Medical Terminology - Chapter 14 - Special Topics

roentgen/o

X-ray

Carrying

-phoresis

Standing still

-stasis

topic/o

a specific area

morbid/o

ill

hallucin/o

imagined perception

para-

beside

obsess/o

besieged by thoughts

meta-

beyond

ultra-

beyond

Twice a day

bid

The generic name for a drug stays the same, no matter what company manufactures the drug.

True

hem/o

blood

physic/o

body

somat/o

body

carcin/o

cancerous

-phoresis

carrying

cyt/o

cell

bucc/o

cheek

ped/o

child

cry/o

cold

-phoria

condition to bear

Pap smears are considered a form of:

cytologic testing

Without

de-

mort/o

death

dys-

difficult

path/o

disease

idi/o

distinctive

compuls/o

drive, compel

chem/o

drug

pharmac/o

drug

electr/o

electricity

electr/o

electrivity

hyper-

excessive

delus/o

false belief

anxi/o

fear, worry

Patients with narcissistic personality disorder:

feel that they are extremely important

If a patient is working on writing and buttoning clothes in rehab, he or she is working on:

fine motor skills

pyr/o

fire

fluor/o

fluroescence, luminous

amnes/o

forgetfulness

-plasia

formation of cells

-plasm

formation, growth

-mania

frenzy

A person with an antisocial personality disorder might:

frequently commit crimes, probably without remorse

anter/o

front

To breathe

hal/o

Imagined perception

hallucin/o

therm/o

heat

If a rehab patient had an assessment for ADLs, what was assessed?

how well they are able to care for themselves day by day

If a drug should be given at bedtime, the directions would say:

hs

bi/o

life

-iatry

medical treatment

Mind

ment/o

The abbreviation mg means:

milligram

ment/o

mind

phren/o

mind

psych/o

mind

psycho/o

mind

or/o

mouth

muscul/o

muscle

my/o

muscle

To change

mutat/o

New

neo-

neur/o

nerve

neo-

new

-opaque

nontransparent

in-

not

non-

not

nucle/o

nucleus

Tumor

onc/o

ex-

outwared

Body

physic/o

A physiatrist focuses on restoring

physical function

-iatrist

physician

iatr/o

physician, medicine, treatment

As needed

pm

tox/o

poison

toxic/o

poison

-graphy

process of recording

-genic

produced by

Addition

prosthet/o

immun/o

protection

-phylaxis

protextion

Setting fires

pyromania

radi/o

radiation, x-ray

Nuclear medicine uses what substances to diagnose diseases

radioactive

radi/o

ray (X-ray)

The what route of drug administration could be used for a patient who is unable to take drugs by mouth.

rectal

rect/o

rectum

X-ray

roentgen/o

radic/o

root

To cut

sect/o

-lepsy

seizure

auto-

self

esthesi/o

sensation, feeling

Masochism is a what disorder

sexual

thec/o

sheath (meninges)

later/o

side

cutane/o

skin

derm/o

skin

somn/o

sleep

soci/o

society

phon/o

sound

son/o

sound

-ist

specialist

schiz/o

split

-stasis

standing still

-ism

state of

lith/o

stone

orth/o

straight, correct

-logy

study of

narc/o

stupor, sleep

If a drug should be given under the tongue, the directions would say:

sublingual

Patients with schizophrenia greatly benefit from:

taking antipsychotic drugs

If a drug should be given three times a day, the abbreviation what is used.

tid

capsul/o

to box

hal/o

to breathe

aspir/o

to breathe in

mutat/o

to change

cis/o

to cut

sect/o

to cut

tom/o

to cut

-otomy

to cut into

tenacul/o

to hold

-stat

to keep from moving

recumb/o

to lie back

specul/o

to look at

depress/o

to press down

miss/o

to send back

-lucent

to shine through

laps/o

to slide back

klept/o

to steal

vers/o

to turn

dilat/o

to widen

lingu/o

tongue

The degree to which a substance is poisonous is known as

toxicity

-therapy

treatment

onc/o

tumor

The abbreviated TNM stands for:

tumor, nodes, metastases

bi-

two

sub-

under

vagin/o

vagina

ven/o

vein

alges/o

pain

-ic

pertaining to

-philic

pertaining to being attracted to

-nomics

pertaining to laws

-iatric

pertaining to medical treatment

Medical treatment

-iatry

To shine through

-lucent

An MRI uses x-rays.

