MICRO CH 11-17

T/F: 1) For a particular disease at a specific time period, morbidity rates should always be equal or greater than mortality rates.

TRUE

T/F: 1) The basic mechanism of viral multiplication is similar for all viruses.

TRUE

T/F: 10) Both normal and transient flora can become opportunistic pathogens.

TRUE

T/F: 10) Ingestion of certain lactic acid bacteria (LABs) has been shown to be beneficial for function and health of the intestinal tract.

TRUE

T/F: 10) Many pathogens use the same portal for entry and exit from the body.

TRUE

T/F: 10) Most drugs that interfere with viral multiplication also interfere with host cell function.

TRUE

T/F: 2) Biofilms provide pathogens with an adhesion mechanism and aid in resistance to antimicrobial agents.

TRUE

T/F: 2) Cytokines are protein-based chemical messengers that allow for communication between cells of the immune system.

TRUE

T/F: 2) Microorganisms that are members of the normal microbiota are also known to cause disease.

TRUE

T/F: 2) Testing the effectiveness of a new drug for anthrax would be best performed as an experimental study.

TRUE

T/F: 2) Two distinguishing factors of the epsilonproteobacteria that they are motile and microaerophilic.

TRUE

T/F: 3) Maturation of stem cells into mature blood cells occurs in the red bone marrow.

TRUE

T/F: 3) The M protein enhances the virulence of Streptococcus by preventing phagocytosis.

TRUE

T/F: 5) Cytokine storms negatively impact human health.

TRUE

T/F: 5) Histamine and kinins cause increased blood flow and capillary permeability.

TRUE

T/F: 5) Positive sense RNA strands of viruses are treated like mRNA inside the host cell.

TRUE

T/F: 5) The Limulus amoebocyte assay is used to detect minute amounts of endotoxin in drugs and medical devices.

TRUE

T/F: 5) The deinococci can be categorized as extremophiles.

TRUE

T/F: 6) Aspirin alleviates pain, inflammation, and fever by inhibiting prostaglandins.

TRUE

T/F: 6) Cytopathic effects, such as inclusion bodies and syncytium formation, are the visible signs of viral infections.

TRUE

T/F: 6) Dogs do not get measles because their cells lack the correct receptor sites for that virus.

TRUE

T/F: 7) A host is not considered diseased until an infection changes one's state of health.

TRUE

T/F: 7) Ergot and aflatoxin are toxins sometimes found in grains contaminated with fungi.

TRUE

T/F: 7) The majority of bacterial species on Earth have not been successfully cultivated.

TRUE

T/F: 9) A segmented genome can result in antigenic shift.

TRUE

T/F: 9) Currently, no members of Archaea have been linked to human disease.

TRUE

T/F: 9) Infections with some viruses may induce chromosomal changes that alter the growth properties of host cells.

TRUE

T/F: 9) The implementation of vaccinations occurred prior to experimental support for the germ theory of disease.

TRUE

T/F: Arthropod vectors are blood-sucking animals such as ticks, lice, and fleas that transmit microbial pathogens.

TRUE

T/F: Both the cellular slime molds and the plasmodial slime molds are members of the phylum Amoebozoa.

TRUE

T/F: Cercariae, metacercaria, redia, and sporocysts are all life cycle stages of trematodes.

TRUE

T/F: Plasmogamy, karyogamy, and meiosis are stages of the fungal sexual life cycle.

TRUE

T/F: Some species of dinoflagellates produce neurotoxins that cause fish kills and red tides.

TRUE

T/F: The sporozoite, merozoite, gametocyte, and ring stages are all part of the Plasmodium life cycle.

TRUE

1-Arthroconidium 5-Chlamydoconidium 2-Ascospore 6-Conidiospore 3-Basidiospore 7-Sporangiospore 4-Blastoconidium 8-Zygospore 10) In Table 12.1, which of these spores are asexual spores? A) 1, 4, 5, 6, 7 B) 2, 3, 6, 8 C) 1, 3, 5, 8 D) 2, 4, 6, 7, 8 E) All of the spores are asexual.

A) 1 4 5 6 7

9) Which of the following is NOT a membrane-disrupting toxin? A) A-B toxin B) hemolysin C) leukocidin D) streptolysin O E) streptolysin S

A) A-B toxin

5) TLRs attach to all of the following EXCEPT A) AMPs. B) flagellin. C) LPS. D) PAMPs. E) peptidoglycan.

A) AMPs.

30) The CDC is located in A) Atlanta, GA. B) Washington, DC. C) New York City, NY. D) Los Angeles, CA. E) Chicago, IL.

A) Atlanta, GA.

7) Which of the following do you expect to be MOST resistant to high temperatures? A) Bacillus subtilis B) Eschericia coli C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae D) Staphylococcus aureus E) Streptococcocus pyogenes

A) Bacillus subtilis

34) Which of the following destroys virus-infected cells? A) CTL B) Treg C) TH D) dendritic cells E) B cells

A) CTL

30) All of the following bacteria release endotoxin EXCEPT A) Clostridium botulinum. B) Salmonella typhi. C) Neisseria meningitidis. D) Proteus vulgaris. E) Haemophilus influenzae.

A) Clostridium botulinum.

45) You see acid-fast oocysts in a fecal sample from a patient who has diarrhea. What is the MOST likely cause? A) Cryptosporidium B) diatoms C) Entamoeba D) Giardia E) Taenia

A) Cryptosporidium

34) You have isolated a prokaryotic cell. The first step in identification is a(n) A) Gram stain. B) lactose fermentation test. C) endospore stain. D) flagella stain. E) DNA fingerprint.

A) Gram stain.

20) The most abundant class of antibodies in serum is A) IgG. B) IgM. C) IgA. D) IgD. E) IgE.

A) IgG.

18) In addition to IgG, the antibodies that can fix complement are A) IgM. B) IgA. C) IgD. D) IgE. E) None of the answers is correct.

A) IgM.

5) Which of the following statements regarding lichens is FALSE? A) Lichens are a mutualistic relationship between a fungus and a protozoan. B) Lichens represent a mutualistic relationship between a fungus and an alga. C) Lichens are often the first life form to colonize rock or soil. D) The algal partner produces carbohydrates that are absorbed by the fungal partner. E) The fungal partner provides a means of attachment and protects the algal partner from desiccation.

A) Lichens are a mutualistic relationship between a fungus and a protozoan.

CHAPTER 12 1) Which of the following statements regarding fungi is FALSE? A) Most fungi are pathogenic for humans. B) Fungi are eukaryotic heterotrophs. C) Fungi reproduce by forming asexual or sexual spores. D) Most fungi grow well in acidic culture condition. E) Fungi tolerate low moisture conditions.

A) Most fungi are pathogenic for humans.

18) All of the following organisms produce exotoxins EXCEPT A) Salmonella typhi. B) Clostridium botulinum. C) Corynebacterium diphtheriae. D) Clostridium tetani. E) Staphylococcus aureus.

A) Salmonella typhi.

24) Which of the following bacteria are responsible for more infections and more different kinds of infections? A) Streptococcus B) Staphylococcus C) Salmonella D) Pseudomonas E) Neisseria

A) Streptococcus

34) A lytic virus has infected a patient. Which of the following would best describe what is happening inside the patient? A) The virus is causing the death of the infected cells in the patient. B) The virus is not killing any cells in the host. C) The virus is incorporating its nucleic acid with that of the patient's cells. D) The virus is slowly killing the patient's cells. E) The virus is infecting cells and then releasing only small amounts of virus.

A) The virus is causing the death of the infected cells in the patient.

24) Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) There are at least thirty complement proteins. B) All of the complement proteins are constantly active in serum. C) Factors B, D, and P cause cytolysis. D) Complement activity is antigen-specific. E) Complement increases after immunization.

A) There are at least thirty complement proteins.

12) Which of the following bacteria is gram-negative? A) Treponema B) Corynebacterium C) Bacillus D) Staphylococcus E) Mycobacterium

A) Treponema

30) In Figure 17.2, which areas represent antigen-binding sites? A) a and b B) a and c C) b and c D) c and d E) b and d

A) a and b

https://www.easynotecards.com/uploads/602/56/4fe05dde_15a92d162b2__8000_00000895.PNG 29) In Figure 17.2, which areas are different for all IgM antibodies? A) a and b B) a and c C) b and c D) c and d

A) a and b

37) All of the following pertain to fever EXCEPT that it A) accelerates microbial growth by increasing iron absorption from the digestive tract. B) stimulates T lymphocyte activity. C) is caused by interleukin-1 and TNF-alpha coming into contact with the hypothalamus. D) intensifies the effect of antiviral interferons. E) can be initiated by specific types of pathogens.

A) accelerates microbial growth by increasing iron absorption from the digestive tract.

36) Cytokines released by TH1 cells A) activate CD8+cells to CTLs. B) convert TH1 cells to TH2 cells. C) convert TH2 cells to TH1 cells. D) kill parasites. E) convert B cells to T cells.

A) activate CD8+cells to CTLs.

29) Activation of C3a results in A) acute inflammation. B) increased blood vessel permeability. C) opsonization. D) attraction of phagocytes. E) cell lysis.

A) acute inflammation.

14) Plasma cells are activated by a(n) A) antigen. B) T cell. C) B cell. D) memory cell. E) APC.

A) antigen.

2) The ability of some microbes, such as Trypanosoma or Giardia to alter their surface molecules and evade destruction by the host's antibodies is called A) antigenic variation. B) lysogenic conversion. C) virulence. D) cytopathic effect. E) cytocidal effect.

A) antigenic variation.

21) Symptoms of disease differ from signs of disease in that symptoms A) are changes felt by the patient. B) are changes observed by the physician. C) are specific for a particular disease. D) always occur as part of a syndrome. E) None of the answers is correct.

A) are changes felt by the patient.

35) Which of the following is a nucleated, unicellular organism that, if you changed the incubation temperature, would form filaments with conidiospores? A) ascomycete B) cellular slime mold C) euglenozoa D) tapeworm E) plasmodial slime mold

A) ascomycete

4) Which of the following is NOT used as a criterion to classify viruses? A) biochemical tests B) morphology C) nucleic acid D) size E) number of capsomeres

A) biochemical tests

17) Botulism is caused by ingestion of a proteinaceous exotoxin; therefore, it can easily be prevented by A) boiling food prior to consumption. B) administering antibiotics to patients. C) not eating canned food. D) preventing fecal contamination of food. E) filtering food.

A) boiling food prior to consumption.

