Med Surg Ch. 24 Chronic Pulmonary Disease

Nursing students are gathered for a study session about the pulmonary system. One student asks the others to name the primary causes for an acute exacerbation of COPD. Which of the following responses should be in the reply? Choose all that apply.

-Air pollution -Tracheobronchial infection Common causes of an acute exacerbation include tracheobronchial infection and air pollution. However, the cause of approximately one third of severe exacerbations cannot be identified. Fractured hips, hypertension, and GI viruses are not causes of exacerbation of COPD.

In which grade of COPD is the forced expiratory volume (FEV) less than 30%?

III Clients with grade III COPD demonstrate an FEV1 less than 30-50% predicted, with respiratory failure or clinical signs of right heart failure. Grade I is mild COPD, with an FEV1 ≥80% predicted. Clients with grade II COPD demonstrate an FEV1 of 50-80% predicted. Grade IV is characterized by FEV1 less 30% predicted.

Which diagnostic test is the most accurate in assessing acute airway obstruction?

Pulmonary function studies Pulmonary function studies are the most accurate means of assessing acute airway obstruction. ABGs, pulse oximetry, and chest x-ray are not the most accurate diagnostics for an airway obstruction.

As status asthmaticus worsens, the nurse would expect which acid-base imbalance?

Respiratory acidosis As status asthmaticus worsens, the PaCO2 increases and the pH decreases, reflecting respiratory acidosis.

A nursing student understands that emphysema is directly related to which of the following?

Respiratory acidosis from airway obstruction In the later stages of emphysema, carbon dioxide elimination is impaired, resulting in increased carbon dioxide tension in arterial blood (hypercapnia) leading to respiratory acidosis.

A client has been classified as status asthmaticus. The nurse understands that this client will likely initially exhibit symptoms of:

Respiratory alkalosis There is a reduced PaCO2 and initial respiratory alkalosis, with a decreased PaCO2 and an increased pH. As status asthmaticus worsens, the PaCO2 increases and the pH decreases, reflecting respiratory acidosis.

A nurse is assisting with a subclavian vein central line insertion when the client's oxygen saturation drops rapidly. He complains of shortness of breath and becomes tachypneic. The nurse suspects the client has developed a pneumothorax. Further assessment findings supporting the presence of a pneumothorax include:

diminished or absent breath sounds on the affected side. In the case of a pneumothorax, auscultating for breath sounds will reveal absent or diminished breath sounds on the affected side. Paradoxical chest wall movements occur in flail chest conditions. Tracheal deviation occurs in a tension pneumothorax. Muffled or distant heart sounds occur in cardiac tamponade.

A client with bronchiectasis is admitted to the nursing unit. The primary focus of nursing care for this client includes

implementing measures to clear pulmonary secretions. Nursing management focuses on alleviating symptoms and helping clients clear pulmonary secretions. Although teaching the family how to perform postural drainage and instructing the client on the signs of respiratory infection are important, they are not the nurse's primary focus. The presence of a large amount of mucus may decrease the client's appetite and result in inadequate dietary intake; therefore, the client's nutritional status is assessed and strategies are implemented to ensure an adequate diet.

A client is being admitted to an acute healthcare facility with an exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The client had been taking an antibiotic at home with poor relief of symptoms and has recently decided to stop smoking. The nurse is reviewing at-home medications with the client. The nurse is placing this information on the Medication Reconciliation Record. Which of the following is incomplete information?

salmeterol/fluticasone (Seretide) MDI daily at 0800 When providing information about medications, the nurse needs to include right drug, right dose, right route, right frequency, and right time. Salmeterol/fluticasone does not include how many puffs the client is to take.

A nurse is caring for a client admitted with an exacerbation of asthma. The nurse knows the client's condition is worsening when he:

uses the sternocleidomastoid muscles. Use of accessory muscles indicates worsening breathing conditions. Assuming the tripod position, a 93% pulse oximetry reading, and a request for the nurse to raise the head of the bed don't indicate that the client's condition is worsening.

Which of the following medications are classified as leukotriene modifiers (inhibitors)? Select all that apply.

-Montelukast (Singulair) -Zafirlukast (Accolate) -Zileuton (Zyflo) Singulair, Accolate, and Zyflo are leukotriene modifiers. Atrovent is a short-acting anticholinergic. Spiriva is a long-acting anticholinergic.

Which of the following are risk factors for the development of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? Select all that apply.

-Tobacco smoke -Occupational dust -Air pollution -Infection -Second-hand smoke Risk factors for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease are tobacco smoke, environmental tobacco smoke, occupational dust and chemicals, indoor and outdoor air pollution, and infection.

A client is being treated in the ED for respiratory distress coupled with pneumonia. The client has no medical history. However, the client works in a coal mine and smokes 10 cigarettes a day. The nurse anticipates which order based on the client's immediate needs?

Administration of antibiotics Antibiotics are administered to treat respiratory tract infections. Chronic bronchitis is inflammation of the bronchi caused by irritants or infection. Hence, smoking cessation and avoiding pollutants are necessary to slow the accelerated decline of the lung tissue. However, the immediate priority in this case is to cure the infection, pneumonia. Corticosteroids and bronchodilators are administered to asthmatic clients when they show symptoms of wheezing. An ECG is used to evaluate atrial arrhythmias.

A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to an acute care facility because of an acute respiratory infection. When assessing the client's respiratory status, which finding should the nurse anticipate?