False

IV means a drug is to be injected into a muscle.

False

Positioning the patient so that the x-ray beam passes through the body from back to front is called an AP view.

False

SC means that a drug is to be given by mouth.

False

The abbreviation tid means that a drug it to be given twice a day.

False

Introduction

Pharmacology, Mental Health, Diagnostic Imaging, Rehabilitation Services, Surgery, Oncology

Quiz 12 (Chapter 13 & 14)

Question 1 1 / 1 point Which medical term does NOT mean pertaining to the eye? Question options: A) otic B) optic C) ophthalmic D) ocular Hide Feedback Otic means pertaining to the ear. Ocular, ophthalmic, and optic mean pertaining to the eye. Question 2 1 / 1 point Which medical term does NOT mean pertaining to the ear? Question options: A) acoustic B) auditory C) auricular D) aural Hide Feedback Acoustic means pertaining to hearing. Auditory, aural, and auricular mean pertaining to the ear. Question 3 1 / 1 point Which term means double vision? Question options: A) exotropia B) nyctalopia C) hemianopia D) diplopia Hide Feedback Dipl/o means double and -opia means vision, so diplopia means double vision. Hemi- means half and an- means without; thus, hemianopia means lack of vision in half the visual field. Nyctal/o means night; therefore, nyctalopia means night blindness. Ex/o means outward; hence, exotropia is outward turning of the eyes. Question 4 1 / 1 point Which term means instrument to view inside the eye? Question options: A) ophthalmoscope B) pupilloscope C) optoscopy D) intraocular Hide Feedback Ophthalm/o means eye and -scope means instrument to view; therefore, ophthalmoscope means instrument to view inside the eye. Optoscopy is not a medical term. Pupilloscope is not a medical term. Intra- means within, ocul/o means eye, and -ar means pertaining to, so intraocular means pertaining to within the eye. Question 5 1 / 1 point Which term means surgical repair of the eyelid? Question options: A) conjunctivoplasty B) blepharoplasty C) retinoplasty D) lacrimoplasty Hide Feedback Blephar/o means eyelid and -plasty means surgical repair; therefore, blepharoplasty means surgical repair of the eyelid. Conjunctiv/o means conjunctiva, so conjunctivoplasty means surgical repair of the conjunctiva. Retin/o means retina; thus, retinoplasty means surgical repair of the retina. Lacrimoplasty is not a medical term. Question 6 1 / 1 point Which term means record of hearing? Question options: A) audiogram B) auriculogram C) otogram D) acousticogram Hide Feedback Audi/o means hearing and -gram means record of; therefore, audiogram means record of hearing. The other terms would mean record of ear. Question 7 1 / 1 point The opening in the center of the iris is the: Question options: A) conjunctiva B) pupil C) retina D) lens Hide Feedback The opening in the center of the iris is the pupil. The retina is the innermost layer of the eyeball. The lens is behind the iris. The conjunctiva lines the eyelids. Question 8 1 / 1 point Which layer of the eye contains the sensory receptors for sight? Question options: A) choroid B) lens C) retina D) sclera Hide Feedback The retina contains the sensory receptors for sight. The choroid supplies the blood to the eye. The sclera protects the eye and provides the cornea for light refraction. The lens is not a layer. Question 9 1 / 1 point The opening to the outer ear is the: Question options: A) oval window B) elongated window C) external auditory meatus D) tympanic membrane Hide Feedback The external auditory meatus is the opening to the outer ear. The oval window covers the opening into the inner ear. There is no elongated window. The tympanic membrane separates the external ear from the middle ear. Question 10 1 / 1 point Which of the following is NOT one of the ossicles? Question options: A) stapes B) cochlea C) malleus D) incus Hide Feedback The cochlea is not an ossicle. The malleus, incus, and stapes are ossicles. Question 11 1 / 1 point The ________ connects the nasopharynx and the middle ear. Question options: A) auditory tube B) cochlea C) ossicles D) auditory canal Hide Feedback The eustachian tube connects the middle ear and nasopharynx. Sound moves along the auditory canal to the tympanic membrane. The cochlea is the organ for hearing. The ossicles vibrate to the sound waves to transmit them to the inner ear. Question 12 1 / 1 point Which of the following statements regarding the inner ear is NOT true? Question options: A) The sensory organs in the inner ear contain hair cells. B) The semicircular canals are the sensory organs for hearing. C) The hearing and equilibrium sensory organs are in the labyrinth. D) The fluid-filled cavity of the inner ear is called