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Rhabdovirus: rabies what is the reservoir

Order Carnivora (foxes, skunks, etc,) Raccoons in mid-Atlantic, Northeast Skunks, bats in Midwest

How do pathogens passively penetrate host tissue?

Organism penetrates tissue due to wound, burn, insect bite, animal bite, etc.

faintly staining, thin gram-negative bacilli.

Organisms belonging to the genus Legionella are:

What is Septicemia?

Organisms multiplying/colonizing the bloodstream Sepsis, blood poisoning

RNA viruses that includes seven genera: Influenza virus A, Influenza virus B, Influenza virus C, Influenza virus D, Isavirus, Thogotovirus and Quaranjavirus.

Orthomyxovirus

What are the pros and cons of each test ?

Pheno: are very simple and not very time consuming, but are too generalized Geno: are specific and viral, but very time consuming and expensive Immun: are specific and quick, but too specific negative results are common

What are some examples of bacterial PAMPs?

Peptidoglycan Teichoic acid Lipopolysaccharide fMet

Helicobacter pylori

Performing the Urea breath test will cause a color change when this organism is detected:

What occurs in a lysogenic cycle of a bacteriophage?

Phage DNA incorporates into host chromosome.

What occurs in the lytic cycle of a bacteriophage?

Phage DNA takes over cell, replicates and ultimately lyses (kills) host - releases DNA.

*WHAT* destroy viruses trapped in complexes with antibodies

Phagocytes

What encompasses the second line of defense?

Phagocytes Inflammation Fever Antimicrobials

What is the agent that causes Chagas disease?

Protozoan - Trypanosoma cruzi (vector-bug)

L-cysteine and iron

To cultivate Legionella in the laboratory, a medium supplemented with what ingredient(s) is necessary?

aerotolerance test

To determine if an organism is definitely an obligate anaerobe the following procedure must be performed:

Disease: GAS GANGRENE /ANAEROBIC CELLULITIS & MYONECROSIS Causative organism: CLOSTRIDIUM

Type of Organism: bacterial Part of Body Affected: Cardiovascular & lymphatic system Mode of Transmission: INTERRUPTED BLOOD SUPPLY to TISSUE - ISCHEMIA

What are the 2 physical barriers of mucous membranes and their secretions? How do they work?

Mucus - contains lysozymes Cilia - sweeps microbes from lower respiratory tract

What is the portal of entry for Tularemia?

Multiple points of entry (eyes , respiratory tract) Lesions Lymph nodes Conjuctivitis *Zoonotic (fleas and ticks)

Inflammation of parotid glands More serious complications possible

Mumps

•

Mumps (paramyxovirus)

What are the symptoms for Botulism ?

Muscle weakness, cranial nerves (children susceptible - opportunistic disease)

Leprosy (disease of nervous system)

Mycobacterium leprae. acid fast; development of lesions on skin, bodys cell mediated response destroys nerve endings, loss of sensory perception in areas of skin that have been infected, insensitive areas easily become infected w secondary infections - bacteria goes to nerve cells so theyll travel to appendages , endemic in texas and louisiana bc amardillos.

What is the #1 single infectious disease killer?

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

What is the causative agent of tuberculosis?

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

•

Mycobacterium tuberculosis (Tuberculosis)

Tuberculosis (disease of respiratory)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis; chronic infection of lower respiratory tract, low grade fever, chronic cough, weight loss, green bloody sputum, night sweat

Allows new virions to escape from cell without getting stuck

N antigen: neuraminidase

What is produced by the urease enzyme?

NH3 and CO2

Equation of nitrogen assimilation?

NH3→ R-NH2 (amino group)

Detect absence of MHC proteins due to viral infection, kill cells

NK cells

natural killer cells

NK cells are lymphocytes that bind to and attack foreign body cells NK cells bind to receptors on any cell lacking class 1 MHC proteins-> NK cells releases pore forming proteins called perforins and granzymes-> foreign cell lyses

Denitrification equation?

NO3 → NO2 → N2 (in some bacteria can proceed to ammonia (NH3)

•

Nucleic acids methods for identification of infectious disease agents

•

Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI)

What is an infectious dose?

Number of organisms required to cause an infection.

Gastrointestinal Microbiota

Numbers of bacteria in the monogastric human gastrointestinal tract = 10^13 to 10^14 microbial cells *Microbial populations* in different areas of the GI tract are *influenced by diet and the physical conditions in the area*

Prebiotics

Nutrients that encourage the growth of beneficial microbes *Nutrients*

specific immuunity

-must be aquired -includes 3rd line of defense -there is a lag time between exposure and maximal response -antigen specific -exposure results in immunologic memory

CLOSTRIDIUM (bacterial)

1. TETANUS (NS) 2. BOTULISM(NS) 3. GAS GANGRENE/ANAEROBIC CELLULITIS & MYONECROSIS (Cadio /Lymph) 4. PSEUDOMEMBRANOUS COLITIS (GASTROENTERITIS)

CHLAMYDIA (bacterial)

1. TRACHOMA/INCLUSION CONJUNCTIVITIS (eye) 2. PSITTACOSIS/ORNITHOSIS (lower respiratory) 3. CHLAMYDIAL URETHRITIS, NGU, NONGONOCOCCAL URETHRITIS (genital and urinary)

3 types of of Horizontal Gene Transfer

1. Transduction 2. Conjugation 3. Transformation

What is required for bacterial virus replication?