6) Which of the following diseases is NOT spread by droplet infection? A) botulism B) tuberculosis C) measles D) the common cold E) diphtheria

A) botulism

32) Which of the following bacterial components would most likely result in B cell stimulation by T-independent antigens? A) capsule B) flagellum C) pili D) ribosome E) plasmid

A) capsule

6) Which of the following statements is NOT a possible outcome of antigen-antibody reaction? A) clonal deletion B) activation of complement C) opsonization D) ADCC E) agglutination

A) clonal deletion

12) Which of the following is found normally in serum? A) complement B) interferon C) histamine D) leukocytosis-promoting factor E) TLRs

A) complement

32) After ingesting a pathogen, lysosomal enzymes produce all of the following EXCEPT A) complement. B) O2-. C) H2O2. D) OH. E) HOCl.

A) complement.

https://www.easynotecards.com/uploads/732/72/_4ff9ab82_1640ac44790__8000_00002250.PNG 39) Table 15.1 shows the ID50 for Staphylococcus aureus in wounds with and without the administration of ampicillin before surgery. Based on the data, the administration of ampicillin before surgery A) decreases the risk of staphylococcal infection. B) increases the risk of staphylococcal infection. C) has no effect on risk of infection. D) replaces tetracycline. E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

A) decreases the risk of staphylococcal infection.

42) Several inherited deficiencies in the complement system occur in humans. Which of the following would be the MOST severe? A) deficiency of C3 B) deficiency of C5 C) deficiency of C6 D) deficiency of C7 E) deficiency of C8

A) deficiency of C3

39) Thymic selection A) destroys T cells that do not recognize self-molecules of MHC. B) destroys B cells that make antibodies against self. C) destroys MHC molecules. D) destroys CD4+cells that attack self. E) activates B cells.

A) destroys T cells that do not recognize self-molecules of MHC.

43) Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched? A) elementary body & Escherichia B) endospore & Bacillus C) endospore & Clostridium D) heterocyst & cyanobacteria E) myxospore & gliding bacteria

A) elementary body & Escherichia

43) ADCC is a process that is most effective in destroying A) eukaryotic pathogens. B) prions. C) extracellular viruses. D) bacterial pathogens. E) bacterial toxins.

A) eukaryotic pathogens.

42) Ringworm is caused by a(n) A) fungus. B) cestode. C) nematode. D) protozoan. E) trematode.

A) fungus.

24) Lysogenic bacteriophages contribute to bacterial virulence because bacteriophages A) give new gene sequences to the host bacteria. B) produce toxins. C) carry plasmids. D) kill the bacteria, causing release of endotoxins. E) kill human cells.

A) give new gene sequences to the host bacteria.

14) Which of the following is an effect of opsonization? A) increased adherence of phagocytes to microorganisms B) increased margination of phagocytes C) increased diapedesis of phagocytes D) inflammation E) cytolysis

A) increased adherence of phagocytes to microorganisms

9) CD4+ T cells are activated by A) interaction between CD4+and MHC II. B) interaction between TCRs and MHC II. C) cytokines released by dendritic cells. D) cytokines released by B cells. E) complement.

A) interaction between CD4+and MHC II.

13) Each of the following is an effect of complement activation EXCEPT A) interference with viral replication. B) bacterial cell lysis. C) opsonization. D) increased phagocytic activity. E) increased blood vessel permeability.

A) interference with viral replication.

35) Some viruses, such as human herpesvirus 1, infect a cell without causing symptoms. These are called A) latent viruses. B) lytic viruses. C) phages. D) slow viruses. E) unconventional viruses.

A) latent viruses.

27) The alternative pathway for complement activation is initiated by A) lipid-carbohydrate complexes and C3. B) C5-C9. C) antigen-antibody reactions. D) factors released from phagocytes. E) factors released from damaged tissues.

A) lipid-carbohydrate complexes and C3.

26) Bacteriophages derive all of the following from the host cell EXCEPT A) lysozyme. B) tRNA. C) amino acids. D) nucleotides. E) ATP.

A) lysozyme.

CHAPTER 15 1) The most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens is the A) mucous membranes of the respiratory tract. B) mucous membranes of the gastrointestinal tract. C) skin. D) parenteral route. E) All of these portals are used equally.

A) mucous membranes of the respiratory tract.

7) The definition of lysogeny is A) phage DNA is incorporated into host cell DNA. B) lysis of the host cell due to a phage. C) the period during replication when virions are not present. D) when the burst time takes an unusually long time. E) attachment of a phage to a cell.

A) phage DNA is incorporated into host cell DNA.

19) Escherichia coli belongs to the A) proteobacteria. B) gram-positive bacteria. C) green sulfur bacteria. D) spirochetes. E) actinomycetes.

A) proteobacteria.

4) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Neisseria? A) requires X and V factors B) cocci C) gram-negative D) oxidase-positive E) Some species are human pathogens.

A) requires X and V factors

39) The following steps occur during multiplication of retroviruses. Which is the fourth step? A) synthesis of double-stranded DNA B) synthesis of +RNA C) attachment D) penetration E) uncoating

A) synthesis of double-stranded DNA

34) Injectable drugs are tested for endotoxins by A) the Limulus amoebocyte lysate test. B) counting the viable bacteria. C) filtering out the cells. D) looking for turbidity. E) culturing bacteria.

A) the Limulus amoebocyte lysate test.

5) All of the following contribute to a pathogen's invasiveness EXCEPT A) toxins. B) capsules. C) cell wall components. D) hyaluronidase. E) coagulases

A) toxins.

34) In which of the following diseases can gender be considered a viable predisposing factor? A) urinary tract infections B) pneumonia C) salmonellosis D) tetanus E) anthrax

A) urinary tract infections

25) Both Beggiatoa and the purple sulfur bacteria use H2S. These bacteria differ in that Beggiatoa A) uses H2S for an energy source. B) uses H2S for a carbon source. C) uses light energy. D) belongs to the gammaproteobacteria. E) is a heterotroph.

A) uses H2S for an energy source.

10) Cytopathic effects are changes in host cells due to A) viral infections. B) protozoan infections. C) fungal infections. D) bacterial infections. E) helminthic infections.

A) viral infections.

29) Which of the following places these items in the correct order for DNA-virus replication? Maturation DNA synthesis Transcription Translation A) 1; 2; 3; 4 B) 2; 3; 4; 1 C) 3; 4; 1; 2 D) 4; 1; 2; 3 E) 4; 3; 2; 1

B) 2; 3; 4; 1

43) Yeast infections are caused by A) Aspergillus. B) Candida albicans. C) Histoplasma. D) Penicillium. E) Saccharomyces cerevisiae.

B) Candida albicans.

42) Which of the following is most likely a product of an early gene? A) capsid proteins B) DNA polymerase C) envelope proteins D) spike proteins E) lysozyme

B) DNA polymerase

20) Which one of the following bacteria does NOT belong with the others? A) Bacillus B) Escherichia C) Lactobacillus D) Staphylococcus E) Streptococcus

B) Escherichia

19) Large antibodies that agglutinate antigens are A) IgG. B) IgM. C) IgA. D) IgD. E) IgE.

B) IgM.

https://www.easynotecards.com/uploads/733/73/_4ff9ab82_1640ac44790__8000_00002252.PNG 40) Which organism in Table 15.2 most easily causes an infection? A) coli O157:H7 B) Legionella pneumophila C) Shigella D) Treponema pallidum E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

B) Legionella pneumophila

Which stage immediately precedes the adult? A) Cercaria B) Metacercaria C) Miracidium D) Redia E) Proglottid

B) Metacercaria

11) Which of the following lacks a cell wall? A) Borrelia B) Mycoplasma C) Mycobacterium D) Clostridium E) Nocardia

B) Mycoplasma

12) Which of the following statements regarding protozoa is FALSE? A) Protozoa are unicellular eukaryotes. B) Nearly all protozoa cause disease. C) Most protozoa reproduce asexually. D) Protozoa are common in water and soil. E) Some protozoan pathogens are transmitted by arthropod vectors.

B) Nearly all protozoa cause disease.

46) ________ were first identified in cancer-causing viruses and can induce ________ in infected cells. A) Herpes viruses; lesions B) Oncogenes; transformation C) T antigens; lysis D) Glycoprotein spikes; syncytia formation E) Segmented genomes; reassortment

B) Oncogenes; transformation

26) All of the following are characteristic of algae EXCEPT which ONE of the following? A) Most are photoautotrophs. B) They are currently classified as plants. C) They may be unicellular or multicellular. D) Some produce harmful toxins. E) They mostly live in aquatic habitats.

B) They are currently classified as plants.

19) Which of the following statements about fixed macrophages is FALSE? A) They are found in certain tissues and organs. B) They develop from neutrophils. C) They are cells of the mononuclear phagocytic system. D) They are mature monocytes. E) They gather at sites of infection.

B) They develop from neutrophils.

25) Which of the following is the best definition of antigen? A) something foreign in the body B) a chemical that elicits an antibody response and can combine with these antibodies C) a chemical that combines with antibodies D) a pathogen E) a protein that combines with antibodies

B) a chemical that elicits an antibody response and can combine with these antibodies

44) In response to the presence of endotoxin, phagocytes secrete tumor necrosis factor. This causes A) the disease to subside. B) a decrease in blood pressure. C) a fever. D) a gram-negative infection. E) an increase in red blood cells.

B) a decrease in blood pressure.

45) What contributes to antigenic shift in influenza viruses? A) worldwide distribution of the virus B) a segmented genome C) attachment spikes D) ease of virus transmission E) different virus subtypes

B) a segmented genome

Situation 14.1 During a six-month period, 239 cases of pneumonia occurred in a town of 300 people. A clinical case was defined as fever ≥ 39°C lasting >2 days with three or more symptoms (i.e., chills, sweats, severe headache, cough, aching muscles/joints, fatigue, or feeling ill). A laboratory-confirmed case was defined as a positive result for antibodies against Coxiella burnetii. Before the outbreak, 2000 sheep were kept northwest of the town. Of the 20 sheep tested from the flock, 15 were positive for C. burnetii antibodies. Wind blew from the northwest, and rainfall was 0.5 cm compared with 7 to 10 cm during each of the previous three years. 36) Situation 14.1 is an example of A) human reservoirs. B) a zoonosis. C) a nonliving reservoir. D) a vector. E) a focal infection.

B) a zoonosis.

