Lesson 2 Pregnancy Elsevier Questions

Which type of pelvis is considered the most favorable for a vaginal delivery? A. Android B. Anthropoid C. Gynecoid D. Platypelloid

C. Gynecoid

Which factor in a client's history suggests a risk for preterm labor? A. Primigravida B. Android-shaped pelvis C. Multiple UTIs D. Anticonvulsant medication therapy

C. Multiple UTIs

A woman who misused illicit substances during pregnancy gave birth to a neonate who experience withdrawal. Which nursing intervention would be beneficial to the neonate? Select all that apply. A. Administering neonatal doses of the dependent substance B. Administering maternal pain relievers during delivery C. Monitoring the neonate closely D. Educating the mother about the risks to the neonate E. Avoiding neonatal administration of the dependent substance

A. Administering neonatal doses of the dependent substance C. Monitoring the neonate closely D. Educating the mother about the risks to the neonate

With which problem is a low maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein associated? A. Fetal demise B. Down syndrome C. Neural tube defects D. Esophageal obstruction

B. Down syndrome

A client's membranes rupture when her cervix is dilated to 7 cm, and the fetal head is at station +1. Which action would the nurse take in response to the situation? A. Notify the practitioner B. Observe the vaginal opening for a prolapsed cord C. Reposition the client on a sterile towel on her left side D. Check the fetal heart rate while observing the color of the amniotic fluid

D. Check the fetal heart rate while observing the color of the amniotic fluid

Which is the nurse's concern when caring for a client just diagnosed with a ruptured tubal pregnancy? A. Infection B. Hypervolemia C. Protein deficiency D. Diminished cardiac output

D. Diminished cardiac output

Which orders are appropriate for a client with mild preeclampsia? Select all that apply. A. Daily weight B. Side-lying bed rest C. 2g/day sodium diet D. Monitor deep tendon reflexes E. Glucose tolerance test

A. Daily weight D. Monitor deep tendon reflexes

Which fetal heart pattern indicates cord compression? A. Smooth, flat baseline tracings of 135 beats per minute B. Abrupt decreases in the fetal heart rate that are unrelated to contractions C. Accelerations in the fetal heart rate of 10 beats per minute above baseline D. Decelerations when a contraction begins that return to baseline when the contraction ends

B. Abrupt decreases in the fetal heart rate that are unrelated to contractions

Which assessment findings correlate with a diagnosis of unruptured tubal pregnancy. Select all that apply. A. Rigid abdomen B. Referred shoulder pain C. Unilateral abdominal pain D. History of untreated chlamydia E. Ecchymotic blueness around the umbilicus

C. Unilateral abdominal pain D. History of untreated chlamydia

Which assessments would be completed before administering uterine stimulants to induce labor? Select all that apply. A. Assess the cervix to ensure readiness for labor induction B. Assess the mother's pulse rate C. Assess contractions and document D. Assess fetal heart rate and document E. Assess the mother's activity level

A. Assess the cervix to ensure readiness for labor induction B. Assess the mother's pulse rate C. Assess contractions and document D. Assess fetal heart rate and document

A laboring primigravida at 7 cm of dilation is administered a prescribed pain medication. Which medication administered requires monitoring of the newborn for respiratory depression? A. Butorphanol B. Hydroxyzine C. Promethazine D. Diphenhydramine

A. Butorphanol

Which is the priority assessment when the membranes rupture? A. Fetal heart rate B. Cervical dilation and effacement C. Amount, color, and odor of amniotic fluid D. Frequency, intensity, and duration of contractions

A. Fetal heart rate

A client with mild preeclampsia is admitted to the labor and birthing suite. Which signs or symptoms would the client be likely to display if she were to develop hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count (HELLP syndrome)? Select all that apply. A. Headache B. Constipation C. Right upper quadrant abdominal pain D. Vaginal bleeding E. Nausea and vomiting

A. Headache C. Right upper quadrant abdominal pain E. Nausea and vomiting

For which reason would the nurse place a client with heavy bleeding associated with placenta previa in the knee-chest position? A. It prevents shock B. It controls bleeding C. It keeps pressure off the cervix D. It moves the placenta off of the cervix

A. It prevents shock

A client's membranes rupture, and the nurse detects the presence of a prolapsed umbilical cord. The primary health care provider has been notified. Which intervention is preformed first? A. Moving the presenting part off of the cord B. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position C. Administering oxygen by facemask D. Checking the fetal heart rate

A. Moving the presenting part off of the cord

A pregnant woman continues to consume alcohol during pregnancy. Which teratogenic effects might the nurse expect to see in the fetus or neonate? Select all that apply. A. Stillbirth B. Ebstein anomaly C. Neural tube defects D. Spontaneous abortion E. Intellectual disabilities

A. Stillbirth D. Spontaneous abortion E. Intellectual disabilities

A laboring client receiving epidural anesthesia has a sudden episode of severe nausea, and her skin becomes pale and clammy. which would be the nurse's immediate action? A. Turning the client on her side B. Checking the vaginal area for bleeding C. Notify the primary health care provider D. Checking the fetal heart rate every 3 minutes

A. Turning the client on her side

Which statement contains information that would be included when answering a client's questions about episiotomy versus laceration? A. Lacerations are more painful than an episiotomy B. Lacerations are easier to repair than an episiotomy C. An episiotomy causes less posterior trauma than lacerations D. An episiotomy is preferred over lacerations, according to evidence based practice