A live, actively growing cell. If the cell isn't growing then the virus can't replicate.

What is an acute infection?

A severe and short infection.

Which TB infection is being described? - Only 10% of infected people develop the infection - Without treatment very few survive

Active tuberculosis infection

•

Activity spectrum

Indirect effects: Damage from virus results in activation of non-specific defenses ---- _________ cells, Natural Killer (NK) cells kill infected host cells ---- Complement, interferon result in ______ ______ _____

Phagocytic host cell death

What do dendritic cells do?

Phagocytosis.

What do neutrophils do?

Phagocytsosis.

What is responsible for digestion in the first 3 compartments of the rumen?

Bacteria and archaea, this is a very anaerobic environment.

Adherence to Epithelial Cells

Bacteria and viruses that initiate infection often adhere specifically to epithelial cells *through interactions between molecules on the surfaces of the pathogen and the host cell*

Bacteria can be toxigenic (produce toxins)

Bacteria may not spread, but release soluble toxins which dissolve in body fluids, damaging cells.

What type of disease is Septicemia?

Bacteria or fungal

What are the symptoms of Cutaneous Anthrax?

Characteristic lesion - black spot on sore, can cause septsis

•

Chicken pox (varicella)

VZV

Chickenpox and shingles Replicates in epithelial cells

Chlamydia (disease of urinary)

Chlamydia traachomatis, obligate intracellular pathogen

What antibiotic(s) target protein synthesis (ribosomes)?

Chloramphenicol Aminoglysocides Macrolides Tetracycline

What is a prevention for Naegleria fowleri?

Chlorination

28.4

Choosing the Right Treatment

Risk Factors of Infection

Compromised host --One or more resistance mechanisms are inactive --The probability of infection is increased --Age ----Young and old individuals are more susceptible --Stress can predispose a healthy individual to disease --Diet plays a role in host susceptibility to infection --Certain genetic conditions can compromise a host

Urea is?

Common form of nitrogen found in animal and human waste. NH2CONH2

Normal Microbiota aids host defenses by

Competing w/ pathogens for nutrients Occupying host surfaces Killing invaders with bacteriocins Changing conditions, e.g. pH Stimulating host defenses ---Leaking into body, keeping defenses on alert Producing vitamins benefiting overall host health

What is cytolysis?

Complement proteins assemble to form a membrane attack complex (MAC) and bind to pathogens. They create holes in the membranes and kill bacteria. (this works especially well in Gram negative bacteria.)

What is opsonization?

Complement proteins coat pathogens, encourages phagocytic cells to eat the pathogens.

Aerotolerant Anaerobes

Do not require oxygen as they metabolise energy anaerobically. Unlike obligate anaerobes however, they are not poisoned by oxygen. They can be found evenly spread throughout the test tube.

What is the diagnosis for fifths disease?

Doctor doing a visual test with patient and blood testing for parviovirus

Protozoan cyst

Dormant and protective form of protozoa

Pustule

Pus filled

What keeps bacteria under the radar

Quorum sensing

Equation of ammonification?

R-NH2 → NH3

Environmental factor affecting the skin microbiome (e.g. hygiene, temperature, humidity)

Composition is influenced by: ---Environmental factors (e.g., weather) ---Host factors (e.g., age, personal hygiene)

What is the process of the expression of viral genes?

Early genes stop host physiology, start virus replication (host DNA is broken down and the nucleotides are then used to make viral DNA)

Most common infectious diseases: GI and Resp. why?

Easy in, Easy out; most accessible Greatest frequency of exposure

What is the portal of entry for Acanthamoeba?

Epithelial entry (eyes, skin)

M protein

RHEUMATIC FEVER antigen - INHIBITS PHAGOCYTOSIS

infection process of HIV

RNA is copied into cDNA by reverse transcriptase cDNA inserts into host chromosome New RNA made Protein precursor made, then processed; assembly occurs Virions bud through cell membrane

Which type of viruses mutate more rapidly? Why?

RNA viruses do not have proof-reading in RNA-dependent polymerase, so mutate much more rapidly than DNA viruses.

Translation

RNA-> Protein

Negative (-) RNA viruses are complementary to a message, so they must be transcribed into a message by ___________?

RNA-dependent RNA polymerase. (This basically turns it into RNA (+) virus)

Papule

Raised lesion

•

Rapid Tests

What are some additional causes of meningitis

Escherichia coli (Rod shaped) Streptococcus agalactiae (Sphere shaped) Cronobacter sakazakii (Chromogenic differential agar- turn blue)

Common causes of Urinary infections

Escherichia coli, Pseudomonas, Enterococcus, Klebsiella, Proteus, Staphylococcus

Etest

Etest is a non-diffusion-based technique that employs a preformed and predefined gradient of an antimicrobial agent immobilized on a plastic strip

Mold morphology

Eukaryotic, chitin and cellulose cell walls, obligate aerobes, grow by elongation

What is passive humoral immunity?

Received from a donor. Can be artificial (ex: receiving antibodies from another donor) or natural (ex: from mother to offspring)

NK Cell

Recognizes cells displaying stress induced proteins not MHC-1 proteins and kills them

What is the vaccine for Malaria?