3) A nosocomial infection is A) always present, but is inapparent at the time of hospitalization. B) acquired during the course of hospitalization. C) always caused by medical personnel. D) only a result of surgery. E) always caused by pathogenic bacteria.

B) acquired during the course of hospitalization.

13) Which of the following form conidiospores? A) endospore-forming gram-positive rods and cocci B) actinomycetes and related organisms C) rickettsias D) anaerobic gram-negative cocci E) spiral and curved bacteria

B) actinomycetes and related organisms

40) The yeast Candida albicans does not normally cause disease because of A) symbiotic bacteria. B) antagonistic bacteria. C) parasitic bacteria. D) commensal bacteria. E) other fungi.

B) antagonistic bacteria.

https://www.easynotecards.com/uploads/817/37/_a272576_15a3a3ad1a0__8000_00000018.PNG 9) In Figure 13.1, which structure is a complex virus? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) All of the structures are complex viruses.

B) b

23) A chill is a sign that A) body temperature is falling. B) body temperature is rising. C) body temperature is not changing. D) the metabolic rate is decreasing. E) blood vessels are dilating.

B) body temperature is rising.

24) The mechanism whereby an enveloped virus leaves a host cell is called A) transduction. B) budding. C) abduction. D) lysogeny. E) penetration.

B) budding.

4) Seventeen patients in ten hospitals had cutaneous infections caused by Rhizopus. In all seventeen patients, Elastoplast bandages were placed over sterile gauze pads to cover wounds. Fourteen of the patients had surgical wounds, two had venous line insertion sites, and one had a bite wound. Lesions present when the bandages were removed ranged from vesiculopustular eruptions to ulcerations and skin necrosis requiring debridement. Fungi are more likely than bacteria to contaminate bandages because they... A) are aerobic. B) can tolerate low-moisture conditions. C) prefer a neutral environment (pH 7). D) have a fermentative metabolism. E) cannot tolerate high osmotic pressure.

B) can tolerate low-moisture conditions.

33) You observe a mass of amoeba-like cells that swarm together, form a stalk, and produce spores. This is a(n) A) ascomycete. B) cellular slime mold. C) Euglenozoa. D) tapeworm. E) plasmodial slime mold.

B) cellular slime mold.

33) Thiobacillus oxidizes inorganic sulfur compounds and reduces CO2. This bacterium is a A) chemoheterotroph. B) chemoautotroph. C) photoautotroph. D) gammaproteobacteria. E) photoheterotroph.

B) chemoautotroph.

25) Which of the following is mismatched? A) diapedesis — movement of leukocytes between capillary walls cells out of blood and into tissue B) chemotaxis — chemical degradation inside a phagolysosome C) abcess — a cavity created by tissue damage and filled with pus D) pus — tissue debris and dead phagocytes in a white or yellow fluid E) scab — dried blood clot over injured tissue

B) chemotaxis — chemical degradation inside a phagolysosome

21) An example of a latent viral infection is A) subacute sclerosing panencephalitis. B) cold sores. C) influenza. D) smallpox. E) mumps.

B) cold sores.

5) Which of the following is NOT utilized to culture viruses? A) laboratory animals B) culture media C) embryonated eggs D) animal cell cultures E) bacterial cultures

B) culture media

13) In mid-December, a woman with insulin-dependent diabetes who had been on prednisone fell and received an abrasion on the dorsal side of her right hand. She was placed on penicillin. By the end of January, the ulcer had not healed, and she was referred to a plastic surgeon. On January 30, a swab of the wound was cultured at 35C on blood agar. On the same day, a smear was made for Gram staining. The Gram stain showed large (10 m) cells. Brownish, waxy colonies grew on the blood agar. Slide cultures set up on February 1 and incubated at 25C showed septate hyphae and single conidia. The most likely cause of the infection is a... A) gram-negative bacterium. B) dimorphic fungus. C) parasitic alga. D) yeast. E) protozoan.

B) dimorphic fungus.

26) The nonsulfur photosynthetic bacteria use organic compounds as A) carbon sources. B) electron donors to reduce CO2. C) energy sources. D) electron acceptors. E) oxygen sources.

B) electron donors to reduce CO2.

35) Which of the following is involved in resistance to parasitic helminths? A) basophils B) eosinophils C) lymphocytes D) monocytes E) neutrophils

B) eosinophils

https://www.easynotecards.com/uploads/582/24/_14c964b3_15a7e09fc67__8000_00000284.PNG 44) The graph in Figure 14.3 shows the incidence of polio in the United States. The period between 1945 and 1955 indicates a(n) A) endemic level. B) epidemic level. C) sporadic infection. D) communicable disease. E) pandemic.

B) epidemic level.

8) Which of the following definitions is INCORRECT? A) endemic: a disease that is constantly present in a population B) epidemic: a disease that is endemic across the world C) pandemic: a disease that affects a large number of people in the world in a short time D) sporadic: a disease that affects a population occasionally E) incidence: number of new cases of a disease

B) epidemic: a disease that is endemic across the world.

22) The science that deals with when diseases occur and how they are transmitted is called A) ecology. B) epidemiology. C) communicable disease. D) morbidity and mortality. E) public health.

B) epidemiology.

21) All of the following are effects of histamine EXCEPT A) vasodilation. B) fever. C) swelling. D) redness. E) pain.

B) fever.

18) The swelling associated with inflammation decreases when the fluid A) returns to the blood. B) goes into lymph capillaries. C) is excreted in urine. D) is lost as perspiration. E) is transported into macrophages.

B) goes into lymph capillaries.

37) Antibiotics can lead to septic shock if used to treat A) viral infections. B) gram-negative bacterial infections. C) gram-positive bacterial infections. D) protozoan infections. E) helminth infestations.

B) gram-negative bacterial infections.

30) Salmonella, Shigella, Yersinia, and Serratia are all A) pathogens. B) gram-negative facultatively anaerobic rods. C) gram-positive aerobic cocci. D) fermentative. E) endospore-forming bacteria.

B) gram-negative facultatively anaerobic rods.

30) A viral species is a group of viruses that A) has the same morphology and nucleic acid. B) has the same genetic information and ecological niche. C) infects the same cells and cause the same disease. D) cannot be defined.

B) has the same genetic information and ecological niche.

21) Three weeks after a river rafting trip, three family members experienced symptoms of coughing, fever, and chest pain. During the rafting trip, the family had consumed crayfish that they caught along the river banks. An examination of the patients' sputum revealed helminth eggs, and serum samples were positive for antibodies to Paragonimus. All of the family members recovered following treatment with praziquantel. In the Paragonimus life cycle, A) the crayfish are the definitive host and humans are the intermediate host. B) humans are the definitive host and crayfish are the intermediate host. C) both humans and crayfish are intermediate hosts. D) both humans and crayfish are definitive hosts. E) the source of the infection was the river water.

B) humans are the definitive host and crayfish are the intermediate host.

41) If a prodromal period exists for a certain disease, it should occur prior to A) incubation. B) illness. C) decline. D) convalescence.

B) illness.

8) A viroid is a(n) A) complete, infectious virus particle. B) infectious piece of RNA without a capsid. C) capsid without nucleic acid. D) provirus. E) infectious protein.

B) infectious piece of RNA without a capsid.

CHAPTER 16 1) Innate immunity A) is slower than adaptive immunity in responding to pathogens. B) is nonspecific and present at birth. C) involves a memory component. D) involves T cells and B cells. E) provides increased susceptibility to disease.

B) is nonspecific and present at birth.

42) Mycoplasmas differ from other bacteria in that they A) grow inside host cells. B) lack a cell wall. C) are acid-fast. D) are motile. E) are gram-negative.

B) lack a cell wall.

35) Actinomycetes differ from fungi in that actinomycetes A) are chemoheterotrophs. B) lack a membrane-bounded nucleus. C) require light. D) are decomposers. E) cause disease.

B) lack a membrane-bounded nucleus.

29) Giardia and Trichomonas are unusual eukaryotes because they A) are motile. B) lack mitochondria. C) lack nuclei. D) do not produce cysts. E) do produce cysts.

B) lack mitochondria.

41) An antibody's Fc region can be bound by A) antibodies. B) macrophages. C) T helper cells. D) B cells. E) CTLs.

B) macrophages.

40) The lectin pathway for complement action is initiated by A) mannose on host membranes. B) mannose on the surface of microbes. C) lectins of the microbe. D) gram-negative cell walls. E) gram-positive cell walls.

B) mannose on the surface of microbes.

45) Which non-specific defense mechanism is mismatched with its associated body structure or body fluid? A) lysozyme — tears and saliva B) mucociliary escalator — intestines C) very acidic pH — stomach D) keratin and tightly packed cells — skin E) cerumen and sebum — ear

B) mucociliary escalator — intestines

3) What type of immunity results from recovery from mumps? A) innate immunity B) naturally acquired active immunity C) naturally acquired passive immunity D) artificially acquired active immunity E) artificially acquired passive immunity

B) naturally acquired active immunity

32) Borrelia is classified as a spirochete because it A) is aerobic. B) possesses an axial filament. C) is a rod. D) is a pathogen. E) is transmitted by ticks.

B) possesses an axial filament.

22) A virus's ability to infect an animal cell depends primarily upon the A) host cell's ability to phagocytize viral particles. B) presence of receptor sites on the cell membrane. C) type of viral nucleic acid. D) enzymatic activity of a host cell. E) presence of pili on the host cell wall.

B) presence of receptor sites on the cell membrane.

18) An infectious protein is a A) bacteriophage. B) prion. C) retrovirus. D) viroid. E) papovavirus.

B) prion.

35) Endotoxins in sterile injectable drugs could cause A) infection. B) septic shock symptoms. C) giant cell formation. D) nerve damage. E) no damage, because they are sterile.

B) septic shock symptoms.

44) IL-2, produced by TH cells, A) activates macrophages. B) stimulates THcell maturation. C) causes phagocytosis. D) activates antigen-presenting cells. E) activates TCcells to CTLs.

B) stimulates THcell maturation.

42) Bacteria that cause periodontal disease have adhesins for receptors on streptococci that colonize on teeth. This indicates that A) streptococci get bacterial infections. B) streptococcal colonization is necessary for periodontal disease. C) bacteria that cause periodontal disease adhere to gums and teeth. D) bacteria that cause periodontal disease adhere to teeth. E) streptococci cause periodontal disease.

B) streptococcal colonization is necessary for periodontal disease.

