Liver, Pancreas, and Gallbladder Compilation

7. Your patient is 4 days post-opt from an appendectomy. Which assessment finding requires further evaluation? A. The patient reports their last bowel movement was the day before surgery. B. The patient reports incisional pain. C. The patient coughs and deep breathes while splinting the abdominal incision. D. Options A and C

A

8. A patient is recovering after having an appendectomy. The patient is 48 hours post-opt from surgery and is tolerating full liquids. The physician orders for the patient to try solid foods. What types of foods should the patient incorporate in their diet? A. Foods high in fiber B. Foods low in fiber C. Foods high in carbohydrates D. Foods low in protein

A

a nurse is teaching a client who has hepatitis B about home care. which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? a. limi physical activity b.avoid alcohol c. take Tylenol for comfort d.wear a mask in public places e. eat small frequent meals

A,B,E

a nurse is completing nutrition teaching for a client who has pancreatitis. which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? a. plan to eat small frequent meals b.eat easy to digest foods w limited spice c.use skim milk when cooking d.plan to drink regular cola e. limit alcohol intake to two drinks per day

A.B.C

22. How is Hepatitis E transmitted? A. Fecal-oral B. Percutaneous C. Mucosal D. Body fluids

The answer is A.

12. A patient has lab work drawn and it shows a positive HBsAg. What education will you provide to the patient? A. Avoid sexual intercourse or intimacy such as kissing until blood work is negative. B. The patient is now recovered from a previous Hepatitis B infection and is now immune. C. The patient is not a candidate from antiviral or interferon medications. D. The patient is less likely to develop a chronic infection.

The answer is A. A positive HBsAg (hepatitis B surface antigen) indicates an active Hepatitis B infection. Therefore, the patient should avoid sexual intercourse and other forms of intimacy until their HBsAg is negative.

8. While assisting a patient with chronic pancreatitis to the bathroom, you note the patient's stool to be oily/greasy in appearance. In your documentation you note this as: A. Steatorrhea B. Melena C. Currant D. Hematochezia

The answer is A. Steatorrhea is an oily/greasy appearance of the stool which can occur in chronic pancreatitis. This occurs due to the inability of the pancreas to produce digestive enzymes which help break down fats. Fats are not being broken down; therefore, it is being excreted into the stool. Melena is used to describe tarry/black stool, hematochezia is used to describe red stools, and currant are jelly type stools.

8. TRUE or FALSE: A patient with Hepatitis A is contagious about 2 weeks before signs and symptoms appear and 1-3 weeks after the symptoms appear.

The answer is TRUE.

6. You're providing education to a group of nursing students about the care of a patient with appendicitis. Which statement by a nursing student requires re-education about your teaching? A. "After an appendectomy the patient may have a nasogastric tube to remove stomach fluids and swallowed air." B. "Non-pharmacological techniques for a patient with appendicitis include application of heat to the abdomen and the side-lying position." C. "The nurse should monitor the patient for signs and symptoms of peritonitis which includes increased heart rate, respirations, temperature, abdominal distention, and intense abdominal pain." D. "It is normal for some patients to have shoulder pain after a laparoscopic appendectomy."

B

2. Select all the following options that are NOT causes of appendicitis: A. Fecalith B. Routine usage of NSAIDs C. Infection due to Helicobacter pylori D. Lymph node enlargement due to viral or bacterial infection E. Diet low in fiber

B, C, E

9. A patient with acute pancreatitis is reporting excessive thirst, excessive voiding, and blurred vision. As the nurse, it is priority you? A. Reassure the patient this is normal with pancreatitis B. Check the patient's blood glucose C. Assist the patient with drinking a simple sugar drink like orange juice D. Provide a dark and calm environment

B. Check the patient's blood glucose. Patients with acute pancreatitis are at risk for hyperglycemia (the signs and symptoms the patient are reporting are classic symptoms of hyperglycemia). Remember the endocrine function of the pancreas (which is to release insulin/glucagon etc. is insufficient) so the nurse must monitor the patient's blood glucose levels even if the patient is not diabetic

3. A 23 year old patient is admitted with suspected appendicitis. The patient states he is having pain around the umbilicus that extends into the lower part of his abdomen. In addition, he says that the pain is worst on the right lower quadrant. The patient points to his abdomen at a location which is about a one-third distance between the anterior superior iliac spine and umbilicus. This area is known as what? A. Rovsing's Point B. Hamman's Point C. McBurney's Point D. Murphy's Point

C

5. An 18 year old patient is admitted with appendicitis. Which statement by the patient requires immediate nursing intervention? A. "The pain hurts so much it is making me nauseous." B. "I have no appetite." C. "The pain seems to be gone now." D. "If I position myself on my right side, it makes the pain less intense."