B. Lacerations are easier to repair than an episiotomy

The healthcare provider prescribes a contraction stress test (CST) for a client at 33 weeks' gestation whose nonstress test (NST) was nonreactive and whose biophysical profile (BPP) was inconclusive. Which maternal conditions would prompt the nurse to question the prescription. Select all that apply. A. Hypertension B. Preterm labor C. Placenta previa D. Cervical insufficiency E. Premature rupture of membranes

B. Preterm labor C. Placenta previa D. Cervical insufficiency E. Premature rupture of membranes

Which would the nurse include when teaching clients about the potentially serious consequences of using diuretics during pregnancy? Select all that apply. A. Preeclampsia B. Severe hypovolemia C. Acute hypervolemia D. Gestational diabetes E. Reduced placental perfusion

B. Severe hypovolemia E. Reduced placental perfusion

A contraction stress test (CST) performed on a client at 40 weeks' gestation is interpreted as negative. Which conclusion would the nurse draw from this interpretation? A. Testing will be repeated in 24 hours because the results indicated hyperstimulation B. There will be weekly retesting because at this time the fetus has adequate oxygen reserves C. Emergency birth will be considered because the fetal heart rate has early decelerations with uterine contractions D. Induction of labor will be performed because fetal heart rate accelerations with movement are indicative of a false result

B. There will be weekly retesting because at this time the fetus has adequate oxygen reserves

A client who is admitted for surgery for a ruptured tubal pregnancy tells the nurse that she has shoulder pain. Which condition is the nurse concerned about based of these manifestations? A. Anxiety about the diagnosis B. Cardiac changes from hypovolemia C. Blood accumulation under the diaphragm D. Rebound tenderness from the ruptured tube

C. Blood accumulation under the diaphragm

Which finding would the nurse expect when assessing a client with abruptio placentae? A. Flaccid uterus B. Painless bleeding C. Board like abdomen D. Bright red blood

C. Board like abdomen

A client who is in labor is admitted 30 hours after her membranes ruptured. Which condition is this client at increased risk for? A. Cord prolapse B. Placenta previa C. Chorioamnionitis D. Abruptio placentae

C. Chorioamnionitis

A client in labor is receiving an oxytocin infusion. Which intervention is a priority for the nurse when repetitive late decelerations of the fetal heart rate are observed? A. Administer oxygen B. Place the client on the left side C. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion D. Check the client's blood pressure

C. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion

The nurse is caring for a post partum client with preeclampsia being managed with a magnesium sulfate infusion. Which is the priority nursing assessment? A. Assessing maternal temperature B. Obtaining blood pressure C. Eliciting deep tendon reflexes D. Monitoring urine output

C. Eliciting deep tendon reflexes

Which factor would cause a rise in temperature to 102F after a seizure in a client with eclampsia? A. Excessive muscular activity B. Development of systemic infection C. Dehydration caused by rapid fluid loss D. Irregularity in the cerebral thermal center

D. Irregularity in the cerebral thermal center

The nurse would anticipate preparing to administer which prescribed medication to a client who is 30 weeks pregnant, reports low backache and abdominal cramps, and is suspected of having preterm labor? A. Mifepristone B. Methylergonovine C. Calcium gluconate D. Magnesium sulfate

D. Magnesium sulfate

The nurse would intervene to prevent unlicensed assistive personnel from providing which food to a woman with hyperemesis gravidarum? A. Crackers B. Dry toast C. Baked chicken D. Scrambled eggs

D. Scrambled eggs

Which finding indicates a positive result when performing a contraction stress test (CST)? A. There is moderate variability B. There are fetal heart rate accelerations with contractions C. The fetal heart rate baseline is 155 beats per minute D. There are recurrent late decelerations

D. There are recurrent late decelerations

When assisting with an emergency home birth, which action would help expel the placenta? A. Put pressure on the fundus B. Ask the mother to bear down C. Have the mother breastfeed the newborn D. Pull tightly on the cord

C. Have the mother breastfeed the newborn

Which findings support the conclusion that a pregnant client's membranes have ruptured? Select all that apply. A. The expelled fluid totals 500 mL B. The expelled fluid is light yellow C. The expelled fluid smells similar to urine D. Nitrazine paper turns blue on contact with the paper E. Microscopic examination of the fluid reveals ferning

D. Nitrazine paper turns blue on contact with the paper E. Microscopic examination of the fluid reveals ferning

Which answer would the nurse give to a client who asks what is the common cause of a spontaneous abortion? A. Physical trauma B. Unresolved stress C. Congenital defects D. Embryonic defects

D. Embryonic defects

Which post partum client is at the highest risk for disseminated intravascular coagulation(DIC)? Select all that apply. A. Gravida 3 with twins B. Gravida 5with endometriosis C. Gravida 2 who had a 9 pound baby D. Gravida 1 who has had an intrauterine fetal death

D. Gravida 1 who has had an intrauterine fetal death

Which fetal heart rate(FHR) pattern during labor would concern the nurse? A. One that does not slow during contractions B. One that ranges from 130 to 140 beats per minute C. One that drops to 90 beats per minute during a contraction D. One that drops to 100 beats per minute after the peak of the contraction

D. One that drops to 100 beats per minute after the peak of the contraction

Which finding would the nurse be most concerned about when reviewing the chart of a client scheduled for an amniocentesis? A. Hepatitis B B. Prior uterine surgery C. Active genital herpes D. B negative blood type

D. B negative blood type

Which is the priority nursing action when a loop of umbilical cord protrudes from the vagina after rupture of a client's membranes? A. Monitoring fetal heart rate B. Covering the cord with a saline dressing C. Checking intensity and duration of contractions D. Holding the presenting part away from the cord

D. Holding the presenting part away from the cord