Recombinant protein vaccine passed stage 3 clinical trials as of January 2016

recombination/reassortment - how do they happen and what do they cause;

Recombination and reassortment of antigens can result in virus that can jump species, introducing more pathogenic strains into different populations

What is the portal of entry for the Bubonic Plague?

Respiratory tract or bites

What are the symptoms of Bubonic Plague?

Results in massive bacterial growth within the bloodstream (Bubos) Hemorrhage Obstructed blood vessels

HIV Movement

Reverse transcriptase makes DNA copy of RNA genome Integrase binds the DNA copy and inserts into host cell's chromosomes (provirus) Can exist as latent or productive

What are the symptoms of the measles ?

Exanthem bumps, Laryngitis, Secondary infections- sepsis (infection in the blood stream) *Rare: encephalitis (swelling of brain), neuron destruction

Dimorphic fungi

Exhibit two growth forms EX: Outside the body they are mold, but in the body they are yeast Systemic mycoses by mold spore inhalation

3)

Explain how diet plays a role in host susceptibility to infection. Discuss other host factors that can affect our resistance to infections.

3)

Explain the difference between direct agglutination and passive agglutination.

How do complement proteins differentiate between self cells and pathogens?

Self cells are already bound to other serum proteins, so complement proteins bind to pathogens not bound to other serum proteins.

DNA Replication

Semiconservative

Species, individual variations in presence/structure of receptors

Genetic resistance

•

Serological tests to detect pathogen-induced antibodies

What is the diagnosis for Tularemia?

Serology (can be misinterpreted as a number of other diseases) PCR

What are complement proteins?

Serum proteins that "complement" the innate immune system.

What is the agent for Meningitis?

Several causative microorganisms

What is a staph infection?

Staphylococcus aureus bacteria in the dermal layer of skin

What is the agent for Endocarditis ?

Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus, Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Toxic shock syndrome (disease of urinary)

Staphylococcus aureus; bacteria enters blood and produces exotoxins; low bp, red rash on trunk, vomiting and fever

Scalded Skin Syndrome (skin disease)

Staphylococcus aureus; common in infants; high fever, septicemia; death can occur; caused by exotoxins called exfoliants. toxins travel through bloodstream to skin causing upper skin layers to seperate and peel.

Opsonins

Stick viruses to phagocytes

Why does polymyxin work well against gram - cells?

Targets the cell membrane, and gram - have the outer membrane sticking out

Chlamydoconidia

Survival spores

What is Meningioencephalitis ?

Swelling of brain and meninges

Herpes viruses

Switch between productivity in epithelial cells and latency in neuronal cells

False

T/F: N. gonorrhoeae is oxidase positive and able to ferment glucose, maltose, and sucrose.

Chemokine receptors

T4 helper lymphocytes Macrophages Monocytes Dendritic cells Determine type of CD4+ cell HIV is able to infect

AIDS

T4 lymphocytes being destroyed and we can no longer replace them Marked decline in cytotoxic lymphocytes

HIV Replication

T4 lymphocytes stimulate antigens or cytokines activate the HIV Molecules of mRNA transcribed off provirus DNA then it goes through nuclear pores to the ER for translation

Chronic HIV Phase

T4 replacement equals T4 dying rate, but eventually dying rate outpaces Reverse transcriptase has high error rate

Nucleocapsid

Genome surrounded by a capsid Lacks an envelope

What is the treatment for Tularemia?

Gentamicin, streptomycin

water borne pathogen from recreational water

Giardia

Giardia lamblia

Giardiasis Flagella movement through oral-fecal route

What makes the large intestines such a great fermentation vessel?

Large intestine most heavily colonized part of the GI Colon is an excellent in vivo fermentation vessel *Facultative aerobes* (e.g. E. coli) deplete all oxygen and create an anoxic environment

What are the symptoms of Smallpox?

Large nutrophil filled bumps

What are the symptoms of Leishmaniasis?

Large open wound that kills the epidermis and dermis

Macroconidia

Large, multinucleate of fungus

What type of infection is Chicken Pox and Shingles ?

Latent

What type of infection is Roseola?

Latent ; sub-clinical

Which TB infection is being described? - People are carriers

Latent tuberculosis infection

What type of infection is fifth disease?

Latent; sub-clinical

•

HIV-1 and HIV-2

What is the treatment for rabies?

HRIG (prevention, or 4 doses within 2 weeks after the infection) Immunotherapy *ONCE REACHES BRAIN NO CURE*

What are the mortality rates of Meningioencephalitis ?

High rates

How does viral replication occur in the cell?

Later genes produce capsids, get viral DNA "packaged" into capsids, start lysis or budding (release of virions).

post-exposure prphylaxis

High doses of anti-retroviral drugs within 1-72 hours of exposure Treatment would last at least 28 days Can decrease viral amounts to undetectable levels

What are symptoms of Nonhemorrhagic Fever?

High fever, no capillary disruption

What does Hfr stand for?

High frequency recombinant (type of conjugation)

C (the diagnosis is cryptosporidiosis, from Cryptosporidium hominis, which causes mild diarrhea unless you don't have an immune system - then you're the patient) (treatment is supportive with rehydration and nitazoxanide or paromomycin)

Ignatius presents with severe watery diarrhea and gives a stool sample to be examined in the lab, which appears as shown under acid-fast staining. Which of the following is most likely true about Ignatius? A. Swims in freshwater streams B. Routinely eats undercooked meat C. Is HIV positive D. Works on a farm E. Owns a dog

What is multiple sclerosis?