C

9. A patient is scheduled for appendectomy at noon. While performing your morning assessment, you note that the patient has a fever of 103.8 'F and rates abdominal pain 9 on 1-10. In addition, the abdomen is distended and the patient states, "I was feeling better last night but it seems the pain has become worst." The patient is having tachycardia and tachypnea. Based on the scenario, what do you suspect the patient is experiencing? A. Pulmonary embolism B. Colon Fistulae C. Peritonitis D. Hemorrhage

C

4. Thinking back to the scenario in question 3, what other signs and symptoms are associated with appendicitis. SELECT-ALL-THAT-APPLY: A. Increased red blood Cells B. Patient has the desire to be positioned in the prone position to relieve pain C. Umbilical pain that extends in the right lower quadrant D. Abdominal rebound tenderness E. Abdominal Flaccidity

C, D

8. A 45 year old male has cirrhosis. The patient reports concern about the development of enlarged breast tissue. You explain to the patient that this is happening because? A. The liver cells are removing too much estrogen from the body which causes the testicles to produce excessive amounts of estrogen, and this leads to gynecomastia. B. The liver is producing too much estrogen due to the damage to the liver cells, which causes the level to increase in the body, and this leads to gynecomastia. C. The liver cells are failing to recycle estrogen into testosterone, which leads to gynecomastia. D. The liver cells are failing to remove the hormone estrogen properly from the body, which causes the level to increase in the body, and this leads to gynecomastia.

D

a nurse on a med surg floor is admitting a client who has hepatitis B with ascites. which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care? a. contact precautions b.weigh the client weekly c. measure abdominal girth at the base of the ribcage d.provide a high calorie high carb diet

D

a nurse is completing an admission assessment of a client who has pancreatitis. which of the following findings should the nurse expect? a. pain in upper right quadrant radiating to right shoulder b. report of pain being worse when sitting upright c.admin the medication 30 min before meals d.epigastric pain radiating to left shoulder

D a client who has pancreatitis will report severe, boring, epigastric pain that radiates to the back, left flank, or left shoulder

a nurse is reviewing the admission lab results of a client who has acute pancreatitis. which of the following findings should the nurse expect? a. decreased blood lipase level b. decrease blood amylase level c. increased blood calcium level d.increased blood glucose level

D the client will experience an increased blood glucose level due to pancreatic cell injury which results in impaired metabolism of carbohydrates due to a decrease in the release of insulin

1. True or False: The appendix is found on the left lower side of the abdomen and is connected to the cecum of the large intestine.

False

2. Which statements below are CORRECT regarding the role of bile? Select all that apply: A. Bile is created and stored in the gallbladder. B. Bile aids in digestion of fat soluble vitamins, such as A, D, E, and K. C. Bile is released from the gallbladder into the duodenum. D. Bile contains bilirubin.

The answer are B, C, and D. Option A is INCORRECT because bile is created in the LIVER (not gallbladder), but bile is stored in the gallbladder.

3. A patient with late-stage cirrhosis develops portal hypertension. Which of the following options below are complications that can develop from this condition? Select all that apply: A. Increase albumin levels B. Ascites C. Splenomegaly D. Fluid volume deficient E. Esophageal varices

The answer are B, C, and E. Portal Hypertension is where the portal vein becomes narrow due to scar tissue in the liver, which is restricting the flow of blood to the liver. Therefore, pressure becomes increased in the portal vein and affects the organs connected via the vein to the liver. The patient may experience ascites, enlarged spleen "splenomegaly", and esophageal varices etc.

2. From the pancreas and gallbladder, the common bile duct and pancreatic duct open into the ____________ where digestive enzymes and bile flow through the duodenum via the major duodenal papilla which is surrounded by a muscular valve that controls the release of digestive enzymes known as the ______________. A. ampulla of vater, sphincter of Oddi B. papilla of vater, sphincter of Oddi C. minor duodenal papilla, ampulla of vater D. jejunum, sphincter of pylori

The answer is A. Digestive enzymes from the pancreas duct and bile from the common bile duct flow through the ampulla of vater (this is where the pancreatic duct and common bile duct form together) into the duodenum via the major duodenal papilla (also called the papilla of vater) which is surrounded by the sphincter of Oddi. This sphincter is a muscular valve that controls the release of digestive enzymes/bile and prevents reflux of stomach contents into the pancreas and bile duct.

4. A patient is being transferred to your unit with acute cholecystitis. In report the transferring nurse tells you that the patient has a positive Murphy's Sign. You know that this means: A. The patient stops breathing in when the examiner palpates under the ribs on the right upper side of the abdomen at the midclavicular line. B. The patient stops breathing out when the examiner palpates under the ribs on the right upper side of the abdomen at the midclavicular line. C. The patient verbalizes pain when the lower right quadrant is palpated. D. The patient reports pain when pressure is applied to the right lower quadrant but then reports an increase in pain intensity when the pressure is released.

The answer is A. Murphy's Sign can occur with cholecystitis. This occurs when the patient is placed in the supine position and the examiner palpates under the ribs on the right upper side of the abdomen. The examiner will have the patient breathe out and then take a deep breath in. The examiner will simultaneously (while the patient is breathing in) palpate on this area under the ribs at the midclavicular line (hence the location of the gallbladder). It is a POSITIVE Murphy's Sign when the patient stops breathing in during palpation due to pain.

