbing sling
D) Webbing sling
24. When should the building be used to anchor the butt during a ladder raise? A) For any single-fire-fighter ladder raise B) When laddering a building without eaves C) When sending a roof ladder aloft D) When a single fire fighter raises an extension ladder
D) When a single fire fighter raises an extension ladder
6. When is it acceptable to remove the inner thermal layer from a turnout coat? A) Never B) When the coat is used for confined-space operations C) When the coat is used for wildland firefighting D) When the coat is being cleaned
D) When the coat is being cleaned
56. When is command terminated? A) When the IC declares "All clear" B) When the incident is declared under control C) When the IC releases the command and general staff D) When the last company leaves the scene
D) When the last company leaves the scene
56. Which term means areas where undeveloped land with vegetative fuels is mixed with human-made structures? A) Rural-urban intermix B) Rural development zone C) Greenbelt D) Wildland-urban interface
D) Wildland-urban interface
18. What is the term for the part of a rope used to form a knot? A) Running end B) Standing part C) Bight D) Working end
D) Working end
40. Which attack line load is often coupled to a larger-diameter line? A) Triple layer B) Split C) Minuteman D) Wyed lines
D) Wyed lines
35. The board to which fire fighter personnel accountability tags are attached is commonly referred to as __________. A) the hall pass B) the roll C) the roster D) a passport
D) a passport
32. A K tool is used in combination with __________. A) vise-grips B) a pick-head axe C) a strap wrench D) a pry bar
D) a pry bar
9. The function of a standpipe system is to provide __________. A) an auxiliary water supply for the fire department B) a connection from an engine to a static water source C) a connection for pumper support of a sprinkler system D) a water supply for interior attack lines
D) a water supply for interior attack lines
9. The NFPA recommends color-coding hydrants to indicate __________. A) the most recent flow test B) available pressure C) the water source D) available flow
D) available flow
13. To qualify as a light hazard for the purpose of extinguisher selection and placement, the majority of materials in the area must __________. A) be fire resistive B) be Class A or C combustibles C) have a flash point exceeding 150°F D) be noncombustible
D) be noncombustible
10. The one-person walking assist is best suited for victims who are __________. A) awake and responsive B) unable to walk C) require support to walk D) capable of walking
D) capable of walking
16. In a typical fire department rank structure, an assistant chief reports directly to the __________. A) battalion chief B) section chief C) command staff D) chief of the department
D) chief of the department
20. Fire fighters may need to hold on to the ________while filling a self-expanding portable tank. A) frame B) hose C) rope D) collar
D) collar
22. Heat traveling from one end of a steel beam to the other end is an example of __________. A) convection B) radiation C) oxidation D) conduction
D) conduction
54. A fire extinguisher's agent is stored within its __________. A) tank B) horn C) chamber D) cylinder
D) cylinder
16. During the _________ phase, fire has consumed either the available fuel or oxygen, and temperature drops. A) isothermic B) overhaul C) incipient D) decay
D) decay
64. Fire fighters attack the fire with heavy streams from outside the fire building during a(n) __________ attack. A) perimeter B) indirect C) offensive D) defensive
D) defensive
1. A primary goal of investigating each fire fighter accident or injury is to __________. A) establish patterns and trends B) assess civil liability exposure C) determine whether misfeasance occurred D) determine how such an incident can be avoided in the future
D) determine how such an incident can be avoided in the future
24. The use of a hand tool should be followed by ___________. A) testing B) sharpening C) weighing D) documentation
D) documentation
28. The low surface tension of Class A foam affects its extinguishing properties by __________. A) raising the vaporization temperature of water B) suppressing vapor production C) diluting the fuel D) enabling water to penetrate the fuel more deeply
D) enabling water to penetrate the fuel more deeply
38. The modular organization of the ICS gives it the ability to __________. A) expand the span of control along with the incident B) create new organizational elements that preserve existing local command structures C) incorporate personnel from several different agencies D) expand to the extent needed to manage the incident
D) expand to the extent needed to manage the incident
16. For the purpose of extinguisher selection and placement, a woodworking shop is a(n) __________ hazard environment. A) light B) moderate C) ordinary D) extra
D) extra
5. A long section of protective material used to protect flooring or carpet is a __________. A) floor roll B) salvage mat C) carpet cover D) floor runner
D) floor runner
1. A Pitot gauge is used to determine __________ pressure. A) static B) residual C) operating D) flow
D) flow
51. An engine lays hose from a water source to the fire scene in a __________ lay. A) single B) standard C) basic D) forward
D) forward
37. Tempered glass is about __________ as strong as regular glass. A) half B) equally C) twice D) four times
D) four times
38. The unburned part of a wildland fire area is the __________. A) island B) clear C) perimeter D) green
D) green
6. Subsurface fuels are challenging to deal with because they are __________. A) highly susceptible to changes in weather B) continuous C) readily ignitable D) hard to locate
D) hard to locate
56. Before climbing a ladder, fire fighters should make sure it is __________. A) chocked B) blocked C) unoccupied D) heeled
D) heeled
1. A fire fighter's first priority should be to take care of __________. A) the members of his or her company B) the general public C) people affected by the incident D) himself or herself
D) himself or herself
77. A soft suction hose is used to connect a pumper to a ________. A) standpipe/FDC B) master stream device C) static water supply D) hydrant
D) hydrant
18. Combustion begins when a fuel is heated to its __________. A) flash point B) lower flammable limit C) fire point D) ignition point
D) ignition point
11. The two-person chair carry is particularly useful __________. A) for victims with possible spinal injury B) in heavy smoke conditions C) for obese victims D) in narrow corridors
D) in narrow corridors
40. The command staff reports directly to the __________. A) operations section chief B) chief fire official C) command staff director D) incident commander
D) incident commander
28. The essential reason that team efforts are imperative in the fire service is because of the __________. A) need to accomplish several tasks simultaneously B) tendency for task-related tunnel vision C) need to maintain manageable span of control D) intense physical labor involved in firefighting operations