Immune system treats a myelin basic protein as foreign.

What is type I diabetes mellitus?

Immune system treats pancreatic beta cell antigen as foreign.

What is rheumatoid arthritis?

Immune system treats synovial joint antigen as foreign.

not being susceptible to disease

Immunity

Yes- this is a suitable source

Indicate whether the following clinical specimens are suitable or unsuitable for anaerobic culture: Bile

Yes- this is a suitable source

Indicate whether the following clinical specimens are suitable or unsuitable for anaerobic culture: Blood

No- this is not a suitable

Indicate whether the following clinical specimens are suitable or unsuitable for anaerobic culture: Coughed (expectorated) sputum

Yes- this is a suitable source

Indicate whether the following clinical specimens are suitable or unsuitable for anaerobic culture: Endometrium

No- this is not a suitable

Indicate whether the following clinical specimens are suitable or unsuitable for anaerobic culture: Feces

No- this is not a suitable

Indicate whether the following clinical specimens are suitable or unsuitable for anaerobic culture: Throat swab

Yes- this is a suitable source

Indicate whether the following clinical specimens are suitable or unsuitable for anaerobic culture: Tissue biopsy

STORCH

ORGANISMS that can INFECT a DEVELOPING FETUS Syphilis (bacterial) Toxoplasmosis (viral) Other Rubella/measles (viral) Cytomegalovirus Herpes Simplex virus (Other): Chickenpox (viral) Zika (viral) Liseriosis (bacterial) Lyme disease (bacterial)

Who is most likely to get Cryptococus neoformans?

Occur more commonly in immune compromised populations (HIV/AIDS )

What temperature does nitrogen fixation occur at? What about in industrial processes?

Occurs at ambient temperature. In industrial processes occurs ~600°C.

How quick is a secondary response to a pathogen?

It is quicker than a primary response. B memory cells are able to divide rapidly.

How quick is a primary response to a pathogen?

It is slow. This occurs the first time you're exposed to a pathogen or when you get vaccinated, only one B cell for a particular antigen.

What type of rash is Chicken Pox and Shingles ?

Large Pustular

What type of rash is Cutaneous Anthrax?

Large Pustular

What type of rash is Leishmaniasis?

Large Pustular

What type of rash is Smallpox?

Large Pustular

What type of rash is Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome?

Large Pustular

Streptococcal skin infections

M protein Protein G Protease Erysipelas Scarlet Fever

•

M. leprae (Hansen's disease - leprosy)

What is a secondary infection?

Occurs subsequent to primary infection (may involve opportunistic pathogens).

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Match the organism with the appropriate term, disease or selective media. Choose the best answer: Thayer Martin

Bacteriophage structure

May contain a tail

•

Measles (paramyxovirus)

What is the agent in Measles

Measles virus

Another word for decomposition?

Mineralization.

•

Minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC)

What can Toxoplasmosis cause?

Miscarriage

•

Mode of action/target/symptoms of the following toxins:

•

Modification of known drugs (e.g vancomycin)

Attachment -Binding to host surfaces via adhesins such as

Molecules, structures such as fimbriae, capsules

MHC-1

On host cells and binds viral epitope so it can be recognized by CTL with T-cell receptors of a complementary shape, then apoptosis is induced by killer T cells

What is a virus associated with cancer called?

Oncogenic.

What percentage of cases of Roseola have the characteristic rash

Only about 30% of cases

Which types of hypersensitivity are considered delayed?

Only type IV is delayed. All other types are much more immediate.

What is the portal of entry for Cutaneous Anthrax?

Open skin wound or respiratory tract (worse version)

•

Opportunistic pathogens

bloodstream (as part of immune system)

whole blood consists of plasma and formed elements (RBCs and WBCs) plasma: water, dissolved substances, clotting factors serum: plasma without the clotting factors (fibrinogen has been removed)

A (the true intermediate host is sheep, humans get Echinococcus by accident - the definitive host is dogs)

When humans have cystic hydatid disease, the causative agent and host classification are A. Echinococcus granulosus - accidental intermediate host B. Echinococcus granulosus - definitive host C. Taenia solium - accidental intermediate host D. Taenia solium - definitive host

Microaerophilic

Which atmospheric condition is optimum for the cultivation of Campylobacter jejuni?

Microaerophilic environment

Which growth requirement is not appropriate for the cultivation of Haemophilus influenzae:

C (over 50% in the Southern states, likely linked to livestock) (A; think pinworms) (B; for sexually active people, but women more than men, think trichomonas) (D; think cryptosporidium) (E; immune compromise increases risk to all parasitic infections, not just ascarids)

Which population of the US has the highest prevalence of ascariasis? A. Infants B. Sexually active women C. Southern farmers D. Sewage workers E. HIV positive patients

Protistology

a scientific discipline devoted to the study of protists, a highly diverse group of eukaryotic organisms.

VZV travels along nerves of a single dermatome, so characteristically erupts along

a single stripe on one side of the body.

