Kalitta Air 747-400 2021 OKE

329. When is a new Release required to be issued? (GOM Chapter 9 ref 9.6 page 9.44-9.48)

A NEW Release is required whenever the following occur. 1) Tail Swap 2) landed at a point not listed in the original release. 3) On the ground at an intermediate stop for more than six (6) hours. 4) Air return. 5) Change of destination while still on the ground. 6) DMI that affects the performance of the aircraft. 7) DMI that restricts operations below FL 250. 8) Actual aircraft weight exceeds the flight planned weight by more than 10,000 lbs. (see exceptions GOM 9.48) 9) ADS-B component/system failure discovered prior to departure when ADS-B airspace is planned on initial release. (See GOM chapter 9 reference 9.6 pages 45-48 for details. This is simplified information.)

429. What causes the Speed brakes to deploy on landing when armed? Not Armed? (AOM vol 2 Pg 9-22)

ARMED: • Thrust levers 1 and 3 near the closed position, and • Main landing gear touch down, and NOT ARMED: • Main gear on the ground, and • Thrust levers 1 and 3 near the closed position, and • Reverse thrust 2 and 4 are pulled to idle detent

510. How is the predictive wind-shear system different from the reactive wind-shear system? How should you react to either warning? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 15-41, QRH 16-13)

Activates at different points (reactive - Vr to 1500) (predictive 60-70% N1 to 1200 feet) • The PWS increases alerting time over that provided by the reactive wind shear system included in the EGPWS. • Caution: Monitor Radar Display • Warning: Windshear Escape Maneuver (found in QRH 16-13)

365. If number 4 engine generator is deferred, which generator powers the SYCH BUS during a CAT III approach?

All remaining generators power the sync buss through the Bus Tie Contactors with the SSB closed.

109. When using FLCH SPD as the pitch mode on takeoff (VNAV did not capture), is it necessary to push the THR button to select climb thrust? (AOM Vol II, 4) (AOM Vol II, 7) (AOM, Vol II, 11)

Assuming that VNAV did NOT capture because it has failed, it would be necessary to push the THR button at the thrust reduction point in order to select climb thrust.

28. What are the Memory Items for the EICAS message "CABIN ALTITUDE"? (QRH 8)

CABIN ALTITUDE Condition: Cabin altitude excessive. 1. Don the oxygen masks. 2. Establish crew communications.

24. An engine has failed in flight. N1 rotation and oil pressure are indicated. The EICAS message ENG 1 FAIL appears. What recall items should be accomplished? (QRH 7)

Condition: One of these occurs: • An engine failure • An engine flameout There are no recall items associated with an engine failure. Call for QRH ENG 1, 2, 3, 4 FAIL (SINGLE ENGINE) checklist.

187. What does the EICAS message "HYD CONTROL" mean? (AOM Vol II, 13) (QRH 13)

Condition: The hydraulic control system is inoperative. Objective: To ensure system hydraulic pressure during high demand. 1. DEMAND PUMP selector (affected system) ..................................... ON 2. Affected system indications may be inoperative. The affected system's demand pump may not operate under high demand situations. The affected system's demand pump must be placed to ON in order to ensure system pressure will be available during high demand situations.

129. When must continuous ignition be used? (AOM Vol I, L22) SP-74

Continuous ignition must be on when operating in: • Water or slush standing • Ash volcanic • Icing conditions sleet or hail • Turbulence moderate to severe • Rain heavy W A I T R

25. What are the Memory Items for EICAS message "ENG 1 AUTOSTART"? (QRH 7)

ENG 1, 2, 3, 4 AUTOSTART (ABORTED ENGINE START) Condition: During a ground start, an abort start condition occurs. Objective: To shut down the engine and motor it. FUEL CONTROL switch .............................................................. CUTOFF

21. What are the memory items for a multiple engine failure in flight? (QRH 7)

ENG 1, 2, 3, 4 FAIL (TWO or MORE ENGINES) Condition: One of these occurs on two or more engines: • Engine flameout • Engine indications are unusual • Engine indications are more than limits • Unusual engine noises are heard • There is no response to thrust lever movement Objective: To attempt a rapid relight. CAUTION: SHUTDOWN OF MORE THAN ONE ENGINE WILL CAUSE THE AUTO-THROTTLES TO BE INOPERATIVE. FUEL CONTROL switches (affected engines) ...................... CONFIRM, CUTOFF, then RUN EGT ............................................................................................................ MONITOR If EGT rapidly approaches the takeoff EGT limit, repeat step 1 as necessary. NOTE: • EGT indication will turn red if the EGT exceeds the ground/single engine in-flight start limit; however, for the multi-engine in-flight start, the start EGT limit reverts to the takeoff limit. • If high speed buffet occurs during the maneuver, relax pitch force as necessary to reduce buffet, but continue the maneuver.

20. What are the Memory Items for Engine Fire on the Ground? (QRH BC)

ENGINE FIRE ON THE GROUND FUEL CONTROL switch (affected engine) ........................... CUTOFF WARNING: DO NOT PROCEED UNTIL ENGINE HAS SHUTDOWN If FIRE indication persists after engine shutdown: Engine Fire switch (affected engine) .................................. PULL Engine Fire switch (affected engine) .................................. ROTATE After a momentary delay: Engine Fire switch (affected engine) .................................. ROTATE (to the other bottle) Discharge the second fire bottle regardless of fire indications.

408. Memory item for engine fire on the ground? (QRH BC-1)

ENGINE FIRE ON THE GROUND FUEL CONTROL switch (affected engine) ..................................... CUTOFF WARNING: DO NOT PROCEED UNTIL ENGINE HAS SHUTDOWN If FIRE indication persists after engine shutdown: Engine Fire switch (affected engine) ............................................ PULL Engine Fire switch (affected engine) ............................................ ROTATE After a momentary delay: Engine Fire switch (affected engine) ............................................ ROTATE (to the other bottle) Discharge the second fire bottle regardless of fire indications.

26. What are the Memory Items for the Engine Limit/Surge/Stall condition? (QRH 7)

ENGINE LIMIT/SURGE/STALL Condition: One or more of these occur: • Engine indications are unusual • Engine indications are rapidly approaching or exceeding Limits • Unusual engine noises are heard • There is no response to thrust lever movement Objective: To attempt to recover normal engine operation, or shut down the engine if recovery is not possible. THRUST LEVER (affected engine) ............................................. RETARD Retard until indications stay within normal limits, or return to normal, or the thrust lever is closed.

402. For engine fire on the ground, why do we wait for a positive engine shutdown before preceding?

Ensures fuel no longer flowing to engine, feeding fire.

22. You have arrived on stand. Parking brake is set, engines 1, 2, & 3 are shut down, and engine 4 is running as you await the connection of ground power. Suddenly, the marshaller gives you the signal for a fire on engine 4. With no master fire warning illuminated, what recall items should be accomplished? (QRH 8)

FIRE ENGINE TAILPIPE Condition: An engine tailpipe fire occurs on the ground with no engine fire warning. FUEL CONTROL switch (affected engine) ................................ CUTOFF

27. What are the Memory Items for the EICAS message "FIRE MAIN DECK"? (QRH 8)

FIRE MAIN DECK FIRE MN DK AFT, FWD, MID Condition: Smoke is detected in the main deck cargo area(s). 1. Don the oxygen mask 2. Establish crew communications.

29. What are the Memory Items for the EICAS message "FIRE WHEEL WELL"? (QRH 8)

FIRE WHEEL WELL Condition: Fire is detected in a main wheel well. When extending or retracting the landing gear, do not exceed the gear EXTEND limit speed (270K/.82M) Landing gear lever .........................................................................DN This attempts to remove and extinguish the fire source.

225. Who is responsible for ensuring the doors page synoptic is displayed during preflight? (AOM Vol I, NP-41)

First Officer (FO Cockpit Prep) • Doors Display Switch (after Captain's status check) ............................. PUSH

450. What things do the IRUs give us? (AOM vol 2 Pg 11-13)

HATSWAP • Heading • Acceleration • Track • Speed • Wind • Attitude Data • Position

23. A hung start occurs after starter cutout, as indicated by the engine failing to accelerate 90 seconds after fuel control switch placed to run. What recall item should be accomplished? (QRH 7)

HUNG START (AUTOSTART AFTER STARTER CUTOUT) Condition: N2 below 50% or engine fails to accelerate 90 seconds after fuel control switch placed to run. FUEL CONTROL switch ............................................................. CUTOFF

421. What will cause the >SPEEDBRAKES EXT EICAS message to display? (AOM vol 2 Pg 9-22)

Is displayed when speed brake lever is aft of arm, and • RA between 800 feet and 15 feet, or • Flaps in landing configuration, or • Two or more thrust levers forward of closed position.

433. What does the EICAS message >SPEEDBRAKE EXT mean? (AOM vol 2 Pg 9-22)

Is displayed when the speed brake lever is aft of arm, and • RA between 800 feet and 15 feet, or • Flaps in landing configuration, or • Two or more thrust levers forward of closed position.

41. What are B-44 fuel requirements? (GOM 5.71-5.72)

KA is authorized by OpSpec B044 to conduct planned rerelease en-route international flights planned with enough fuel to: 1. Initial Destination Fuel: The fuel required to fly from the origin airport and land at the initial destination airport including one instrument approach and missed approach at the initial destination. (Diversion Airport) b. Contingency Fuel: Fly for a period of 10% of the total time required to fly from the origin airport and land at the initial destination. (Diversion Airport) c. Fly to and land at the most distant initial destination alternate airport specified in the flight release. d. And fly for 30 minutes at 1,500 feet above the initial destination alternate airport at holding speed and fuel consumption. 2. Intended Destination a. Intended Destination Fuel: The total fuel required to fly from the origin airport and land at the intended destination airport based on the re-release including one instrument approach and missed approach at the intended destination. b. Contingency Fuel: Fly for a period of 10% of the total time required to fly from the point of rerelease and land at the intended destination airport. c. Intended Destination Alternate Fuel: Fly to and land at the most distant intended destination alternate airport specified in the flight release. d. Holding Fuel: Fly for 30 minutes at 1,500 feet above the intended destination alternate airport at holding speed and fuel consumption. (B-44 fuel from door to door)

290. Normally equipment cooling comes on when, on the ground? In-flight? And where does the air go? What about in STBY or OVRD? (AOM Vol II, 2-29,2-30)

On the ground, with the engines not operating, and the Equipment Cooling selector in NORM, and ambient temperatures moderate or high, the warm exhaust air is ducted overboard through the ground exhaust valve. With lower ambient temperatures, the ground exhaust valve remains closed, and the system is configured for flight. The exhaust air is ducted into the lower forward cargo lobe. In Flight, Equipment Cooling selector positioned to STBY closes the overboard exhaust valve to manually configure the airplane for flight. OVRD: With the Equipment Cooling selector in OVRD, the internal fans deactivate, and the smoke/override valve opens with exhaust valves both closed. The smoke/override valve opens to an overboard vent allowing cabin differential pressure to draw air from the panels area on the flight deck through the Flight Deck equipment cooling valve, through the equipment cooling ducts to the E & E compartment equipment racks. This creates a reverse flow of air across the equipment, then through the supply duct, and overboard. This automatically happens when the FWD Cargo Smoke switch is pressed on the cargo fire panel.

451. What is an indication a failed EIU has not auto transferred?

PFD and ND blank, respective EIU blanks.

210. What would cause the >PILOT RESPONSE EICAS message to illuminate?

Pilot action not detected for a specified time, ie.(15 minutes for the amber EICAS message and 20 minutes for the aural alert, and if left uncanceled for 25 minutes total time, the red EICAS message will activate). Monitored PR systems are the MCP, EFIS control panel, EICAS control panel, CDU inputs, VHF/HF Push to talk. The PR system is inhibited below FL200.

206. Reserved

Reserved

308. Reserved

Reserved

313. Reserved

Reserved

327. Reserved

Reserved

331. Reserved

Reserved

357. Reserved

Reserved

39. Reserved

Reserved

508. Reserved

Reserved

524. What is monitored by the takeoff warning system? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 15-27)

The respective EICAS alert message CONFIG is displayed when; aircraft is on the ground, Fuel control switches are in Run, engine 2 and 3 are in takeoff range and airspeed less than V1 • Flaps not in takeoff position • Body gear not centered • Parking brake set • Speed brake lever not in DN detent • Stabilizer trim not in takeoff range

499. What will disarm the Autobrakes? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 14-14)

The system disarms immediately if any of the following occur: • Pedal brakes applied • Any thrust lever advanced after landing • Speed brakes lever moved to DOWN detent after they have deployed • DISARM or OFF position selected on Autobrakes selector • Auto brake fault • Normal antiskid system fault • Loss of normal brake hydraulic pressure

506. What will cause the autobrakes to disarm? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 14-14)

The system disarms immediately if any of the following occur: • Pedal brakes applied • Any thrust lever advanced after landing • Speed brakes lever moved to DOWN detent after they have deployed • DISARM or OFF position selected on Autobrakes selector • Auto brake fault • Normal antiskid system fault • Loss of normal brake hydraulic pressure

214. When performing a Non-ILS Approach, when is it appropriate to add 50 feet to the published minimums?

When a Non-ILS approach has an MDA and either: : an ILS or : a VASI/PAPI available, or : An RNAV approach with a DA, Set the published minimums. If Not: add 50 feet to the published minimums. : When V/S is used as pitch mode, or : the approach does not comply with TERPS, PANS OPS, or MIPS, Add 50 to published minimums.

127. The #1 APU generator is inoperative. External power is not available. What must be done to power the refueling panel? (FSM)

When, the APU Generator 1 or EXT PWR 1 is not available, the aircraft battery can power the refueling panel through the standby inverter. Conditions required to use battery power for refueling are as follows: • Fueling Control panel access door fully OPEN, • Airplane Battery switch ON (overhead panel), • Standby Power switch OFF (overhead panel), • Fueling Power switch to BATT (at the Fueling Control panel).

432. Does the EICAS message >FLAP LOAD RELIEF require a logbook write up? (AOM vol 2 Pg 9-25, GOM Ch 8 Pg 8-75)

Yes, >FLAP LOAD RELIEF indicates that FLAP RELIEF has failed. • Flap relief function operates if flap airspeed limits are exceeded with flaps 25 or 30.

18. When conducting an exterior inspection, must a flashlight be carried during daylight hours? (AOM Vol I, NP)

Yes, you are also required to have on a reflective vest and hearing protection, and in some countries a surgical mask.

45. When are you considered "established" on course? (GOM 6)

• "Established" is considered as being within half of the full-scale deflection for the ILS and VOR or within ±5° of the required bearing for the NDB.