17) Which of the following would be the first step in biosynthesis of a virus with a - (minus) strand of RNA? A) synthesis of DNA from an RNA template B) synthesis of double-stranded RNA from an RNA template C) synthesis of double-stranded RNA from a DNA template D) transcription of mRNA from DNA E) synthesis of DNA from a DNA template

B) synthesis of double-stranded RNA from an RNA template

4) The ID50 is A) a measure of pathogenicity. B) the dose that will cause an infection in 50 percent of the test population. C) the dose that will kill some of the test population. D) the dose that will cause an infection in some of the test population. E) the dose that will kill 50 percent of the test population.

B) the dose that will cause an infection in 50 percent of the test population.

28) Which of the following is an example of direct damage due to bacterial infection? A) the uncontrolled muscle contractions in Clostridium tetani infection B) the invasion and lysis of intestinal cells by coli C) the hemolysis of red blood cells in a staphylococcal infection D) the fever, nausea, and low blood pressure in a Salmonella infection E) the excessive secretion of fluids in a Vibrio cholera infection

B) the invasion and lysis of intestinal cells by coli

https://www.easynotecards.com/uploads/599/53/4fe05dde_15a92d162b2__8000_00000889.PNG 23) In Figure 17.1, the arrow at time (c) indicates A) the time of exposure to the same antigen as at time (a). B) the secondary response. C) the primary response. D) exposure to a new antigen. E) the T-cell response.

B) the secondary response.

26) All of the following are part of the mechanism of action of alpha and beta interferons EXCEPT A) they bind to the surface of uninfected cells. B) they are effective for long periods. C) they initiate manufacture of antiviral proteins. D) they disrupt stages of viral multiplication. E) they initiate transcription.

B) they are effective for long periods.

39) The cells of plasmodial slime molds can grow to several centimeters in diameter because A) they have organelles. B) they distribute nutrients by cytoplasmic streaming. C) the large surface can absorb nutrients. D) they form spores. E) they have a mouth to ingest nutrients.

B) they distribute nutrients by cytoplasmic streaming.

43) Nonpathogenic Vibrio cholerae can acquire the cholera toxin gene by A) phagocytosis. B) transduction. C) conjugation. D) transformation. E) infecting a pathogenic Vibrio cholerae.

B) transduction.

10) You have isolated a bacterium that grows in a medium containing an organic substrate and nitrate in the absence of oxygen. The nitrate is reduced to nitrogen gas. You can be sure that this bacterium is A) gram-positive. B) using anaerobic respiration. C) a chemoautotroph. D) a photoautotroph. E) a photoheterotroph.

B) using anaerobic respiration.

38) At a minimum, the human immune system is capable of recognizing approximately how many different antigens? A) 105 B) 1010 C) 1015 D) 1020 E) 1025

C) 1015

16) Which of the following pairs are mismatched? 1.arthroconidium — formed by fragmentation 2.sporangiospore — formed within hyphae 3.conidiospore — formed in a chain 4.blastoconidium — formed from a bud 5.chlamydoconidium — formed in a sac A) 1 and 2 B) 2 and 3 C) 2 and 5 D) 3 and 4 E) 4 and 5

C) 2 and 5

1-Arthroconidium 5-Chlamydoconidium 2-Ascospore 6-Conidiospore 3-Basidiospore 7-Sporangiospore 4-Blastoconidium 8-Zygospore 8) In Table 12.1, which of these spores are characteristic of Penicillium? A) 1 and 2 B) 3 and 4 C) 2 and 6 D) 1 and 4 E) 4 and 6

C) 2 and 6.

1-Arthroconidium 5-Chlamydoconidium 2-Ascospore 6-Conidiospore 3-Basidiospore 7-Sporangiospore 4-Blastoconidium 8-Zygospore 1-Arthroconidium 5-Chlamydoconidium 2-Ascospore 6-Conidiospore 3-Basidiospore 7-Sporangiospore 4-Blastoconidium 8-Zygospore 7) In Table 12.1, which is a thick-walled spore formed as a segment within a hypha? A) 1 B) 3 C) 5 D) 7 E) None of the answers is correct.

C) 5

6) Which of the following genera is an anaerobic gram-negative rod? A) Escherichia B) Staphylococcus C) Bacteroides D) Treponema E) Neisseria

C) Bacteroides

7) The complement protein cascade is the same for the classical pathway, alternative pathway, and lectin pathway after the point in the cascade where the activation of ________ takes place. A) C1 B) C2 C) C3 D) C5 E) C6

C) C3

43) Which of the following statements about the classical pathway of complement activation is FALSE? A) C1 is the first protein activated in the classical pathway. B) The C1 protein complex is initiated by antigen-antibody complexes. C) C3 is not involved in the classical pathway. D) Cleaved fragments of some of the proteins act to increase inflammation. E) C3b causes opsonization.

C) C3 is not involved in the classical pathway.

37) The etiologic agent of the disease in Situation 14.1 is A) sheep. B) soil. C) Coxiella burnetii. D) pneumonia. E) wind.

C) Coxiella burnetii.

28) Generally, in an infection caused by a DNA-containing virus, the host animal cell supplies all of the following EXCEPT A) RNA polymerase. B) nucleotides. C) DNA polymerase. D) tRNA. E) None of the answers are correct; all of these are supplied by the host animal cell.

C) DNA polymerase.

36) Which of the following organisms is photoautotrophic protozoan? A) oomycote B) cellular slime mold C) Euglena D) Phytophthora E) plasmodial slime mold

C) Euglena

https://www.easynotecards.com/uploads/581/23/_14c964b3_15a7e09fc67__8000_00000282.PNG In Figure 14.2, when is the prevalence the highest? A) July B) January C) February D) March E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

C) February

11) Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) All three types of interferons have the same effect on the body. B) Alpha interferon promotes phagocytosis. C) Gamma interferon causes bactericidal activity by macrophages. D) Alpha interferon acts against specific viruses. E) Beta interferon attacks invading viruses.

C) Gamma interferon causes bactericidal activity by macrophages.

31) Viruses that utilize reverse transcriptase belong to the virus families A) Retroviridae and Picornaviridae. B) Herpesviridae and Retroviridae. C) Hepadnaviridae and Retroviridae. D) Herpesviridae and Poxviridae. E) Rhabdoviridae and Herpesviridae.

C) Hepadnaviridae and Retroviridae.

32) DNA made from an RNA template will be incorporated into the virus capsid of A) Retroviridae. B) Herpesviridae. C) Hepadnaviridae. D) bacteriophage families. E) influenzavirus.

C) Hepadnaviridae.

19) Which of the following statements about biological transmission is FALSE? A) The pathogen reproduces in the vector. B) The pathogen may enter the host in the vector's feces. C) Houseflies are an important vector. D) The pathogen may be injected by the bite of the vector. E) The pathogen may require the vector as a host.

C) Houseflies are an important vector.

15) The antibodies found in mucus, saliva, and tears are A) IgG. B) IgM. C) IgA. D) IgD. E) IgE.

C) IgA.

33) The presence of which of the following indicates a current infection rather than a previous infection or vaccination? A) IgA B) IgG C) IgM D) IgD E) IgE

C) IgM

43) Most RNA viruses carry which of the following enzymes? A) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase B) lysozyme C) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase D) reverse transcriptase E) ATP synthase

C) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

18) Which of the following bacteria is gram-positive? A) Pseudomonas B) Salmonella C) Streptococcus D) Bacteroides E) Rickettsia

C) Streptococcus

10) Which of the following recognizes antigens displayed on host cells with MHC II? A) TCcell B) B cell C) THcell D) natural killer cell E) basophil

C) THcell

45) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Antimicrobial therapy for hemodialysis-associated infections increases antibiotic resistance. B) aureus is differentiated from other mannitol+ cocci by the coagulase test. C) The M in MRSA stands for mannitol. D) The USA100 strain accounts for most hospital-acquired MRSA. E) The USA300 strain accounts for most community-acquired MRSA.

C) The M in MRSA stands for mannitol.

7) Which of the following statements about exotoxins is generally FALSE? A) They are more potent than endotoxins. B) They are composed of proteins. C) They are resistant to heat. D) They have specific methods of action. E) They are produced by gram-positive bacteria.

C) They are resistant to heat.

2) Which of the following statements provides the most significant support for the idea that viruses are nonliving chemicals? A) They are not composed of cells. B) They are filterable. C) They cannot reproduce themselves outside a host. D) They cause diseases similar to those caused by chemicals. E) They are chemically simple.

C) They cannot reproduce themselves outside a host.

17) You have isolated a bacterium that grows in a medium containing only inorganic nutrients. Ammonia is oxidized to a nitrate ion. This bacterium is A) gram-negative. B) using anaerobic respiration. C) a chemoautotroph. D) a photoautotroph E) a photoheterotroph.

C) a chemoautotroph.

10) Margination refers to A) the adherence of phagocytes to microorganisms. B) the chemotactic response of phagocytes. C) adherence of phagocytes to the lining of blood vessels. D) dilation of blood vessels. E) the movement of phagocytes through walls of blood vessels.

C) adherence of phagocytes to the lining of blood vessels.

27) A definitive host harbors which stage of a parasite? A) miracidium B) cyst C) adult D) larva E) All of the answers are correct.

C) adult

28) The classical pathway for complement activation is initiated by A) lipid-carbohydrate complexes and C3. B) C5-C9. C) antigen-antibody reactions. D) factors released from phagocytes. E) factors released from damaged tissues.

C) antigen-antibody reactions.

42) A Treg cell deficiency could result in A) increased number of viral infections. B) increased number of bacterial infections. C) autoimmunity. D) increased severity of bacterial infections. E) transplant rejection.

C) autoimmunity.

37) Assume a patient has influenza. During which time on the graph in Figure 13.2 would the patient show the symptoms of the illness? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e

C) c

https://www.easynotecards.com/uploads/599/53/4fe05dde_15a92d162b2__8000_00000889.PNG 21) In Figure 17.1, which letter on the graph indicates the patient's secondary response to a repeated exposure with the identical antigen? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e

C) c

25) The most conclusive evidence that viruses cause cancers is provided by A) finding oncogenes in viruses. B) the presence of antibodies against viruses in cancer patients. C) cancer following injection of cell-free filtrates. D) treating cancer with antibodies. E) some liver cancer patients having had hepatitis.

C) cancer following injection of cell-free filtrates.

40) Oncogenic viruses A) cause acute infections. B) are genetically unstable. C) cause tumors to develop. D) are lytic viruses that kill the host cell. E) have no effect on the host cell.

C) cause tumors to develop.