CHLORHEXIDINE

a surfectant and protein denaturant with broad micobicidal properties -skin degerming agents for preperative scrubs, skin cleaning, and burns

Pseudopodia

a temporary protrusion of the surface of an amoeboid cell for movement and feeding.

major role of cell mediated system

attach to infected cells (infected by bacteria or viruses) and destroy them

What is the vaccine for Yellow Fever?

attenuated, given to those traveling in areas where virus is common

What are the symptoms for Infectious Mononucleosis?

atypical lymphocytes Direct, indirect contact Extreme fatigue Rare complication: spleen rupture

Why is genotype and phenotype important?

bacteria only have one chromosome, so pheno- and genotype will align much more closely

What type of infection is Keratitis?

bacterial

What type of infection is Haemophilus influenzae?

bacterial meningitis

How does conjugation get plasmids or other genetic material across?

bacterial sex pilus or direct contact

gut typical resident

bacteroides

Solution to problem of VRE

banning use of avoparcin in animal feed

0.1% stain blue, *release histamine* granulocytes named according to microscopic appearance, presence of granules, type of stain etc.

basophils

after binding to their appropriate MHC, cells __

become activated

mutualism

benefits both organisms

viral size

between 20 nm to 14,000nm -0.02 um to 14um

Nonnucleoside Reverse Transeciptase Inhibitor

bind directly to RT and inhibit reverse transcription Both NRTI and NNRTI induce host level toxicity

antibody structure

binding site: top of purple area

Fc end:

binds to host cells

pathogen goes through part of life cycle in vector

biological

UTI-Cystitis (disease of urinary)

bladder infections; pain in pubic area, frequent urges to urinate when bladder is empty, burning pain with urinating, cloudy, colored urine, fever, nausea, back pain-indicates kidneys may be involved. treated w antibiotics

Indirect effects: T cells of immune system kill infected viral cells to _______ replication of viruses

block

what fluids should be sterile

blood and cerebral spinal fluid

platelets respond to physical roughness, release factors that lead to what

blood clotting

monocytes

blood phagocytes that rapidly leave the circulation; mature into macrophages and dendritic cells

What is the diagnosis for Infectious Mononucleosis?

blood sample ELISA

Modes of action- The cell wall

cell wall becomes fragile (cross walls are broken) and cell lyses

Activation of non-specific and specific defenses

cells killed by host

2nd line of defense

cellular and chemical system that comes immediately into play if infectious agents make it past the surface defense nonspecific (inflammation, fever, interferons, phagocytossis, complement, NK cells)

blood acts as a

cellular defense

portals of entry

characterist route a microbe follows to enter the tissue of the body

antiseptic

chemicals applied to body surfaces to destroy or inhibit vegatative pathogens

What is chemotherapy?

chemicals therapies used to treat a disease

Shingles is recurrence of previous _________

chickenpox

Haemophilus influenzae meningitis (disease of nervous)

children under 5; spreads from respiratory tract to bloodstream to meninges; gram - bacilli

Inhibition of protein synthesis

chloramphenicol,Aminoglycosides,tetracyclines, erythromycin, streptomycin, macrolids

Which disease is an acute diarrheal illness?

cholera

Which disease is an enterotoxin?

cholera

T cells continually replaced, continually destroyed Eventually, host loses is an example of

chronic infection

Foraminifera

class of amoeboid protists that produces a CaCo3 shell. The shells contribute to make landmarks such as the Pink Sands of Bermuda, the While Cliffs of Dover, and the stones that make up the Great Pyramids of Egypt.

molecule undergoes shape change upon binding to antigen

classic lock and key like an enzyme

sanitization

cleansing technique that removes microorganisms and debris from inanimate objects

degermination

cleansing technique that removes microorganisms and debris from living tissues

What is the recommended treatment for Rubella in adults?

clears on its own

platelets involved in what

clotting

serum contains all blood proteins EXCEPT for

clotting factors

What is the shape of Haemophilus influenzae?

coccobacilli (sphere/ rod)

arrangement of the nucleotides; three nucleotides determine the amino acid

codons

What is the diagnosis for ringworm?

culture & microscopy; KOH staining

How do you diagnose Septicemia?

culture microbes in aerobic vs anaerobic environments, antibiotic resistance, etc.

What is the diagnosis Cutaneous Anthrax?

culture on blood agar (Rod Shaped bacteria), clinical

T cells release *what* (signal proteins) that call and activate macrophages which aid attack.

cytokines

*Disease*

damage or injury to the host that impairs host function

resident flora

flora = microbiota natural communites of microbes that become establish in and on us includew mostly bacteria, archae, and fungi, some are pathogenic harmonius relationships w healthy people

histoplasmosis

fungus that affects the respiratory system, found in the Ohio and Mississippi river valley. called "cave disease"

microbial control methods- chemical agents

gases and liquids- antisepsis, disinfection, and sterilization

Porphyromonas

genera of bactoidetes that causes periodontal disease

Borrelia

genera of spirochetes, gram-negative, known for swimming, causes lyme disease.