5. A patient is admitted with hepatic encephalopathy secondary to cirrhosis. Which meal option selection below should be avoided with this patient? A. Beef tips and broccoli rabe B. Pasta noodles and bread C. Cucumber sandwich with a side of grapes D. Fresh salad with chopped water chestnuts

The answer is A. Patients who are experiencing hepatic encephalopathy are having issues with toxin build up in the body, specifically ammonia. Remember that ammonia is the byproduct of protein breakdown, and normally the liver can take the ammonia from the protein breakdown and turn it into urea (but if the cirrhosis is severe enough this can't happen). Therefore, the patient should consume foods LOW in protein until the encephalopathy subsides. Option A is very high in protein while the others are low in protein. Remember meats, legumes, eggs, broccoli rabe, certain grains etc. are high in protein.

23. Which patient below is at MOST risk for developing a complication related to a Hepatitis E infection? A. A 45-year-old male with diabetes. B. A 26-year-old female in the 3rd trimester of pregnancy. C. A 12-year-old female with a ventricle septal defect. D. A 63-year-old male with cardiovascular disease.

The answer is B. Patients who are in the 3rd trimester of pregnancy are at a HIGH risk of developing a complication related to a Hepatitis E infection.

27. A patient with viral Hepatitis states their flu-like symptoms have subsided. However, they now have yellowing of the skin and sclera along with dark urine. Based on this finding, this is what phase of Hepatitis? A. Icteric B. Posticteric C. Preicteric D. Convalescent

The answer is A. The Preicteric (prodromal) Phase: flulike symptoms...joint pain, fatigue, nausea vomiting, abdominal pain change in taste, liver enzymes and bilirubin increasing....Icteric Phase: decrease in the flu-like symptoms but will have jaundice and dark urine (buildup of bilirubin) yellowing of skin and white part of the eyeball, clay-colored stool (bilirubin not going to stool to give it's normal brown color) enlarged liver and pain in this area....Posticteric (convalescent) Phase: jaundice and dark urine start to subside and stool returns to normal brown color, liver enzymes and bilirubin decrease to normal

1. A patient, who has recovered from cholecystitis, is being discharged home. What meal options below are best for this patient? A. Baked chicken with steamed carrots and rice B. Broccoli and cheese casserole with gravy and mashed potatoes C. Cheeseburger with fries D. Fried chicken with a baked potato

The answer is A. The patient should eat a low-fat diet and avoid greasy/fatty/gassy foods. Option B is wrong because this contains dairy/animal fat like the cheese and gravy, and broccoli is known to cause gas. Option C and D are greasy food options.

20. A patient with Hepatitis is extremely confused. The patient is diagnosed with Hepatic Encephalopathy. What lab result would correlate with this mental status change? A. Ammonia 100 mcg/dL B. Bilirubin 7 mg/dL C. ALT 56 U/L D. AST 10 U/L

The answer is A. When ammonia levels become high (normal 15-45 mcg/dL) it affects brain function. Therefore, the nurse would see mental status changes in a patient with this ammonia level.

11. The physician orders Lactulose 30 mL by mouth per day for a patient with cirrhosis. What findings below demonstrates the medication is working effectively? Select all that apply: A. Decrease albumin levels B. Decrease in Fetor Hepaticus C. Patient is stuporous. D. Decreased ammonia blood level E. Presence of asterixis

The answer is B and D. A patient with cirrhosis may experience a complication called hepatic encephalopathy. This will cause the patient to become confused (they may enter into a coma), have pungent, musty smelling breath (fetor hepaticus), asterixis (involuntary flapping of the hands) etc. This is due to the buildup of ammonia in the blood, which affects the brain. Lactulose can be prescribed to help decrease the ammonia levels. Therefore, if the medication is working properly to decrease the level of ammonia the patient would have improving mental status (NOT stuporous), decreased ammonia blood level, decreasing or absence of asterixis, and decreased ammonia blood level.

10. While providing mouth care to a patient with late-stage cirrhosis, you note a pungent, sweet, musty smell to the breath. This is known as: A. Metallic Hepatico B. Fetor Hepaticus C. Hepaticoacidosis D. Asterixis

The answer is B.

5. Your patient is post-op day 3 from a cholecystectomy due to cholecystitis and has a T-Tube. Which finding during your assessment of the T-Tube requires immediate nursing intervention? A. The drainage from the T-Tube is yellowish/green in color. B. There is approximately 750 cc of drainage within the past 24 hours. C. The drainage bag and tubing is at the patient's waist. D. The patient is in the Semi-Fowler's position.

The answer is B. A T-Tube should not drain more than about 500 cc of drainage per day (within 24 hours). A T-Tube's drainage will go from bloody tinged (fresh post-op) to yellowish/green within 2-3 days. The drainage bag and tubing should be below the site of insertion (at or below the patient's waist so gravity can help drainage the bile), and the patient should be in Semi-Fowler's to Fowler's position to help with draining the bile.