the labyrinth. Hide Feedback The semicircular canals are for equilibrium. The other statements are true. Question 13 1 / 1 point Which term is NOT spelled correctly? Question options: A) salpingotomy B) otomicosis C) tympanorrhexis D) labyrinthectomy Hide Feedback The term should be spelled otomycosis. The other terms are spelled correctly. Question 14 1 / 1 point Which of the following terms refers to both ears? Question options: A) tinnitus B) vertigo C) binaural D) presbycusis Hide Feedback Binaural refers to both ears. Presbycusis refers to normal hearing loss associated with aging. Tinnitus refers to ringing in the ears. Vertigo refers to dizziness. Question 15 1 / 1 point Which of the following terms refers to the normal loss of hearing associated with aging? Question options: A) tinnitus B) presbycusis C) vertigo D) binaural Hide Feedback Presbycusis refers to the normal hearing loss associated with aging. Binaural refers to both ears. Tinnitus refers to ringing in the ears. Vertigo refers to dizziness. Question 16 1 / 1 point Which of the following terms refers to ringing in the ears? Question options: A) vertigo B) binaural C) presbycusis D) tinnitus Hide Feedback Tinnitus refers to ringing in the ears. Binaural refers to both ears. Presbycusis is the normal loss of hearing associated with aging. Vertigo refers to dizziness. Question 17 1 / 1 point Which of the following pathological conditions is an ear infection commonly seen in children? Question options: A) otosclerosis B) labyrinthitis C) anacusis D) otitis media Hide Feedback Otitis media is commonly seen in children because their eustachian tube is shorter than an adult's. Anacusis is a total absence of hearing. Otosclerosis is loss of mobility of the stapes bone. Labyrinthitis is an inner ear infection. Question 18 1 / 1 point Which of the following pathological conditions is the loss of mobility of the stapes? Question options: A) otitis media B) anacusis C) otosclerosis D) labyrinthitis Hide Feedback Otosclerosis is the loss of the mobility of the stapes. Anacusis is the total absence of hearing. Otitis media is a middle ear infection. Labyrinthitis is an inner ear infection. Question 19 1 / 1 point Which term means cutting into the eardrum? Question options: A) tympanectomy B) myringoplasty C) myringotomy D) tympanopathy Hide Feedback Myring/o means eardrum and -otomy means incision or cutting into; therefore, myringotomy means cutting into the eardrum. Tympan/o means eardrum and -ectomy means surgical removal of; thus, tympanectomy means surgical removal of eardrum. -plasty means surgical repair, so myringoplasty means surgical repair of eardrum. -pathy means disease, so tympanopathy means disease of the eardrum. Question 20 1 / 1 point Which of the following terms refers to dizziness? Question options: A) vertigo B) tinnitus C) binaural D) presbycusis Hide Feedback Vertigo refers to dizziness. Binaural refers to both ears. Presbycusis refers to normal hearing loss associated with aging. Tinnitus refers to ringing in the ears. Question 21 1 / 1 point Which of the following structures is responsible for refracting light rays? Question options: A) cornea B) pupil C) iris D) lens Hide Feedback The cornea actually refracts the light rays. The pupil admits the proper amount of light. The lens focuses incoming light onto the retina. The iris controls the size of the pupil. Question 22 1 / 1 point Which of the following structures focuses incoming light rays onto the retina? Question options: A) lens B) ciliary body C) pupil D) iris Hide Feedback The lens focuses light rays onto the retina. The iris controls the size of the pupil. The pupil allows light in. The ciliary body attaches the lens to the choroid layer. Question 23 1 / 1 point Which of the following pathological conditions is due to abnormal curvature of the cornea? Question options: A) astigmatism B) cataract C) strabismus D) glaucoma Hide Feedback Astigmatism is an abnormal curvature of the cornea. A cataract is damage to the lens. Glaucoma is an increase in intraocular pressure. Strabismus is eye muscle weakness. Question 24 1 / 1 point Which of the following pathological conditions is due to an opaque or cloudy lens? Question options: A) cataract B) astigmatism C) glaucoma D) strabismus Hide Feedback A cataract is damage to the lens causing it to become opaque or cloudy. Astigmatism is an abnormal curvature of the cornea. Glaucoma is an increase in intraocular pressure. Strabismus is eye muscle weakness. Question 25 1 / 1 point Which of the following pathological conditions is due to increased intraocular pressure? Question options: A) glaucoma B) astigmatism C) strabismus D) cataract Hide Feedback