An inspiratory-expiratory (I:E) ratio of 2:1 The normal I:E ratio is 1:2, meaning that expiration takes twice as long as inspiration. A ratio of 2:1 is seen in clients with COPD because inspiration is shorter than expiration. A client with COPD typically has a barrel chest in which the anteroposterior diameter is larger than the transverse chest diameter. A client with COPD usually has a respiratory rate greater than 12 breaths/minute and an oxygen saturation rate below 93%.

Which statement is true about both lung transplant and bullectomy?

Both procedures improve the overall quality of life of a client with COPD. Treatments for COPD are aimed more at treating the symptoms and preventing complications, thereby improving the overall quality of life of a client with COPD. In fact, there is no cure for COPD. Lung transplant is aimed at treating end-stage emphysema and bullectomy is used to treat clients with bullous emphysema.

Which of the following is a leading cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) exacerbation?

Bronchitis A wide range of viral, bacterial, and mycoplasmal infections can produce acute episodes of bronchitis, a leading cause of exacerbations. Pneumonia, the common cold, and asthma are not leading causes of exacerbations.

Which of the following occupy space in the thorax, but do not contribute to ventilation?

Bullae Bullae are enlarged airspaces that do not contribute to ventilation but occupy space in the thorax. Bullae may compress areas of healthier lung and impair gas exchange. Alveoli are the functional units of the lungs. Lung parenchyma is lung tissue. Mast cells, when activated, release several chemicals called mediators that include histamine, bradykinin, prostaglandins, and leukotrienes.

Which drug is second-line pharmacotherapy for smoking abstinence?

Clonidine Second-line pharmacotherapy includes the antihypertensive agent clonidine. However, its use is limited by its side effects. First-line therapy includes nicotine gum, nortriptyline, and buproprion SR.

A young adult with cystic fibrosis is admitted to the hospital for aggressive treatment. The nurse first:

Collects sputum for culture and sensitivity Aggressive therapy for cystic fibrosis involves airway clearance and antibiotics, such as vancomycin and tobramycin, which will be prescribed based on sputum cultures. Sputum must be obtained prior to antibiotic therapy so results will not be skewed. Administering oral pancreatic enzymes with meals will be a lesser priority.

Which symptoms are considered primary symptoms of COPD?

Cough COPD is characterized by three primary symptoms: cough, sputum production, and dyspnea upon exertion. Weight loss is common with COPD.

Which medication is contraindicated in acute asthma exacerbations?

Cromolyn sodium Cromolyn sodium is contraindicated in clients with acute asthma exacerbation.

A home health nurse sees a client with end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. An outcome identified for this client is preventing infection. Which finding indicates that this outcome has been met?

Decreased oxygen requirements A client who is free from infection will most likely have decreased oxygen requirements. A client with infection will display increased sputum production, fever, shortness of breath, decreased activity tolerance, and increased oxygen requirements.

Which of the following is the key underlying feature of asthma?

Inflammation Inflammation is the key underlying feature and leads to recurrent episodes of asthma symptoms: cough, chest tightness, wheeze, and dyspnea.

A nursing student just learned that the primary presenting symptom of emphysema is dyspnea. During the clinical rotation that same week, the student is assigned to a patient diagnosed with emphysema. In prioritizing the care for the shift, the student would choose which of the following interventions first?

Monitor vital signs every 2 hours, including respiratory rate and characteristics. Dyspnea may be severe and often interferes with the patient's activities. It is usually progressive, worse with exercise, and persistent. As COPD progresses, dyspnea may occur at rest. All the other interventions are correct yet require an assessment prior to their implementation.

A client is being seen in the emergency department for exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The first action of the nurse is to administer which of the following prescribed treatments?

Oxygen through nasal cannula at 2 L/minute All options listed are treatments that may be used for a client with an exacerbation of COPD. The first line of treatment is oxygen therapy.

The nurse is assigned to care for a patient with COPD with hypoxemia and hypercapnia. When planning care for this patient, what does the nurse understand is the main goal of treatment?

Providing sufficient oxygen to improve oxygenation The main objective in treating patients with hypoxemia and hypercapnia is to give sufficient oxygen to improve oxygenation.

A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is recovering from a myocardial infarction. Because the client is extremely weak and can't produce an effective cough, the nurse should monitor closely for:

atelectasis. In a client with COPD, an ineffective cough impedes secretion removal. This, in turn, causes mucus plugging, which leads to localized airway obstruction — a known cause of atelectasis. An ineffective cough doesn't cause pleural effusion (fluid accumulation in the pleural space). Pulmonary edema usually results from left-sided heart failure, not an ineffective cough. Although many noncardiac conditions may cause pulmonary edema, an ineffective cough isn't one of them. Oxygen toxicity results from prolonged administration of high oxygen concentrations, not an ineffective cough.

A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) expresses a desire to quit smoking. The first appropriate response from the nurse is:

"Have you tried to quit smoking before?" All the options are appropriate statements; however, the nurse needs to assess the client's statement further. Assessment data include information about previous attempts to quit smoking.

A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) reports increased shortness of breath and fatigue for 1 hour after awakening in the morning. Which of the following statements by the nurse would best help with the client's shortness of breath and fatigue?

"Delay self-care activities for 1 hour." Some clients with COPD have shortness of breath and fatigue in the morning on arising as a result of bronchial secretions. Planning self-care activities around this time may be better tolerated by the client, such as delaying activities until the client is less short of breath or fatigued. The client raising the arms over the head may increase dyspnea and fatigue. Sitting in a chair when bathing or dressing will aid in dyspnea and fatigue but does not address the situation upon arising. Drinking fluids will assist in liquifying secretions which, thus, will aid in breathing, but again does not address the situation in the morning.