391. What are some of the Thrust Reference Modes that can be displayed on the Primary EICAS? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 7-2)

• (TO, TO1, TO2), D-TO, (CLB, CLB1, CLB2), CON, CRZ, GA

476. What is the maximum fuel temperature allowed? (AOM Vol I, Pg. L-17)

• +54 degrees C is max fuel temperature

530. The APU may not be operated below what pressure altitude? (AOM Vol I, Pg. L-21)

• -1,000 feet pressure altitude

173. What is the fuel freeze point of Jet A? (QRH 12)

• -40*C (most restrictive of the fuel types used)

185. What is the minimum hydraulic quantity for dispatch? (AOM Vol I, L)

• 0.80

38. You have been assigned to a basic crew twice within a particular 30-day period. What is the maximum number of hours that you may fly in that 30- day period? (GOM 5)

• 100 hours

179. Once activated, how long will an electric scavenge pump operate? (AOM Vol II, 12)

• 120 minutes or until CTR Tank is empty

285. With a tire pressure of 220 psi, what would be the approximate hydroplaning speed? (GOM 5-107)

• 133kts (9x square root of tire pressure)

536. What is the crosswind limit for CAT II/III approach? (AOM Vol I, Pg. L-15)

• 15 knots

282. The minimum pavement for a 180 degree turn is? (AOM Vol II,1-2)

• 153' body gear operating

111. If LNAV is armed in flight, at what cross track distance will it become active? (AOM Vol I, L)

• 2.5 nautical miles

145. If the outboard ailerons fail to "unlock" during approach, are there any restrictions on landing? (QRH 9)

• 20 Knot crosswind limit

151. The flaps are not to be extended above what altitude? (AOM Vol I, L)

• 20,000ft

8. What minimum climb gradient must be maintained when conducting a departure procedure designed under TERPS criteria when no gradient is specified? (GOM 5)

• 200 feet per nautical mile

153. What is the maximum allowable in-flight difference between Captains and F/O's altitude display for RVSM operations? (AOM Vol I, L)

• 200ft

424. The Flap Control Units provide load relief protection at what flap settings? (AOM vol 2 Pg 9-25)

• 25 and 30 degrees

448. How many IRUs? How many FMSs?, How many LRNs? (AOM Vol 2 Pg 11-13)

• 3 IRU s • 2 FMS • 2 GPS

528. On a cargo only flight with no live animals on board, what is the maximum number of supernumeraries allowed in the cargo compartment? (AOM Vol I, Pg. L-15)

• 3 supernumeraries and they must carry a portable oxygen dispensing unit

72. What is the minimum fuel temperature and what should be done if the fuel temperature decreases below the limit? (QRH 12).

• 3* C above the fuel freeze point • Increase speed, change altitude, or deviate to a warmer air mass, or all three to achieve a TAT equal to or higher that the fuel temp limit. • Turn on Wing Anti-ice (as per Boeing)

208. When operating an AMC contracted flight, when must the destination airfield be notified? (GOM 7)

• 30 Minutes

254. After coast-out and radar service terminated, at what point do we squawk 2000? (Reg/Sup Ops Pg. 13)

• 30 minutes after entry into NAT airspace

113. When is an ACARS in range report required to be manually sent? (AOM Vol I, SP)

• 30 minutes prior to arrival when unable to contact the ground station on an AMC charter flight. (Military) • 30 minutes prior to arrival when a maintenance item is, or will be, entered in the logbook.

35. What is the time of useful consciousness at 35,000 feet without using supplemental oxygen? (GOM 8)

• 30 to 60 seconds

278. What is the width of the wing gear? (AOM 1-1)

• 36' 1"

369. How many Utility Buses are there? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 6-12)

• 4

155. On what range of the ND can you display all airports, all waypoints and all VORs? (AOM Vol II, 10)

• 40 miles

279. What is the minimum taxi width?

• 50'

240. What is the minimum RVR allowed for takeoff? How many centerline lights should you see at 500 RVR?

• 500 RVR, 10 lights (50' apart)

175. What is the Conditional Minimum Ramp Fuel (Excluding Ballast)? (AOM Vol I, L)

• 53,000lbs

281. How many escape descent devices (reels) are there on a BCF?

• 6 Escape Reels

427. How many spoilers does the airplane have? Flight? Roll? Ground? (AOM vol 2 Pg 9-22)

• 6 spoilers on each wing (12 total) • 4 middle panels, 2 on each wing act as speed brakes. • 5 outermost on each wing for roll. • All 6 on each wing go to full on landing.

388. How long does the APU run after selection it to OFF? Why? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 7-37)

• 60 seconds for cooling down. For fire detection.

527. What is the Maximum Zero Fuel Weight for the B747-4R7F Freighter? (AOM Vol I, Pg. L-7)

• 610,000 lbs.

525. What is the wingspan in meters and feet? (AOM Vol II Pg. 1-1)

• 64.5 Meters • 211' 5" Feet

492. Pushing rudder pedals fully will turn the nose wheel how many degrees in either direction? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 14-12)

• 7 degrees in either direction

531. What is the minimum oil pressure for the PW4056 engine? (AOM Vol I, Pg. L-24)

• 70 PSI

176. What is the Standard Minimum Ramp Fuel (Excluding Ballast)? (AOM Vol I, L)

• 72,000lbs

189. What is the maximum takeoff weight when operating with gear extended? (AOM Vol I, L)

• 720,000 pounds

190. On takeoff roll, when does RTO arm? (AOM Vol II, 14)

• 85 kts

504. What is the highest Brake Temp number on the GEAR synoptic? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 14-8)

• 9, The range is from 0 to 9

538. What is the max differential pressure relief valve? How do we tell if it occurred? (AOM Vol I, Pg. L-15, AOM Vol II, Pg. 2-33)

• 9.4 PSI, two mechanical positive relief valves on side of aircraft, (Taco Doors) one or both valves open when cabin pressure becomes excessive. Will close when pressure is no longer excessive. If doors remain open write it up in the log book and notify maintenance.

90. What is the Max. Differential Pressure (Relief Valve), Takeoff and Landing? (AOM Vol I, L)

• 9.4psi • 0.11psi

473. What does the EICAS message FUEL IMBALANCE mean? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 12-18)

• A Fuel difference of 6,000 lbs. between inboard main tanks 2 and 3, and outboard main tanks 1 and 4, after reaching FUEL TANK/ENG condition. Message no longer displayed when difference less than 1,000 lbs.

363. While adjusting your seat electrically, there is a spark coming from below the seat. What is the fastest way to remove the power supply that seat? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 1-72)

• A MASTER ON/OFF SWITCH LOCATED BEHIND THE LUMBAR SUPPORT IN/OUT ADJUSTMENT HANDLE.

34. What must a person consider before using a Halon fire extinguisher in an enclosed area? (GOM 8)

• A PBE must be donned prior to discharging a Halon fire extinguisher in a confined space

118. What is indicated by the EICAS advisory >RADIO TRANSMIT? (AOM Vol II, 5)

• A VHF or HF radio has been continuously keyed for 30 seconds

257. For purposes of condition reporting and airplane performance, a runway is considered contaminated when? (AOM Vol, Perf 11)

• A runway where more than 25% of the runway length, within the width being used, is covered by standing water (more than 1/8"), slush, or snow

10. When is a new TLR required prior to departure? (AOM, Vol I, PERF)

• A) The TLR is void when the actual QNH is more than .10" (3.4 hPa) below the planned QNH. • B) The TLR is void when the actual OAT is greater than the Maximum Temperature (MT) for the takeoff runway. • C) The TLR is void when the actual OAT is more than 10° less than the planned OAT. • D)The TLR is void when the actual takeoff weight is greater than the weight listed in the PTOW PLUS table. • E) The TLR is void when the actual takeoff weight is more than 10,000 pounds below the planned takeoff weight. • F) The TLR is void when a performance limiting MEL exists that is not shown in the RMKS section. ( remember 10, 10, 10, Temp, Table, MEL)

355. Where does the Ground Service Bus get its power from? (AOM Vol II,6-12)

• AC Bus 1 or the ground handling through the 1L door switch.

125. What electrical bus isolation occurs during auto land? (AOM Vol II, 6)

• AC buses 1, 2, and 3 are isolated. AC bus 4 powers the sync bus

115. How would you verify that the ACARS state is BEGIN or WAIT? (AOM Vol I, SP)

• ACARS 2/2, DISCRETE, verify BEGIN/WAIT • To Fix: o Close the L1 door o Set the parking brake o Open the L1 door o Select RETURN IN o Select PROCEED WITH RETURN IN

399. Is the Main Deck Cargo Compartment an "AND" or "OR" logic configuration? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 8-9)

• AND

138. Is the engine fire detection system AND logic, or OR logic? (AOM Vol II, 8)

• AND logic

379. Describe the APU start sequence. (AOM Vol II, Pg. 7-36)

• APU Fuel valve and Inlet Door open simultaneously • Starter Engagement occurs when Inlet Door is fully open • Continues with, Ignition, Light-off, and engine acceleration to rated speed.

405. What does the EICAS message > DET FIRE APU indicate? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 8-13)

• APU fire detection loops A or B has failed

131. What does the EICAS Memo message APU RUNNING mean? (AOM Vol II, 7)

• APU is at 95% RPM • Electrical and pneumatics are available

397. There are fire detection and extinguishing systems for which areas of the airplane? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 8-8)

• APU, Cargo Compartments, Engines, and Lavatories

387. Does the APU auto shutdown for a fire, or do you have to pull the fire switch? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 8 3)

• AUTO

333. When does VNAV activate if ARMED? (AOM 4-6)

• Activates at 400' above field elevation

294. Aft cargo heat is provided by bleed air from which duct? (AOM Vol II, 2-37)

• Aft Cargo Heat is provided from the Center section.

130. With an EEC in Alternate Mode (ALTN), when should takeoff thrust be set? (AOM Vol I, L)

• After brake release

165. When does the FMC have Approach Logic? (AOM Vol II, 11)

• After passing the first waypoint contained in the IAP • Within 25 miles when the runway is the waypoint displayed at 1L

309. The forward cargo compartment receives heat how? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 2-29)

• Air exhausted from the (E&E) compartment

36. What must be entered into the logbook following an overweight landing? (GOM 8)

• Aircraft weight • Rate of descent at touchdown

261. On a CAT III approach with far end RVR reporting, is far end RVR controlling? (GOM 5-110)

• All available RVR reports are controlling, except a far-end RVR report, which is advisory only.

507. With auto brakes armed, brake application begins when? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 14-14)

• All thrust levers are closed, • Ground mode is sensed, and • The wheels have spun up

419. Control column trim cutoff function does not affect which form of trim actuation? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 9-17)

• Alternate Trim Inputs.

286. What are the 2 types of pushbutton switches? (AOM Vol II,1-17

• Alternate action switches have two positions: on and off. • Momentary action switches are spring loaded to the extended position.

256. How do we derive alternate airport weather minimums? (GOM 5-79)

• Alternate airport weather minimums are calculated using either of the following conditions: o One NAVAID(Approach)-add 400' and 1 mile o Two NAVAIDS(Approaches)-add 200' and 1/2 mile o Cat II APPROACH-requires 300' HAT @ 3/4 miles visibility o Cat III Approach- requires 200' HAT @ 1/2 miles visibility

263. What do we need for Alternate IFR Weather Minimums? (GOM 5-79)

• Alternate airport weather minimums are calculated using either of the following conditions: o One NAVAID(Approach)-add 400' and 1 mile o Two NAVAIDS(Approaches)-add 200' and 1/2 mile o Cat II APPROACH-requires 300' HAT @ 3/4 miles visibility o Cat III Approach- requires 200' HAT @ 1/2 miles visibility

194. Where can you read alternate brake pressure? (AOM Vol II, 14)

• Alternate brake system pressure cannot be read.

81. When reporting by ADS-C only, can flight crews remove non-compulsory ATC waypoints? (CPDLC Presentation)

• Although physically possible, it is not permitted.

411. What are the indications a fire bottle has been discharged or has low pressure? (AOM Vol II, Pgs. 8-1, 8-13)

• Amber BTL DISCHARGE lights on overhead panel and EICAS advisory (BTL LO L, R), (ENG A, B)

320. The >ANTI-ICE NAC EICAS message indicates what? (AOM Vol II, Pg.3-10)

• Any nacelle anti-ice system is on, and the TAT is greater than 12 degrees C, and ice detector does not detect any ice.

70. Generally speaking, to which altitudes should the (cold temperature) altitude correction procedures of GOM Ch. 6 be applied? What altitudes should not be corrected? (GOM 6)

• Apply corrections to all published minimum departure, en route, and approach altitudes according to the table in GOM Ch. 6. • ATC-assigned altitudes or flight levels should not be adjusted for temperature.

243. With PACKS in HI FLOW, how much extra fuel burn will you have? (MEL 21-76)

• Approximately 1%

460. During fuel jettison Main tanks 2 and 3 Override/Jettison pumps will drain their respective tanks to what standpipe level? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 12-8)

• Approximately 7,000 lbs.

64. Describe the check required after passing a waypoint in Class II airspace. What is being determined by this check? (GOM 6)

• Approximately ten minutes after passing each waypoint, the steering LRN unit position should be plotted, and all LRN units checked against each other to ensure there are no significant deviations. • Record the time (UTC) • Verify on-course tracking • The check is designed to ensure that the proper coordinates are inserted in the 'Next' position and that the aircraft is tracking to that position. The check does NOT verify the aircraft is in the proper position.

193. At what tiller angle will the body gear begin to aid in turning the aircraft? (AOM Vol II, 14)

• At 20° of tiller angle

522. What two conditions would drive the magenta CAB airspeed bug to the bottom of the overspeed indication? (FTM 4-3)

• At heavy weights or high cost index the ECON climb speed can be very close to VMO/MMO.

250. Where do we find authorized geographic areas of en-route operation? (GOM 6-2)

• Authorized geographic areas of en route operation are contained in OpSpec B050.

382. The fuel control switch when placed to RUN with auto-start ON does what? With auto-start OFF? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 7-18)

• Auto-start ON= opens Spar and Engine fuel valves o EEC sequences start valve, fuel metering valve, and igniter operation • Auto-start OFF= opens Spar and Engine fuel valves Energizes igniter(s)

4. The First Officer is PF and has yet to complete consolidation. ATIS is reporting the visibility as 1100 meters. What must be considered? (GOM 5) (AOM Vol I, NP)

• Autobrakes 3 or greater must be used • The First Officer may not conduct the approach and landing

82. What does ADS-B stand for? (GOM 5)

• Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast.

521. During engine start, all EICAS caution and advisory messages are inhibited, except? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 15-46)

• BLEED • ENG AUTOSTART • ENG FUEL VALVE • ENG SHUTDOWN • ENG START VLV • STARTER CUTOUT

304. If you received a PACK 2 Status message after pushback, what would you do? (AOM Vol I, Pg. NP-7)

• Before engine start investigate • After engine start nothing

514. Predictive Wind shear system operates only below what altitude? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 15-41)

• Below 2,300 feet RA.

93. What will cause an engine bleed air SYS FAULT light to illuminate? (AOM Vol II, 2)

• Bleed Overheat • Bleed Overpressure • HP Bleed open when commanded closed • PRV open when commanded closed

349. How do you reset to boom-mic after the O2 mic has been activated? (AOM Vol II, 5-1)

• Boom microphone active when oxygen mask stowage box left-hand door closed and Reset/Test slide lever pushed and released.