Glaucoma is caused by increased intraocular pressure. Astigmatism is an abnormal curvature of the cornea. A cataract is an opaque or cloudy lens. Strabismus is eye muscle weakness. Question 26 1 / 1 point Which of the following pathological conditions is a purulent infection of a sebaceous gland on the eyelid? Question options: A) hordeolum B) pterygium C) esotropia D) otomycosis Hide Feedback A hordeolum, or stye, is a purulent infection of a sebaceous gland on the eyelid. Otomycosis is an abnormal condition of eye fungus. Esotropia is being cross-eyed. Pterygium is hypertrophied conjunctival tissue in the inner corner of the eye. Question 27 1 / 1 point Which of the following pathological conditions is commonly called pinkeye? Question options: A) pterygium B) hordeolum C) blepharitis D) conjunctivitis Hide Feedback Conjunctivitis is commonly called pinkeye. A hordeolum is commonly called a stye. The other terms do not have common names. Question 28 1 / 1 point Which of the following pathological conditions is also called nearsightedness? Question options: A) presbyopia B) hyperopia C) esotropia D) myopia Hide Feedback Myopia is nearsightedness. Hyperopia is farsightedness. Esotropia is cross-eyed. Presbyopia is normal visual loss due to aging. Question 29 1 / 1 point Which of the following pathological conditions affects part of the retina? Question options: A) amblyopia B) strabismus C) macular degeneration D) cataract Hide Feedback Macular degeneration affects the macular area of the retina. A cataract affects the lens. Amblyopia can occur if strabismus is not corrected. Strabismus is eye muscle weakness. Question 30 1 / 1 point Which of the following diagnostic procedures is used to identify corneal abrasions or ulcers? Question options: A) keratometry B) tonometry C) fluorescein staining D) ophthalmoscopy Hide Feedback Fluorescein staining identifies corneal abrasions or ulcers. Ophthalmoscopy looks into the eye. Tonometry measures intraocular pressure. Keratometry measures the curvature of the cornea. Question 31 1 / 1 point Which of the following diagnostic procedures examines the interior of the eye? Question options: A) tonometry B) ophthalmoscopy C) fluorescein staining D) keratometry Hide Feedback Ophthalmoscopy views the inside of the eye. Fluorescein staining identifies corneal abrasions or ulcers. Tonometry measures intraocular pressure. Keratometry measures the curvature of the cornea. Question 32 1 / 1 point Which of the following diagnostic procedures measures intraocular pressure? Question options: A) keratometry B) ophthalmoscopy C) fluorescein staining D) tonometry Hide Feedback Tonometry measures intraocular pressure. Fluorescein staining identifies corneal ulcers or abrasions. Ophthalmoscopy views inside the eye. Keratometry measures the curvature of the cornea. Question 33 1 / 1 point Which of the following diagnostic procedures measures the curvature of the cornea? Question options: A) ophthalmoscopy B) keratometry C) tonometry D) fluorescein staining Hide Feedback Keratometry measures the curvature of the cornea. Fluorescein staining identifies corneal abrasions or ulcers. Ophthalmoscopy views inside the eye. Tonometry measures intraocular pressure. Question 34 1 / 1 point Which of the following diagnostic procedures would identify achromatopsia? Question options: A) visual acuity B) slit lamp microscopy C) color vision test D) fluorescein angiography Hide Feedback A color vision test would identify achromatopsia, color blindness. Fluorescein angiography is used to identify retinal detachment. Slit lamp microscopy examines the posterior surface of the cornea. Visual acuity tests the sharpness of vision. Question 35 1 / 1 point Which of the following diagnostic procedures is a test of hearing ability? Question options: A) audiometry B) falling test C) otoscopy D) Rinne and Weber tuning-fork test Hide Feedback Audiometry tests hearing ability. The Rinne and Weber tuning-fork test assesses bone and nerve conduction of sound. Otoscopy views inside the ear. The falling test checks balance. Question 36 1 / 1 point Which of the following diagnostic procedures assesses both nerve and bone conduction of sound? Question options: A) falling test B) otoscopy C) Rinne and Weber tuning-fork test D) audiometry Hide Feedback The Rinne and Weber tuning-fork test assesses nerve and bone conduction of sound. Audiometry tests hearing ability. Otoscopy views inside the ear. A falling test checks balance. Question 37 1 / 1 point Which of the following surgical procedures means to remove the eyeball? Question options: A) enucleation B) photorefractive keratectomy C) scleral buckling D) laser photocoagulation Hide Feedback