D) intense physical labor involved in firefighting operations
69. A Bangor ladder __________. A) is a single-section ladder at least 20 ft long B) has a single beam C) is also known as a Pompier ladder D) is equipped with staypoles
D) is equipped with staypoles
36. Depositing a company's personnel accountability roster with the entry officer or command post indicates that the company __________. A) is available for assignment B) has arrived on scene C) has been released from the scene D) is inside the hazard area
D) is inside the hazard area
4. The bar of a pry bar acts as a ________ to multiply the amount of force that can be applied. A) fulcrum B) ratchet C) pivot D) lever
D) lever
47. Smoke produced by a small fire involving ordinary combustibles is __________. A) gray and fast moving B) black and thick C) mustard or brown and wispy D) light colored and lazy
D) light colored and lazy
3. Adult fire victims are often found __________. A) under a bed B) in a closet C) in a bathtub D) near a door
D) near a door
33. Type II construction is referred to as __________. A) ordinary B) fire resistive C) fire retardant D) noncombustible
D) noncombustible
36. A Class C agent must __________. A) be safe for use in an enclosed area B) resist freezing C) be compatible with foam D) not conduct electricity
D) not conduct electricity
73. The "P" in the acronym PASS, used in reference to fire extinguisher operation, stands for __________. A) point B) pick C) pause D) pull
D) pull
43. A ladder belt or a leg lock should be used when __________. A) moving an unconscious victim down a ladder B) tying in either the fly or the butt C) carrying equipment up or down the ladder D) reaching or working from a ladder
D) reaching or working from a ladder
36. The pressure remaining in a water distribution system when water is flowing is the ________ pressure. A) static B) operating C) flow D) residual
D) residual
21. Weighing the potential danger to fire fighters against the potential for saving a life is called __________. A) primary survey B) life-safety analysis C) triage D) risk-benefit analysis
D) risk-benefit analysis
8. The purpose of the hooks of a roof ladder is to __________. A) provide safe attachment points for fire fighters working on the ladder B) grip the eave of the roof to keep the ladder from slipping C) prevent the butt of the ladder from slipping or shifting D) secure the tip of the ladder to the peak of a pitched roof
D) secure the tip of the ladder to the peak of a pitched roof
38. The term for a rope that is suddenly put under unusual tension is __________ loading. A) impact B) drop C) tensile D) shock
D) shock
57. Couplings are tightened and loosened with a __________ wrench. A) hydrant B) lug C) hose D) spanner
D) spanner
1. When organizing teams for a large building search, assignments are often based on __________. A) known areas of safe refuge B) alarm panel indicators C) wind direction D) stairway locations
D) stairway locations
21. A standard approach to risk-benefit analysis should be incorporated into an agency's __________. A) mission statement B) personnel accountability report C) incident action plan D) standard operating procedures
D) standard operating procedures
13. A problem with using doorways as ventilation openings is that __________. A) the large opening can admit too much air B) this technique tends to produce churning C) it is more difficult to control the ventilation process D) this technique compromises personnel entry and exit
D) this technique compromises personnel entry and exit
4. Before opening doors or exiting the apparatus, fire fighters should always check for __________. A) pump engagement B) smoke indicators C) a patent face piece seal D) traffic hazards
D) traffic hazards
42. The first priority for search teams is those areas __________. A) where victims are most likely to be found B) with the highest number of occupants C) where trapped occupants have the best chance for survival D) where occupants are in the most immediate danger
D) where occupants are in the most immediate danger
24. Which phrase is used to report that the primary search has been completed? A) "Area search complete" B) "Search negative" C) "Nothing found" D) "Primary all clear"
D) "Primary all clear"
47. Once a fire fighter loses an initial 2 quarts of water of internal fluid, how long will rehydration take? A) 5 to 15 minutes B) 15 to 30 minutes C) 30 to 60 minutes D) 1 to 2 hours
D) 1 to 2 hours
50. Most fog nozzles are designed to operate at which nozzle pressure? A) 50 psi (200 kPa) B) 75 psi (515 kPa) C) 80 psi (550 kPa) D) 100 psi (690 kPa)
D) 100 psi (690 kPa)
31. Generally speaking, a 1¾" (45-mm) attack hose can flow __________. A) 60 to 125 gpm (227 to 473 lpm) B) 75 to 150 gpm (284 to 566 lpm) C) 100 to 160 gpm (379 to 606 lpm) D) 120 to 180 gpm (454 to 681 lpm)
D) 120 to 180 gpm (454 to 681 lpm)
51. To batch mix 3 percent foam into a 500-gallon (1893-liter) water tank, how much foam concentrate should be added to the tank? A) 3 gal (11.35 L) B) 5 gal (19 L) C) 9 gal (34 L) D) 15 gal (57 L)
D) 15 gal (57 L)
37. A gasoline-powered generator should be test-run for _____ minutes. A) 5 to 10 B) 5 to 15 C) 10 to 15 D) 15 to 30
D) 15 to 30
45. What is the maximum length of a straight or roof ladder that can be carried safely by one fire fighter? A) 12 ft (3.65 m) B) 14 ft (4.25 m) C) 16 ft (5 m) D) 18 ft (5.5 m)
D) 18 ft (5.5 m)
64. Which NFPA standard deals with use, maintenance, and service testing of in-service fire department ground ladders? A) 1401 B) 1560 C) 1875 D) 1932
D) 1932
25. Which NFPA standard deals with protective ensembles for structural and proximity firefighting? A) 1472 B) 1500 C) 1981 D) 1971
D) 1971
28. Which NFPA standard deals with personal alert safety systems? A) 1440 B) 1460 C) 1785 D) 1982
D) 1982
50. An exposure on the left side of the fire building would be designated as exposure _____. A) D B) left C) B D) 2
D) 2
49. After being run at load, generator should be run at idle speed for at least __________ before shutting down. A) 15 seconds B) 30 seconds C) 1 minute D) 2 minutes
D) 2 minutes
4. A fire fighter can lose up to _____ in an hour of strenuous exertion. A) 0.5 quart (0.5 liter) B) 1 quart (1 liter) C) 1.5 quarts (1.5 liters) D) 2 quarts (2 liters)
D) 2 quarts (2 liters)
38. A Class A fire extinguisher with a numerical rating of 2 contains _____ gallons of water. A) 1.0 B) 1.5 C) 2.0 D) 2.5
D) 2.5
56. According to the NFPA, the minimum rest time during rehabilitation is _____ minutes. A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20
D) 20
4. A 50' (15 m) section of charged 2½" (64 mm) hose weighs approximately _____. A) 100 lb (45 kg) B) 125 lb (57 kg) C) 150 lb (68 kg) D) 200 lb (91 kg)
D) 200 lb (91 kg)
13. What is the percentage of oxygen normally found in air? A) 14.7 percent B) 18 percent C) 19.5 percent D) 21 percent
D) 21 percent