Trepenoma

genera of spirochetes, gram-negative, known for swimming, causes syphilis

What are the two types of transduction?

general specialized

Fertility plasmids have all the _____

genes

segment of DNA that code for functional proteins/products

genes

Genome

genetic information of cell -Eukaryotes—all the chromosomes -Bacteria—chromosome and plasmids

Genotype

genetic makeup

science of heredity

genetics

genetic information of cell

genome

In Hfr fertility plasmid (F+) integrates into the _____ . It will only conjugate with _____.

genome; F-

genetic makeup

genotype

Rhizobium

genus of alphaproteobacteria that can fix nitrogen

Neisseria

genus of betaproteobacteria, known for it's pilli it uses to attach to cells

Myxoccus xanthus

genus of delta proteobacteria, can aggregate to form colonies covered in polysaccharides. They do not cause infection. Known as the social bacterium.

Campylobacter

genus of epsilonproteobacteria, lives in chickens and causes GI tract infections

Helicobacter

genus of epsilonproteobacteria, lives in stomach, acidophile

vibrio cholerae

genus of gammaproteobacteria, causes chlorea, plague, food poisoning

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

genus of gammaproteobacteria, causes pneuomnia in humans with cystic fibrosis, colonizes in burn wounds

E. coli

genus of gammaproteobacteria, found in the environment, foods, and intestines of people and animals

Yersinia

genus of gammaproteobacteria, gram-negative, causes food poisining (yersiniosis) after eating pork contaminated with versinia

Salmonella

genus of gammaproteobacteria, infection from this bacteria is usually caused by eating raw or undercooked meat, poultry, eggs or egg products

newborn indigenous flora

germ free prior to birth in uterus first exposure after breaking of fetal membranes initial exposure is primarily from mother

reservoirs are where ________ live

germs live

common vehicle transmission

getting food poisoning from contaminated food

mannoproteins

glucose proteins covered in sugar mannose on the outer edge of the fungal cell wall

M-tropic

gp120 adsorbs to CD4 and CCR5 of CD4+ cells Spreads infection, slower replicating

HIV Adsorption

gp120 adsorbs to CD4 and chemokine receptor -Binds to CD4 and induces a conformational change -Interacts with chemokine receptor and another conf. change occurs -Exposes fusion peptide

HIV Entry

gp41 is exposed so viral envelope fuses with host membrane Genome containing viral core enters host cell's cytoplasm

desiccation (drying)

gradual removal of water from cells, leads to metabolic inhibitation -generally not effective for microbial control

Bacterial Meningitis (disease of nervous system)

gram +, high fever; inflammation of the meninges (outer layer of brain ), sharp headache, vomiting , neck pain, loss of brain functions; progression to encephalitis (infection of brain)

Bacteroides

gram-negative bacteria, make up most of our gut bacteria, anaerobic

broad spectrum

greatest range of activity

Reservoir indicates where population of microbes is normally ________, not where it is acquired from (e.g. doorknob)

growing

attach to short chains of sugars

haemagglutinin

microbial death

hard to detect, microbes often reveal no conspicuous vital signs to begin with unlike the human body. Permanent loss of reproductive capability

The more immune individuals, the (*harder/easier*) it is for the disease to be spread among many people; the cycle of transmission is broken.

harder

know what is biofilm and why is it beneficial for the microbes to grow in the biofilm

layer of slime and bacteria that grows on a solid surface -beneficial because antibiotics won't penetrate

Droplet transmission:

less than 1 meter through air

What are the symptoms for Conjunctivits?

pain, pus production, redness, sensitivity to light

epidemic spreads worldwide

pandemic

Disease-causing bacteria; to them, we're dinner. is considered as

parasitism

one organism benefits at the other's expense; Classically, a "parasite" lives in or on host.

parasitism

indirect contact

passes from infected host to intermediate conveyor (fomites, food, aerosols, droplet nuclei) and then to another host; can occur in the absence of the infected individual/animal

Lyme Disease (disease of circulatory)

nonfatal, Borrelia burgdorferi, spirochete, G-; can be lifelong if not treated in time, transmitted by ticks, fever, headache and bulls eye rash

flora of GU tract

normal flora in external genitalia, vagina, and anterior urethra sterile in urine in bladder, posterior urethra, uterus

microbes normally found on the body

normal microbiota

main cause of viral diarrhea Outbreaks on cruiseships make news

norovirus

Limitations of antibiotics

not acid resistant doesn't work well against gram - allergenic location of infection resistance

Portals that do not provide access to susceptible tissue will

not lead to infection

mechanical vector

not necessary to the life cycle of an infectious agent and merely transports it without being infected

Infectious disease can be Non-communicable:

not spread from one host to another. -----Examples: your infected appendix bursts -----You get tetanus from "rusty nail"

potentially harmful diseases which must be reported to the CDC or other Health Unit by physicians

notifiable disease

morbidity

number of people afflicted with a certain disease

Requires a host cell to reproduce

obligate intracellular parasite

The major common cold virus, Rhinovirus, is specific to humans and like all viruses is an __________ __________ ________

obligate intracellular parasite

viral replication - lysogenic convergence

occurs when the infecting phage changes something in the host bacterium's life cycle ex: botulinum toxin

'Swine flu': strain; why do older people have some immunity against it while young people do not

older people have been in contact with it before. -seasonal flu is worse because immune system is weakened

parasitism

one org benefits, one is harmed

Antiobiotic-associated diarrhea

passing loose, watery stools three or more times a day after taking medications used to treat bacterial infections (antibiotics).