Enucleation removes the eyeball. Laser photocoagulation destroys a piece of the retina. Photorefractive keratectomy corrects errors of refraction. Scleral buckling stabilizes a detaching retina. Question 38 1 / 1 point Which of the following surgical procedures stabilizes a detaching retina? Question options: A) enucleation B) laser photocoagulation C) scleral buckling D) photorefractive keratectomy Hide Feedback Scleral buckling stabilizes a detaching retina. Enucleation removes the eyeball. Laser photocoagulation destroys a piece of the retina. Photorefractive keratectomy reshapes the cornea. Question 39 1 / 1 point Which of the following surgical procedures corrects myopia? Question options: A) cryoretinopexy B) phacoemulsification C) LASIK D) strabotomy Hide Feedback LASIK stands for laser-assisted in-situ keratomileusis, a surgical procedure to correct myopia. Phacoemulsification treats cataracts. Cryoretinopexy treats retinal detachment. Strabotomy treats strabismus. Question 40 1 / 1 point Which of the following surgical procedures is the treatment for otosclerosis? Question options: A) cochlear implant B) myringotomy C) stapedectomy D) otoscopy Hide Feedback A stapedectomy treats otosclerosis. A myringotomy treats chronic ear infections. A cochlear implant treats sensorineural hearing loss. Otoscopy views inside the ear. Question 41 1 / 1 point Which of the following surgical procedures is the treatment for profound sensorineural hearing loss? Question options: A) cochlear implant B) otoscopy C) myringotomy D) stapedectomy Hide Feedback A cochlear implant treats sensorineural hearing loss. A myringotomy treats chronic ear infections. A stapedectomy treats otosclerosis. Otoscopy views inside the ear. Question 42 1 / 1 point Which abbreviation stands for a pathological condition of the ear? Question options: A) ENT B) ASL C) AD D) OM Hide Feedback OM stands for otitis media, a pathological condition. AD stands for right ear. ENT stands for ear, nose, and throat. ASL stands for American Sign Language. Question 43 1 / 1 point Which medication treats the nausea associated with an inner ear infection? Question options: A) mydriatic B) emulsifier C) antiemetic D) miotic Hide Feedback Antiemetics treat nausea. A miotic makes the pupil constrict. An emulsifier softens earwax. A mydriatic dilates the pupil. Question 44 1 / 1 point Which of the following categories of drugs is another name for a drug's trademark name? Question options: A) brand name B) nonproprietary name C) chemical name D) generic name Hide Feedback The brand name is also the trademark name. The generic or nonproprietary name is the official name for a drug. The chemical name describes the chemical formula or molecular structure of the drug. Question 45 0 / 1 point - B Which of the following abbreviations is NOT a parenteral route of drug administration? Question options: A) SC B) TO C) IV D) IM Question 46 1 / 1 point Which of the following terms means a response to a drug other than the desired effect? Question options: A) habituation B) potentiation C) side effect D) toxicity Hide Feedback A side effect is a response to a drug other than the desired effect. Habituation is the emotional dependence on a drug. Toxicity is the degree to which a substance is poisonous. Potentiation is when one drug boosts the effects of another drug. Question 47 1 / 1 point Which of the following terms means the degree to which a substance is poisonous? Question options: A) habituation B) toxicity C) side effect D) potentiation Hide Feedback Toxicity is the degree to which a substance is poisonous. Habituation is the emotional dependence on a drug. A side effect is a response to a drug other than the desired effect. Potentiation is when one drug boosts the effects of another drug. Question 48 1 / 1 point Which of the following terms means giving a second drug to boost the effect of another drug? Question options: A) side effect B) habituation C) toxicity D) potentiation Hide Feedback Potentiation is when one drug boosts the effects of another drug. A side effect is a response to a drug other than the desired effect. Habituation is the emotional dependence on a drug. Toxicity is the degree to which a substance is poisonous. Question 49 1 / 1 point Which of the following types of medications neutralizes poisons? Question options: A) prophylaxis B) broad spectrum C) antidote D) placebo Hide Feedback An antidote neutralizes poisons. A broad spectrum is a drug that is effective against a wide range of microorganisms. A placebo is an ineffective, harmless substance used to satisfy a patient's desire for medication. Prophylaxis is used to prevent disease. Question 50 1 / 1 point Which of the