19. NFPA standards require an SCBA low-air alarm to sound when cylinder pressure drops to _____ percent of capacity A) 10 B) 15 C) 20 D) 25
D) 25
18. At 5 percent dehydration, work capacity can be decreased by as much as _____. A) 5 percent B) 10 percent C) 20 percent D) 30 percent
D) 30 percent
30. The output range for portable lights is generally __________ watts. A) 250 to 500 B) 500 to 750 C) 500 to 1000 D) 300 to 1500
D) 300 to 1500
26. The required minimum breaking strength for a light-use life safety rope is _____. A) 1000 lb (450 kg) B) 2000 lb (900 kg) C) 3000 lb (1360 kg) D) 4500 lb (2040 kg)
D) 4500 lb (2040 kg)
18. What is the maximum capacity of typical portable water tanks? A) 1500 gal (5678 L) B) 2000 gal (7570 L) C) 3500 gal (13,249 L) D) 5000 gal (18,927 L)
D) 5000 gal (18,927 L)
18. Fire fighters should spend a minimum of _____ minutes per day in physical fitness training. A) 15 B) 30 C) 45 D) 60
D) 60
5. Approximately _____ percent of fire fighters in the United States are volunteers. A) 34 B) 46 C) 55 D) 73
D) 73
13. Portable ladders approved for fire service use can support up to _____. A) 300 lb (135 kg) B) 450 lb (205 kg) C) 600 lb (270 kg) D) 750 lb (340 kg)
D) 750 lb (340 kg)
41. What is the proper climbing angle for a ladder? A) 30º B) 45º C) 60º D) 75º
D) 75º
22. Approximately what percentage of the United States and Canada has access to a 911 system? A) 60 B) 70 C) 80 D) 90
D) 90
60. Hypothermia is defined as body temperature less than _____. A) 89ºF (32ºC) B) 91ºF (33ºC) C) 93ºF (34ºC) D) 95ºF (35ºC)
D) 95ºF (35ºC)
35. Which tools are collectively known as "the irons"? A) A mallet and a wedge B) A steel door with a deadbolt C) The combination of a dead bolt and a mortise lock D) A flat-head axe and a Halligan tool
D) A flat-head axe and a Halligan tool
9. Which description best summarizes the "modular organization" of the ICS? A) The ability to expand the span of control along with the incident B) Clearly defined and limited areas of responsibility and authority C) Seamless incorporation of personnel from several different agencies D) A management structure that can expand to match the needs of the situation
D) A management structure that can expand to match the needs of the situation
71. Which compound is added to a water extinguisher to improve penetration of fuel? A) Alkali metal salt B) Alcohol C) Bicarbonate D) A wetting agent
D) A wetting agent
69. Which hose load has the hose up on its edge and laid side-to-side in the hose bed? A) Edge B) Fan-fold C) Combination D) Accordion
D) Accordion
60. Which means of victim removal should be avoided if possible? A) Fire escape B) Stairway C) Aerial tower D) Aerial ladder
D) Aerial ladder
23. Which type of foam is effective on polar solvents? A) Class A B) Fluoroprotein C) Aqueous film-forming D) Alcohol-resistant
D) Alcohol-resistant
7. At which types of incidents is rehabilitation a concern? A) High-intensity/long-duration incidents B) Incidents requiring the use of full PPE C) All fire incidents D) All incidents
D) All incidents
43. How should fire fighters be released from rehabilitation? A) Individuals should be released as they complete the rehab process B) Personnel should be released on an as-needed basis C) Personnel should check out in the same order that they checked in D) All members of a company should be released together
D) All members of a company should be released together
21. Which of the following is commonly used as a dry chemical extinguishing agent? A) Calcium bicarbonate B) Carbon tetrachloride C) Potassium hydrate D) Ammonium phosphate
D) Ammonium phosphate
12. What is a primary factor when determining hazard classification for extinguisher selection and placement? A) Permissible occupancy load B) Construction type C) Presence of a sprinkler system D) Amount of combustibles present
D) Amount of combustibles present
27. Which marking indicates a search is presently under way in a particular room? A) A circle B) An X C) A diagonal slash D) An S
D) An S
36. What is the smallest unit of matter? A) A molecule B) A particle C) An element D) An atom
D) An atom
11. How often should ladder service testing be performed? A) Monthly B) Quarterly C) Semi-annually D) Annually
D) Annually
5. What does the "A" stand for in "PSAP"? A) Alerting B) Activating C) Auxiliary D) Answering
D) Answering
1. Which statement best summarizes the type of incident for which ICS is applicable? A) Incidents involving unified command B) Incidents crossing jurisdiction borders C) Incidents exceeding more than one operational period D) Any type of incident
D) Any type of incident
25. Which of the following is a form of active cooling? A) Rest in an air-conditioned environment B) Removal of PPE C) Rest in a shady area D) Application of wet, cool towels
D) Application of wet, cool towels
44. What should be done when a small tear is found in a salvage cover? A) Return the cover to the manufacturer for repair B) Repair the tear with a vulcanizing-type patch C) Remove the cover from service D) Apply duct tape over the tear
D) Apply duct tape over the tear
9. At which point in a structure fire should utilities be disconnected? A) Immediately upon arrival B) After the "all clear" is declared C) After initial knock-down D) As early as possible in the incident
D) As early as possible in the incident
2. At a minimum, a dispatch message should include which item of information? A) Assigned tactical radio frequency B) Location of the reporting party C) Level of severity D) Type of emergency
2. At a minimum, a dispatch message should include which item of information? A) Assigned tactical radio frequency B) Location of the reporting party C) Level of severity D) Type of emergency
24. The flash point of gasoline is _____. A) -45ºF (-43ºC) B) -15ºF (-26ºC) C) 0ºF (-18ºC) D) 32ºF (0ºC)
A) -45ºF (-43ºC)
26. A gas with a vapor density of _____ will rise in air. A) 0.1 B) 1.0 C) 10 D) 100
A) 0.1
15. The risk of rekindle exists even if as little as _____ of the original fire is left smoldering. A) 1 percent B) 5 percent C) 10 percent D) 15 percent
A) 1 percent
69. Requirements for placing and mounting portable fire extinguishers are found in NFPA _____. A) 10 B) 170 C) 470 D) 1201
A) 10
34. Protein should account for approximately _____ of calories in a balanced diet. A) 10 percent B) 25 percent C) 40 percent D) 55 percent
A) 10 percent
57. Which NFPA standard covers wildland fire fighter professional qualifications? A) 1051 B) 1041 C) 1031 D) 1021
A) 1051
57. Which NFPA standard is titled Emergency Services Incident Command System? A) 1561 B) 1672 C) 1901 D) 1918
A) 1561
8. What is the shape of an NFPA 704 placard? A) Diamond B) Circle C) Triangle D) Square
A) Diamond
35. Which type of map details changes in elevation? A) Topographic B) Planometric C) Orthographic D) Cartometric
A) Topographic
53. What is the best source of complex carbohydrates? A) Whole-grain bread B) Fish C) Red meat D) Vegetables
A) Whole-grain bread