10. A patient who received treatment for pancreatitis is being discharged home. You're providing diet teaching to the patient. Which statement by the patient requires immediate re-education about the diet restrictions? A. "It will be hard but I will eat a diet low in fat and avoid greasy foods." B. "It is very important I limit my alcohol intake to no more than 2-3 glasses of wine a week." C. "I will concentrate on eating complex carbohydrates rather than refined carbohydrates." D. "I will purchase foods that are high in protein."

The answer is B. A patient with pancreatitis should AVOID any amount of alcohol because of its effects on the pancreas. Remember alcohol is a cause of both acute and chronic pancreatitis. All the other options are correct.

6. Your patient with acute pancreatitis is scheduled for a test that will use a scope to assess the pancreas, bile ducts, and gallbladder. The patient asks you, "What is the name of the test I'm going for later today?" You tell the patient it is called: A. MRCP B. ERCP C. CT scan of the abdomen D. EGD

The answer is B. ERCP (Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangio-Pancreatography) is used to diagnosis and sometimes treat the causes of pancreatitis. It will assess the pancreas, bile ducts, and gallbladder. In addition, the doctor may be able to remove gallstones, dilate the blocked ducts with a stent or balloon, drain presenting cysts etc.

14. A patient was exposed to Hepatitis B recently. Postexposure precautions include vaccination and administration of HBIg (Hepatitis B Immune globulin). HBIg needs to be given as soon as possible, preferably ___________ after exposure to be effective. A. 2 weeks B. 24 hours C. 1 month D. 7 days

The answer is B. HBIg should be given 24 hours after exposure to maximum effectiveness of temporary immunity against Hepatitis B. It would be given within 12 hours after birth to an infant born to a mother who has Hepatitis B.

2. The liver receives it blood supply from two sources. One of these sources is called the _________________, which is a vessel network that delivers blood _____________ in nutrients but ________ in oxygen. A. hepatic artery, low, high B. hepatic portal vein, high, low C. hepatic lobule, high, low D. hepatic vein, low, high

The answer is B. Majority of the blood flow to the liver comes from the hepatic portal vein. This vessel network delivers blood HIGH in nutrients (lipids, proteins, carbs etc.) from organs that aid in the digestion of food, but the blood is POOR in oxygen. The organs connected to the hepatic portal vein are: small/large intestine, pancreas, spleen, stomach. Rich oxygenated blood comes from the hepatic artery to the liver.

1. The liver receives blood from two sources. The _____________ is responsible for pumping blood rich in nutrients to the liver. A. hepatic artery B. hepatic portal vein C. mesenteric artery D. hepatic iliac vein

The answer is B. The liver receives blood from two sources. The hepatic portal vein is responsible for pumping blood rich in nutrients to the liver.

7. A 36-year-old patient's lab work show anti-HAV and IgG present in the blood. As the nurse you would interpret this blood work as? A. The patient has an active infection of Hepatitis A. B. The patient has recovered from a previous Hepatitis A infection and is now immune to it. C. The patient is in the preicetric phase of viral Hepatitis. D. The patient is in the icteric phase of viral Hepatitis.

The answer is B. When a patient has anti-HAV (antibodies of the Hepatitis A virus) and IgG, this means the patient HAD a past infection of Hepatitis A but it is now gone, and the patient is immune to Hepatitis A now. If the patient had anti-HAV and IgM, this means the patient has an active infection of Hepatitis A.

6. The physician orders a patient's T-Tube to be clamped 1 hour before and 1 hour after meals. You clamp the T-Tube as prescribed. While the tube is clamped which finding requires you to notify the physician? A. The T-Tube is not draining. B. The T-Tube tubing is below the patient's waist. C. The patient reports nausea and abdominal pain. D. The patient's stool is brown and formed.

The answer is C. A nurse should ONLY clamp a T-Tube with a physician's order. Most physicians will prescribe to clamp the T-tube 1 hour before and 1 hour after meals. WHY? So, bile will flow down into the small intestine (instead out of the body) during times when food is in the small intestine to help with the digestion of fats. This is to help the small intestine adjust to flow of bile (remember normally it received bile when the gallbladder contracted but now it will flow from the liver to the small intestine continuously). Option C is an abnormal finding. The patient should not report nausea or abdominal pain when the tube is blocked. This could indicate a serious problem. Option A is correct because the T-tube should not be draining because it's clamped. Option B is correct because the T-tube tubing should be below or at the patient's waist level. Option D is correct because this shows the body is digesting fats and bilirubin is exiting the body through the stool (remember bilirubin is found in the bile and gives stool its brown color...it would be light colored if the bilirubin was not present). You would NOT want to see steatorrhea (fat/greasy liquid stools) because this shows the bile isn't being delivered to help digest the fats.

1. Inside the pancreas are special cells that secrete digestive enzymes and hormones. The cells that secrete digestive enzymes are known as ______________ cells. A. Islet of Langerhans B. Protease C. Acinar D. Amylase

The answer is C. Acinar cells secrete digestive enzymes such as amylase, protease, and lipase.