following types of medications is effective against a wide range of microorganisms? Question options: A) broad spectrum B) prophylaxis C) placebo D) antidote Hide Feedback A broad spectrum is a drug that is effective against a wide range of microorganisms. An antidote neutralizes poisons. A placebo is an ineffective, harmless substance used to satisfy a patient's desire for medication. Prophylaxis is used to prevent disease. Question 51 1 / 1 point Which type of medication is used to prevent a disease? Question options: A) antidote B) broad spectrum C) prophylaxis D) placebo Hide Feedback Prophylaxis is used to prevent disease. An antidote neutralizes poisons. A broad spectrum is a drug that is effective against a wide range of microorganisms. A placebo is an ineffective, harmless substance used to satisfy a patient's desire for medication. Question 52 1 / 1 point Which of the following is an example of an anxiety disorder? Question options: A) delusions B) amnesia C) pyromania D) phobias Hide Feedback Phobias are an example of an anxiety disorder. Amnesia is an example of a dissociative disorder. Pyromania is an example of an impulse control disorder. Delusions are an example of schizophrenia. Question 53 1 / 1 point Which of the following is a distortion of reality seen in schizophrenia? Question options: A) phobias B) delusions C) amnesia D) pyromania Hide Feedback Delusions are an example of schizophrenia. Phobias are an example of anxiety disorders. Amnesia is an example of dissociative disorder. Pyromania is an example of an impulse control disorder. Question 54 1 / 1 point Psychoanalysis is an example of which type of mental health treatment procedure? Question options: A) humanistic psychotherapy B) electroconvulsive therapy C) psychotherapy D) psychopharmacology Hide Feedback Psychoanalysis is an example of psychotherapy. The other choices are incorrect. Question 55 0 / 1 point - C Dementia is an example of what category of mental disease? Question options: A) factitious disorders B) eating disorders C) cognitive disorders D) mood disorders Question 56 1 / 1 point Anorexia nervosa is an example of what category of mental disease? Question options: A) mood disorders B) eating disorders C) factitious disorders D) cognitive disorders Hide Feedback Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder. Dementia is an example of a cognitive disorder. Bipolar disorder is an example of mood disorder. Malingering is a factitious disorder. Question 57 1 / 1 point Major depression is an example of what category of mental disease? Question options: A) eating disorders B) mood disorders C) factitious disorders D) cognitive disorders Hide Feedback Major depression is an example of a mood disorder. Dementia is an example of a cognitive disorder. Anorexia nervosa is an example of an eating disorder. Malingering is a factitious disorder. Question 58 1 / 1 point Which of the following personality disorders is characterized by an abnormal sense of self-importance? Question options: A) passive-aggressive B) antisocial C) narcissistic D) paranoid Hide Feedback Narcissistic personality disorder is characterized by an abnormal sense of self-importance. Paranoid personality disorder is characterized by exaggerated feelings of persecution. Antisocial personality disorder is characterized by behaviors that are against legal or social norms. Passive-aggressive personality disorder is characterized by indirect expression of hostility or anger. Question 59 1 / 1 point Which of the following diagnostic imaging techniques uses electromagnetic energy to produce a soft-tissue image? Question options: A) CT scan B) PET scan C) US D) MRI Hide Feedback An MRI uses electromagnetic energy to produce a soft-tissue image. A CT scan uses X-rays to produce a cross-sectional view. A PET scan uses an injection of radioactive glucose. A US uses high-frequency sound waves. Question 60 1 / 1 point Which of the following diagnostic imaging techniques uses high-frequency sound waves? Question options: A) US B) CT scan C) MRI D) PET scan Hide Feedback US uses high-frequency sound waves. A CT scan uses X-rays to produce a cross-sectional view. An MRI uses electromagnetic energy to produce a soft-tissue image. A PET scan uses an injection of radioactive glucose. Question 61 1 / 1 point Roentgenology is another name for what medical specialty? Question options: A) oncology B) radiology C) rehabilitation D) surgery Hide Feedback Roentgenology is another name for radiology. The other choices are not correct. Question 62 1 / 1 point What is the purpose of a film badge? Question options: A) It is part of a proper name tag. B) It measures the amount of X-rays to which a person