34. Wildland fuels that lie under the surface of the ground are __________ fuels. A) subsurface B) understory C) duff D) substory
A) subsurface
7. Ground cover is an example of a(n) __________ fuel. A) surface B) understory C) compact D) live
A) surface
49. When hoisting a ladder, a __________ line should be attached to the bottom of the ladder to help control it as it is hoisted. A) tag B) safety C) guy D) spring
A) tag
35. It is permissible to remove SCBA during salvage operations after __________. A) the atmosphere has been tested and found safe B) the area is clear of smoke C) all remaining fire has been extinguished D) the fire is extinguished
A) the atmosphere has been tested and found safe
7. Prolonged exposure to __________ light can damage synthetic ropes. A) ultraviolet B) infrared C) polarized D) spectral
A) ultraviolet
58. The maximum diameter of a 1-hour fuel is _____. A) ¼" (6 mm) B) ½" (13 mm) C) ¾" (19 mm) D) 1" (25 mm)
A) ¼" (6 mm)
29. What is the signal to the incident commander that the secondary search has been completed? A) "Nothing found" B) "Secondary all clear" C) "Loss stopped" D) "Fire under control"
B) "Secondary all clear"
20. When rescuing an unconscious child or small adult from a window, how many rescuers enter the window to assist the victim? A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3
B) 1
39. If heated to a temperature of 1000ºF (540ºC), how far will a 10-foot (3-meter) steel beam elongate? A) ½ inch (13 mm) B) 1 inch (25 mm) C) 2 inches (50 mm) D) 3 inches (76 mm)
B) 1 inch (25 mm)
8. What is the vapor density of air? A) 0.0 B) 1.0 C) 14.7 D) 29.9
B) 1.0
34. To force an inward-opening door, which part of the Halligan bar is inserted between the stop and the jamb? A) Fork B) Adz C) Blade D) Pick
B) Adz
42. Which hazard is of particular concern with the use of gasoline-powered portable pumps? A) Heat buildup B) Carbon monoxide C) Noise D) Electrical shock
B) Carbon monoxide
22. What is the term for an open space within a wall where wires and pipes run? A) Hoist way B) Chase C) Bay D) Channel
B) Chase
16. What is the ICS organizational title for a member of the general staff? A) Director B) Chief C) Manager D) Officer
B) Chief
15. For the purpose of extinguisher selection and placement, what is an example of a light hazard environment? A) Self-storage building B) Classroom C) Parking garage D) Restaurant kitchen
B) Classroom
6. What is the open space between the ceiling of the top floor and the underside of the roof of a building? A) Roof chase B) Cockloft C) Eave D) Mansard
B) Cockloft
39. How does humidity affect the body's temperature-regulating mechanisms? A) The need for fluid replacement decreases as humidity increases B) High humidity reduces evaporative cooling C) Low humidity improves convective cooling D) Sweating increases as humidity decreases
B) High humidity reduces evaporative cooling
48. What is the U-shaped part of a padlock that locks into the padlock body? A) Latch B) Shackle C) Tongue D) Bow
B) Shackle
11. Which term means that a fire company arrives together, works together, and leaves together? A) Unity of command B) Team integrity C) Span of control D) Personnel accountability
B) Team integrity
1. What is the term for communications center dispatchers? A) Public safety answering technicians B) Telecommunicators C) 911 receptionists D) Signals technicians
B) Telecommunicators
83. Which of the following is required to be noted on the hose record? A) Test duration B) Test date C) Test pressure D) Date of last use
B) Test date
10. Which of the following must occur before self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) is removed? A) A personnel accountability report has been performed B) The atmosphere has been tested and found safe C) All remaining fire has been extinguished D) Salvage efforts are complete
B) The atmosphere has been tested and found safe
8. What does fast-moving smoke indicate? A) Poorly ventilated fire B) Very hot fire C) High synthetic fuel content D) Incomplete combustion
B) Very hot fire
22. Tool failure and possibly injury could result from attempting to cut __________ with ordinary cutting tools. A) masonry B) case-hardened steel C) proof coil D) braided wire
B) case-hardened steel
39. NFPA standards are __________. A) administrative law B) consensus documents C) regulatory law D) model codes
B) consensus documents
10. Fuels that are in contact with each other are described as __________. A) uninterrupted B) continuous C) compact D) unbroken
B) continuous
29. A Class C fire involves __________. A) a flammable liquid or gas B) energized electrical equipment C) cooking material D) a combustible metal
B) energized electrical equipment
10. Gypsum board that is exposed to fire for a prolonged time will __________. A) spall B) fail C) delaminate D) warp
B) fail
42. Initial size-up of an emergency incident is conducted by the __________. A) telecommunicator B) first-arriving unit C) reporting party D) first-arriving chief officer
B) first-arriving unit
54. A chisel is classified as a __________ tool. A) prying/spreading B) striking C) cutting D) pushing/pulling
B) striking
49. A ladder is carried at arm's length in a(n) ___________ carry. A) quick B) suitcase C) arm D) grab
B) suitcase
11. The most likely cause of leaking between two joined couplings is a damaged or missing __________. A) compression gasket B) swivel gasket C) shank gasket D) expansion ring
B) swivel gasket
19. A fire fighter with specialized knowledge and training for high-angle rescue, structural collapse, trench rescue, confined-space, and similar operations is a __________. A) Fire Fighter II B) technical rescue technician C) special operations technician D) search and rescue technician
B) technical rescue technician
44. A __________ phone is designed for use by hearing-impaired persons. A) display B) text C) digital D) video
B) text
43. Which phrase indicates an imminent fire-ground hazard, such as a structural collapse? A) "Hold all traffic" B) "Code 30" C) "Emergency traffic" D) "Mayday"
C) "Emergency traffic"
19. The body's ability to absorb fluid is limited to approximately __________ per hour. A) 1 ounce (30 mL) B) 1 pint (0.5 L) C) 1 quart (1 L) D) 1 gallon (4 L)
C) 1 quart (1 L)
38. An oxygen-deficient atmosphere is defined as one where the percentage of oxygen in air is less than _____percent. A) 17.5 B) 18 C) 19.5 D) 21
C) 19.5
25. What is another term for a sheet bend? A) Lark's foot B) Round turn C) Becket bend D) Water knot
C) Becket bend
54. Which hose load has the hose up on its edge and placed around the perimeter of the hose bed in a U shape? A) Split B) U C) Horseshoe D) Perimeter
C) Horseshoe
71. Which term means the properties of energy, pressure, and water flow as related to fire suppression? A) Hydrodynamics B) Friction loss C) Hydraulics D) Fire flow
C) Hydraulics
4. Which toxic gas is commonly produced by fire? A) Hydrogen sulfide B) Nitrogen sulfide C) Hydrogen cyanide D) Acrolein
C) Hydrogen cyanide