44) Lysozyme and the antibiotic penicillin have similar mechanisms of action in that they both cause damage to the bacterial A) cell membrane. B) capsule. C) cell wall. D) DNA. E) ribosomes.

C) cell wall.

14) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) dissimilatory sulfate-reducing bacteria & produce H2S B) archaea & extremophiles C) chemoautotrophic bacteria & fix atmospheric nitrogen D) actinomycetes & reproduce by fragmentation E) Cytophaga & a gliding, nonfruiting bacterium

C) chemoautotrophic bacteria & fix atmospheric nitrogen

30) The life cycle of the fish tapeworm is similar to that of the beef tapeworm. Which of the following is the most effective preventive measure? A) salting fish before eating B) refrigerating stored fish C) cooking fish before eating D) wearing gloves while handling fish E) not swimming in fish-infested waters

C) cooking fish before eating

22) The encysted larva of the beef tapeworm is called a A) redia. B) cercaria. C) cysticercus. D) metacercaria. E) proglottid.

C) cysticercus.

16) Superantigens produce intense immune responses by stimulating lymphocytes to produce A) endotoxins. B) exotoxins. C) cytokines. D) leukocidins. E) interferons.

C) cytokines.

29) A researcher has performed a prospective study on a disease. To which specific kind of epidemiological study is this referring? A) analytical B) case control C) descriptive D) experimental E) prodromal

C) descriptive

22) A primary difference between cyanobacteria and purple and green phototrophic bacteria is A) energy source. B) cell wall type. C) electron donor for CO2 reduction. D) cell type. E) color.

C) electron donor for CO2 reduction.

31) Which of the following is the most effective control for malaria? A) vaccination B) treating patients C) eliminate Anopheles mosquitoes D) eliminate the intermediate host E) None of these is an effective control.

C) eliminate Anopheles mosquitoes

31) You have isolated a gram-positive rod. What should you do next? A) Gram stain B) lactose fermentation C) endospore stain D) flagella stain E) enterotube

C) endospore stain

45) Patients developed inflammation a few hours following eye surgery. Instruments and solutions were sterile, and the Limulus assay was positive. The patients' inflammation was due to A) bacterial infection. B) viral infection. C) endotoxin. D) exotoxin. E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

C) endotoxin.

32) Bacteria such as E. coli and Salmonella produce invasins that bind host cells, thus causing the cells to A) release TNF. B) produce iron-binding proteins. C) engulf the bacteria. D) destroy the bacteria. E) release cytokines.

C) engulf the bacteria.

3) Most pathogens that gain access through the skin A) can penetrate intact skin. B) just infect the skin itself. C) enter through hair follicles and sweat ducts. D) must adhere first while their invasive factors allow them to penetrate. E) must be injected.

C) enter through hair follicles and sweat ducts.

CHAPTER 11 1) Which of the following are found primarily in the intestines of humans? A) gram-negative aerobic rods and cocci B) aerobic, helical bacteria C) facultatively anaerobic gram-negative rods D) gram-positive cocci E) endospore-forming rods

C) facultatively anaerobic gram-negative rods.

16) Each of the following provides protection from phagocytic digestion EXCEPT A) M protein. B) capsules. C) formation of phagolysosomes. D) leukocidins. E) biofilms.

C) formation of phagolysosomes.

18) Helminthic diseases are usually transmitted to humans by A) respiratory route. B) genitourinary route. C) gastrointestinal route. D) vectors. E) aerosols.

C) gastrointestinal route.

12) Which one of the following does NOT contribute to the incidence of nosocomial infections? A) antibiotic resistance B) lapse in aseptic techniques C) gram-negative cell walls D) lack of handwashing E) lack of insect control

C) gram-negative cell walls

38) Which of the following groups of algae does NOT produce compounds that are toxic to humans? A) diatoms B) dinoflagellates C) green algae D) red algae E) None of the answers is correct; all of these groups of algae produce compounds toxic to humans.

C) green algae

5) Staphylococcus and Streptococcus can be easily differentiated in a laboratory by which one of the following? A) cell shape B) Gram stain reaction C) growth in high salt concentrations D) ability to cause disease E) glucose fermentation

C) growth in high salt concentrations

19) All of the following are characteristic of the Platyhelminthes EXCEPT that they A) are hermaphroditic. B) are dorsoventrally flattened. C) have highly developed digestive and nervous systems. D) can be divided into flukes and tapeworms. E) are multicellular animals.

C) have highly developed digestive and nervous systems.

39) Caulobacter are different from most bacteria in that they A) are gram-negative. B) are gram-positive. C) have stalks. D) lack cell walls. E) are motile.

C) have stalks.

23) Which of the following arthropods does NOT transmit diseases by sucking blood from a human host? A) lice B) fleas C) houseflies D) mosquitoes E) kissing bugs

C) houseflies

16) Lysogeny can result in all of the following EXCEPT A) immunity to reinfection by the same phage. B) acquisition of new characteristics by the host cell. C) immunity to reinfection by any phage. D) specialized transduction. E) phage conversion.

C) immunity to reinfection by any phage.

15) One effect of washing regularly with antibacterial agents is the removal of normal microbiota. This can result in A) body odor. B) fewer diseases. C) increased susceptibility to disease. D) normal microbiota returning immediately. E) no bacterial growth because washing removes their food source.

C) increased susceptibility to disease.

32) A needlestick is an example of A) direct contact. B) droplet transmission. C) indirect contact transmission by fomite. D) direct biological transmission by vector. E) vehicle transmission.

C) indirect contact transmission by fomite.

41) If a larva of Echinococcus granulosus is found in humans, humans are the A) definitive host. B) infected host. C) intermediate host. D) reservoir. E) None of the answers is correct.

C) intermediate host.

7) Biological transmission differs from mechanical transmission in that biological transmission A) occurs when a pathogen is carried on the feet of an insect. B) involves fomites. C) involves reproduction of a pathogen in an arthropod vector prior to transmission. D) requires direct contact. E) works only with noncommunicable diseases.

C) involves reproduction of a pathogen in an arthropod vector prior to transmission.

13) Siderophores are bacterial proteins that compete with the host's A) antibodies. B) red blood cells. C) iron-transport proteins. D) white blood cells. E) receptors.

C) iron-transport proteins.

31) A disease in which the causative agent remains inactive for a time before producing symptoms is referred to as A) subacute. B) subclinical. C) latent. D) zoonotic. E) acute.

C) latent.

9) Focal infections initially start out as A) sepsis. B) bacteremia. C) local infections. D) septicemia. E) systemic infections.

C) local infections.

33) Activation of C5-C9 results in A) activation of C3. B) fixation of complement. C) lysis of microbial cells. D) phagocytosis. E) inflammation.

C) lysis of microbial cells.

8) All of the following increase blood vessel permeability EXCEPT A) kinins. B) prostaglandins. C) lysozymes. D) histamine. E) leukotrienes.

C) lysozymes.

4) Which of the following exhibits the highest phagocytic activity? A) eosinophils B) erythrocytes C) macrophages D) basophils E) neutrophils

C) macrophages

CHAPTER 14 1) A commensal bacterium A) does not receive any benefit from its host. B) is beneficial to its host. C) may also be an opportunistic pathogen. D) isn't capable of causing disease in its host. E) always causes disease in its host.

C) may also be an opportunistic pathogen.

29) Polio is transmitted by ingestion of water contaminated with feces containing polio virus. What portal of entry does polio virus use? A) skin only B) parenteral only C) mucous membranes only D) skin and parenteral E) skin, parenteral, and mucous membranes

C) mucous membranes only

5) Newborns' immunity due to the transfer of antibodies across the placenta is an example of A) innate immunity. B) naturally acquired active immunity. C) naturally acquired passive immunity. D) artificially acquired active immunity. E) artificially acquired passive immunity.

C) naturally acquired passive immunity.

43) Pseudomonas bacteria colonized the bile duct of a patient following his liver transplant surgery. This is an example of a A) communicable disease. B) latent infection. C) nosocomial infection. D) sporadic disease. E) None of the answers is correct.

C) nosocomial infection.

40) Assume you have isolated a multicellular heterotrophic organism that produces coenocytic hyphae, motile zoospores, and cellulose cell walls. It is most likely a(n) A) ascomycete fungus. B) green alga. C) oomycote alga. D) tapeworm. E) zygomycete fungus.

C) oomycote alga.

8) Endotoxins are A) associated with gram-positive bacteria. B) molecules that bind nerve cells. C) part of the gram-negative cell wall. D) excreted from the cell.

C) part of the gram-negative cell wall.

9) A child falls and suffers a deep cut on her leg. The cut went through her skin and she is bleeding. Which of the following defense mechanisms will participate in eliminating contaminating microbes? A) mucociliary escalator B) normal skin flora C) phagocytosis in the inflammatory response D) acidic skin secretions E) lysozyme

C) phagocytosis in the inflammatory response

31) Cholera toxin polypeptide A binds to surface gangliosides on target cells. If the gangliosides were removed, A) polypeptide A would bind to target cells. B) polypeptide A would enter the cells. C) polypeptide B would not be able to enter the cells. D) Vibrio would not produce cholera toxin. E) Vibrio would bind to target cells.

C) polypeptide B would not be able to enter the cells.

30) Neutrophils with defective lysosomes are unable to A) undergo chemotaxis. B) migrate. C) produce toxic oxygen products. D) attach to microorganisms and other foreign material. E) engulf microorganisms and other foreign material.

C) produce toxic oxygen products.

31) Innate immunity includes all of the following EXCEPT A) phagocytosis. B) inflammation. C) production of antibody. D) production of interferon. E) activation of complement.

C) production of antibody.

14) Which of the following tends to be more complex in a parasitic helminth than in free-living helminths? A) digestive system B) nervous system C) reproductive system D) digestive and nervous systems E) digestive, reproductive, and nervous systems

C) reproductive system

15) Rickettsias differ from chlamydias in that rickettsias A) are gram-negative. B) are intracellular parasites. C) require an arthropod for transmission. D) form elementary bodies. E) are enterics.

C) require an arthropod for transmission

44) The following steps occur during biosynthesis of a + strand RNA virus. What is the third step? A) attachment B) penetration and uncoating C) synthesis of - strand RNA D) synthesis of + strand RNA E) synthesis of viral proteins

C) synthesis of - strand RNA

14) A persistent infection is one in which A) the virus remains in equilibrium with the host without causing a disease. B) viral replication is unusually slow. C) the disease process occurs gradually over a long period. D) host cells are gradually lysed. E) host cells are transformed.