6. During your morning assessment of a patient with cirrhosis, you note the patient is disoriented to person and place. In addition while assessing the upper extremities, the patient's hands demonstrate a flapping motion. What lab result would explain these abnormal assessment findings? A. Decreased magnesium level B. Increased calcium level C. Increased ammonia level D. Increased creatinine level

The answer is C. Based on the assessment findings and the fact the patient has cirrhosis, the patient is experiencing hepatic encephalopathy. This is due to the buildup of toxins in the blood, specifically ammonia. The flapping motion of the hands is called "asterixis". Therefore, an increased ammonia level would confirm these abnormal assessment findings.

24. What is the BEST preventive measure to take to help prevent ALL types of viral Hepatitis? A. Vaccination B. Proper disposal of needles C. Hand hygiene D. Blood and organ donation screening

The answer is C. Hand hygiene can help prevent all types of viral hepatitis. However, not all types of viral Hepatitis have a vaccine available or are spread through needle sticks or blood/organs donations. Remember Hepatitis A and E are spread only via fecal-oral routes.

21. The physician writes an order for the administration of Lactulose. What lab result indicates this medication was successful? A. Bilirubin <1 mg/dL B. ALT 8 U/L C. Ammonia 16 mcg/dL D. AST 10 U/L

The answer is C. Lactulose is ordered to decrease a high ammonia level. It will cause excretion of ammonia via the stool. A normal ammonia level would indicate the medication was successful (normal ammonia level 15-45 mcg/dL).

5. Which patient below is at MOST risk for CHRONIC pancreatitis? A. A 25 year old female with a family history of gallstones. B. A 35 year old male who reports social drinking of alcohol. C. A 15 year old female with cystic fibrosis. D. A 66 year old female with stomach cancer.

The answer is C. Patients in options A and B are at slight risk for ACUTE pancreatitis not chronic. Remember the main causes of ACUTE pancreatitis are gallstones and alcohol consumption. In option C, the patient with cystic fibrosis is at MAJOR risk for CHRONIC pancreatitis because they are lacking the protein CFTR which plays a role in the movement of chloride ions to help balance salt and water in the epithelial cells that line the ducts of the pancreas. There is a decreased production of bicarbonate secretion by the epithelial cells. Therefore, this leads to thick mucus in the pancreatic ducts that can lead to blockage of the pancreatic ducts which can cause the digestive enzymes to activate and damage the pancreas. Overtime, the pancreas will experience fibrosis of the pancreas' tissue and will no longer produce digestive enzyme to help with food digestion.

11. The physician orders a patient with pancreatitis to take a pancreatic enzyme. What assessment finding demonstrates the pancreatic enzymes are working properly? A. Abdominal girth is decreased B. Skin turgor is less than 2 seconds C. Blood glucose is 250 D. Stools appear formed and solid

The answer is D. Pancreatic enzymes help the body break down carbs, proteins, and fats because the body is not sufficiently producing digestive enzymes anymore. Hence, the stool will not appear as oily or greasy (decrease in steatorrhea) but appear solid and formed.

9. You're precepting a nursing student who is helping you provide T-Tube drain care. You explain to the nursing student that the t-shaped part of the drain is located in what part of the biliary tract? A. Cystic duct B. Common hepatic duct C. Common bile duct D. Pancreatic duct

The answer is C. The "T-shaped" part of the drain is located in the common bile duct and helps deliver bile to the duodenum (small intestine).

13. Which of the following is NOT a role of the liver? A. Removing hormones from the body B. Producing bile C. Absorbing water D. Producing albumin

The answer is C. The liver does not absorb water. The intestines are responsible for this function.

13. A patient with Hepatitis A asks you about the treatment options for this condition. Your response is? A. Antiviral medications B. Interferon C. Supportive care D. Hepatitis A vaccine

The answer is C. There is no current treatment for Hepatitis A but supportive care and rest. Treatments for the other types of Hepatitis such as B, C, and D include antiviral or interferon (mainly the chronic cases) along with rest.

10. Your patient is unable to have a cholecystectomy for the treatment of cholecystitis. Therefore, a cholecystostomy tube is placed to help treat the condition. Which statement about a cholecystostomy (C-Tube) is TRUE? A. The C-Tube is placed in the cystic duct of the gallbladder and helps drain infected bile from the gallbladder. B. Gallstones regularly drain out of the C-Tube, therefore, the nurse should flush the tube regularly to ensure patency. C. The C-Tube is placed through the abdominal wall and directly into the gallbladder where it will drain infected bile from the gallbladder. D. The tubing and drainage bag of the C-Tube should always be level with the insertion site to ensure the tube is draining properly.

The answer is C. This is the only correct statement about a cholecystostomy. A cholecystostomy, also sometimes called a C-Tube, is placed when a patient can't immediately have the gallbladder removed (cholecystectomy) due to cholecystitis. It is placed through the abdominal wall and into the gallbladder. It will drain infected bile (NOT gallstones). The tubing and drainage bag should be at or below waist level so it drains properly.