16. Which type of construction is called ordinary construction? A) I B) II C) III D) IV
C) III
56. Which class of harness is used to support a fire fighter being raised or lowered on a life safety rope? A) I B) II C) III D) IV
C) III
8. Which fiber is commonly used in life safety rope? A) Sisal B) Rayon C) Nylon D) Olefin
C) Nylon
24. All portable fire extinguishers use which means for expelling their contents? A) Volume B) Vacuum C) Pressure D) Gravity
C) Pressure
30. In a fire response, which goal has the highest priority? A) Preventing rekindle B) Protecting building contents C) Preventing spread of fire to exposures D) Extinguishing the fire
C) Preventing spread of fire to exposures
53. What is the attack plan based upon at a fire? A) Facts B) Possibilities C) Probabilities D) Worst-case scenarios
C) Probabilities
15. What is a commonly used structural material in a Type I building? A) Treated wood B) Engineered wood C) Protected steel D) Oriented-strand board
C) Protected steel
6. Which of the following is the primary factor to take into account when selecting personnel to fill a position within the ICS? A) Rank B) Seniority C) Qualification D) Grade
C) Qualification
5. Which tool is a hand-powered hydraulic spreader tool? A) Spanner B) Kelly C) Rabbet D) Pivot
C) Rabbet
8. Which tool is a small hydraulic spreader operated by a hand-powered pump? A) K tool B) Power bar C) Rabbet tool D) Ram bar
C) Rabbet tool
37. Which of the following is one of the three primary types of mechanical saw? A) Circular B) Band C) Reciprocating D) Miter
C) Reciprocating
56. What is a function of a hose liner? A) Withstand water pressure B) Resist mechanical damage C) Reduce friction loss D) Protect against thermal damage
C) Reduce friction loss
16. Which method should be considered first when forcing an outward-swinging door? A) Driving the cylinder through the door B) Cutting the bolt with a rotary saw C) Removing the hinge pins D) Using the irons to pry it open
C) Removing the hinge pins
51. What is correct procedure when cutting a ventilation opening in a roof? A) Several small holes distributed over the fire are better than one large hole B) Use preexisting openings only when there is no alternative C) Rock the saw over, rather than through, structural supports D) Return the saw to idle before withdrawing it from a cut
C) Rock the saw over, rather than through, structural supports
52. When making louver cuts, what is used as a fulcrum to make the louvered openings? A) Ridge pole B) Decking C) Roof support D) Purlin
C) Roof support
42. What is formed by making a loop in a rope and then bringing the two ends of the rope parallel to each other? A) Eye B) Cinch C) Round turn D) Bend
C) Round turn
31. What do the beams of a ladder directly support? A) Fly B) Halyard C) Rungs D) Roof hooks
C) Rungs
28. Which technique should be used when fire fighters must search a large area such as a warehouse? A) Oriented search B) Teams of two C) Search ropes D) Officer-led search
C) Search ropes
51. Which term describes the main area of the fire? A) Point of origin B) Foot C) Seat D) Body
C) Seat
19. How many gallons per minute can a tanker shuttle operation deliver without interruption? A) Zero B) A few hundred C) Several hundred D) A few thousand
C) Several hundred
51. What is one disadvantage of CO2 extinguishers? A) Electrical conductivity B) Cost C) Short discharge range D) Corrosive residue
C) Short discharge range
20. Which tool is most commonly used for debris removal? A) Hux B) Pulaski C) Shovel D) Pike pole
C) Shovel
9. What is the function of the ANI feature of an enhanced 911 system? A) Provide the caller's identity B) Lock the caller's phone open C) Show the caller's phone number D) Show the caller's location
C) Show the caller's phone number
2. What is a correct use for a portable fire extinguisher? A) Pretreating exposures B) Diluting flammable liquids C) Situations in which the use of water is not recommended D) Overhaul
C) Situations in which the use of water is not recommended
49. What is a common sign or symptom of high blood glucose? A) Syncope B) Profuse sweating C) Sluggish feeling D) Nausea/vomiting
C) Sluggish feeling
8. What is the purpose of a personal alert safety system (PASS)? A) Sound an alarm when certain gases are detected B) Warn fire fighters when their air supply is low C) Sound an alarm if a fire fighter is motionless for a set period of time D) Sound an alarm if ambient temperatures exceed a specified level
C) Sound an alarm if a fire fighter is motionless for a set period of time
4. In which condition does moisture trapped in concrete become heated, turn into steam, and expand, causing parts of the concrete to break away? A) Cavitation B) Scaling C) Spalling D) Stressing
C) Spalling
56. Which effect is caused by temperature differences inside and outside a building? A) Stratification B) Inversion C) Stack effect D) Lapping
C) Stack effect
12. Which of the following is a location near the incident scene where resources are held, ready to be assigned if needed? A) Check-in area B) Incident base C) Staging area D) Camp
C) Staging area
21. What does the "S" stand for in "SOP"? A) Specific B) Special C) Standard D) Sequential
C) Standard
3. Which action is correct for a fire in a building that is known to be abandoned and unoccupied? A) Operate as you would for any building with similar fire conditions B) Take a hose line inside, perform a primary survey, and extinguish the fire if conditions permit C) Stay outside and fight the fire from the exterior D) Enter the building, perform a primary search, and then get out
C) Stay outside and fight the fire from the exterior
44. Which type of hose coupling does not have male or female ends? A) Ramos B) Snap-tite C) Storz D) Naval
C) Storz
8. For which application would the use of a pick-head axe be incorrect? A) Ventilating a roof B) Prying up boards C) Striking another tool D) Puncturing a door
C) Striking another tool
1. Which hazard is of particular concern during salvage? A) Unnecessary water damage B) Fire in void spaces C) Structural collapse D) Rekindle
C) Structural collapse
26. Which foam application method is best for a pool of flammable liquid on open ground? A) Bankshot (bank-down) B) Rain-down C) Sweep (roll-on) D) Subsurface injection
C) Sweep (roll-on)
22. What is the best way to extinguish a smoldering mattress? A) Place it flat on the floor and soak it B) Apply Class A foam to the smoldering area C) Take it outside and soak it D) Open the mattress and thoroughly wet the smoldering area
C) Take it outside and soak it
51. What is the ICS term for an assembly of two to five single resources gathered to accomplish a specific task? A) Strike team B) Group C) Task force D) Division
C) Task force
61. Personal protective equipment has the greatest effect on which body function? A) Perfusion B) Respiration C) Temperature regulation D) Cellular metabolism
C) Temperature regulation
35. Which type of glass is used in most sliding doors? A) Annealed B) Laminated C) Tempered D) Polycarbonate