C) the disease process occurs gradually over a long period.

6) A differential cell count is used to determine each of the following EXCEPT A) the total number of white blood cells. B) the numbers of each type of white blood cell. C) the number of red blood cells. D) leukocytosis. E) leukopenia.

C) the number of red blood cells.

10) The rise in herd immunity amongst a population can be directly attributed to A) increased use of antibiotics. B) improved handwashing. C) vaccinations. D) antibiotic-resistant microorganisms. E) None of the answers is correct.

C) vaccinations.

T/F: 1) Apoptosis results in significant leakage of cellular contents.

FALSE

T/F: 1) Bacterial predators such as Bdellovibrio are members of the betaproteobacteria.

FALSE

T/F: 1) In general, the LD50 for exotoxins is much greater than the LD50 for endotoxins.

FALSE

T/F: 1) The dermis is composed of connective tissue and serves the primary purpose of providing direct protection from the external environment.

FALSE

T/F: 10) The human body is typically free of archaeal species.

FALSE

T/F: 10) When haptens attach to carrier molecules, an epitope forms on hapten which then can be bound to antibody.

FALSE

T/F: 2) A viroid is a completely developed infectious agent composed of nucleic acid and surrounded by a capsid.

FALSE

2) Which of the following statements about helminths is FALSE? A) They are heterotrophic. B) They are multicellular animals. C) They have eukaryotic cells. D) All are parasites. E) Some have male and female reproductive organs in one animal.

D) All are parasites.

24) Which of the following statements about algae is FALSE? A) They use light as their energy source. B) They use CO2as their carbon source. C) They produce oxygen from hydrolysis of water. D) All are unicellular. E) Some are capable of sexual reproduction.

D) All are unicellular.

T/F: 3) Binomial nomenclature is used to name viruses.

FALSE

T/F: 3) MMWR is a publication by the CDC that reports on only emerging diseases.

FALSE

T/F: 3) Myxobacteria are classified as actinobacteria due to fungal-like lifestyle.

FALSE

T/F: 3) Only dendritic cells produce interleukins.

FALSE

T/F: 4) A researcher only needs to select a cohort group when implementing an analytical epidemiological study.

FALSE

T/F: 4) Glycoprotein spikes are found on the capsids of all viruses.

FALSE

T/F: 4) In A-B exotoxins, the A component binds to the host cell receptor so that the B component can enter the cell.

FALSE

T/F: 4) The Gram stain is not suitable for identifying members of the Archaea.

FALSE

T/F: 4) The inflammatory response can only be triggered by an infection.

FALSE

T/F: 4) The production of interferons at an infection site is critical for chemotaxis.

FALSE

T/F: 5) Diseases that are referred to as emerging infectious diseases have only been discovered in the past fifty years.

FALSE

T/F: 6) All gram-negative bacteria are classified as proteobacteria.

FALSE

T/F: 6) Compromised hosts are always suffering from suppressed immune systems.

FALSE

13) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of cellular immunity? A) The cells originate in bone marrow. B) Cells are processed in the thymus gland. C) It can inhibit the immune response. D) B cells make antibodies. E) T cells react with antigens.

D) B cells make antibodies.

10) The structures illustrated in Figure 13.1 are composed of A) DNA. B) RNA. C) DNA or RNA. D) Capsomeres. E) viroids.

D) Capsomeres.

15) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Fungi produce sexual spores. B) Fungi produce asexual spores. C) Fungal spores are used in identification of fungi. D) Fungal spores are highly resistant to heat and chemical agents. E) Fungal spores are for asexual or sexual reproduction.

D) Fungal spores are highly resistant to heat and chemical agents.

2) All of the following protect the skin and mucous membranes from infection EXCEPT A) multiple layers of cells. B) tears. C) saliva. D) HCl. E) the "ciliary escalator."

D) HCl.

16) Requirements for X and V factors are used to identify A) Staphylococcus. B) Escherichia. C) Neisseria. D) Haemophilus. E) Pseudomonas.

D) Haemophilus.

16) The antibodies found almost entirely and only on the surface of B cells (not secreted from them), and which always exist as monomers, are A) IgG. B) IgM. C) IgA. D) IgD. E) IgE.

D) IgD.

45) Which of the following statements about IL-12 is FALSE? A) It activates macrophages. B) It inhibits some tumor cells. C) It activates the TH1 pathway. D) It causes autoimmune diseases. E) It causes THcells to respond to HIV.

D) It causes autoimmune diseases.

22) Which of the following statements about staphylococcal enterotoxin is FALSE? A) It causes vomiting. B) It causes diarrhea. C) It is an exotoxin. D) It is produced by Staphylococcus aureus growing in the host's intestines. E) It is a superantigen.

D) It is produced by Staphylococcus aureus growing in the host's intestines.

26) Which of the following statements about M protein is FALSE? A) It is found on Streptococcus pyogenes. B) It is found on fimbriae. C) It is heat- and acid-resistant. D) It is readily digested by phagocytes. E) It is a protein.

D) It is readily digested by phagocytes.

T/F: 6) The variable region of the antibody is solely responsible the significant diversity of antigen targets.

FALSE

T/F: 7) Complement proteins in their intact and unactivated form act as opsonins by binding to microorganisms and promoting phagocytosis.

FALSE

T/F: 7) Helical and icosahedral are terms used to describe the shapes of a virus envelope.

FALSE

T/F: 7) Plasma cells will eventually differentiate into memory cells.

FALSE

T/F: 8) Digestion of microorganisms occurs in phagosomes.

FALSE

T/F: 8) Memory cells do not require B cell receptors.

FALSE

T/F: 8) Most symptoms of endotoxins can be treated with administration of anti-endotoxin antibodies.

FALSE

T/F: 8) Photosynthetic organisms always produce oxygen gas as a metabolic byproduct.

FALSE

T/F: 8) Reservoirs of infections are always animate objects.

FALSE

T/F: 8) Viruses are the only known infectious agents that are obligatory intracellular parasites.

FALSE

T/F: 9) An example of a TLR would be peptidoglycan found in the cell wall of gram-positive bacteria.

FALSE

T/F: 9) Urinary tract infections are the most common forms of nosocomial infections.

FALSE

T/F: In helminth life cycles, the organism that harbors the adult sexually reproductive phase of the parasite is called the intermediate host.

FALSE

T/F: Most cases of hookworm infection are acquired by ingestion of adult forms in contaminated food or water.

FALSE

T/F: The Platyhelminthes group includes roundworms, tapeworms, and flukes.

FALSE

T/F: The insect vectors have six legs and include spiders, ticks, mosquitoes, and lice.

FALSE

36) Gram-negative septic shock results from the following events. What is the second step? A) Body temperature is reset in the hypothalamus. B) Fever occurs. C) IL-1 is released. D) LPS is released from gram-negative bacteria. E) Phagocytes ingest gram-negative bacteria.

D) LPS is released from gram-negative bacteria.

29) All of the following bacteria are gram-positive. Which does NOT belong with the others? A) Actinomyces B) Bacillus C) Corynebacterium D) Listeria E) Mycobacterium

D) Listeria

26) Which of the following WBCs are NOT lymphocytes? A) cytotoxic T cells B) helper T cells C) NK cells D) M cells E) B cells

D) M cells

13) Which of the following is necessary for replication of a prion? A) DNA B) DNA polymerase C) lysozyme D) PrPSc E) RNA

D) PrPSc

38) Which one of the following does NOT belong with the others? A) Coxiella B) Ehrlichia C) Rickettsia D) Staphylococcus E) Wolbachia

D) Staphylococcus

41) Which of the following bacteria does NOT belong with the others? A) Halobacterium B) Halococcus C) Methanobacterium D) Staphylococcus E) Sulfolobus

D) Staphylococcus

27) The following events elicit an antibody response. What is the third step? A) Antigen-digest goes to surface of APC. B) APC phagocytizes antigen. C) B cell is activated. D) THcell recognizes antigen-digest and MHC II. E) THcell produces cytokines.

D) THcell recognizes antigen-digest and MHC II.

24) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) The variable region of a heavy chain is partially responsible for binding with antigen. B) The variable region of a light chain is partially responsible for binding with antigen. C) The Fc region attaches to a host cell. D) The constant region of a heavy chain is the same for all antibodies. E) All of the answers are correct.

D) The constant region of a heavy chain is the same for all antibodies.

40) Which of the following statements about natural killer cells is FALSE? A) They destroy virus-infected cells. B) They destroy tumor cells. C) They destroy cells lacking MHC I. D) They are stimulated by an antigen. E) None of the answers are correct; all of these statements are true.

D) They are stimulated by an antigen.

3) Which of the following statements about the oomycote algae is FALSE? A) They form hyphae. B) They produce zoospores in a sporangium. C) They cause plant diseases. D) They have chlorophyll. E) They reproduce sexually.

D) They have chlorophyll.

CHAPTER 13 1) How do all viruses differ from bacteria? A) Viruses are filterable. B) Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites. C) Viruses do not have any nucleic acid. D) Viruses are not composed of cells. E) Viruses do not reproduce.

D) Viruses are not composed of cells.

33) Which of the following statements about viruses is FALSE? A) Viruses contain DNA or RNA but never both. B) Viruses contain a protein coat. C) Viruses use the anabolic machinery of the cell. D) Viruses use their own catabolic enzymes. E) Viruses have genes.

D) Viruses use their own catabolic enzymes.

14) The fimbriae of Neisseria gonorrhea and enteropathogenic E. coli are examples of A) adhesins. B) ligands. C) receptors. D) adhesins and ligands. E) adhesins, ligands, and receptors.

D) adhesins and ligands.

13) Transient microbiota differ from normal microbiota in that transient microbiota A) cause diseases. B) are found in a certain location on the host. C) are always acquired by direct contact. D) are present for a relatively short time. E) never cause disease.

D) are present for a relatively short time.