11. A patient has completed the Hepatitis B vaccine series. What blood result below would demonstrate the vaccine series was successful at providing immunity to Hepatitis B? A. Positive IgG B. Positive HBsAg C. Positive IgM D. Positive anti-HBs

The answer is D. A positive anti-HBs (Hepatitis B surface antibody) indicates either a past infection of Hepatitis B that is now cleared and the patient is immune, OR that the vaccine has been successful at providing immunity. A positive HBsAg (Hepatitis B surface antigen) indicates an active infection.

5. A patient is diagnosed with Hepatitis A. The patient asks how a person can become infected with this condition. You know the most common route of transmission is? A. Blood B. Percutaneous C. Mucosal D. Fecal-oral

The answer is D. Hepatitis A is most commonly transmitted via the fecal-oral route.

16. What is the MOST common transmission route of Hepatitis C? A. Blood transfusion B. Sharps injury C. Long-term dialysis D. IV drug use

The answer is D. IV drug use is the MOST common transmission route of Hepatitis C.

12. ________ reside in the liver and help remove bacteria, debris, and old red blood cells. A. Hepatocytes B. Langerhan cells C. Enterocytes D. Kupffer cells

The answer is D. Kupffer cells perform this function and are one of the two types of cells found in the liver lobules (the functional units of the liver). These cells play a role in helping the hepatocytes turn parts of the old red blood cells into bilirubin.

4. You're caring for a 45 year old patient who is admitted with suspected acute pancreatitis. The patient reports having extreme mid-epigastric pain that radiates to the back. The patient states the pain started last night after eating fast food. As the nurse, you know the two most common causes of acute pancreatitis are: A. High cholesterol and alcohol abuse B. History of diabetes and smoking C. Pancreatic cancer and obesity D. Gallstones and alcohol abuse

The answer is D. Main causes of acute pancreatitis are gallstones and alcohol consumption. Heavy, long-term alcohol abuse is the main cause of CHRONIC pancreatitis.

9. A 25-year-old patient was exposed to the Hepatitis A virus at a local restaurant one week ago. What education is important to provide to this patient? A. Inform the patient to notify the physician when signs and symptoms of viral Hepatitis start to appear. B. Reassure the patient the chance of acquiring the virus is very low. C. Inform the patient it is very important to obtain the Hepatitis A vaccine immediately to prevent infection. D. Inform the patient to promptly go to the local health department to receive immune globulin.

The answer is D. Since the patient was exposed to Hepatitis A, the patient would need to take preventive measures to prevent infection because infection is possible. The patient should not wait until signs and symptoms appear because the patient can be contagious 2 weeks BEFORE signs and symptoms appear. The vaccine would not prevent Hepatitis A from this exposure, but from possible future exposures because it takes the vaccine 30 days to start working. The best answer is option D. The patient would need to receive immune globulin to provide temporary immunity within 2 weeks of exposure.

1. The gallbladder is found on the __________ side of the body and is located under the ____________. It stores __________. A. right; pancreas; bilirubin B. left; liver; bile C. right; thymus' bilirubin D. right; liver; bile

The answer is D. The gallbladder is found in the RIGHT side of the body and is located under the LIVER. It stores BILE.

12. During a home health visit, you are assessing how a patient takes the prescribed pancreatic enzyme. The patient is unable to swallow the capsule whole, so they open the capsule and mix the beads inside the capsule with food/drink. Which food or drink is safe for the patient to mix the beads with? A. Pudding B. Ice cream C. Milk D. Applesauce

The answer is D. The patient should mix the medications with acidic foods like applesauce. It is very important the patient does NOT use alkaline foods for mixing (like dairy products, pudding etc.) because they can damaged the enzyme.

7. A patient is admitted to the ER with the following signs and symptoms: very painful mid-epigastric pain felt in the back, elevated glucose, fever, and vomiting. During the head-to-toe assessment, you notice bluish discoloration around the belly button. As the nurse, you know this is called? A. Grey-Turner's Sign B. McBurney's Sign C. Homan's Sign D. Cullen's Sign

The answer is D. This is known as Cullen's Sign. It represents retroperitoneal bleeding from the leakage of digestive enzymes from the inflamed pancreas into the surrounding tissues which is causing bleeding and it is leaking down to umbilicus tissue. Remember the C in Cullen for "circle" and the belly button forms a circle. The patient can also have Grey-Turner's Sign which is a bluish discoloration at the flanks (side of the abdomen). Remember this by TURNER ("turn her" over on her side) which is where the bluish discoloration will be.

1. Which condition is NOT a known cause of cirrhosis? A. Obesity B. Alcohol consumption C. Blockage of the bile duct D. Hepatitis C E. All are known causes of Cirrhosis

The answer is E. All of these conditions can cause cirrhosis.

25. Select all the types of viral Hepatitis that have preventive vaccines available in the United States? A. Hepatitis A B. Hepatitis B C. Hepatitis C D. Hepatitis D E. Hepatitis E

The answers are A and B. Currently there is only a vaccine for Hepatitis A and B in the U.S.