122. What battery is required to start the APU?

• Both batteries are required to start the APU.

133. With the auto ignition selector in SINGLE (GE) what happens in flight? (AOM Vol II, 7)

• Both igniters will activate when N2 drops below 50% in the affected engine • Both igniters will activate in all engines when the flaps are out of up

140. What does the EICAS message ">DET FIRE/OHT 1" mean? (AOM Vol II, 8)

• Both loop A and loop B for engine 1 have failed

498. One tire on the BTMS indicates 2, are there any special procedures? (QRH PI.1-13)

• Brake cooling schedule chart must be reviewed.

495. How does the brake torque system work with alternate brakes? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 14-13)

• Brake torque is sensed on an individual wheel basis; however, the signal is sent to the alternate antiskid valve and brake pressure is release on a laterally paired wheel basis.

123. How can a DCIR be opened? (AOM Vol II, 6)

• By opening the AC Bus Tie switch.

371. How are the Captain and FO's transfer buses powered? How are they backed up? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 6-13)

• CPT- AC BUSS 3, AC BUSS 1 BACKUP • FO- AC BUSS 2, AC BUSS 1 BACKUP

470. With 360,000 lbs. of fuel loaded on the plane, describe the fuel configurations from engine start to flap retraction. (AOM Vol II, 15-14)

• CWT pump switches should be ON. The FSMCs close crossfeed valves 2 and 3 when flaps extend to takeoff position on the ground. Override/jettison pumps 2 and 3 are inhibited from operating when pressure is detected from both CWT override/jettison pumps. The CWT override/jettison pumps provide fuel to engines 1 and 4 and main pumps 2 and 3 provide fuel to their related engine.

94. What will cause the cabin altitude indicator on the primary EICAS to turn amber? (AOM Vol II, 2)

• Cabin altitude in the caution range.

216. Where must Cargo Aircraft Only (CAO) dangerous goods be loaded? (GOM App H, H-26)

• Cargo Aircraft Only (CAO) dangerous goods must be loaded so that they are accessible. A crew member (or other authorized person) must be able to access, handle, and (when size and weight permit) separate such packages from other cargo during flight.

245. Who is responsible for determining aircraft disinfection procedures prior to entering a country? (GOM 6-7)

• Cargo services

310. If both isolation valves are closed, what do you lose? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 2-37)

• Cargo smoke detection • Portable water pressurization • Lower lobe air conditioning • Trim air

299. If you have only 1 equipment cooling fan, is carriage of perishable or animals allowed? (MEL 21-58-6)

• Carriage of animals and/or perishables in cargo compartment may be affected.

86. What must a supernumerary do prior to entering the main deck? (AOM Vol I, NP

• Carry a portable oxygen bottle with a smoke combat mask • Notify the operating crew upon returning.

17. What is the minimum amount of brake wear pin that can be visible when conducting the Exterior Inspection? (AOM Vol I, NP) (Walk Around Power Point)

• Checking the brake wear pins is not part of the Exterior Inspection.

50. When operating outside the U.S., and cleared to a point with no routing specified, what action must be taken by the flight crew? (GOM 6)

• Clarify the routing or, if cleared direct, use specific phraseology indicating "cleared present position direct to ____". (GOM 6-19)

512. A vertical arrow on the ND traffic display indicates the traffic is climbing or descending at what rate? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 10-72)

• Climbing or descending at a rate greater than or equal to 500 fpm

95. The LLCAFR switch is in FWD LOW and the customer has requested a temperature of 4 degrees C to 8 degrees C for perishable cargo. What is the condition of the equipment cooling system? (AOM Vol II, 2)

• Closed loop

374. Moving the fuel control switch to cutoff does what? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 7-18)

• Closes Fuel Valves, engine and spar. • Removes Igniter Power • Unlocks Engine Fire Switch • Commands Related Hydraulic Demand Pump to Operate when Demand Pump Selector in Auto

141. Describe what occurs when an engine fire switch is pulled? (AOM Vol II, 8)

• Closes the related engine and spar fuel valves • Closes the related engine bleed air valve • Trips off the related engine generator • Shuts off hydraulic fluid to the related engine-driven hydraulic pump • Depressurizes the related engine-driven hydraulic pump • Arms both related engine fire extinguishers

406. Pulling the engine fire handle does what? Specifically (AOM Vol II, Pg. 8-1)

• Closes the related engine and spar fuel valves • Closes the related engine bleed air valve • Trips the related engine generator • Shuts off hydraulic fluid to the related engine driven hydraulic pump • Depressurizes the related engine driven hydraulic pump • Arm both related engine fire extinguishers

242. Where can you find the complex special engine fail procedure for GUA/MGGT RUNWAY 02, if you wanted to study it before receiving the TLR? (Aerodata handbook)

• Comply 365, 747-400 flight crew manuals, B747 supplemental information, Aerodata 747-400 Performance Handbook, pages 44-45, GUA-1.

73. How do you identify the Fuel Freeze point for the type of fuel being used? (AOM Vol I, L) (QRH 12)

• Consult the fuel freeze tables in Chapter L or the QRH Chapter 12.

400. When are the Engine and APU detector loops monitored for faults? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 8-11)

• Continuously

244. Why is important to check fields 10 and 18 on the flight plan strip? (GOM 9-51)

• Crew members need to be aware of these qualifiers should they be queried by ATC. • must verify the accuracy of these fields by checking DMIs that render the equipment listed in Fields 10a, 10b, and 18 inoperable.

124. While conducting the interior preflight, you notice that the #2 generator FIELD OFF light is illuminated. How can you reset it? (AOM Vol II, 6)

• Cycle the Generator Control switch off and then on • Turn off the Generator Control switch and then use the guarded field switch on the Overhead Maintenance panel to close the field.

385. What is the reason for approach idle? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 7-28)

• Decreases acceleration time for go-around.

461. If A/C power is unavailable, how is fuel supplied to the APU? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 12-14)

• Dedicated DC pump in main tank 2 supplies fuel to APU

474. What provides fuel pressure to the APU with no AC power? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 12-14)

• Dedicated DC pump in main tank 2 supplies fuel to APU

220. Are there any limitations for taxiing out with 3-engines? 2-engines? (FTM,2-11)

• Delayed engine start should be used when operationally possible. The following weights are for guidance only: o Less than approximately 726,000 lbs, start engines 4, 1, and 2. o Less than approximately 660,000 lbs, start engines 4 and 1. • If the engine has been shut down for several hours, it is desirable to operate at as low a thrust setting as practical for several minutes prior to takeoff. o Taxiing with two engines at high gross weight is not recommended for normal operation because of the noise and blast damage from higher than normal thrust requirements

61. Unless otherwise listed on the chart, the maximum speed for IFR turning departures is ____, with a minimum bank angle of ____° (GOM 6)

• Departures are only protected for turn radius of 290 knots or less, with a minimum bank angle of 15°.

85. What will cause the Main Deck Signaling System to activate automatically? (AOM Vol II, 1)

• Depressurization event • Main deck cargo smoke/fire

277. Once activated, how long will the MDSS remain active? (AOM 1-50)

• Depressurization or Smoke/Fire: The aural and visual alerts will remain active until the triggering condition is corrected • Turbulence: The visual alert will remain active for a period of 90 seconds, then automatically cease.

11. When requesting a "Live" calculation, what must be provided to flight following? (AOM, Vol I, PERF)

• Desired Runway, Runway surface condition, ATIS, ZFW, Fuel on board, TOGW CG. (Everything in blue.)

7. Minimum required fuel calculations are based on what 4 factors? (GOM 5)

• Destination Fuel • Alternate Fuel • Additional Fuel • Reserve Fuel

264. Where can we use a single Long-Range Navigation System (LRNS)? (Op Specs B-054, C)

• Detailed in Op Spec B054

119. How can we tune DATA into the C VHF? (AOM Vol II, 5)

• Dial past 136.000 or below 118.000 and select transfer switch.

467. What does the EICAS message FUEL TANK/ENGINE indicate? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 12-15)

• Displays when main tank 2 quantity is equal to or less than main tank 1 quantity, or when main tank 3 quantity is equal to or less than main tank 4 quantity. Approximately 118,000 lbs.

233. What is the difference between Distress and Urgency? (GOM Ch 8)

• Distress is defined as a condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger requiring immediate assistance. Distress messages have the highest priority. • Urgency is defined as a condition concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle, or of some person on board or within sight, but which does not require immediate assistance. Urgency messages are second in priority only to distress messages.

59. You are at your re-release point and you were unable to communicate with the company to coordinate your re-release when dispatched under B044, what do you do? (GOM 5)

• Divert to your released airport (intermediate airport), after coordinating with ATC.

172. Can you reset a tripped fuel pump Circuit Breaker? (QRH 12)

• Do not reset a tripped fuel pump circuit breaker

88. What are the wind limits when operating the Main Cargo Door? (AOM Vol I, L)

• Door Operating 40kts • Door Open 65kts

443. With TERR displayed on the ND, what does an amber color displayed indicate? (AOM vol 2 Pg 15-13)

• Dotted amber: terrain 500 feet (250 feet with gear down) below to 2,000 feet above airplane altitude.

519. Terrain displays (TWAS) are either solid or dotted, green, amber, or red. What are the differences? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 15-13)

• Dotted green: terrain from 2,000 feet below to 500 feet (250 feet with gear down) below airplane altitude • Dotted amber: terrain 500 feet (250 feet with gear down) below to 2,000 feet above airplane altitude. • Dotted red: terrain more than 2,000 feet above airplane altitude

395. Where is engine oil temperature measured? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 7-34)

• Downstream of the engine

351. When is the Electric Synoptic inhibited? (AOM Vol II, 6-7)

• During autoland. Message "ELECTRICAL SYNOPTIC INHIBITED FOR AUTOLAND" appears on the synoptic display

352. During an Auto-Land, when do the A/C and D/C busses isolate? (AOM Vol II, 6-14)

• During automatic precision approach below 1,500 feet radio altitude

177. When is the only time that the fuel system will automatically balance the fuel tanks? (AOM Vol II, 12)

• During fuel jettison. (This is an actual fuel dump I did of 110,000 lbs, you can see the pumps balancing the fuel.)

259. What must be considered before an approach below 3/4 mile or RVR4000. (AOM Vol I, Ap A 4-1)

• During low weather conditions (<¾ mi. visibility /RVR 4000), Ops Spec C054 requires actual landing length plus 15% be compared to the fully factored landing distance. • Also, consider Autobrakes 3 or 4. Quicker stop for low visibility

114. When should HF radios not be used? (AOM Vol I, L)

• During refueling (de-fueling or dumping)

283. What are the 3 types of hydroplaning? (GOM 5-107)

• Dynamic: a film of water 1/10 of an inch or greater in depth. The speed at which dynamic hydroplaning will begin is a function of tire pressure and may be computed using the formula: 9 x the square root of tire pressure. • Viscous: a film of water 1/100 of an inch thick is trapped between the tire and the runway; smooth runway surfaces. • Reverted rubber (steam): may occur following a locked wheel skid on a wet runway. This type of hydroplaning cannot occur if anti-skid devices are operating properly and there is no residual drag in wheel bearings or brakes.

330. When in VNAV, what speed will the airplane fly when reaching the T/D symbol? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 11-36)

• ECON descent speed

197. From engine start to shut down, what is the primary means of alerting crews to non-normal conditions or improper configurations? (AOM Vol II, 15)

• EICAS Alert messages (Warnings, Cautions and Advisory)

156. Which of the instrument source selectors will automatically transfer? (AOM Vol II, 10)

• EIU

44. Under B43 and B44, what deviations from flight plan must be reported to flight following? (GOM 6)

• ETA exceeds 15 minutes beyond flight plan ETA • Deviate more than 100 NM from flight plan route. • More than 4,000 feet from flight plan altitude.

169. When programming the NG FMC prior to departure, what airports are entered on the ALTN Page? (AOM Vol II, 16F)

• ETP airports • If no ETP airports, the destination alternate

200. When does the takeoff configuration warning activate? (AOM Vol II, 15)

• Either # 2 or 3 N1 is 70% or more • Airspeed is less than V1, and; o Body gear not centered o Flaps not in the takeoff range o Parking brake set o Speed brake lever not down o Stabilizer trim not in the selected green band

410. What is being tested when pushing a Squib Test button? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 8-12)

• Electrical continuity • Squib control circuit • Squib lights

403. When the Main Cargo ARM switch is pushed, what occurs? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 8-4)

• Enables main deck fire suppression • Turns off 2 packs • Configures equipment cooling to closed loop • turns off all airflow to main deck • turns off airflow and heat into lower cargo compartments • Closes master trim air valve

137. With a main cargo fire, arming the Main Deck fire switch does what? (AOM Vol II, 8)

• Enables main deck fire suppression • Turns off two packs • Configures equipment cooling to closed loop • Turns off all airflow to main deck • Turns off airflow and heat into lower cargo compartments • Closes master trim air valve

372. What information must be recorded in the aircraft logbook and the event log after an engine failure/shutdown? (GOM 8-23) See for details

• Engine operating condition prior to shutdown (i.e., stable, surging, etc.). • Engine condition after shutdown including oil pressure. • Total flight time that the engine windmilled. • Any other engine operating parameters exceeded during this flight. • If the engine was shut down with the firewall shutoff.

478. When will HYD demand pumps 1 and 4 operate in AUTO? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 13-1)

• Engine pump output pressure is low • Related fuel control switch is in CUTOFF • 1 & 4 also operate when flaps are in transit, or flaps out of up in flight

136. If the Maximum Continuous EGT limit is exceed what is indicated? On takeoff? (AOM Vol II, 7)

• Entire EGT gage turns amber • Inhibited for 5 minutes after TOGA is pushed

307. What does the EICAS message "EQUIPMENT COOLING" mean on the ground? How can you reconfigure for flght mode? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 2-30)

• Equipment cooling is not configured for flight (ground valve still open), reconfigure, move selector to STBY (to close ground valve)

401. If the cargo smoke detectors are configured for single loop operation due to a fault, automatic testing of the system is conducted when? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 8-11')

• Every 60 Minutes

398. How can the fire bell be silenced? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 8-8)

• Extinguishing the Fire • Pushing either Master Warning/Caution reset switch (wheel well horn continues to sound) • Pulling the APU fire control switch in the right wheel well

360. Will the IDG ever disconnect automatically? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 6-11)

• Extremely High Drive Oil Temp if not manually disconnected by crew.