CHAPTER 17 1) What type of immunity results from vaccination? A) innate immunity B) naturally acquired active immunity C) naturally acquired passive immunity D) artificially acquired active immunity E) artificially acquired passive immunity

D) artificially acquired active immunity

36) You have isolated an aerobic gram-positive, endospore-forming bacterium that grows well on nutrient agar. To which of the following groups does it most likely belong? A) phototrophic bacteria B) gammaproteobacteria C) deltaproteobacteria D) bacillales E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

D) bacillales

39) Which of the following is NOT an example of microbial antagonism? A) acid production by bacteria B) bacteriocin production C) bacteria occupying host receptors D) bacteria causing disease E) bacteria producing vitamin K

D) bacteria causing disease

6) Bacteriophages and animal viruses do NOT differ significantly in which one of the following steps? A) attachment B) penetration C) uncoating D) biosynthesis E) release

D) biosynthesis

https://www.easynotecards.com/uploads/601/55/4fe05dde_15a92d162b2__8000_00000893.PNG 28) In Figure 17.2, which areas are similar for all IgG antibodies? A) a and b B) a and c C) b and c D) c and d E) b and d

D) c and d

11) Which of the following does NOT contribute to the symptoms of a fungal disease? A) capsules B) toxins C) allergic response of the host D) cell walls E) metabolic products

D) cell walls

12) Continuous cell lines differ from primary cell lines in that A) viruses can be grown in continuous cell lines. B) continuous cell lines always have to be re-isolated from animal tissues. C) continuous cell lines are derived from primary cell lines. D) continuous cell lines can be maintained through an indefinite number of generations. E) continuous cell lines are from human embryos.

D) continuous cell lines can be maintained through an indefinite number of generations.

https://www.easynotecards.com/uploads/580/22/_14c964b3_15a7e09fc67__8000_00000280.PNG Figure 14.1 shows the incidence of influenza during a typical year. Which letter on the graph indicates the endemic level? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

D) d

9) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of spirochetes? A) possess an axial filament B) gram-negative C) helical shape D) easily observed with brightfield microscopy E) found in the human oral cavity

D) easily observed with brightfield microscopy

25) Twenty-five people developed symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea three to six hours after attending a church picnic where they ate a ham and green bean casserole with cream sauce. The most likely cause of this case of food intoxication is A) botulinum toxin. B) aflatoxin. C) staphylococcal enterotoxin. D) erythrogenic toxin. E) cholera toxin.

D) erythrogenic toxin.

15) All of the following are examples of entry via the parenteral route EXCEPT A) injection. B) bite. C) surgery. D) hair follicle. E) skin cut.

D) hair follicle.

33) Which of the following mechanisms is used by gram-negative bacteria to cross the blood-brain barrier? A) producing fimbriae B) inducing endocytosis C) producing toxins D) inducing TNF E) antigenic variation

D) inducing TNF

27) Bacteriophage replication differs from animal virus replication because only bacteriophage replication involves A) adsorption to specific receptors. B) assembly of viral components. C) replication of viral nucleic acid. D) injection of naked nucleic acid into the host cell. E) lysis of the host cell.

D) injection of naked nucleic acid into the host cell.

28) What do tapeworms eat? A) intestinal bacteria B) host tissues C) red blood cells D) intestinal contents E) plant matter

D) intestinal contents

28) Streptomyces differs from Actinomyces because Streptomyces A) makes antibiotics. B) produces conidia. C) forms filaments. D) is a strict aerobe. E) is a bacterium.

D) is a strict aerobe.

20) Phagocytes utilize all of the following to optimize interaction with (getting to and getting hold of) microorganisms EXCEPT A) trapping a bacterium against a rough surface. B) opsonization. C) chemotaxis. D) lysozyme. E) complement.

D) lysozyme.

12) All of the following are methods of avoiding host antibodies EXCEPT A) antigenic changes. B) IgA proteases. C) invasins. D) membrane-disrupting toxins. E) inducing endocytosis.

D) membrane-disrupting toxins.

4) The major significance of Robert Koch's work is that A) microorganisms are present in a diseased animal. B) diseases can be transmitted from one animal to another. C) microorganisms can be cultured. D) microorganisms cause disease. E) microorganisms are the result of disease.

D) microorganisms cause disease.

36) Macrophages arise from which of the following? A) basophils B) eosinophils C) lymphocytes D) monocytes E) neutrophils

D) monocytes

37) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) tick — Rocky Mountain spotted fever B) tick — Lyme disease C) mosquito — malaria D) mosquito — Pneumocystis E) mosquito — encephalitis

D) mosquito — Pneumocystis

25) Below are paired items referring to the heartworm Dirofilaria immitis. Which of the pairs is mismatched? A) dog — definitive host B) dog — sexual reproduction C) mosquito — vector D) mosquito — definitive host E) None of the pairs is mismatched.

D) mosquito — definitive host

7) Which of the following cells is NOT an APC? A) dentritic cells B) macrophages C) mature B cells D) natural killer cells E) None of the answers is correct; all of these are APCs.

D) natural killer cells

3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic inherent of the non-endospore-forming gram-positive rods? A) are aerotolerant B) carry out fermentative metabolism C) display a branched filamentous morphology D) nonpathogenic E) lack cell walls

D) nonpathogenic

11) A clear area against a confluent "lawn" of bacteria is called a A) phage. B) pock. C) cell lysis. D) plaque. E) rash.

D) plaque.

27) Which of the following is the best reason to classify Streptococcus in the Lactobacillales? A) Gram reaction B) morphology C) fermentation of lactose D) rRNA sequences E) found in dairy products

D) rRNA sequences

11) Koch observed Bacillus anthracis multiplying in the blood of cattle. What is this condition called? A) bacteremia B) focal infection C) local infection D) septicemia E) systemic infection

D) septicemia

38) All of the following are iron-binding proteins found in humans EXCEPT A) lactoferrin. B) transferrin. C) hemoglobin. D) siderophorin. E) ferritin.

D) siderophorin.

4) Which of the following is the best definition of epitope? A) specific regions on antigens that interact with T-cell receptors B) specific regions on antigens that interact with MHC class molecules C) specific regions on antigens that interact with haptens D) specific regions on antigens that interact with antibodies E) specific regions on antigens that interact with perforins

D) specific regions on antigens that interact with antibodies

40) All of the following bacteria are motile. Which does NOT have flagella? A) Escherichia B) helical bacteria C) Pseudomonas D) spirochetes E) Salmonella

D) spirochetes

27) Symptoms of intense inflammation and shock occur in some gram-positive bacterial infections due to A) A-B toxins. B) lipid A. C) membrane-disrupting toxins. D) superantigens. E) erythrogenic toxin.

D) superantigens.

41) Which one of the following steps does NOT occur during multiplication of a picornavirus? A) synthesis of + strands of RNA B) synthesis of - strands of RNA C) synthesis of viral proteins D) synthesis of DNA E) None of the answers is correct.

D) synthesis of DNA

17) Which of the following is NOT a communicable disease? A) malaria B) AIDS C) tuberculosis D) tetanus E) typhoid fever

D) tetanus

44) All of the following are characteristic of lichens EXCEPT A) they are arranged in foliose, fruticose, or crustose morphologies. B) they are a major food source for tundra herbivores. C) they are used as indicators of air pollution. D) they are a symbiotic relationship between a fungus and a protozoan. E) they serve as primary producers in rocky ecosystems.

D) they are a symbiotic relationship between a fungus and a protozoan.

34) All of the following are true regarding NK cells EXCEPT A) they are a type of lymphocyte. B) they are found in tissues of the lymphatic system. C) they have the ability to kill infected body cells and some tumor cells. D) they destroy infected body cells by phagocytosis. E) they release toxic substances that cause cell lysis or apoptosis.

D) they destroy infected body cells by phagocytosis.

15) Normal microbiota provide protection from infection in each of the following ways EXCEPT A) they produce antibacterial chemicals. B) they compete with pathogens for nutrients. C) they make the chemical environment unsuitable for nonresident bacteria. D) they produce lysozyme. E) they change the pH of the environment.

D) they produce lysozyme.

23) Assume you have isolated an unknown virus. This virus has a single, positive sense strand of RNA, and possesses an envelope. To which group does it most likely belong? A) herpesvirus B) picornavirus C) retrovirus D) togavirus E) papovavirus

D) togavirus

1-Arthroconidium 5-Chlamydoconidium 2-Ascospore 6-Conidiospore 3-Basidiospore 7-Sporangiospore 4-Blastoconidium 8-Zygospore 9) In Table 12.1, which of these spores are characteristic of Rhizopus? A) 1 and 2 B) 6 and 7 C) 2 and 8 D) 1 and 4 E) 7 and 8

E) 7 and 8.

20) All of the following are used by bacteria to attach to host cells EXCEPT A) M protein. B) ligands. C) fimbriae. D) capsules. E) A-B toxins.

E) A-B toxins.

26) Which of the following can contribute to postoperative infections? A) using syringes more than once B) normal microbiota on the operating room staff C) errors in aseptic technique D) antibiotic resistance E) All of the answers are correct.

E) All of the answers are correct.

33) Which of the following is NOT a predisposing factor of disease? A) lifestyle B) genetic background C) climate D) occupation E) All of these are predisposing factors of disease.

E) All of these are predisposing factors of disease.

42) Which one of the following is NOT a zoonosis? A) cat-scratch disease B) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome C) rabies D) tapeworm E) All of these are zoonoses.

E) All of these are zoonoses.

6) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Basidiomycota — basidiospores B) Ascomycota — conidiospores C) Zygomycota — sporangiospores D) microsporidia — lack mitochondria E) anamorphs — lack spores

E) Anamorphs - lack spores.

2) Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) Both members are harmed in a symbiotic relationship. B) Members of a symbiotic relationship cannot live without each other. C) A parasite is not in symbiosis with its host. D) Symbiosis always refers to different organisms living together and benefiting from each other. E) At least one member must benefit in a symbiotic relationship.

E) At least one member must benefit in a symbiotic relationship.

8) Which of the following is NOT an enteric? A) Salmonella B) Shigella C) Escherichia D) Enterobacter E) Campylobacter

E) Campylobacter

6) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Leukocidins destroy neutrophils. B) Hemolysins lyse red blood cells. C) Hyaluronidase breaks down substances between cells. D) Kinase destroys fibrin clots. E) Coagulase destroys blood clots.

E) Coagulase destroys blood clots.

17) The antibodies that can bind to large parasites are A) IgG. B) IgM. C) IgA. D) IgD. E) IgE.

E) IgE.

41) Which organism in Table 15.2 causes the most severe disease? A) coli O157:H7 B) Legionella pneumophila C) Shigella D) Treponema pallidum E) It cannot be determined from the information provided.

E) It cannot be determined from the information provided.

20) Which of the following statements is NOT true of lysogeny? A) It can give infected pathogens the genetic information for toxin production. B) Prophage is inserted into the host genome. C) Lytic cycle may follow lysogeny. D) It is a "silent" infection; the virus does not replicate. E) It causes lysis of host cells.

E) It causes lysis of host cells.