C) Tempered
36. What is the correct procedure for the triple-layer load? A) Half the load is shouldered and the other half pays off from the ground B) The nozzle is attached to the bottom layer C) The entire load must be on the ground before the nozzle can be advanced D) Each layer should be a single length of hose
C) The entire load must be on the ground before the nozzle can be advanced
36. What must be done prior to making forcible entry into a fire building? A) Ventilation must be established B) Utilities must be controlled C) The fire attack team must be ready D) An "all clear" must be declared
C) The fire attack team must be ready
48. Which situation is indicated when you open a door and the smoke exits through the top half of the door and clean air enters through the bottom half? A) Disturbance of thermal layering B) An under-ventilated fire C) The fire is on the same level as the door D) Nonsurvivable conditions for occupants
C) The fire is on the same level as the door
36. What must be done before beginning ventilation? A) The main body of the fire must be knocked down B) The primary search must be complete C) The hose team must be in place and ready to attack the fire D) The rapid intervention crew must be assigned and ready
C) The hose team must be in place and ready to attack the fire
11. Who plans ahead to make sure there is a fresh or rested crew ready to rotate with a crew that needs rehabilitation? A) The staging officer B) The company officer C) The incident commander D) The logistics section chief
C) The incident commander
13. In the ICS structure, who is the one person ultimately responsible for managing an incident? A) The executive officer B) The planning chief C) The incident commander D) The operations section chief
C) The incident commander
6. Which item is a primary factor in determining which units to send to an incident? A) The reporting party's recommendation B) The time lapse between call receipt and dispatch C) The incident location D) The reporting party's plausibility
C) The incident location
20. For which situation is the three-fire-fighter flat shoulder ladder carry best suited? A) There are overhead obstructions B) The ladder must be maneuvered around sharp corners C) The ladder must be carried over short obstacles D) The ladder will be raised in a narrow space
C) The ladder must be carried over short obstacles
15. Who serves as the command's point of contact for representatives from outside agencies? A) The planning director B) The agency representative C) The liaison officer D) The staging chief
C) The liaison officer
9. How is the length of bolt cutter handles related to the amount of cutting force that can be applied? A) The cutting force remains constant regardless of the handle's length B) The shorter the handle, the greater the cutting force C) The longer the handle, the greater the cutting force D) The cutting force varies with the jaw length
C) The longer the handle, the greater the cutting force
23. Which guide should be used for the care and inspection of power tools? A) The applicable NFPA standard B) The fire agency's SOPs C) The manufacturer's instructions D) It varies with the type of tool D) It varies with the type of tool
C) The manufacturer's instructions
6. Which statement about vent-entry-search is correct? A) Searchers enter and exit the search room through an interior door B) The process begins prior to fire attack C) The process puts the searcher between the fire and a ventilation opening D) Vent-entry-search is practical only for single-story buildings
C) The process puts the searcher between the fire and a ventilation opening
29. If there is no officer on the first-arriving unit, who assumes initial command? A) The first officer to arrive B) The driver/operator C) The senior fire fighter D) Whomever the nearest responding chief officer designates over the radio
C) The senior fire fighter
14. What is the term for plastics that will melt under fire conditions? A) Thermoset B) Amorphous C) Thermoplastic D) Pyrolytic
C) Thermoplastic
50. How are the fire fighters arranged in the three-fire-fighter flat ladder carry? A) All three on the same side of the ladder B) Two at the tip, one at the butt C) Two on one side, one on the other D) Two at the butt, one at the tip
C) Two on one side, one on the other
1. What is one of the three primary classifications of rope based on function? A) Static B) Rigging C) Utility D) Rescue
C) Utility
32. The sudden introduction of air into an oxygen-depleted, superheated space may result in __________. A) improved visibility B) ghosting C) backdraft D) black fire
C) backdraft
21. Drinks that contain __________ should be avoided for fluid replacement. A) electrolytes B) sugar C) caffeine D) salt
C) caffeine
37. The primary hazard of __________ is that it can displace oxygen from the atmosphere. A) carbon monoxide B) hydrogen cyanide C) carbon dioxide D) chlorine
C) carbon dioxide
52. Nutrition during extended-duration incidents should emphasize __________. A) carbohydrate loading B) fluid and electrolyte replacement C) complete, balanced meals D) high-protein, high-fat foods
C) complete, balanced meals
4. The pipes that deliver water to users and hydrants on individual streets are __________. A) service lines B) secondaries C) distributors D) cross mains
C) distributors
3. A rope carried by a fire fighter only for self-rescue from an extreme situation is called a(n) __________ rope. A) self-rescue B) bail-out C) escape D) personal emergency
C) escape
43. A rope is attached to a ladder for hoisting using a(n) __________. A) clove hitch B) bowline C) figure eight on a bight D) overhand safety
C) figure eight on a bight`
8. In general, the ideal span of control within the ICS is _____ to one. A) three B) four C) five D) seven
C) five
7. Taking action without orders or regard for SOPs is known as__________. A) initiative B) improvisation C) freelancing D) independent action
C) freelancing
32. The flow or quantity of water moving is measured in __________. A) joules B) cubic feet per minute (cubic meters per minute) C) gallons per minute (liters per minute) D) pounds per square inch (kilopascals)
C) gallons per minute (liters per minute
59. A ladder __________ is used to lower a rescuer into a trench or manhole. A) frame B) tripod C) gin D) anchor
C) gin
7. Another term for a portable ladder is a __________ ladder. A) straight B) single C) ground D) Bangor
C) ground
36. The most rapidly moving part of a wildland fire is the __________. A) foot B) apex C) head D) point
C) head
72. The weight of carbon dioxide is about ___________ the weight of air. A) half of B) equal to C) one-and-a-half times D) twice
C) one-and-a-half times
6. Fire fighters responding to a dispatch in emergency vehicles are exempt from __________. A) most civil and criminal liability B) standards of reasonable care that apply to nonemergency vehicles C) only those exemptions specified by statute D) traffic laws dealing with traffic signals and parking