273. In AUTO the FASTEN SEAT BELTS sign will illuminate when? (AOM Vol II, 1-49)

• FASTEN SEAT BELTS signs (AUTO selected): o landing gear not up and locked or o flap lever not up, or o airplane altitude below 10,300 feet, or o cabin altitude above 10,000 feet, or o supernumerary oxygen on

435. When does the green band turn on? (AOM vol 2 Pg 9-16)

• FMC loaded with CG, gross weight, and takeoff thrust setting

362. During load shedding, what are some EICAS messages that may show depending on fuel panel configuration? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 6-10)

• FUEL PUMP 3 FWD • FUEL OVRD 2 FWD • FUEL OVRD 3 FWD • FUEL OVRD CTR L • FUEL PUMP 2 FWD

465. At what fuel quantity can we expect to go to "Tank to Engine"? (AOM Vol II, 12-15)

• FUEL TANK/ENG displays when main tank 2 quantity is equal to or less than main tank 1 quantity, or when main tank 3 quantity is equal or less than main tank 4 quantity. (When all main tanks a equal approximately 118,000 lbs.)

139. What event will cause the engine fire detection system to configure itself in OR logic? Is there a cockpit indication? (AOM Vol II, 8)

• Failure of one of the detection loops during self test • STATUS cue on the primary EICAS • FIRE DET LOOP status message

412. What will release the Engine Fire handle? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 8-1)

• Fire Warning • Fuel control switch in cutoff • Fire test switch pressed • Push override lock switch

386. When does approach idle change back to ground idle? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 7-28)

• Five minutes after touchdown, Increase thrust from minimum idle, and no use of thrust reverser operation.

428. Speed brakes should be limited to no more than Flaps____, to avoid_____? (Flight Training 4-13)

• Flaps 5, to avoid buffeting

6. What are the required documents in the trip envelope at the completion of a trip? (GOM 5)

• Flight Release/ Flight plan • Weight & Balance form • Aircraft loading checklist • Hazmat form • Ground Security • Aircraft log (yellow and pink copies) • Fuel receipts • All receipts and invoices (excluding hotel) • Engine monitoring data form.

209. When operating an AMC contracted flight, where is the appropriate facility and frequency for contact prior to arrival found? (GOM 7)

• Flight plan

269. Can we operate in areas where barometric pressure is missing or above 31.00"? (GOM 5-11)

• Flights to and from those airports are restricted to VFR weather conditions.

376. How is the engine oil cooled? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 7-34)

• Flowing through the FUEL/OIL HEAT EXCHANGER.

229. What is the procedure for all EFIS/EICAS screens going blank? (QRH p0-2)

• Follow QRH procedure for: EFIS/EICAS SCREENS BLANK o This directs you to reset circuit breakers

356. With the battery charger unpowered, the Main Battery will power the Main Standby Bus for a minimum of? (AOM Vol II, 6-15)

• For a minimum of 30 minutes

51. When verifying routing on a flight plan consisting of Class II segments, what specific check is required in addition to the checks performed on all international flights? (GOM 6)

• For all Class II segments of flight, verify that the computer Flight Plan coordinates agree with the actual coordinates from Jeppesen HI/LO charts or the NAT Track message, as appropriate.

511. When is the STATUS cue inhibited? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 15-2)

• From after engine start until 30 minutes after lift-off • If secondary Engine exceedance cue is displayed

107. What are the minimum and maximum: GLIDESLOPE & GLIDE PATH angle? (AOM Vol I, L)

• GLIDESLOPE: 2.5 to 3.25 degrees • GLIDE PATH: 2.7 to 3.5 degrees

235. GPWS alerts are provided for what 7 categories of events? (AOL Vol II, 15-35)

• GPWS alerts are provided for the following: o altitude loss after takeoff or go-around o excessive and severe descent rate o excessive terrain closing rate o unsafe terrain clearance when not in the landing configuration o excessive deviation below an ILS glide slope o altitude advisories o windshear

513. When is the MCP Selected Altitude alert inhibited? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 15-28)

• Glide slope captured • Landing flaps selected and landing gear down and locked

520. When are the MCP altitude alerts inhibited? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 15-28)

• Glide slope captured • Landing flaps selected and landing gear down and locked

71. According to GOM Ch. 6, what are some of the effects of operating at the high-than-normal true airspeeds associated with high-altitude airport operations? (GOM 6)

• Greater turn radius • Higher landing and takeoff speeds • Potential for hot brakes • Missed approach climb capability problems • Aircraft may seem fast visually • Higher rates of descent (near the GPWS "sink rate" warning activation) • Pressurization scheduling may differ from normal

489. What BUS is the #4 AUX hydraulic pump on? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 6-13)

• Ground Handling Bus

120. What buses are powered with # 1 & 2 external power available but not on? (AOM Vol II, 6)

• Ground Handling • Main Deck Cargo Handling

343. Explain how to tune the HF radio as required by to FO preflight. (AOM Vol I, NP-39)

• HF Radios......................................................................................................CHECK IF HF communication will be used, check both HF receivers by tuning VOLMET or UTC time broadcast frequency. 10.000/5000. Tune each HF radio to a different frequency and transmit. Presence ofside tone indicates a satisfactory transmitter check.

534. What are the maximum allowable wind speeds for an auto-land? (AOM Vol I, Pg. L-15)

• Headwind 25 Knots • Tailwind 15 Knots • Crosswind Cat 1 or better 25 Knots • Crosswind Cat II/III - 15 Knots

241. Under low visibility conditions, how would you determine when you have 2000' of runway remaining? (AOM Vol I, App A A.2.6) AIM 2-1-4b

• High Intensity Runway Lights (HIRL) system • On the rollout end of instrument runways yellow replaces white on the last 2,000 feet or half the runway length, whichever is less, to form a caution zone for landings.

479. If the Hydraulic Quantity Interface Module fails because of an over-voltage condition, what false indications might be experienced? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 13-5)

• Hydraulic SYS FAULT lights flashing on and off • >HYD QTY LOW X advisory messages appearing and disappearing • EICAS hydraulic quantity indications decreasing and increasing

361. A Generator Drive light (IDG) indicates what? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 6-6)

• IDG Oil Pressure Low • IDG Oil Temp High, or • GCB Open Due to Uncorrectable Generator Frequency Fault

359. What are the reasons for disconnecting the IDG per the QRH? (AOM Vol II, 6-11; QRH 6-4)

• IDG oil pressure low • IDG oil temperature high • Generator control open due to uncorrectable generator frequency fault

444. Where is the ILS frequency and inbound course displayed? (AOM vol 2 Pg 10-9, 11-15)

• ILS frequency is in top left corner of PFD • ILS course is in bottom left corner of PFD

226. When conducting a preflight, when will the Yaw Damper switch INOP light extinguish? (AOM Vol I, NP CA Cockpit Prep)

• INOP lights remain illuminated until first IRU aligns.

449. If you lose the right IRU, what indications will be on the ND in the lower right corner?

• IRS 2

288. What does the "IRS ON BAT" mean? How much time do you have? (AOM Vol II,11-7

• IRS operating on backup electrical power (APU hot battery bus) • The center IRU operates on DC power for five minutes, then shuts down

325. What does the EICAS message >ICING mean? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 3-10)

• Icing condition exists, wing anti-ice is off and ANY nacelle anti-ice switch is off

350. You have cold dead airplane, can it be loaded and fueled without someone entering the cockpit? (AOM Vol II, 6-13, 6-14)

• If EXT 1 is available, fueling lower cargo loading can occur • If EXT 2 is available, main deck cargo loading can occur

217. When operating under Special Permit 7573 or 9551 who may be on board? (GOM J-16)

• If a flight is conducted under either of these special permits, persons authorized to be on board during flight are limited to: • Required flight crew members. • An FAA Inspector. • The shipper or consignee of the cargo or representative of the shipper or consignee (designated in writing). • A person necessary for handling the cargo

171. When must the CWT override/jettison pumps be switched off? (AOM Vol II, 12) (QRH 12)

• If the FUEL LOW CTR L/R message is displayed • If the FUEL PRESS CTR L/R message is displayed

230. When must the PIC declare a fuel emergency to ATC? (GOM Ch 5)

• If the PIC determines that he must have traffic priority, he should declare an emergency due to low fuel and provide ATC with the minutes of fuel remaining.

219. Can we depart before our ETD? For DHL? (GOM Ch7 7-11, DHL Guide)

• If the aircraft is ready for departure more than 20 minutes early, Company aircrews shall request early departure. For DHL, PIC shall contact the Flight Follower for authorization. The Flight Follower shall check that such a departure will not negatively impact customer arrival times, slot, curfew, crew duty time or any other factors. Should an early departure be approved, the PIC shall record this approval on the Flight Release.

340. When is an Enroute Delay required to be sent? (AOM Vol I, SP-23)

• If the enroute flight time exceeds the projected flight plan time by more the 5 minutes.

260. If mid and rollout RVR reports unavailable for a CAT II approach, what is the minimum RVR requirement? (OpSpecs 60-4)

• If the mid and rollout RVR reports are unavailable, the TDZ report must be at least 1400 RVR.

231. If the PIC rejects for a non-mechanical reason, is a logbook entry required? (GOM,5-114)

• If the rejected takeoff is due to a non-mechanical issue, the crew is required to note the rejected takeoff in the "Remarks" section of the aircraft log

422. With EICAS advisory message SPEEDBRAKE AUTO displayed. Moving the speed brake lever to the ARM position could cause what to occur? (AOM vol 2 Pg 9-22)

• If the speedbrake lever is in ARM position, the message indicates a fault which could result in inadvertent spoiler extension in flight

289. During pre-flight you notice a Field Off Light illuminated on the overhead maintain panel, what might be the problem? (AOM Vol II,6-7)

• Illuminated (white) - generator field open.

334. Describe the functions of the THR button. Light illuminated. Light extinguished. (AOM Vol II, 4-3)

• Illuminated: (A/T Mode) Changes A/T mode to THR REF when: o reference thrust limit is CLB, CLB1, CLB2, CRZ, or CON and pitch mode is ALT or V/S o reference thrust limit is GA and pitch mode is G/S or FLARE, or pitch mode is ALT or V/S and flaps in landing position • Extinguished: (Thrust limit mode) o after takeoff and during climb, changes reference thrust limit to armed climb thrust limit o changes reference thrust limit to CLB, unless engine inoperative or CON selected, then reference thrust limit is CON

67. What is the Engine Failure Procedure in VMC if an engine fails after V1? (GOM 6) (AOM Vol I, PERF)

• In VMC, you must fly the runway heading to 1,000ft then maneuver as necessary, unless a Special Engine Failure procedure dictates otherwise.

276. When is the MDSS automatically activated? (AOM 1-50)

• In case of a depressurization event, or cargo compartment smoke/fire, an automatically activated aural alert (siren) and visual alert (red strobe lights) is provided.

99. While in flight, Wing Anti-Ice must be on when? (AOM Vol I, L) SP-107

• In flight, when in icing conditions (ice is actually accumulating) and the leading edge flaps are not extended; • When TAT is 10 degrees C or below and visible moisture in any form is present (such as clouds, fog with visibility of one mile or less, rain, sleet or ice crystals), the leading-edge flaps are not extended and the aircraft is below 22,000 feet. (When wing flaps are selected to 1, wing ice may be used for outboard wing protection.) Airworthiness Directive 2011-16-02 requires the use of wing anti-ice during descent at or below 22,000 ft in icing conditions (visible moisture and TAT less than 10°C, including SAT less than -40°C). When icing conditions are no longer present or anticipated, wing anti-ice may be switched to OFF (or AUTO)

66. While flying in less developed areas, and after receiving a "direct via" off airway routing, what altitude should be consulted on the enroute chart to ensure obstacle clearance requirements can be met? What type of terrain clearance does that altitude afford? (GOM 6)

• In such instances special attention must be paid to the Grid Minimum Off- route Altitude (MORA). Grid MORAs provide a minimum of 1,000 feet obstacle clearance, or 2,000 feet in mountainous terrain.

148. Moving the flap handle to a selected position will cause the flaps to move as long as either hydraulic (primary mode) or electric (secondary mode) power is available to the aircraft. Having said that, why is there an alternate flap system?

• In the event that the flap handle fails or all three Flap Control Computers FCCs are failed.

100. Where is the windshield washer reservoir located? (AOM Vol II, 3)

• In the left sidewall, behind the captain's seat

332. When is the speed (SPD) switch active and operative? (AOM 4-3)

• Inactive in TO/GA, FLCH SPD and VNAV _ _ _ • Operative 400' after takeoff to landing

483. Hydraulic system #1 provides power to which aircraft components? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 13-6)

• Inboard Trailing edge flaps • Body gear steering, actuation • Alternate brakes • Nose gear steering, actuation • Primary flight controls • Center autopilot

431. During reverse thrust, which leading edge flap groups automatically retract? Does the flap indicator change to reflect in transit? (AOM vol 2 Pg 9-25)

• Inboard and midspan leading edge flaps retract during thrust reverse to prevent FOD damage. • Flaps change the flap position indicator to magenta to reflect flaps in transit

452. What is the meaning of the green Airspeed trend arrow? (AOM Vol 2 Pg 10-2)

• Indicates predicted airspeed in ten seconds based on current acceleration or deceleration

393. What would cause an increase of oil quantity during cruise flight? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 7-34)

• Indicator malfunction, or leak in the FUEL/OIL Heat Exchanger

523. When directed by the QRH, pushing the Ground Proximity Flap Override switch inhibits what? (AOM Vol II Pg. 15-11)

• Inhibits TOO LOW FLAPS alert

540. The lower aft and forward compartments are Class _____ compartments? (AOM Vol I, Pg. L-2)

• Is a class C compartment

539. The main cargo compartment is a Class _____ compartment? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 8-11)

• Is a class E compartment

60. In the event a missed approach is initiated prior to arriving at the missed approach point, what is expected of the pilot in regard to vertical and lateral maneuvering? (GOM 6)

• It is expected that the pilot will normally proceed to the missed approach point and then follow the missed approach procedure in order to remain within the protected airspace. This does not preclude flying over the MAP at an altitude/height greater than that required by the procedure.

462. How is fuel jettison verified? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 12-16)

• Jettison is verified by observing decreasing tank quantities

251. Can we operate in "No FIR" areas? (GOM 6-10)

• KA is NOT authorized to operate in "No FIR" areas. The authority to operate is granted by OpSpec B050 -Authorized Areas of En-route Operation, Limitations and Provisions.

328. Who is responsible to ensure a de-ice vendor (ADVL) Approved De-ice Vendor List? If they are not on the list, can they be trained onsite? (DEICE Pg. 3-2 and 3-3)

• Kalitta Air Quality Assurance Manager, Yes, they can be trained onsite

238. Can crew members accept another carrier's NOTOC form? (GOM, H-35)

• Kalitta Air crewmembers may accept another air carrier's (or freight forwarder's) Pilot-In Command Notification Form provided that form contains at least the same information as the KA Form.