has been exposed. C) none of these D) It lists which procedures a person is qualified to perform. Hide Feedback A film badge measures the amount of X-rays to which a person has been exposed. The other choices are incorrect. Question 63 1 / 1 point Contrast studies always use what kind of substance? Question options: A) radioactive B) radiolucent C) radiographic D) radiopaque Hide Feedback Contrast studies used radiopaque substances. The other choices are not correct. Question 64 1 / 1 point Which of the following is a function of occupational therapy rather than physical therapy? Question options: A) activities of daily living B) massage C) joint mobilization D) gait training Hide Feedback Occupational therapy focuses more on activities of daily living. Physical therapy performs joint mobilization, gait training, and massage. Question 65 1 / 1 point Which of the following terms means use of good posture and position while performing activities? Question options: A) body mechanics B) mobility C) rehabilitation D) ergonomics Hide Feedback Body mechanics means use of good posture and position while performing activities. Ergonomics is the study of human work. Mobility is the state of having normal movement of all body parts. Rehabilitation is a process of treatment to help a person with a disability attain maximum function. Question 66 1 / 1 point Which of the following terms means study of human work? Question options: A) ergonomics B) body mechanics C) rehabilitation D) mobility Hide Feedback Ergonomics is the study of human work. Body mechanics means use of good posture and position while performing activities. Mobility is the state of having normal movement of all body parts. Rehabilitation is a process of treatment to help a person with a disability attain maximum function. Question 67 1 / 1 point Which of the following terms means state of having normal movement of all body parts? Question options: A) mobility B) body mechanics C) ergonomics D) rehabilitation Hide Feedback Mobility is the state of having normal movement of all body parts. Body mechanics means use of good posture and position while performing activities. Ergonomics is the study of human work. Rehabilitation is a process of treatment to help a person with a disability attain maximum function. Question 68 1 / 1 point Which of the following terms means a process of treatment to help a person with a disability attain maximum function? Question options: A) mobility B) ergonomics C) rehabilitation D) body mechanics Hide Feedback Rehabilitation is a process of treatment to help a person with a disability attain maximum function. Body mechanics means use of good posture and position while performing activities. Ergonomics is the study of human work. Mobility is the state of having normal movement of all body parts. Question 69 1 / 1 point Which of the following terms refers to an artificial device? Question options: A) orthotics B) adaptive equipment C) prosthetic D) rehabilitation Hide Feedback A prosthetic refers to an artificial device. Orthotics refers to the use of splints and braces. Adaptive equipment refers to the modification of equipment to improve function. Rehabilitation is a process of treatment and exercise that can help a person with a disability attain maximum function. Question 70 1 / 1 point Which of the following terms refers to the use of splints and braces? Question options: A) adaptive equipment B) prosthetic C) orthotics D) rehabilitation Hide Feedback Orthotics refers to the use of splints and braces. A prosthetic refers to an artificial device. Adaptive equipment refers to the modification of equipment to improve function. Rehabilitation is a process of treatment that can help a person with a disability attain maximum function. Question 71 1 / 1 point Which of the following is used to restore movement to joints and soft tissue? Question options: A) hydrotherapy B) debridement C) mobilization D) gait training Hide Feedback Mobilization is used to restore movement to joints and soft tissue. Hydrotherapy uses water as a treatment. Debridement is the removal of dead or damaged tissue from a wound. Gait training is assisting a patient to learn to walk again or how to use an assistive device to walk. Question 72 1 / 1 point Which of the following terms means the use of heat, cold, or electricity to burn or cut tissues? Question options: A) cauterization B) analgesic C) hemostasis D) resection Hide Feedback Cauterization uses heat, cold, or electricity to burn or cut tissues. An analgesic is a medication to treat pain. Hemostasis is the stopping of blood flow. Resection is to excise. Question 73 1 / 1 point Which of the following terms means that