17. A patient is diagnosed with Hepatitis D. What statement is true about this type of viral Hepatitis? Select all that apply: A. The patient will also have the Hepatitis B virus. B. Hepatitis D is most common in Southern and Eastern Europe, Mediterranean, and Middle East. C. Prevention of Hepatitis D includes handwashing and the Hepatitis D vaccine. D. Hepatitis D is most commonly transmitted via the fecal-oral route.

The answers are A and B. These are true statements about Hepatitis D. Prevention for Hepatitis D includes handwashing and the Hepatitis B vaccine (since it occurs only with the Hepatitis B virus). It is transmitted via blood.

2. Which statements are INCORRECT regarding the anatomy and physiology of the liver? Select all that apply: A. The liver has 3 lobes and 8 segments. B. The liver produces bile which is released into the small intestine to help digest fats. C. The liver turns urea, a by-product of protein breakdown, into ammonia. D. The liver plays an important role in the coagulation process.

The answers are A and C. The liver has 2 lobes (not 3), and the liver turns ammonia (NOT urea), which is a by-product of protein breakdown, into ammonia. All the other statements are true about liver's anatomy and physiology.

3. You're providing an in-service on viral hepatitis to a group of healthcare workers. You are teaching them about the types of viral hepatitis that can turn into chronic infections. Which types are known to cause ACUTE infections ONLY? Select all that apply: A. Hepatitis A B. Hepatitis B C. Hepatitis C D. Hepatitis D E. Hepatitis E

The answers are A and E. Only Hepatitis A and E cause ACUTE infections...not chronic. Hepatitis B, C, and D can cause both acute and chronic infections.

4. Your patient with cirrhosis has severe splenomegaly. As the nurse you will make it priority to monitor the patient for signs and symptoms of? Select all that apply: A. Thrombocytopenia B. Vision changes C. Increased PT/INR D. Leukopenia

The answers are A, C, and D. A patient with an enlarged spleen (splenomegaly) due to cirrhosis can experience thrombocytopenia (low platelet count), increased PT/INR (means it takes the patient a long time to stop bleeding), and leukopenia (low white blood cells). The spleen stores platelets and WBCs. An enlarged spleen can develop due to portal hypertension, which causes the platelets and WBCs to become stuck inside the spleen due to the increased pressure in the hepatic vein (hence lowering the count and the body's access to these important cells for survival).

3. Select-ALL-that-apply: In the pancreas, the acinar cells release: A. Amylase B. Somatostatin C. Lipase D. Protease

The answers are A, C, and D. Acinar cells secrete digestive enzymes into the pancreatic ducts. These enzymes are: Amylase: breaks down carbs to glucose, Protease: breaks down proteins to amino acids, Lipase: breaks down fats

9. You're providing an in-service to new nurse graduates about esophageal varices in patients with cirrhosis. You ask the graduates to list activities that should be avoided by a patient with this condition. Which activities listed are correct: Select all that apply A. Excessive coughing B. Sleeping on the back C. Drinking juice D. Alcohol consumption E. Straining during a bowel movement F. Vomiting

The answers are A, D, E, and F. Esophageal varices are dilated vessels that are connected from the throat to the stomach. They can become enlarged due to portal hypertension in cirrhosis and can rupture (this is a medical emergency). The patient should avoid activities that could rupture these vessels, such as excessive cough, vomiting, drinking alcohol, and constipation (straining increases thoracic pressure.)

18. Select all the signs and symptoms associated with Hepatitis? A. Arthralgia B. Bilirubin 1 mg/dL C. Ammonia 15 mcg/dL D. Dark urine E. Vision changes F. Yellowing of the sclera G. Fever H. Loss of appetite

The answers are A, D, F, G, and H. The bilirubin and ammonia levels are normal in these options, but they would be abnormal in Hepatitis. A normal bilirubin is 1 or less, and a normal ammonia is 15-45 mcg/dL.

8. A patient in the emergency room has signs and symptoms associated with cholecystitis. What testing do you anticipate the physician will order to help diagnose cholecystitis? Select all that apply: A. Lower GI series B. Abdominal ultrasound C. HIDA Scan (Hepatobiliary Iminodiacetic AciD scan) D. Colonoscopy

The answers are B and C. These two tests can assess for cholecystitis. A lower GI series would not assess the gallbladder but the lower portions of the GI system like the rectum and large intestine. Option D is wrong because it would also assess the lower portions of the GI system.

28. During the posticteric phase of Hepatitis the nurse would expect to find? Select all that apply: A. Increased ALT and AST levels along with an increased bilirubin level B. Decreased liver enzymes and bilirubin level C. Flu-like symptoms D. Resolved jaundice and dark urine

The answers are B and D. Posticteric (convalescent) Phase: jaundice and dark urine start to subside and stool returns to normal brown color, liver enzymes and bilirubin decrease to normal

12. Your patient is diagnosed with acute cholecystitis. The patient is extremely nauseous. A nasogastric tube is inserted with GI decompression. The patient reports a pain rating of 9 on 1-10 scale and states the pain radiates to the shoulder blade. Select all the appropriate nursing interventions for the patient: A. Encourage the patient to consume clear liquids. B. Administered IV fluids per MD order. C. Provide mouth care routinely. D. Keep the patient NPO. E. Administer analgesic as ordered. F. Maintain low intermittent suction to NG tube.