248. Can we do circling approaches? (FTM 5-41)

• Kalitta Air is not authorized to perform Circling Approaches. Circling maneuvers from authorized approaches are permitted. The weather minimums to perform a circling maneuver are the higher of the published circling minimums or 1,000 feet HAA and 3 miles visibility. The Circling Maneuver must be performed at or above the higher of the published circling MDA or 1,000' HAA

300. With a left bleed duct isolated due to a bleed leak, what systems are affected? (AOM Vol II, Pg 2-36)

• Left leading edge flap operates electrically in secondary mode • Demand pump 1 is selected OFF, to avoid the EICAS alert message HYD PRESS DEMAND from being displayed during approach • A maximum of one air conditioning pack on assures sufficient thrust is available from the two engines which supply air to the unaffected duct sections

485. What components are lost with a loss of hydraulic system 1? (QRH 13-2)

• Left outboard elevator • Inboard trailing edge flap hydraulic operation inop (Flaps now move in secondary mode) • Nose and body gear hydraulic extension and retraction inop • Nose and body gear steering inop • System 1 alternate brake source inop

319. What does the EICAS message >WAI LEFT indicate? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 3-10)

• Left wing anti-ice valve not in the commanded position

434. Which spoiler panels have position indicators? What are the indications on the STATUS page on the ground? Inflight? (AOM vol 2 Pg 9-22)

• Left wing: fourth spoiler panel in from the wingtip; This panel functions as a flight-spoiler, speedbrake, and ground spoiler. • Right wing: outboard-most spoiler; This panel functions as a flight spoiler and ground spoiler only. Therefore, speedbrake extension is not indicated on the right wing spoiler position indicator.

105. When the pitch mode is VNAV PTH, what changes will occur to the autothrottle and pitch modes when speed intervene is selected with the Legacy FMC? With the NG FMC? (AOM Vol II, 4) (AOM, Vol II, 16F)

• Legacy FMC will change the pitch mode to VNAV SPD and autothrottle will go to IDLE, then HOLD • NG FMC will remain in VNAV PTH and SPD

287. Name the location of the Flight Deck Access lights? (AOM Vol II, 1-25)

• Located on Overhead Mtc Service Panel. Additional Access Lights switches are located on the upper deck cabin services module (CSM), at Door 1 left, at the right upper deck service door, and Main Equipment Center lower hatch.

180. With the loss of systems 2 & 3, why is there a speed additive for the approach? (AOM Vol II, 13) (QRH 13)

• Loss of Stabilizer Trim • Increased ability to flare

503. The brake source light is monitoring which systems? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 14-13)

• Loss of hydraulic systems 4, 1, and 2 causes the brake source light to illuminate

166. What safeguard is applied when the FMC has approach logic and the pitch mode is VNAV PTH? (AOM Vol II, 11)

• Loss of the path will cause the aircraft to do a level fly off

146. What causes the outboard ailerons to unlock? (AOM Vol II, 9)

• Low airspeed is the official answer. Boeing answer: Ailerons lockout when speed exceeds 238 knots and all flaps are up. Ailerons unlock with Flaps out of up, or speed below 232 knots However.

468. Before preflight, what are the indications on the fuel pump switches? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 12-14)

• Low pressure lights are illuminated on the main pump switches and extinguished on the override, and CWT pump switches.

181. What will cause a # 2 or 3 demand pump to operate when the switch is in AUTO? (AOM Vol II, 13)

• Low pressure output from the EDP • Respective fuel control switch in cutoff

182. What will cause a # 1 or 4 demand pump to operate when the switch is in AUTO? (AOM Vol II, 13)

• Low pressure output from the EDP • Respective fuel control switch in cutoff • Flaps are in transit on the ground • Flaps are out of up in flight

367. Name the items on the GROUND HANDLING BUS? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 6-13)

• Lower Cargo Handling Equipment and Compartment Lights • Fueling System • Aux Hydraulic Pump 4

453. How can an active HOLD be identified on the ND? (AOM Vol 2 pg. 10-69)

• Magenta in color • Pattern increases to correct size when entering hold

370. Selecting the BATT switch to "ON" does what specifically? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 6-2)

• Main Battery is Available as Backup Power Source for Main Battery Buss and Main Standby Buss. • APU Battery is Available as Backup Power Source for APU Battery Buss and APU Standby Buss.

368. Name the items on the GROUND SERVICE BUS? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 6-12)

• Main and APU Battery Chargers • Upper Deck Doors • Fuel Pump for APU Start • Flight Deck Door, Nav and Service Lights (cont.) • Misc. Service Lights and Equipment

404. There are fire detection and protection systems for which areas of the aircraft?

• Main deck cargo compartment • Lower cargo compartment forward and aft (AOM Vol II, Pg. 8-9)

532. Main deck and lower cargo areas are classified as? (AOM Vol I, Pg. L-2)

• Main deck is Class E (can shut off all airflow) • Lower deck is Class C (built in extinguishing)

426. Will the speed brakes automatically extend on landing if they are not armed? (AOM vol 2 Pg 9-22)

• Main gear on the ground, and • Thrust levers 1 and 3 near the closed position, and • Reverse thrust 2 and 4 are pulled to idle detent

469. Fuel temperature is measured from which tank? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 12-8)

• Main tank 1

57. You have used CPDLC to request a weather deviation and have yet to receive an ATC response. Based on analysis of the radar returns you elect to deviate 20 miles south of track. What do you do? (GOM 6)

• Maintain your altitude until 5 miles south of track. Then, climb to 300 feet of your assigned cruising level.

79. Except on the North Atlantic, what is required at the ASTU boundary when using ADS-C? (QRH CPDLC) (CPDLC Presentation)

• Manually send one ATC position report at the boundary to initiate ADS-C services.

335. Name some reasons the auto-throttles would disengage. (AOM Vol II, 4-25)

• Manually: Autothrottle Arm switch to OFF or pushing either Autothrottle Disconnect switches. • Automatically: o Fault in active mode is detected. o Thrust reverser is raised to idl. o When the FMC Master switch is switched. e.g. Left to right. o Both FMCs fail (cannot be reactivated) o Two or more engines are shut down (cannot be reactivated)

517. The Predictive Wind Shear System (PWS) is active when? Are there any restrictions? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 15-42, 15-43)

• Manually: on the ground when WXR is selected on EFIS control panel, and the weather radar is in any mode other than TEST • Automatically: on the ground when takeoff thrust is (60% to 70% N1) is set • Automatically: in flight below 2,300 feet Restrictions: • During takeoff new warning alerts are inhibited on the ground above 100 Knots until reaching 50 feet AGL. New Caution alerts are inhibited from 80 Knots until reaching 400 feet AGL. • During approach and landing, new caution alerts are inhibited below 400 feet AGL. New warning alerts are inhibited below 50 feet AGL • ALL caution and warning alerts are inhibited above 1,200 feet AGL.

158. For all aircraft, except N782CK, what is the up orientation of each ND mode? (AOM, Vol II, 10)

• Map is track up • Plan is True North up • VOR is heading up • APP is heading up

211. Under Operating Fundamentals of Kalitta Air, flight operations will be conducted in a manner that ensures what 4 things? (GOM CH 3 3-23)

• Maximum safety for personnel, cargo, and equipment. • Schedule integrity and reliability. • Maximum customer satisfaction. • Maximum efficiency economy.

32. What is the correct radio phrase to indicate a condition of distress? (GOM 8)

• Mayday, Mayday, Mayday

52. List three examples of observed or encountered phenomena requiring a special air report to ATC. (GOM 6)

• Moderate turbulence; • Severe turbulence; • Moderate icing; • Severe icing; • Severe mountain wave; • Thunderstorms with or without hail; • Heavy dust or sandstorm; • Volcanic ash cloud; and/or • Pre-eruption volcanic activity or volcanic eruption.

454. How do we monitor an NDB when conducting an approach? (AOM Vol 1 Pg SP-96)

• Monitor raw data on the ND MAP display

12. Your TLR has a notation "SLUSH-LEVEL 2" in the remarks section. What depth of slush has been planned by the flight follower? (AOM, Vol I, PERF)

• More than 1/8 inch, up to 1/4 inch.

47. Where can the entry requirements (required permits, customs and immigration procedures, etc.) for a particular host country be found? (GOM 6)

• Most relevant information is found in the Entry section of the appropriate Jeppesen Text Manual. More detailed information can be obtained from Operations Control Center (OCC) personnel.

425. When will the rising runway on the PFD move toward the airplane symbol? (AOM vol 2 Pg 10-10)

• Moves towards the airplane symbol below 200 feet radio altitude and displays below 1,000 feet RA.

152. When are the stab trim switches on the control wheel inhibited? (AOM Vol II, 9)

• Multiple Autopilots engage

456. When configuring the CDU for takeoff, what N1 or EPR requires additional review and verification that all takeoff data request parameters were entered correctly? (AOM vol 1 Pg SP-20, note 5)

• N1 less than 90% or EPR less than 1.20

255. When operating out of VHHH and using runways 7L and 7R, can we use a NADP-2 departure? (JEPPs VHHH REF Airport briefing Dep) noise abatement

• NADP-1 between 2300-0700

383. Approach idle is selected inflight when? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 7-28)

• NAI is On • Flaps are in Landing position • CONT ignition is on

321. How does the NAI valve indicate open? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 3-6)

• NAI is displayed beside the EICAS N1 when the NAI valve is open

326. What are the indications that the NAI & WAI are on? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 3-6 and 3-7)

• NAI on EICAS N1 • WAI on respective EICAS N1

373. Can the APU be started in flight? (AOL Vol II, Pg. 7-36)

• NO

415. Is asymmetric flap protection available in ALTN mode? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 9-24)

• NO

416. Will the flap lever operate with the ALTN flap switch armed? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 9-24)

• NO

414. With the autopilot engaged, will operation of the alternate trim switches cause the autopilot to disconnect? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 9-17)

• NO,

117. With 121.5 selected in the R VHF, can the receiver volume control for that radio be turned off? (AOM Vol II, 5)

• No

183. Does unlatching the EDP switch close its respective shut off valve? (AOM Vol II, 13)

• No

312. Is known icing and forecast icing the same thing?

• No

318. With the PRV closed due to an overheat, is NAI available? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 3-1)

• No

323. Do we have to select MAX power for a takeoff after being deiced?

• No

346. Can you do a proper HF radio check without tuning the radio?

• No

43. May a flight be released under the rules for No Suitable Alternate if there is an alternate available within two hours that is unusable because of weather forecast? (GOM 6)

• No

497. Is reverse thrust considered with the brake cooling schedule? (QRH PI 1-13)

• No

135. Under what conditions should a manual start attempt be aborted (P&W)? (No auto start) (AOM Vol II, 16PW)

• No EGT Rise within 20 seconds after moving fuel control switch to RUN • High initial fuel flow or rapidly approaching EGT start limit (GE 750°C/P&W 535°) • EGT start limit exceeded • No N1 by 40% N2 • No oil pressure increase by 40% N2 • N2 fails to reach stabilized idle within 90 seconds after moving the fuel control switch to RUN • Pneumatic or electrical supply interruption • EICAS engine display disruption • Engine tailpipe fire reported with no engine fire warning

1. On a Cat III approach, to continue below the alert height (AH) what conditions must be met? (GOM 5-155)

• No autothrottle faults and; • LAND 3 must be displayed on the flight mode annunciator

413. When configuring the CDU for takeoff, what is considered reasonable when comparing the FMC generated stabilizer trim to the ACARS or TLR Stabilizer Trim table? (AOM, PERF-21)

• No more than 2 units is reasonable

54. What does the term "NOSIG" mean when found in a METAR? GOM 5)

• No significant change for the next two hours

417. What will happen if the Alternate Stabilizer Trim switches and Control Wheel switches are held in opposite directions? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 9-16)

• No trim is commanded.

459. Can or should you takeoff with a fuel imbalance EICAS message showing? (AOM Vol I, SP-102; AOM Vol II,12-18)

• No, Aircraft can depart once fuel is balanced and not out of limits. o Fuel difference of 3,000 pounds between main tanks 1 and 4. Message no longer displayed when difference less than 1,000 pounds. o Fuel difference of 6,000 pounds between main tanks 2 and 3. Message no longer displayed when difference less than 1,000 pounds.

305. Do you have to do a cross-bleed start from the supplemental procedures for a delayed engine start with the APU off? Why not?

• No, cross-bleed start in supplemental procedures is for starting first engine.

537. Could we do a gear down ferry from KLAX to PHNL? (AOM Vol I, Pg. L-13)

• No, overwater flight is limited to 50 miles from land with landing gear extended.

529. Will the aircraft primary ice detection system respond to ice crystals? (AOM Vol I, Pg. L-19)

• No, the primary ice detection system does not respond to ice crystals

338. Is it possible to have only one off-side tuning light on? (AOM Vol II, 5-21)

• No, unless it is burned out

37. Should supernumerary oxygen be deployed for smoke in the cabin? (GOM 8)

• No, unless the cabin altitude is greater than 14,000 feet

56. You are unable to see the required visual cues at decision height on an approach. Are you obligated to proceed to your filed alternate? (GOM 5) (GOM 6)

• No. As with any listed alternate, the destination alternate is just a planning exercise to ensure that you have available fuel to divert to a suitable airport.

246. Can you dispose of the insecticide canisters prior to landing, if needed? (GOM 6-7; Jepp Pro)

• No. Must be retained for the quarantine officer if needed

121. The battery switch is on and the standby power selector is in AUTO. No external power is available. You are starting the APU. Is the APU standby bus powered? (AOM Vol II, 6) (AOM Vol II, 7)

• No. Starting the APU removes power from the APU standby bus.

144. How many overheat loops are installed for the APU? (AOM Vol II, 8)

• None

191. Autobrakes operate using which brake control system? (AOM Vol II, 14)

• Normal brake system

494. Nose gear extension provides signals to what systems? (AOM Vol II, Pg.14-11)

• Nose gear extension sensing provides a signal to relays controlling functions in the stall warning and nose gear steering systems

218. After loading the final numbers in the CDU, you get an EICAS message >STAB GREENBAND, what are some reasons for this? (AOM Vol II, Ch 9-15)

• Nose gear pressure sensor disagrees with calculated stabilizer green band. A nose gear oleo pressure switch provides a crosscheck to ensure the correct green band has been selected.

103. When can the autopilot be engaged after takeoff? (AOM Vol I, L)

• Not below a minimum engage altitude of 400ft

437. At what altitude will flap maneuvering speeds not be displayed? (AOM vol 2 Pg 10-4)

• Not displayed above approximately 20,000 feet

33. What are some indications that you have encountered volcanic ash in flight? (GOM 8)

• Notice a smoky or acrid odor that can smell like electrical smoke, burned dust, or sulfur • See a haze develop within the airplane. Dust can settle on surfaces • Experience changing engine conditions. Surging, torching from the tailpipe, and flameouts can occur. Engine temperatures can change unexpectedly, and a white glow can appear at the engine inlets • Experience a decrease or erratically fluctuating indicated airspeed • Experience changes in cabin pressure, including loss of cabin pressure • See a phenomenon similar to St. Elmo's fire or glow. In these instances, blue- colored sparks can appear to flow up the outside of the windshield or a white glow can appear at the leading edges of the wings or at the front of the engine inlets • Landing lights will cast sharp, distinct shadows

188. With the # 4 Aux pump on and providing pressure, will the HYD SYS fault light be off or on? (AOM Vol II, 13)

• Off

223. Are Hazmat shipping labels required to be seen on ULD's? (GOM B.54)

• Often, the placement of the ULD (Unit Load Device) Tag on a ULD will, once loaded on the aircraft, not be visible to anyone viewing the ULD. The tag is verified by the Loadmaster / Station Representative when the cargo is loaded on board and need not be verified after loading.