the tumor has not extended beyond its original site? Question options: A) encapsulated B) remission C) oncogenic D) carcinoma in situ Hide Feedback Carcinoma in situ means that the tumor has not extended beyond its original site. Encapsulated means it is enclosed in a sheath of tissue. Remission means symptom free. Oncogenic means cancer causing. Question 74 1 / 1 point Which of the following terms refers to something that is cancer causing? Question options: A) carcinoma in situ B) remission C) encapsulated D) oncogenic Hide Feedback Oncogenic means cancer causing. Encapsulated means the tumor is enclosed in a sheath of tissue. Carcinoma in situ means the tumor has not extended beyond its original site. Remission means symptom free. Question 75 1 / 1 point Which of the following terms means the spread of cancer to another part of the body? Question options: A) mutation B) mortality C) metastasis D) morbidity Hide Feedback Metastasis is the spread of cancer to another part of the body. Morbidity is the number representing the sick persons in a population. Mortality is the number representing the deaths in a particular population. Mutation is a change from the original. Question 76 1 / 1 point Surgery performed on the abdomen for the purpose of determining if cancer is present is called: Question options: A) a protocol B) a staging laparotomy C) a biopsy D) cytologic testing Hide Feedback A staging laparotomy is to determine if cancer is present. Cytologic testing looks at cells to determine their structure and origin. A biopsy excises a piece of tissue to assist in diagnosis. Protocol is medications, surgeries, and treatments. Question 77 1 / 1 point Examination of cells to determine their structure and origin is called: Question options: A) cytologic testing B) a protocol C) a staging laparotomy D) a biopsy Hide Feedback Cytologic testing looks at cells to determine their structure and origin. A staging laparotomy is done on the abdomen to determine the extent and staging of a tumor. A biopsy is an excision of a small piece of tissue for examination. Protocol is the medication, surgeries, and treatments for a patient. Question 78 1 / 1 point The removal of a small piece of tissue for microscopic examination to assist in a diagnosis is called: Question options: A) cytologic testing B) a biopsy C) a protocol D) a staging laparotomy Hide Feedback A biopsy excises a piece of tissue for examination. A staging laparotomy is performed on the abdomen to determine the extent and staging of a tumor. Cytologic testing examines cells to determine their origin and structure. A protocol is the patient's medications, surgeries, and treatments. Question 79 1 / 1 point Treatment designed to reduce the intensity of painful symptoms, but which does not produce a cure is called: Question options: A) radioactive implant B) radiation therapy C) radical surgery D) palliative therapy Hide Feedback Palliative therapy treats symptoms, but does not cure. Radiation therapy interferes with a tumor's ability to multiply. Radical surgery removes as much tissue as possible. A radioactive implant embeds radiation directly into the tissue. Question 80 1 / 1 point Extensive surgery to remove as much tissue associated with a tumor as possible is called: Question options: A) radical surgery B) palliative therapy C) radioactive implant D) radiation therapy Hide Feedback Radical surgery is extensive surgery. Palliative therapy is designed to reduce symptoms, but not produce a cure. Radiation therapy exposes tumors to radiation. A radioactive implant embeds radiation directly into the tissue.

A patient had surgery for a tumor, and the surgeon came out and said the tumor was encapsulated. What does this mean?

The tumor was enclosed in a sheath of tissue, which kept it from spreading.

A KUB is an x-ray of the abdomen.

True

A psychiatrist is an MD.

True

Certain drugs are controlled substances if they have the potential for being addictive.

True

Fluoroscopy uses x-rays

True

lapar/o

abdomen

habilitat/o

ability

para-

abnormal

trans-

across

-ion

action

prosthet/o

addition

post-

after

re-

again

anti-

against

contra-

against

aer/o

air

Relives pain

analgestic

Which disorder is characterized by persistent worry and apprehension?

anxiety

dis-

apart

-orexia

appetite

peri-

around

poster/o

back

pre-

before

pro-

before

Strengthening the immune system to attack cancerous cells is:

immunotherapy

enter/o

intestine

Skin testing for TB or allergies uses an what injection

intradermal

en-

inward

in-

inward

ino-

inward

phob/o

irrational fear

To steal

klept/o

hydr/o

water

endo-

within

intra-

within

de-

without

erg/o

work