The answers are B, C, D, E, and F. The treatment for cholecystitis includes managing pain, managing nausea/vomiting (a NG tube with GI decompression (removal of stomach contents) to low intermittent suction may be ordered to help severe cases), keep patient NPO until signs and symptoms subside, mouth care from vomiting and nasogastric tube, and administer IV fluids to keep the patient hydrated.

10. Select all the ways a person can become infected with Hepatitis B: A. Contaminated food/water B. During the birth process C. IV drug use D. Undercooked pork or wild game E. Hemodialysis F. Sexual intercourse

The answers are B, C, E, and F. Hepatitis B is spread via blood and body fluids. It could be transmitted via the birthing process, IV drug use, hemodialysis, or sexual intercourse etc.

4. Which patients below are at risk for developing complications related to a chronic hepatitis infection, such as cirrhosis, liver cancer, and liver failure? Select all that apply: A. A 55-year-old male with Hepatitis A. B. An infant who contracted Hepatitis B at birth. C. A 32-year-old female with Hepatitis C who reports using IV drugs. D. A 50-year-old male with alcoholism and Hepatitis D. E. A 30-year-old who contracted Hepatitis E.

The answers are B, C, and D. Infants or young children who contract Hepatitis B are at a very high risk of developing chronic Hepatitis B (which is why option B is correct). Option C is correct because most cases of Hepatitis C turn into chronic cases and IV drug use increases this risk even more. Option D is correct because Hepatitis D occurs when Hepatitis B is present and constant usage of alcohol damages the liver. Therefore, the patient is at high risk of developing chronic hepatitis. Hepatitis A and E tend to only cause acute infections....not chronic.

7. You are receiving shift report on a patient with cirrhosis. The nurse tells you the patient's bilirubin levels are very high. Based on this, what assessment findings may you expect to find during your head-to-toe assessment? Select all that apply: A. Frothy light-colored urine B. Dark brown urine C. Yellowing of the sclera D. Dark brown stool E. Jaundice of the skin F. Bluish mucous membranes

The answers are B, C, and E. High bilirubin levels are because the hepatocytes are no longer able to properly conjugate the bilirubin because they are damaged. This causes bilirubin to leak into the blood and urine (rather than entering the bile and being excreted in the stool). Therefore, the bilirubin stays in the blood and will enter the urine. This will cause the patient to experience yellowing of the skin, sclera of the eyes, and mucous membranes ("jaundice") and have dark brown urine. The stools would be CLAY-COLORED not dark brown (remember bilirubin normally gives stool it brown color but it will be absent).

19. A patient with Hepatitis has a bilirubin of 6 mg/dL. What findings would correlate with this lab result? Select all that apply: A. None because this bilirubin level is normal B. Yellowing of the skin and sclera C. Clay-colored stools D. Bluish discoloration on the flanks of the abdomen E. Dark urine F. Mental status changes

The answers are B, C, and E. This is associated with a high bilirubin level. A normal bilirubin level is 1 or less.

6. Which of the following is NOT a common source of transmission for Hepatitis A? Select all that apply: A. Water B. Food C. Semen D. Blood

The answers are C and D. The most common source for transmission of Hepatitis A is water and food.

15. You're providing education to a patient with an active Hepatitis B infection. What will you include in their discharge instructions? Select all that apply: A. "Take acetaminophen as needed for pain." B. "Eat large meals that are spread out through the day." C. "Follow a diet low in fat and high in carbs." D. "Do not share toothbrushes, razors, utensils, drinking cups, or any other type of personal hygiene product." E. "Perform aerobic exercises daily to maintain strength."

The answers are C and D. The patient should NOT take acetaminophen (Tylenol) due to its effective on the liver. The patient should eat small (NOT large), but frequent meals...this may help with the nausea. The patient should rest (not perform aerobic exercises daily) because this will help with liver regeneration.

7. Your recent admission has acute cholecystitis. The patient is awaiting a cholecystostomy. What signs and symptoms are associated with this condition? Select all that apply: A. Right lower quadrant pain with rebound tenderness B. Negative Murphy's Sign C. Epigastric pain that radiates to the right scapula D. Pain and fullness that increases after a greasy or spicy meal E. Fever F. Tachycardia G. Nausea

The answers are C, D, E, F, and G. Option A and B are not associated with cholecystitis, but a POSITIVE Murphy's Sign is.

3. You're providing a community in-service about gastrointestinal disorders. During your teaching about cholecystitis, you discuss how cholelithiasis can lead to this condition. What are the risk factors for cholelithiasis that you will include in your teaching to the participants? Select all that apply: A. Being male B. Underweight C. Being female D. Older age E. Native American F. Caucasian G. Pregnant H. Family History I. Obesity

The answers are C, D, E, G, H and I. Cholelithiasis is the formation of gallstones. Risk factors include: being female, older age (over 40), Native American or Mexican American descent, pregnant, obesity, and family history.