377. What happens when the oil filter becomes saturated with contaminants? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 7-34)

• Oil bypasses the filter then returns to the reservoir.

164. You have been given a clearance to fly a heading of 090 degrees to intercept J121 to HTO. Procedurally, what will you enter in the FMC? (AOM Vol II, 11)

• On RTE page 2, put J121 at L1 • On RTE page 2, put HTO on 1R • Verify route on LEGS 1 page • Push EXEC

315. When is the wing anti-ice system inhibited? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 3-2)

• On the ground • With flaps extended (beyond 1 degrees)

306. On the ground, what condition must be met to configure EQUIPMENT COOLING for flight? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 2-29)

• On the ground one engine on each wing must be running to configure for flight

339. What happens if a VHF radio has a stuck mic on the ground? (AOM Vol II, 5-22)

• On the ground, any VHF radio transmitting for longer than 35 seconds is disabled. The radio is enabled when the microphone switch for that radio is released.

466. When should the CWT pumps switches be turned ON? OFF? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 12-14, 12-15)

• On: With 17,000 lbs. or more fuel in the center wing tank (CWT) T/O • Off: With less than 17,000 lbs. fuel in the center wing tank (CWT) T/O • In climb: FUEL LO CTR with tank quantity is approximately 7,000 lbs., pump switches should be off • In cruise: FUEL OVD CTR with CWT quantity is 4,000 lbs. or more, pump switches should be on • Pump switches should be off when FUEL LOW CTR message is displayed and fuel quantity is less than 3,000 lbs.

392. With the AutoStart ON, what actions are commanded by moving the FUEL CONTROL switch to RUN? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 7-18)

• Opens Spar and Engine fuel valves • EEC sequences start valve, fuel metering valve, and igniter operation energizes igniter(s)

344. The oxygen mask microphone is enabled when? (AOM Vol II, 5-1)

• Oxygen mask microphone active when oxygen mask stowage box left-hand door open.

348. What activates the O2 microphone? (AOM Vol II, 5-1)

• Oxygen mask microphone active when oxygen mask stowage box left-hand door open.

161. What pages are available on the CDU with a dual FMC failure? (AOM Vol II, 11)

• PROG, LEGS, NAV RAD

316. What is the procedure for descending into icing conditions near convective weather? (AOM Vol I, Pg. SP-112)

• Pack high flow switch ............................................... On • Nacelle Anti-ice switches ......................................... On • (at or below 22,000 feet) Wing Anti-ice switch .... On

291. If cabin pressure becomes excessive, two pressure relief valves open. What pack shuts down to assist in relieving excess cabin pressure? Is it available once pressurization returns to normal? (AOM Vol II, 2-33)

• Pack two shuts down to assist in relieving excess cabin pressure. Pack two resets when both cabin pressure relief valves close.

296. After an over-pressurization event, when will PACK 2 reset? (AOM Vol II, 2-33)

• Pack two shuts down to assist in relieving excess cabin pressure. Pack two resets when both cabin pressure relief valves close.

31. What is the correct radio phrase to indicate a condition of urgency? (GOM 8)

• Pan, Pan, Pan

234. What is the pilot response to a "CAUTION OBSTACLE" or "CAUTION TERRAIN"? (QRH 16-6)

• Pilot Flying ........... Correct fight path or aircraft condition

262. In an ICAO country, if the PIC declares "Minimum Fuel", can they expect priority handling? (GOM 5-130)

• Pilots should not expect any form of priority handling as a result of declaring "Minimum Fuel". However, ATC will advise the flight crew of any additional expected delays and will coordinate with other ATC units when transferring control of the airplane to ensure they are aware of the flight's fuel state.

271. What is the minimum battery charge on your IPAD EFB when reporting for duty? (GOM Ch 5)

• Pilots will report for duty with the EFB indicating a minimum 80% battery charge

336. What type of mode is VNAV? (AOM Vol II, 11-33)

• Pitch Mode: provides vertical profile guidance through the climb, cruise, and descent phases of flight

162. Weather radar information can be displayed on all ND modes, except? (AOM Vol II, 11)

• Plan • VOR centered • APP centered

366. What does the BAT position of the STBY Power Switch do? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 6-2)

• Powers Main Battery Bus from Main Battery Through Main Hot Battery Bus with Battery Switch On. • Powers APU Battery Bus from APU Battery Through APU Hot Battery Bus with Battery Switch On. • Disables Main and APU Battery Charger. • Powers Main and APU Standby Busses from their related Batteries through their Hot Battery Busses and Standby Inverters with Battery Switch On.

322. What's the difference between a pre-takeoff contamination check and a pre-takeoff check? (DEICE, Pg. 2-6)

• Pre-takeoff contamination check- HOT has expired, and within 5 min of takeoff roll • Pre-takeoff check is a contamination check with in the HOT time

317. You are in the Commonwealth of Independent States, and you need to be de-iced. They are using ARTIKA 200 fluid, are there any additional procedures? (DEICE, Pg. 4-5)

• Pre-takeoff contamination check; ARTIKA 200 fluid is not approved.

142. What conditions will unlock the engine fire switch? (AOM Vol II, 8)

• Pressing the unlock button on the fire panel • System senses a fire • Fuel switch in cutoff • Fire test in progress

195. The # 4 hydraulic system is inoperative. How can the parking brake be held until chocks are in place? (AOM Vol II, 14)

• Pressurize hydraulic system 1 with the ADP or AUX pump, if installed.

482. Why do we pressurize hydraulic system 4 first? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 14-15)

• Pressurizing system 4 pressurizes normal brakes & prevents systems 1 and 2 from transferring hydraulic fluid into system 4.

423. What are the basic functions of the Flap Control Units? (AOM vol 2 Pg 9-24)

• Primary control • Secondary control • Indication and annunciation

77. After receipt of a "Conditional Clearance" the PNF should? (AOM Vol I, SP)

• Print the ATC UPLINK page and place the printout where both pilots can see it until the clearance has been complied with. • Leave the ATC UPLINK page displayed until the clearance has been complied with.

160. Operations for using QFE are? (AOM Vol I, L)

• Prohibited (QFE is used by some countries to cause the altimeter to read zero when on the ground)

205. When carrying Class 1 explosive material on a DOD flight, the captain must ensure what information is included in the remarks on the flight plan? (GOM 7)

• Proper shipping name • Classification • Net explosive weight.

97. Under what condition may the #1 or #2 window heat be inoperative? (MEL 30)

• Provided operation is not predicated on flights into known or forecast icing conditions; • Windshield Air (Anti-Fogging) Systems are operative and remaining #1 and #2 window heaters are operative

236. When directed by the QRH, pushing the Ground Proximity (GND PROX) Flap Override (OVRD) switch does what? (AOM Vol II,15-11)

• Push (OVRD illuminated) - inhibits TOO LOW FLAPS alert.

198. With multiple EICAS messages present, what will assure that all memo messages are displayed? (AOM Vol II, 15)

• Pushing the CANC button when the last page of EICAS Alert messages is displayed. • EICAS alert messages have display priority over memo messages; some or all memo messages not displayed on current EICAS message page if insufficient message lines are available below alert messages

481. Will RF (refill) display on the hydraulic synoptic in flight? (AOM Vol II, 13-5)

• RF is inhibited in flight

192. RTO braking will provide what deceleration rate? (AOM Vol II, 14)

• RTO is not rate based • RTO provides Max Braking

74. Describe the ICAO ground-handling signal for a brake fire. (GOM 6)

• Rapid horizontal figure eight motion with either arm pointing at the source of the fire.

515. The Event Record switch will record how many events? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 15-16)

• Records up to 5 EICAS events

154. In addition to attitude and vertical speed information, what does the IRU selected by the captain provide?? (AOM Vol II, 10)

• Reference information to the autobrake system.

439. Reserved

• Reserved

455. Reserved

• Reserved

378. Where is the engine oil quantity measured? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 7-34)

• Reservoir

535. What are the landing gear operating speeds? (AOM Vol I, Pg. L-11)

• Retract or Extend 270/0.82M • Gear Extended 320/0.82M

96. What systems are available with the engine bleed valve closed and no fault is detected? (AOM Vol II, 2)

• Reversing • Nacelle Anti-Ice

284. With an operating antiskid system, which type of hydroplaning do we not need to worry about? (GOM 5-107)

• Reverted rubber (steam): may occur following a locked wheel skid on a wet runway. This type of hydroplaning cannot occur if anti-skid devices are operating properly and there is no residual drag in wheel bearings or brakes.

420. What system allows rudder control to be regained if a jam occurs? (AOM Vol II, 9-20)

• Rudder system shearouts allow rudder control to be regained if a jam occurs or significant manual force is applied to rudder pedals.

347. How do you make a SATCOM call to a number not in the directory? (AOM Vol II, 5-25)

• SAT L Transmitter Select Switch (ACP).........PUSH • Adjust volume control as required • CDU MENU Function key .................................PUSH • <SAT (LSK) ................................................................PUSH • Using the CDU scratch pad, enter the desired telephone number in the format below. AACCXXXNUMBER o AA .................... Access Code (+ or 00) (the + sign or digits 00 are interchangeable.) o CCC ................ Country Code (1 to 3 digits) e.g. 1 for USA & Canada, 49 for Germany, 86 for China) o XXX .................. Area/City Code (2 to 4 digits (e.g. 734 for Detroit, 69 for Frankfurt, Germany) o NUMBER..........Local Telephone Number (7 to 10 digits)

342. Describe the steps necessary to receive a SATCOM call. (AOM Vol II, 5-26)

• SAT L Transmitter Select switch (ACP) ........................ PUSH • Adjust volume control as required • CDU MENU Function key ...................................................PUSH • <SAT (LSK) ................................................................................. PUSH • <ANSWER (LSK) ..................................................................... PUSH

228. What should you see during the STBY PWR check? (AOM Vol I, NP)

• STBY POWER SELECTOR to BAT o Verify BAT DISCH MAIN and BAT DISCH APU display on EICAS o Verify PFD, ND, L CDU (+primary EICAS?) remain on, SOME PLANES DO NOT HAVE APU standby bus • STBY POWER SELECTOR to AUTO o Verify BAT DISCH MAIN and BAT DISCH APU messages no longer display

438. What degree of bank is indicated by the scale marks displayed on the PFD? (AOM vol 2 Pg 10-5)

• Scale marks are at 0, 10, 20, 30, 45 and 60 degrees.

159. What is the maximum allowable on-the-ground altitude display differences for operations in RVSM? (AOM Vol I, L)

• Sea Level to 5000ft - o 35ft between CA and FO o 75ft between CA or FO and field elevation • 10,000ft - o 40ft between CA and FO o 75ft between CA or FO and field elevation

239. How much dry ice is allowed to be carried on board? (GOM APP H, H-30)

• See charts on H-30. Quantity will vary based upon sublimation rate and A/C configuration.

268. When selecting a transition for an approach procedure, what is an important consideration regarding altitude constraints on the transition?

• See flight ops bulletin, lax, approach transition higher than arrival, you'll jack up the arrival

83. How do you turn ADS-B off? (GOM 5)

• Select the transponder to STBY

78. What is the correct response to a "Cleared Route Clearance" uplink? (AOM Vol I, SP)

• Send a "Standby" downlink message. • Print the uplink message • After review of the message, accept or reject the clearance • If accepted, load the FMS.

149. What does the EICAS message ">SPEEDBRAKES EXT" mean?

• Speedbrake lever aft of arm, and; o RA between 800 and 15 feet, or; o Flaps in the landing configuration, or; o Two or more thrust levers forward of the idle position

526. Is there a limitation prohibiting speed brakes and landing flaps? (FTC 4-13; AOM Vol I, NP-87)

• Speedbrakes should be retracted before reaching 1,000 feet AGL

493. During Alternate gear extension what pulls the down locks into the locked position? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 14-12)

• Springs pull the down locks into the locked position

418. If automatic Stabilizer Trim cutout occurs, how is hydraulic power restored to the related control module? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 9-16)

• Stab Trim Cutout Switch to On.

381. Where does STBY ignition receive its power from and why do we keep it in NORM? (AOM Vol II, 7-32)

• Standby power system • We keep the switch in NORM otherwise it would operate continuously.

186. Where can you confirm the hydraulic quantity? (AOM Vol II, 13)

• Status or Hydraulic Synoptic page

2. Where is the DOD Flight Information Publication (FLIP) DVD stored on the aircraft? (GOM 7)

• Stowage compartment on the First Observers Sidewall Console (right side of flight deck).

84. What must supernumeraries be briefed on, and who must brief them? (AOM Vol I, NP)

• Supernumeraries must be briefed by flight crew member on use of cabin emergency equipment and emergency escape provisions.

389. When starting the APU off of a TR, what happens if the TR overheats? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 16-42-2)

• Switch to APU battery, removes TR from APU starting circuit.

484. How are the hydraulic demand pumps powered? (AOM Vol II, 13-5)

• System 1 & 4 have air driven demand pumps powered by the bleed air manifold. • System 2 & 3 have electric motor driven demand pumps. Pratt and Whitney engine equipped aircraft have demand pumps that are Pneumatic only.

486. Which hydraulic demand pumps are electric? Air? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 13-5)

• System 1 and 4 have air driven demand pumps, the bleed air manifold provides pneumatic power for the air driven pumps. • System 2 and 3 have electric motor driven demand pumps. Pratt and Whitney engine equipped aircraft have demand pumps that are Pneumatic only.

375. During an in-flight auto-start, what EGT limitation is limiting? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 7-30)

• Takeoff

201. In what phase of flight would you receive the GPWS alert "DON'T SINK"? (AOM Vol II, 15)

• Takeoff • Go Around

390. If we use auto-start for an inflight relight, what EGT limit should be used? How many start attempts? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 7-30)

• Takeoff EGT limit, EEC will continue start attempts until stable at IDLE or Fuel Control Switch to Cut Off. • Unlimited attempts

280. How do you make an 180 degree turn on a 153' runway? (FTM 2-8)

• Taxi the airplane so that the wing gear tires are close to the runway edge. Stop the airplane completely with the thrust at idle. Hold the tiller to the maximum steering angle, release the brakes, then add thrust on the engines on the outboard side. Light intermittent braking on the inside main gear helps decrease turn radius.

301. What conditions will cause a Zone System (SYS) Fault light? (AOM Vol II, Pg.2-2)

• Temperature zone duct overheat or zone temperature controller fault has occurred • Master trim air valve switch is closed • Trim Air switch is off • Master trim air valve closed and pack air continues to flow

9. When determining that the aircraft gross weight is suitable for takeoff, which 3 weight limits must be considered? (GOM 5)

• The Captain must determine that the weight of the aircraft at the start of the takeoff roll is at or below all of the following weights: o The maximum structure Takeoff Gross Weight (TOGW) o The TOGW limited by takeoff performance under the conditions existing at the time of takeoff o The TOGW, considering the anticipated fuel burn before landing which will permit a landing at or below the maximum Landing Gross Weight (LGW)

30. Who is responsible for notifying the FAA when a PIC utilizes his emergency authority? (GOM 8)

• The Director of Operations

213. Who may determine whether a Pre-departure Briefing for a special airport is needed? (GOM Ch5 5-17)

• The Director of Operations or Assistant Director of Operations. • The Chief Pilot or Assistant Chief Pilot. • The Director of Safety.