causes disease

pathogen

Non-infectious bacteria have low *what*

pathogenicity

What is Clavulanic acid and what does it inhibit? What kind of inhibitor is it?

penicillinase inhibitor - ** inhibitor

Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

penicillins, cephalosporins, bacitracin, vancomycin, Monobactams

Tuberculosis: Signs/symptoms of acute respiratory infections

persistent cough with blood constant fatigue loss of appetite and weight loss fever and night sweats

neutrophils

phagocytes active engulfers and killers of bacteria

chemotaxis and ingestion

phagocytes migrate and recognize PAMPs binding can be enhanced/mediated by opsonization of bacteria

action of cilia

propel mucus and microbes toward GI tract or to where they can be coughed out

skin typical resident

staphylococcus (oily areas) corynebacterium (moist areas)

true or false Mouth is full, fewer in esophagus and stomach; toward end of small intestine, numbers increase greatly.

true

true or false The portal of exit is often the same or connected to a portal of entry

true

true or false you swallow saliva which goes to the stomach and thats not a happy place fro microbes to be

true

true or false: relatively few bacteria cause disease

true

for shingles most cases occur along the ________

trunk

Basidiomycota

typically filamentous fungi composed of hyphae. Most species reproduce sexually with a club-shaped spore-bearing organ (basidium) that usually produces four sexual spores (basidiospores).

naive t helper cell

undifferentiated t cell with specificity to antigen

New influenza antigenic type leaves population *what*

unprotected

What is the portal of entry for Neisseria meningitidis?

upper respiratory tract, penetrates meninges

Urinary tract infections (disease of Urinary)

urine is good growth for many microorganisms

secondary role of cell mediated system

use cytokines to summon macrophages to destroy cells.

prophylaxis

use of a drug to prevent potential for infection of a person at risk

virulence factors that help an organism survive attack from phagocytes *antiphagocytic factors*

used to avoid death by phagocytosis

cold

used to preserve food, media, and cultures -several food poisoning traced back to refridgerated foods (lysteria moncytogenes)

bioremidiation

using bacteria to clean contaminants (oil spills)

Dry heat

using higher temperature than moist heat -incineration; flame or electric heating coil

bacterial endospores most resistant

usually require temperature above boiling

How are emerging infectious diseases different from 'regular' diseases?

vaccines, antibiotics, regularly available, common for things like strep, flu, chicken pox -emerging infectious diseases are unknown, don't know how to treat them

exit from sex by

vaginal fluid, semen

predormal stage

vague feelings of discomfort; nonspecific complaints

What is the treatment for Streptococcus pneumoniae?

vancomycin (antibiotic)

What does VRE stand for?

vancomycin-resistant enterococci

Chicken Pox/ Shingles (skin disease)

varicella-zoster virus; rash crusts over and heals; nerve pain, slight fever; virus travels down nerve ganglia

microbes colonize on the skin but what else happens

various factors keep population down

secondary immunodeficiency diseases

various immune deficiencies acquired after birth and caused by natural processes or artificial agents

primary immunodeficiency diseases

various immune deficiencies present at birth and usually stemming from genetic errors

If people get anthrax from inhaling B. anthracis endospores wafted into the air from a drone, that would be *what type of transmission?*

vehicle

Rabies (disease of nervous system)

very fatal; headache, fever, partial paralysis near bite site. throat muscles undergo painful spasms, hallucinations. virus attacks nervous system, once it hits the brain theres nothing you can do. virus spreads through saliva and is gets helped being spread by aggressiveness (hints: biting, drooling)

spirochetes

very hard to treat since flagellum is INSIDE the periplasm. Known as stealth pathogens.

6)

What is the similarity between the flora found in a female genitals at the menopause stage and a female at the pre-puberty stage? How different is it from a female between the stages of puberty and menopause?

The act of converting inorganic carbon to organic carbon.

Carbon fixation.

What are the two forms of TB?

1. Latent tuberculosis infection 2. Active tuberculosis infectioin

HAEMOPHILUS

1. MENINGITIS 2. PNEUMONIA

HIV

2 molecules of single stranded RNA

Rubella

"German Measles" Virus

Whats the nickname for Impetigo?

"School sores"

mother to offspring, e.g. vectors, Hep B

"vertical"

Cat-scratch fever

(Bartonella sp.) Transmitted by cats (kittens), children most susceptible Gram negative

Brucellosis

(Brucella sp.). Muscle aches, fever Gram negative, aerobic Unpasteurized milk

Certain T cells activated, become T-cytotoxic cells referred to as

(CD8 cells)

What is HIV?

(Human immunodeficiency virus) Retrovirus Causes destruction of white blood cells

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

(Rickettsia) Transmitted by ticks Gram negative, rods

how do you get Hep B

(sex/blood transmission)

RINGWORM - TRICHOPHYTON, MICROSPORUM, EPIDERMIPHYTON

*1. Corporis- of the body *2. Cruris- groin *3. Capitis- head *4. Pedis- foot (athletes foot) *5. Manuum-hand *6. Barbae- beard *7. Unguium- nails

The use of Chemical Controls

*Alcohols* ----Denature proteins and dissolve membrane lipids *Heavy metals* ----e.g., ions of mercury, silver, arsenic, zinc, and copper ----Effective but usually toxic (i.e., copper sulfate) *Halogens* ----E.g. iodine, chlorine ----Oxidizes cell constituents

The use of Chemical Controls

*Alcohols* ----Denature proteins and dissolve membrane lipids *Heavy metals* ----e.g., ions of mercury, silver, arsenic, zinc, and copper ----Effective but usually toxic (i.e., copper sulfate) *Halogens* E.g. iodine, chlorine Oxidizes cell constituents

Antibiotic Treatment

*Antibiotics treatment* can alternate the normal microbial communities ---> *Antibiotics-resistant microorganisms:* Staphylococcus aureus, Proteus, Clostridium difficile or Candida albicans *can opportunistically take over without normal competition*.