C) only those exemptions specified by statute
In a ________ lay, the hose is laid out from the fire to the hydrant. A) relay B) defensive C) reverse D) hydrant
C) reverse
21. A safety zone should be large enough __________. A) to fit apparatus as well as personnel B) to be accessible by rotary-winged aircraft C) that fire shelters are not needed to prevent injury D) to accommodate an entire division
C) that fire shelters are not needed to prevent injury
35. All fire extinguishers are classified according to__________. A) the net weight of their contents B) their relative extinguishing power C) the classes of fire on which they are effective D) the type of extinguishing agent used
C) the classes of fire on which they are effective
31. The thick, quilted layer of a turnout coat is the __________. A) vapor barrier B) liner C) thermal barrier D) absorbent liner
C) thermal barrier
39. Which radio terminology is used to report a fire fighter in trouble and requiring immediate assistance? A) "Emergency traffic" B) "Fire fighter requesting assistance" C) "Signal 102" D) "Mayday"
D) "Mayday"
21. Which construction feature of older buildings provides a path for rapid spread of fire? A) Unreinforced masonry B) Platform construction C) Lath and plaster interior finish D) Balloon-frame construction
D) Balloon-frame construction
3. Which of the following is an example of a fine fuel? A) Root B) Stick C) Branch D) Grass
D) Grass
33. Which fuel is the most susceptible to changes in relative humidity? A) Compacted B) Brush C) Aerial D) Grass
D) Grass
24. In a well-designed water distribution system, which type of pattern do the water mains follow? A) Branched B) Parallel C) Loop D) Grid
D) Grid
22. What is the term for the partly decomposed organic material on a forest floor? A) Understory B) Litter C) Surface compost D) Ground duff
D) Ground duff
38. Which type of window is made of overlapping sections of tempered glass in a metal frame? A) Projected B) Casement C) Jointed D) Jalousie
D) Jalousie
45. Which ICS section is responsible for developing the IAP? A) Command B) Operations C) Tactical D) Planning
D) Planning
3. What is the very top of a ladder called? A) Fly B) Top plate C) Claw D) Tip
D) Tip
10. At a traffic accident scene, apparatus should be __________. A) parked as far to the right as possible B) parked in the left-hand lane immediately adjacent to the scene C) positioned on the opposite side of the scene as the oncoming traffic D) positioned to create a barrier between the oncoming traffic and the scene
D) positioned to create a barrier between the oncoming traffic and the scene
40. For an extinguishing agent to be rated for a particular class of fire, it must __________. A) be effective in portable volumes B) be noncorrosive C) be nontoxic D) prevent rekindling
D) prevent rekindling
7. The Hux bar is designed primarily for __________. A) striking B) cutting C) lifting D) prying
D) prying
36. It is estimated that one vehicle accident involving an emergency vehicle occurs for every _____ emergency responses. A) 100 B) 1000 C) 5000 D) 10,000
B) 1000
4. Three out of four career fire fighters work in jurisdictions with a population of ________ or more. A) 25,000 B) 50,000 C) 75,000 D) 100,000
A) 25,000
13. The upper limit of span of control in a complex, dynamic situation is generally considered to be _____ to 1. A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20
A) 5
14. How soon after a traumatic call should a critical incident stress debriefing (CISD) be held? A) As soon as possible B) Within 24 hours C) Within 72 hours D) Within a week
A) As soon as possible
29. Which type of company is responsible for securing a water source, deploying handlines, and putting water on the fire? A) Engine B) Initial attack C) Pumper D) Truck
A) Engine
18. Which type of company specializes in saving victims from fires, confined spaces, trenches, and high-angle situations? A) Rescue B) Truck C) Engine D) Rapid intervention
A) Rescue
35. The majority of fire fighter deaths are caused by __________. A) heart attack or stroke B) trauma C) burns D) asphyxiation
A) heart attack or stroke
3. At an emergency scene, the safety officer reports directly to the __________. A) incident commander B) operations chief C) general staff D) medical group supervisor
A) incident commander
17. Truck companies are sometimes referred to as __________ companies. A) ladder B) engine C) rapid intervention D) rescue
A) ladder
32. A fire department is required to have a __________ to track personnel and assignments at an emergency scene. A) personnel accountability system B) situation status report C) unit log D) passport system
A) personnel accountability system
28. Specific information on the actions to be taken to accomplish a certain task is provided by __________. A) standard operating procedures B) policies C) rules and regulations D) incident action plans
A) standard operating procedures
40. The goal of __________ is to ensure that all members of an agency perform a given task in a uniform way. A) standard operating procedures B) the manual of operations C) tactical objectives D) policies
A) standard operating procedures
9. Which term describes the small magnetic boards carried by company officers as part of a personnel accountability system? A) Scoreboards B) Passports C) Dog tags D) Unit rosters
B) Passports
20. Which of the following are developed to provide definitive guidelines for present and future actions? A) Regulations B) Policies C) Standard operating procedures D) After-action reports
B) Policies
30. Health and safety programs for fire fighters are the subject of NFPA _____. A) 1001 B) 1021 C) 1500 D) 1901
C) 1500
24. Approximately _____percent of fire fighters who die in vehicle collisions are not wearing seat belts. A) 10 B) 25 C) 40 D) 50
C) 40
11. When donning SCBA, fire fighters should check that cylinder has a minimum of _____ percent of its rated maximum pressure. A) 75 B) 80 C) 90 D) 100
C) 90
31. Who is responsible for coordinating the activities of several fire companies in a defined geographic area such as a district? A) Section chief B) Captain C) Battalion chief D) Assistant chief
C) Battalion chief
7. If one team member must exit a hazard area for any reason, what should the rest of the team do? A) Continue working on their assignment B) Assign a buddy to accompany the member out of the hazard area C) Exit as the entire team together D) Defer to the team leader, who should decide based on the circumstances
C) Exit as the entire team together
38. Which statement about downed electrical wires is correct? A) Turnout boots and thick rubber gloves will afford you sufficient protection. B) A downed power line may be safely pinned down under the tire of the apparatus. C) Fire fighters should operate under the assumption that all downed utility lines are energized. D) Fire fighters should use tools with wood or fiberglass handles to manipulate downed lines.