5. If the Director of Operations delegates the functions for initiating, continuing, diverting, and terminating flights to flight following personnel, does flight following also bear the responsibility of those functions? (GOM 5)

• The Director of Operations shall NOT delegate responsibility for those functions.

132. With the auto ignition selector in SINGLE (GE) what happens on the ground? (AOM Vol II, 7)

• The EEC will alternate igniters 1 and 2 after every second engine start

15. When is the exterior safety check accomplished? (AOM Vol I, NP)

• The Exterior Safety Check is performed on every flight before entering the airplane to ascertain that no obvious unsafe condition exists.

14. Who may perform the Exterior Safety check? (AOM Vol I, NP)

• The F/O will accomplish the exterior safety check. However, the IRP may accomplish the check. If crew members arrive separately, the first crew member to arrive at the aircraft will complete the exterior and interior safety checks and establish electrical power if not already established.

436. The FO's PFD and ND are powered from which BUS? (AOM vol 2 Pg 6-13)

• The First Officer's transfer bus, which is normally powered by AC Bus 2. If AC bus 2 is unpowered AC Bus 1 powers the F/O transfer bus.

63. Certain locations in the world have been identified by IATA as having less than reliable air traffic control services. Is there any additional procedure required? (GOM 6)

• The IATA In Flight Broadcast Procedure should be followed at each Mandatory reporting point.

314. With Engine Bleed Valve closed, NACELLE ANTI-ICE bleed air is supplied by which bleed? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 3-6)

• The IP (intermediate pressure) Bleed.

19. For DHL flights, who assumes responsibility for accomplishing the final walk-around? (AOM Vol I, NP)

• The Loadmaster shall assume responsibility for accomplishing the final walk-around to ensure that all of the cargo doors are closed and secured and that there is no damage around the cargo door area, which may have been caused by the loaders and may not have been visible when the IRP did his initial walk-around inspection. Does not check fuel doors.

168. When programming the NG FMC prior to departure, on what page can the update sources be viewed and, if desired, disabled or enabled? (AOM Vol II, 16F)

• The NAV OPTIONS page

275. The PBE has an operation duration of ______, and can be used to an altitude of _______?

• The PBE has a duration of 15 minutes and can be used up to an altitude of 40,000 feet.

224. When inspecting the PBE, what color is the indicator when it is no longer serviceable? (AOM 1-63)

• The PBE is considered to be unserviceable when the paper indicator clearly turns pink

46. Who is responsible for determining the entry requirements for a particular country? (GOM 6)

• The PIC

232. What is ICAO emergency fuel? (GOM Ch 5)

• The PIC shall declare a situation of fuel emergency by broadcasting, "MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY FUEL", when the calculated usable fuel predicted to be available upon landing at the nearest aerodrome where a safe landing can be made is less than the planned fuel reserve fuel.

302. Bleed air is available for NAI operation with the Engine Bleed Air switch OFF, except when? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 2-35)

• The PRV had failed closed, or • The PRV has closed due to a bleed air overheat, or • The start valve is not closed, or • The HP bleed valve is failed open

303. Bleed air is available for reverse thrust operation with the Bleed Air switch ON or OFF, except when? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 2-35)

• The PRV has failed closed, or • The PRV has been closed due to a bleed air overheat, or • The start valve is not closed

48. When do you need a permit to proceed? (GOM 6)

• The Permit to Proceed is used by U.S. Customs officials to allow aircraft to tech stop (change crew, fuel, etc.) at a U.S. airport without meeting the full inspection requirements of a normal entry. The detailed entry inspection requirements for the cargo will be completed at the final destination.

293. With Master Trim Air switch OFF, Upper Deck Zone, Crew Rest Zone, and Main Deck Cargo Zone receive pack outlet air at the same temperature command by which TEMP Selector? (AOM Vol II,2-18)

• The ZTC (Zone Temperature Controller) modulates the zone trim air valves to regulate the temperature of the conditioned air in each zone.

458. What should you do if you lose a FMC? (AOM vol 2 Pg 11-52)

• The active route may become inactive, the performance data may be lost, and LNAV and VNAV modes may fail. To regain FMC operation, activate and execute the flight plan, enter the necessary performance data, and select LNAV and VNAV. • In flight, the scratchpad message SINGLE FMC OPERATION displays on only one CDU after loss of the FMC not selected on the FMC selector. The scratchpad message TIMEOUT - RESELECT displays on the CDU with the inoperative FMC. When the FMC selector is rotated to the operative FMC, the FMC is available through the CDU.

65. In several areas, such as over the Andes in South America, the MEAs for en-route segments may be well above the engine out capabilities of the particular aircraft and weight. Is Kalitta Air authorized to traverse such route? If so, are there any special provisions that must be met? Explain. (GOM 6)

• The aircraft must be capable of meeting obstacle clearance requirements along a particular route with an engine inoperative. If diversion procedures, or "escape routes", are not available or defined, these routes should not be flown, unless weights are reduced to allow compliance with en-route obstruction clearance criteria as described in GOM 6-41, FAR 121.191, and FAR 121.193.

203. What will cause the EICAS message CONFIG GEAR to display? (AOM Vol II, 15)

• The airplane is in flight • Any gear is not down and locked; • Any thrust lever is closed and radio altitude is less than 800 feet • Flap lever is in a landing position, 25 or 30

502. When is RTO activated on a rejected takeoff if selected? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 14-14)

• The airplane is on the ground • Ground speed is above 85 knots, and • All thrust levers closed

108. What will occur in cruise flight with an autopilot engaged and the PM inadvertently touches the trim switch instead of the push to talk switch? (AOM Vol II, 4)

• The autopilot will disengage

295. Cabin altitude controllers use inputs from which sources to calculate a cabin pressurization schedule? (AOM Vol II, 2-32)

• The cabin altitude controllers use ambient pressure and flight plan data from the FMC to calculate a cabin pressurization schedule.

341. The cargo interphone system provides what? (AOM Vol II, 5-28)

• The cargo interphone system provides communication between load personnel, the flight deck, and ground crew.

112. What is the restriction on the center VHF with an operational ACARS system? (AOM Vol I, L)

• The center VHF radio is not approved for ATC voice communications

215. When is a loading checklist required? (ROM 10-6)

• The checklist is only required where there is a Loadmaster or Special representative assigned to the flight.

490. The hydraulic demand pumps come on when? Specifically, which ones. (AOM Vol II, Pg. 13-5)

• The demand pumps supply normal system demands if an engine or EDP fails. • System 1 and 4 have air driven demand pumps, the bleed air manifold provides pneumatic power for the air driven pumps. • demand pumps 1 & 4 also operate on the ground when flaps are in transit, or flaps out of up in flight. • System 2 and 3 have electric motor driven demand pumps. • demand pump operates when related engine pump output pressure is low, or when related fuel control switch is in CUTOFF.

274. If DC power fails, Emergency Lights are powered by what battery source? (AOM Vol II,1-51)

• The emergency lighting system is powered by remote batteries. Battery charge is maintained by DC bus 4. A fully charged battery provides at least 15 minutes of operation.

87. What is indicated by the EICAS message >EMER LIGHTS? (AOM Vol II, 1)

• The emergency lights switch is not armed • The emergency lights switch is armed and the lights have activated

68. Often the transition level is shown on Jeppesen Approach Charts as "by ATC". Although the controller should announce the transition level in these circumstances, often they do not. What are some indicators that a flight has been cleared through a transition level? (GOM 6)

• The flight crew may know they have been cleared through the transition level, (descending) when cleared to maintain an altitude instead of a flight level. Additionally, a flight should be given an altimeter setting when cleared through the transition level. ( The A in altitude points up, climbing and the V in level points down, descending)

62. Whenever a clearance is received en-route during non-radar operations, what flight plan annotations must be made by the flight crew? (GOM 6)

• The flight crew shall write down the clearance on the Flight Plan, along with the time it was received and the controlling frequency. When a reroute is necessary, the flight crew shall clearly cross-out old waypoints and enter the new waypoints in their place.

42. What are B-43 fuel requirements? (GOM 6)

• The flight must be planned with enough fuel to: o Fly to and land at the airport to which it was released; o Thereafter, to fly for a period of 10% of that portion of the enroute time (between the departure airport and the airport to which it was released) where the aircraft's position cannot be "reliably fixed" at least once each hour, (Class II Navigation area); o Thereafter, to fly and land at the most distant alternate airport specified in the Flight Release (for supplemental carriers an alternate is always required); and o Thereafter, to fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. (B-43 Fuel for over the sea)

441. What is the power source for the Standby Attitude Indicator? (AOM vol 2 Pg 10-51)

• The main battery powers the Standby Attitude Indicator

353. What normally powers the Main Standby Buss? (AOM Vol II, 6-14)

• The main standby bus is normally powered by AC bus 3.

16. What is the maximum misalignment permitted on the pylon alignment stripe when conducting the Exterior Inspection? (AOM Vol I, NP) (Walk Around Power Point)

• The maximum misalignment is one half of the stripe.

116. What must be done to communicate directly with the mechanic who is operating the start valve for a manual (wrench) start? (AOM Vol II, 5)

• The mechanic must plug into the headset jacks at the nacelle • Service Interphone must be selected on • FLT must be selected on the audio panel

163. The NG FMC has a field on the VNAV CRZ page with the title RECMD. What does it display? (AOM Vol II, 16F) (NG FMS Pilot's Guide)

• The most economical altitude to fly for the next 500 miles based on gross weight, selected speed option, and constant altitude based on entered winds and forecast temperature

49. How must a flight crew determine the appropriate holding speeds for a given country? (GOM 6)

• The only way to determine the appropriate holding speeds for a particular country is to first check the ATC sections of the Jeppesen Text documents found in FD ProD and find the "Holding" section for a particular country. The Holding section will reference a table of speeds, found in the 200 series pages of the Air Traffic Control section of the Jeppesen General Manual.

270. If ATC has modified the filed flight plan, you will receive a "CLEARED ROUTE CLEARANCE" or "CLEARED TO [position] VIA ROUTE CLEARANCE", are there any restrictions after loading the DCL? (AOM, SP-66)

• The only way to view the complete Route Uplink Message is to either print or, if printing is unavailable, load the uplink.

174. How can you verify that the fueling panel door is closed from the cockpit? (AOM Vol II, 12)

• The preselect fuel value will no longer appear on the fuel synoptic.

13. After entering the Thrust Limit from Aerodata, there are dashed lines present on the Takeoff Page. What do you do? (AOM, Vol I, PERF)

• The presence of dashes in place of reference speeds in the CDU is an indication that the FMS cannot generate speeds for the entered Thrust Limit, ZFW and Flap setting. All data entries should stop, and the crew reconfirm all performance data entries.

178. On aircraft equipped with an electric scavenge pump, what causes the pump to activate? (AOM Vol II, 12)

• The pump activates when the 2 and 3 reserve tanks transfer to their respective main tanks

104. VNAV is armed for takeoff, at 400' AFE, the autothrottle mode changes to THR REF. What change occurs to the N1 indicators on the primary EICAS? (AOM Vol II, 4) (AOM Vol II, 7)

• The reference N1 line changes from green to magenta

196. What does the brake torque limiting system do? (AOM Vol II, 14)

• The sensors detect excessive torque during braking to prevent damage to landing gear. When excessive torque is detected, a signal is sent to the anti-skid valve to release brake pressure to that wheel.

509. What must you have to get auto-brakes? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 14-14)

• The system operates only when the NORMAL BRAKE system is functioning.

500. With a loss of hydraulic system 4, how is the operation of the autobrake system affected? (AOM Vol II Pg. 14-13, 14-14)

• The system operates only when the normal brake system is functioning. The normal brake system is powered by hydraulic system 4.

266. The letter "U" used as route designator "UPPER" is normally in conjunction with what type of airspace? (GOM 6-37)

• The use of a supplementary letter "U" means the route is designated as an upper airway, normally in conjunction with Class A airspace at or above the transition level. The U is spoken as "Upper".

440. What do the angle-of-attack vanes measure? (AOM vol 2 Pg 10-53)

• The vanes measure airplane angle of attack relative to the air mass

258. What is the minimum weather for a circling maneuver? (FTM 5-41)

• The weather minimums to perform a circling maneuver are the higher of the published circling minimums or 1,000 feet HAA and 3 miles visibility

40. When operating outside of the United States, International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) standard procedures apply, except where a country files a Statement of Differences with the ICAO. Where can these differences be found? (GOM 6)

• These differences are found in the Jeppesen FD Pro program under "Air Traffic Control, State Rules and Procedures" tab for that country.

516. What is the purpose of the EIUs? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 10-47)

• Three identical EFIS/EICAS interface units (EIUs) receive airplane system information. The EIUs supply information to the flight crew on six display units. These units display three primary groups of information: o Primary flight display (PFD) o Navigation display (ND) o Engine indication and crew alerting system (EICAS)

430. With both primary and secondary control of the flaps, what is the purpose of the Alternate Flap switch? (AOM vol 2 Pg 9-24)

• To be able to extend or retract the flaps if flap handle is inoperative

480. Why is bleed air used to pressurize the hydraulic reservoirs? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 13-5)

• To prevent pump cavitation and ensure positive flow during high demand conditions

446. Which ND modes select "TRACK UP"? "HEADING UP"? (AOM vol 2 Pg 10-28, 59)

• Track up: MAP • Heading up: APP, VOR • True North-up: PLN

487. You are landing with number 1 hydraulic system inoperative, are there any concerns? (QRH 13-2)

• Trailing edge flaps move in secondary mode. (Extra time for flap extension) • Nose and body gear hydraulic extension inop. (Alternate gear extension is needed) • Nose and body gear steering inop (A tow will be needed after landing) • System 1 alternate brake source inop. (System 4 and 2 alternate brakes sources are available) • Center Autopilot is inop. • Left Outboard elevator is inop. (Reduced pitch control)

58. You are unable to maintain your altitude while in oceanic airspace and cannot obtain a clearance for a lower altitude. What do you do? (GOM 6) (AOM Vol II, 11)

• Turn at least 30 degrees off track • Maintain altitude as long as possible • Watch for traffic • Turn on all available lighting • Broadcast on 121.5 and 123.45 • Establish 5NM Offset Track • Descend to an altitude offset by 500 feet in RVSM airspace • Consider descent below FL290, offset by 500 feet • Select <ENG OUT on the FMS Cruise Page • Continue to attempt contact with ATC

128. Before starting engines with the #1 APU generator inop, what must be done to pressurize the #4 hydraulic system? (MEL 24-21-2B) AOM Vol II, 6) (AOM Vol II, 13)

• Turn the #1 & #4 Demand pumps to auto.