21) Which of the following statements about the causative agent of Rocky Mountain spotted fever is FALSE? A) It is an intracellular parasite. B) It is transmitted by ticks. C) It is in the genus Rickettsia. D) It is gram-negative. E) It is found in soil and water.

E) It is found in soil and water.

16) Which of the following is NOT a reservoir of infection? A) a sick person B) a healthy person C) a sick animal D) a hospital E) None of the answers is correct; all of these can be reservoirs of infection.

E) None of the answers is correct; all of these can be reservoirs of infection.

25) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) malaria — vector B) salmonellosis — vehicle transmission C) syphilis — direct contact D) influenza — droplet infection E) None of the pairs is mismatched.

E) None of the pairs is mismatched.

37) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) spirochete & axial filament B) aerobic, helical bacteria & gram-negative C) enterics & gram-negative D) mycobacteria & acid-fast E) Pseudomonas & gram-positive

E) Pseudomonas & gram-positive

23) Which one of the following bacteria does NOT belong with the others? A) Bordetella B) Burkholderia C) Campylobacter D) Pseudomonas E) Salmonella

E) Salmonella

5) Which of the following is NOT a verified exception in the use of Koch's postulates? A) Some diseases have poorly defined etiologies. B) Some pathogens can cause several disease conditions. C) Some human diseases have no other known animal host. D) Some diseases are not caused by microbes. E) Some diseases are noncommunicable.

E) Some diseases are noncommunicable.

35) The following events occur in cellular immunity, leading to a response from TH cells. What is the third step? A) Antibodies are produced. B) Dendritic cell takes up antigen. C) Antigen enters M cell. D) THcell produces cytokines. E) THcells proliferate.

E) THcells proliferate.

24) Emergence of infectious diseases can be attributed to all of the following EXCEPT A) antibiotic resistance. B) climatic changes. C) new strains of previously known agents. D) ease of travel. E) The emergence of infectious diseases can be attributed to all of these.

E) The emergence of infectious diseases can be attributed to all of these.

14) Which of the following statements about nosocomial infections is FALSE? A) They occur in compromised patients. B) They may be caused by opportunists. C) They may be caused by drug-resistant bacteria. D) They may be caused by normal microbiota. E) The patient was infected before hospitalization.

E) The patient was infected before hospitalization.

15) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) A prophage is phage DNA inserted into a bacterial chromosome. B) A prophage can "pop" out of the chromosome. C) Prophage genes are repressed by a repressor protein coded for by the prophage. D) A prophage may result in new properties of the host cell. E) The prophage makes the host cell immune to infection by other phages.

E) The prophage makes the host cell immune to infection by other phages.

3) Which of the following statements about viral spikes is FALSE? A) They are composed of carbohydrate-protein complexes. B) They are used for attachment. C) They may cause hemagglutination. D) They bind to receptors on the host cell surface. E) They are found only on nonenveloped viruses.

E) They are found only on nonenveloped viruses.

12) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of B cells? A) They originate in bone marrow. B) They have antibodies on their surfaces. C) They are responsible for the memory response. D) They are responsible for antibody formation. E) They recognize antigens associated with MHC I.

E) They recognize antigens associated with MHC I.

45) The crab industry needs female crabs for growing more crabs. What bacterium might be used to ensure development of female crabs and shrimp? A) Acinetobacter B) Gemmata C) Neisseria D) Pelagibacter E) Wolbachia

E) Wolbachia

18) Which of the following is a fomite? A) water B) droplets from a sneeze C) pus D) insects E) a hypodermic needle

E) a hypodermic needle

41) All of the following are components of the inflammatory process EXCEPT A) dilation of blood vessels. B) release of histamines and prostaglandins. C) chemotaxis. D) diapedesis. E) antibody synthesis.

E) antibody synthesis.

2) What type of immunity results from transfer of antibodies from one individual to a susceptible individual by means of injection? A) innate immunity B) naturally acquired active immunity C) naturally acquired passive immunity D) artificially acquired active immunity E) artificially acquired passive immunity

E) artificially acquired passive immunity

35) In which of the following patterns of disease does the patient experience no signs or symptoms? A) prodromal B) decline C) convalescence D) incubation E) both incubation and convalescence

E) both incubation and convalescence

34) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) nematodes — complete digestive tract B) cestodes — segmented body made of proglottids C) trematodes — flukes D) nematodes — many are free-living E) cestodes — all are free-living

E) cestodes — all are free-living

11) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) teleomorph — produces both sexual and asexual spores B) dermatomycosis — fungal infection of the skin C) dimorphic fungus — grows as a yeast or a mold D) systemic mycosis — fungal infection of body organs E) coenocytic hyphae — hyphae with cross-walls

E) coenocytic hyphae - hyphae with cross-walls.

31) In Figure 17.2, what portion will typically attach to a host cell? A) a and c B) b C) b and c D) a and d E) e

E) e

https://www.easynotecards.com/uploads/599/53/4fe05dde_15a92d162b2__8000_00000889.PNG 22) In Figure 17.1, which letter on the graph indicates the highest antibody titer during the patient's response to a second and distinct/different antigen? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e

E) e

https://www.easynotecards.com/uploads/819/39/_a272576_15a3a3ad1a0__8000_00000020.PNG 36) Assume a patient had chickenpox (human herpesvirus 3) as a child. Which line on the graph in Figure 13.2 would show the number of viruses present in this person as a 60-year-old with shingles (human herpesvirus 3)? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e

E) e

17) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) dinoflagellates — paralytic shellfish poisoning B) brown algae — algin C) red algae — agar D) diatoms — petroleum E) green algae — prokaryotic

E) green algae — prokaryotic

17) The antimicrobial effects of AMPs include all of the following EXCEPT A) inhibition of cell wall synthesis. B) lysis of bacterial cells. C) destruction of nucleic acids. D) pore formation in bacterial membranes. E) inhibition of phagocytosis.

E) inhibition of phagocytosis.

20) In the malaria parasite life cycle, humans are the ________ host, while mosquitoes are the ________ host as well as the vector. A) definitive; intermediate B) intermediate; intermediate C) temporary; final D) vector; intermediate E) intermediate; definitive

E) intermediate; definitive

44) Burkholderia was reclassified from the gammaproteobacteria to the betaproteobacteria because A) it grows in disinfectants. B) it is a gram-negative rod. C) it causes infections in cystic fibrosis patients. D) it causes melioidosis. E) its rRNA sequence is similar to that of Neisseria.

E) its rRNA sequence is similar to that of Neisseria.

8) When an antibody binds to a toxin, the resulting action is referred to as A) agglutination. B) opsonization. C) ADCC. D) apoptosis. E) neutralization.

E) neutralization.

23) Which of the following contributes to the virulence of a pathogen? A) numbers of microorganisms that gain access to a host B) evasion of host defenses C) toxin production D) numbers of microorganisms that gain access to a host and evasion of host defenses E) numbers of microorganisms that gain access to a host, evasion of host defenses, and toxin production

E) numbers of microorganisms that gain access to a host, evasion of host defenses, and toxin production

37) Which one of the following causes transmembrane channels in target cells? A) granzymes B) hapten C) IL-1 D) IL-2 E) perforin

E) perforin

32) In the microscope, you observe multinucleated amoeboid cells with sporangia that form spores. This is a(n) A) ascomycete. B) cellular slime mold. C) Euglenozoa. D) tapeworm. E) plasmodial slime mold.

E) plasmodial slime mold.

22) All of the following are effects of histamine EXCEPT A) destruction of an injurious agent. B) removal of an injurious agent. C) isolation of an injurious agent. D) repair of damaged tissue. E) production of antibodies.

E) production of antibodies.

19) An envelope is acquired during which of the following steps? A) penetration B) adsorption C) uncoating D) biosynthesis E) release

E) release

19) Which of the following cytopathic effects is cytocidal? A) inclusion bodies B) giant cells C) antigenic changes D) transformation E) release of enzymes from lysosomes

E) release of enzymes from lysosomes

20) Which of the following definitions is INCORRECT? A) acute: a short-lasting primary infection B) inapparent: infection characteristic of a carrier state C) chronic: a disease that develops slowly and lasts for months D) primary infection: an initial illness E) secondary infection: a long-lasting illness

E) secondary infection: a long-lasting illness

Figure 11.1 2) What is group "c." in the key shown in Figure 11.1? A) bacteroidetes B) chlamydiae C) fusobacteria D) planctomycetes E) spirochaetes

E) spirochaetes

11) The specificity of an antibody is due to A) its valence. B) the H chains. C) the L chains. D) the constant portions of the H and L chains. E) the variable portions of the H and L chains.

E) the variable portions of the H and L chains.

21) Symptoms of protozoan and helminthic diseases are due to A) tissue damage due to growth of the parasite on the tissues. B) waste products excreted by the parasite. C) products released from damaged tissues. D) tissue damage due to growth of the parasite on the tissues and waste products excreted by the parasite. E) tissue damage due to growth of the parasite on the tissues, waste products excreted by the parasite, and products released from damaged tissues.

E) tissue damage due to growth of the parasite on the tissues, waste products excreted by the parasite, and products released from damaged tissues.

38) Which of the following is NOT a cytopathic effect of viruses? A) cell death B) host cells fusing to form multinucleated syncytia C) inclusion bodies forming in the cytoplasm or nucleus D) increased cell growth E) toxin production

E) toxin production

3) The function of the "ciliary escalator" is to A) propel inhaled dust and microorganisms toward the mouth, away from the lower respiratory tract. B) remove microorganisms from the gastrointestinal tract. C) remove microorganisms from the lower respiratory tract. D) trap microorganisms in mucus in the upper respiratory tract. E) trap inhaled dust and microorganisms in mucus and propel it away from the lower respiratory tract.

E) trap inhaled dust and microorganisms in mucus and propel it away from the lower respiratory tract.

38) The following steps occur during multiplication of herpesviruses. Which is the third step? A) attachment B) biosynthesis C) penetration D) release E) uncoating

E) uncoating

39) All of the following occur during inflammation. What is the first step? A) diapedesis B) margination C) phagocyte migration D) repair E) vasodilation

E) vasodilation

28) A cold transmitted by a facial tissue is an example of A) direct contact. B) droplet transmission. C) fomite. D) vector. E) vehicle transmission.

E) vehicle transmission.

38) The method of transmission of the disease in Situation 14.1 was A) direct contact. B) droplet. C) indirect contact. D) vector-borne. E) vehicle.

E) vehicle.