C) Fire fighters should operate under the assumption that all downed utility lines are energized.
14. A fire fighter will most typically report directly to a person of which rank? A) Battalion chief B) Section chief C) Lieutenant D) Unit leader
C) Lieutenant
36. Which national organization writes codes and standards for fire protection? A) United States Fire Administration (USFA) B) Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) C) National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) D) Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA)
C) National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
15. What is a requirement for structural firefighting boots? A) Rubber upper B) Zipper closure C) Slip-resistant sole D) Pull-on design
C) Slip-resistant sole
17. Which of the following is an essential element of safe emergency operations? A) Initiative B) Sacrifice C) Teamwork D) Integrity
C) Teamwork
12. Who should accompany a fire fighter sent to the rehabilitation area? A) No one; the affected fire fighter should go to rehab alone B) One member of his or her crew C) The entire crew D) An EMT
C) The entire crew
11. For whom should fire fighters consider that they work? A) Their supervisors B) Their team C) The tax-paying citizens D) Themselves
C) The tax-paying citizens
37. What is the purpose of a personnel accountability system? A) Ensure completion of tasks delegated to fire fighters B) Prevent freelancing C) Track personnel and assignments on the emergency scene D) Brief newly arriving crews on the situation status
C) Track personnel and assignments on the emergency scene
12. Which basic management principle says that each fire fighter should answer to only one supervisor? A) Span of control B) Organizational accountability C) Unity of command D) Division of labor
C) Unity of command
6. The earliest known fire department was in __________. A) the Ottoman Empire B) Greece C) ancient Rome D) Germany
C) ancient Rome
27. A fire fighter who is trained and certified in chemical identification, leak control, and decontamination is a(n) ________. A) Fire Fighter II B) spill management technician C) hazardous materials technician D) materials technical specialist
C) hazardous materials technician
25. The individual responsible for the overall management of an incident is the __________. A) operations chief B) company officer C) incident commander D) commanding officer
C) incident commander
41. Which of the following is the organizational structure through which a department manages its routine and emergency operations? A) Incident command system B) Division of labor C) Scalar structure D) Chain of command
D) Chain of command
14. Which statement about the use of a protective hood is correct? A) It is optional if a helmet equipped with fire-resistive neck/ear flaps is worn. B) Any method used for donning the hood is acceptable as long as the SCBA face piece seal is tested and intact. C) First don the hood and then apply the SCBA face piece straps over it, making sure the hood is clear of the seal. D) Don the SCBA face piece first and then pull the hood up over it.
D) Don the SCBA face piece first and then pull the hood up over it.
41. Which of the following is one of the 16 Firefighter Life Safety Initiatives? A) Promote mandatory participation in fire fighter fitness and wellness programs B) Empower safety officers to stop unsafe practices C) Fight fire aggressively but plan for safety first D) Ensure that fire fighters have access to counseling and psychological support services
D) Ensure that fire fighters have access to counseling and psychological support services
35. Which position specializes in reviewing plans for fire detection and suppression systems for functionality and code compliance? A) Fire systems specialist B) Fire prevention officer C) Fire marshal D) Fire protection engineer
D) Fire protection engineer
22. Which are the two levels of NFPA fire fighter certification? A) A and B B) Basic and Advanced C) Junior and Senior D) I and II
D) I and II
40. Which organization developed the Everybody Goes Home program? A) National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) B) Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) C) International Association of Firefighters (IAFF) D) National Fallen Firefighters Foundation (NFFF)
D) National Fallen Firefighters Foundation (NFFF)
28. When is it acceptable to drive a fire apparatus over a downed power line? A) In an emergency situation where there is no alternative approach B) If the wire is motionless and silent C) Only if it can be done in such a way that no two tires touch the downed line simultaneously D) Never
D) Never
5. Following notification of an emergency response, when should fire fighters don personal protective equipment (PPE)? A) Upon dismounting the apparatus at the scene B) While on the apparatus, en route to the call C) After the first-arriving unit gives its report on conditions D) Prior to mounting the apparatus
D) Prior to mounting the apparatus
2. Which position serves as a liaison between the incident commander and the news media? A) Liaison officer B) Planning section chief C) Agency representative D) Public information officer
D) Public information officer
2. In the United States, the number of fire fighter deaths that occurs during emergency operations is __________ the number that occur during nonemergency activities. A) nearly five times B) about twice C) about half D) about equal to
D) about equal to
9. In the fire service, the bugle has become a symbol of __________. A) fraternity B) courage C) service D) authority
D) authority
17. The realistic duration of an SCBA air supply is __________ than the rated duration. A) about the same B) somewhat longer C) somewhat shorter D) much shorter
D) much shorter
31. The sole responsibility of a(n) __________ is to provide emergency assistance to crews working inside the hazardous area. A) interior attack team B) buddy system C) rescue group D) rapid intervention crew
D) rapid intervention crew
34. The number of people whom one person can supervise effectively is known as ________. A) functional supervision B) division of labor C) chain of command D) span of control
D) span of control