407. Pushing the Main Cargo AFT/FWD Fire ARM switch does what? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 8-4)

• Turns off 2 packs • Arms lower cargo compartment fire extinguishers • Configures equipment cooling to override mode • turns off all airflow and heat into lower cargo compartments • Closes master trim air valve

150. What occurs when the speedbrake lever is extended to the flight detent position? (AOM Vol II, 9)

• Two inboard spoilers on each wing extend to the mid position • Two middle spoilers on each wing extend fully

247. What code should never be put in the transponder? (GOM 5-120)

• Under no circumstances should a pilot of a civil aircraft operate the transponder on Code 7777. This code is reserved for military interceptor operations.

80. Under what condition would you select ADS OFF? (AOM Vol I, SP)

• Unless ATC has requested you to select it off, it is Kalitta Air policy not to select ADS OFF.

69. When conducting a course reversal procedure outside of the United States, what must be done to assure obstruction clearance? (GOM 6)

• Unlike the United States, where a holding pattern can be used as a course reversal, the course reversal procedure must be flown exactly as depicted.

394. Where is the engine oil pressure measured? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 7-34)

• Upstream of the engine

471. What 2 ways do we verify fuel in the respective tank if there is a fuel tank quantity indicator DMI'd? (MEL 28-55)

• Use measuring sticks • Empty tanks and fill with known quantity

533. Are there any restrictions when operating with the gear down? (AOM Vol I, Pg. L-13)

• Use of Aerodata selection for Landing Gear Extended is required. • Operation in RVSM airspace is prohibited • Overwater flight is limited to 50 miles from land • MTOW 720,000lbs • Vmo 270 Knots • Mmo 0.73M

204. What range must be selected to use the TAWS - Look Ahead Terrain Alerting system for navigation? (AOM Vol II, 15)

• Use of the terrain display for navigation is prohibited.

76. In regard to communicating with controllers outside of the U.S., what four recommendations should be used by crew members in order to avoid miscommunications? (GOM 6)

• Use proper ICAO phraseology; • Speak slowly and clearly and spell identifiers using the phonetic alphabet (if necessary); • Anticipate the controller: For example, be aware of the names of the fixes along the route, review possible SID and STAR names so that they will be familiar when heard; • Obtain assistance; ask other crew members to monitor communication, even ACMs (or others), especially if they speak the local language. If unsure of what has been said, insist on verification, no matter how many times it takes; and • If necessary, practice sterile cockpit techniques from the top of descent until parked at the ramp.

491. You have 1 brake deactivated using the capped line method. Are there any performance issues and if so, how would they be applied? (MEL 32-41-1B)

• Use the Aerodata selection for "1 or 2 DEACT CAPPED LINE" when calculating aircraft performance. • The landing gear must remain extended for a minimum of 2 minutes after takeoff to permit affected wheels to spin down prior to gear retraction • Increase flight planning fuel by 1300 lbs.

265. ICAO route codes, A, B, G and R are used for what type of ATS routes? (GOM 6-37)

• Used for routes which form part of the regional networks of ATS routes and are not area navigation routes.

199. When are the Fire Bell and master Warning lights inhibited? (AOM Vol II, 15)

• V1 till 400ft RA or 25 seconds after V1

110. If VNAV is armed for takeoff, what would be the indicated FMA pitch mode change at 400' AFE? (AOM Vol II, 4)

• VNAV SPD

75. If the SELCAL does not test on initial contact, what steps shall the flight crew take prior to initiating a constant listening watch? (GOM 6)

• Verify proper SELCAL code; • Verify that the SELCAL VHF/HF selectors are set to HF; • Verify that the HF squelch is set to MIN or OFF; • Verify the HF Gain set to MAX or INCR; and (if necessary) • Request a new test.

202. When is the Windshear Alert System (not PWS) active? (AOM Vol II, 15)

• Vr to 1,500ft

212. Prior to each departure, the PIC must obtain adequate knowledge of the following subjects? (GOM 4-21)

• Weather characteristics appropriate to the season; • Navigation facilities; • Communication procedures, including airport visual aids; • Kinds of terrain and obstructions; • Minimum safe flight levels; • Pertinent air traffic control procedures, including terminal areas, arrival, departure, holding, and all types of instrument approach procedures; • Congested areas and the physical layout of each airport in which he/she will operate; and • All relative NOTAMs.

143. After a fire test pass, what two systems are no longer being monitored by the AC? (AOM Vol II, 8)

• Wheel Well • Leading Edge Duct

89. When do the NO SMOKING and FASTEN SEAT BELT sign automatically illuminate regardless of switch position? (AOM Vol II, 1)

• When Oxygen is On

298. What will cause a PACK valve to close? (AOM Vol II,2-17)

• When an overheat or Pack Temperature Controller (PTC) fault is detected, the respective pack valve closes resulting in a pack shut down.

101. When are the 4 pitot-static probes heated? (AOM Vol II, 3)

• When any engine is operating

518. What conditions trigger an EICAS Altitude Alert? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 15-28)

• When departing the selected altitude by 300 feet

464. When are transfer valves 1 and 4 used during fuel jettison ? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 12-16)

• When either main tank 2 or 3 fuel quantity decreases to 20,000 lbs.

445. When is the pitch limit indicator (PLI) on the PFD not displayed? (AOM vol 2 Pg 10-5)

• When flaps are up

98. While in flight, Nacelle Anti-Ice must be on when? (AOM Vol I, L) SP-106

• When icing conditions are anticipated except when OAT is below -40 degrees C in cruse flight; • When TAT is 10 degrees C or below and visible moisture in any form is present (such as clouds, fog with visibility of one mile or less, rain, sleet or ice crystals) • Prior to reducing thrust for descent when TAT is 10 degrees C or below and visible moisture in any form is present (such as clouds, fog with visibility of one mile or less, rain, sleet or ice crystals), even when OAT is below -40 degrees C.

463. When do reserve tanks 2 and 3 transfer? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 12-16)

• When main tank 2 and 3 decrease to 40,000 lbs.

501. When is body gear steering activated? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 14-12)

• When nose wheel steering angle exceeds 20 degrees • Ground speed decreases below 15 knots, as speed increases through 20 knots it centers and deactivates.

53. When would you NOT use CMV (converted meteorological visibility)? (GOM 5)

• When reported RVR is available. • For calculating takeoff minima. • For other RVR minima less than 800m.

222. If a PIC uses his emergency authority and is requested to submit a report to the requesting ATC facility, when must this be completed by? (GOM Ch 5)

• When requested, the PIC must submit a detailed report (separate from the Event Log), within 48 hours to the requesting ATC facility.

297. When the bleed air over-temperature switch opens, the control logic will close which valves? (AOM Vol II,2-36)

• When the bleed air over temperature switch opens, the control logic will close the HPSOV and PRV.

442. How can the Command Airspeed Bug (CAB) be controlled? (AOM Vol 2 Pg 4-4) IAS/MACH selector

• When window closed, FMC computed target speed is active and displayed on PFD's • When window is open, FMC speed-intervention is active and IAS/MACH selector may be used to set command speed

380. What is normal N1 and N2 idle? (AOM Vol II;7-3,7-8)

• White indications

207. Who is the final authority when conducting simultaneous fueling and cargo loading at a military installation? (GOM 7)

• Wing or Base Commander

134. When will standby ignition turn on if the switch is in NORM? (AOM Vol II, 7)

• With loss of AC power • Power is supplied to both igniters continuously

157. Selecting the ARPT button on the EFIS control panel does what? (AOM Vol II, 10) (AOM Vol II, 11) (AOM Vol II, 16F)

• With the NG FMC installed, displays all airports within the selected range that have at least one hard surfaced runway 6,000 feet long or greater.

457. When descending in hours of darkness or IMC conditions and not established on an approach procedure, what descent rates be limited to? (GOM Pg 5-39)

• Within 5,000 feet AGL - 2,000 feet per minute • Within 2,000 feet AGL - 1,000 feet per minute

447. Turbulence is displayed on RADAR when selected and? (AOM vol 2 Pg 11-10)

• Within precipitation at selected gain level, turbulence display available with display ranges of 40NM or less

364. Can you do a CAT III approach with an engine generator DMI'd? (MEL 24-1), (MEL 22-28)

• YES

396. Can the APU fire bottle be discharged from the ground? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 8-9)

• YES, Automatically

384. If an EEC automatically switches to ALT mode, do you lose auto-throttles? Why? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 7-27)

• YES, because all EEC's must be in NORM or manually switched to ALT

126. The number 4 generator is deferred. Can a Category III approach be conducted? (AOM Vol II, 6) (QRH AP)

• Yes

167. Can Class ll Navigation be conducted with a dual FMC failure? (AOM Vol II, 11-168)

• Yes

311. With a PRV valve deferred, are you restricted from flight into known icing conditions? (MEL, Pg. 36-22)

• Yes

221. Can you be dispatched with less than 72,000 lbs. of fuel? (AOL Vol I, L-18)

• Yes, Conditional Minimum Ramp Fuel (excluding ballast) .............. 53,000 Lbs. o Requires approval from DO, Chief Pilot, or designee

102. Are the TAT probes heated? When? (AOM Vol II, 3)

• Yes, Inflight only

472. Do you get a beeper if you forget to turn off the CWT FUEL PRESS L & R EICAS message? (AOM Vol II, 12-19)

• Yes, after 60 seconds

324. You need to deice at KDOV, can you utilize MIL-SPEC deicing fluid? If so, are there any additional procedures needed? (DEICE, Pg. 4-5)

• Yes, and you will need a Pre-Takeoff contamination check

475. Can the fuel jettison valves be opened on the ground? (FSM)

• Yes, but it is a maintenance procedure.

106. Will aileron trim operate with an autopilot engaged? (AOM Vol II, 4) (AOM Vol I, L)

• Yes, but it is prohibited. (DO NOT DO IT!)

505. Do we have to write up a >BRAKE TEMP EICAS message? (AOM Vol I, Pg. NP-101)

• Yes, if the QRH contains a procedure associated with an EICAS message (i.e. BRAKE TEMP) it must be reported in the logbook

170. External power is connected, but not selected on. The fueler comes up to you and asks if he can fuel since power is not on. Can He? (AOM Vol II, 12) (AOM Vol II, 6)

• Yes, the fueling panel receives power from the Ground Handling Bus.

488. Can you run the #4 AUX hydraulic pump with a GPU plugged in and power available? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 6-13)

• Yes, the ground handling bus is powered on the ground when APU generator 1 or external power 1 is available

184. The hydraulic quantity on the STATUS page shows 0.00. The EICAS message HYD PRESS ENG is displayed. The SYS FAULT light is NOT illuminated. Do you have any hydraulic pressure from the system available? Why? (AOM Vol II, 13)

• Yes, the hydraulic quantity indication disregards the fluid below the standpipe which is still available to the Demand Pump.

477. With HYD system 4 unpressurized, can you set the parking brake? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 14-13, 14-15)

• Yes, the parking brake can be set with the normal brakes (sys 4) or Alternate brakes (sys 1 or 2) if all are not pressurized the parking brake pressure will be maintained by the brake accumulator

55. Can a flight be released based on a METAR? (GOM 5)

• Yes, when weather conditions forecast in a TAF prevent the release of a flight, but the METAR indicates current weather conditions are at or above minimums, a flight may be released provided the METAR history shows a reasonable trend of weather conditions at or above the minimums required. The flight must be coordinated with flight following to ensure the takeoff, approach, and landing can be accomplished prior to issuance of the next normally scheduled METAR report.

253. Can we operate on Performance Based Communications and Surveillance (PBCS) tracks? (GOM, 6-55)

• Yes.

409. Engine 4 is running, while starting engine 1, number 4 generator drops offline, do you have fire detection or protection, or both? (AOM Vol II, 6-21)

• Yes. APU Batt Bus for Detection and Main Hot Batt Bus for Extinguishing (Protection)

92. Can the APU provide bleed air in flight? If so, up to what altitude? (AOM Vol II, 2)

• Yes. For one pack up to 15,000ft

91. The AFT CARGO HT switch TEMP legend is illuminated. Is aft cargo heat available? (AOM Vol II, 2. QRH 2-12)

• Yes. It will cycle at a higher temperature.

292. With a left-wing duct overheat will the #2 hydraulic demand pump operate? (AOM Vol II, 13-5)

• Yes. It's electric

3. Can a flight be released to an airport without an available TAF? (GOM 5)

• Yes. The METAR must show that the weather is at or above minimums and a reasonable trend shows that the weather will remain so.

147. How would you select flaps 1 using the alternate flap system? (AOM Vol II, 9)

• You cannot select flaps 1 with the alternate system. All leading edge flaps extend at the same time.

496. When is the BTMS accurate? (FTM 6-18)

• a stabilized value approximately fifteen minutes after brake energy absorption

337. Descend Direct (DES DIR) on the VNAV decent page does what? (AOM Vol II, 11-143)

• deletes all waypoint altitude constraints between the airplane altitude and the MCP altitude.

237. TAWS, green indicates what altitude? Amber? Red? (AOM Vol II,15-13)

• dotted green - terrain from 2,000 feet below to 500 feet (250 feet with gear down) below airplane altitude • dotted amber - terrain 500 feet (250 feet with gear down) below to 2,000 feet above airplane altitude • dotted red - terrain more than 2,000 feet above airplane altitude

272. When will the Runway Turnoff lights extinguish with the switch selected ON? (AOM Vol II, 1-47)

• lights extinguish when air/ground sensing system in air mode.

358. With the APU generator 1 inoperative, and no External power available, what system or systems will be affected? (AOM Vol II, 6-13)

• lower cargo handling equipment and compartment lights • fueling system (which can be powered by the battery bus) • auxiliary hydraulic pump 4

267. Enroute we must be able to maintain how many feet of obstacle clearance? (GOM 6-48)

• maintain 1,000 feet above all obstacles within five (5) statute miles on each side of the route, or the aircraft can continue to an airport where a landing can be made while clearing all terrain by 2,000 feet.

227. The MDSS TURB switch remains illuminated for how long after being pushed? (AOM Vol I, NP)

• remains illuminated for approx. 90 seconds.

354. With the BATT switch ON, standby power selector in AUTO and A/C Bus 3 unpowered, the Main Standby Bus is powered by what source? (AOM Vol II, 6-14)

• the main standby bus is powered by the main standby inverter.

252. What are some considerations when operating in NON-WGS 84 compliant areas? (FCTM 1-27)

• the position of runways, airports, waypoints, navaids, etc., may not be as accurate as depicted on the map display and may not agree with the GPS position.

345. The offside tuning light on a RTU indicates what? (AOM Vol II, 5-3)

• the radio tuning panel is being used to tune a radio not normally associated with this radio tuning panel • the radio normally associated with this panel is being tuned by another radio tuning panel

249. How close to the destination airport does one need to be to accept a visual approach? (GOM 5-138)

• within 35 miles