Clotting mechanism

*Clotting mechanism are often used by host to limit the spread of a pathogenic infection* ------*Fibrinolytic enzymes* - (e.g. streptokinase Streptococcus pyogenes) - dissolve the fibrin clots -----*Fibrin promoting enzymes* - (coagulase - Stapylococcus aureus) - *promote the formation of fibrin clots* and protects the pathogens by host

Antifungal Drugs

*Ergosterol inhibitors* target the unique fungal plasma membrane component ergosterol -----*Polyene antibiotics* - binds specifically to ergosterol causing membrane permeability and cell death ------*Azoles and allylamines *- inhibit ergosterol biosynthesis *Echinocandins* - cell wall inhibitors ----*Inhibit 1,3 β-D glucan synthase* (forms β- glucan polymers) -----Used to treat *Candida* infections -Other drugs target chitin biosynthesis, target folate biosynthesis, or disrupt microtubule aggregation -Antifungal-resistant fungi are emerging

Difference between exotoxins and endotoxins

*Exotoxins* - proteins released from the pathogen ----> It can be divided into 3 categories: 1) Cytolytic toxins (Cytotoxins) 2) AB toxins 3) Superantigen toxins *Endotoxins* - toxic component of gram-negative cell walls (not secreted) ---> affects the small intestine

Adherence by Extracellular Macromolecules

*Extracellular macromolecules* that are not covalently attached to the bacterial cell surface (*glycocalyx*) ---E.g. slime layer, capsule function in attachment, but also for protection against host defense ---*Opacity associated protein* in Neisseria gonorrhoeae - attach to epithelial cells ---*Hemagglutinin* helps influenza virus attach to lung epithelial cells *Fimbriae and pili*

Antifungal Drugs

*Fungi pose special problems for chemotherapy because they are eukaryotic* --Much of the cellular machinery is the same as that of animals and humans --As a result, many antifungals are topical --A few drugs target unique fungal metabolic processes

The use of Physical Controls

*Heat sterilization* ---Most widely used method of controlling microbes ---Endospores *Autoclave* -- >100ºC *Radiation* ---Microwaves, UV, X-rays, gamma rays, and electrons ---Sterilization in the medical field and food industry ---Approved by the WHO *Filtration*

Different stages of pathogenic infections, from colonization to disease

*Infection* - situation in which a microorganism is established and growing in a host, whether or not the host is harmed *Disease* - damage or injury to the host that impairs host function

pathogens

*Microbial parasites* *Microbes that cause disease* *Pathogenicity* - the ability of a parasite to inflict damage on the host *Virulence* - measure of pathogenicity *Opportunistic pathogen* Causes disease only in the absence of normal host resistance (e.g cancer or AIDS)

28.2 Healthcare-Associated Infections

*Nosocomial infection* -----Infection acquired at a healthcare facility -----1.7 million patients acquire HAI (1/20 patients) ----HAI are acquired from patients, hospital personnel etc. Table 27.3 risk factors

What are the diagnostic tests? Give an example of each.

*Phenotypic- features of virus/bacteria; (ex: Colony morphology) *Genotypic- looking at genetic markers and whether genes are absent or present (ex: Genotyping) *Immunological- use patient's antibodies to detect pathogen (ex: Rapid Strep Test)

Fusion Inhibitors

*Prevent viruses from successfully fusing with the host cell * E.g. enfuvirtide Blocks gp41 membrane receptors on T lymphocytes and stop the virus from entering the cells Therapy cost ~ $25,000/year

antibody-mediated immunity

*Primary response* -1st exposure to Ag -Long lag time (AMI process): weeks -Slow to protect first Ab class produced is IgM, followed by IgG -Memory B cells produced against Ag *anamnestic response* -reexposure to same Ag4-response in hours: IgG Ab class produced, then IgM -Ab response is stronger with reexposure

process of cell mediated immunity

*Primary response* -1st exposure to Ag -Long lag time for CMI response (days-wks) -Slow build-up of activated T cells -Memory T cells produced (clones) *secondary/enhanced response* -Re-exposure to Ag -Short lag time for CMI response (immediate) -Rapid build-up of activated T cells from memory cells

Probiotics

*Probiotics* - live culture of intestinal bacteria -*Recolonize normal gut flora* Evidence of *short-term affect* by probiotics, but little or *no long-term affect*

Antimicrobial Drug Susceptibility Testing

*Selection of antibiotics for microbial therapy* must be made on case-by-case bases *Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)* procedure for antibiotic susceptibility testing employs an antibiotic dilution assay ----Wells containing serial dilutions of antibiotics are inoculated with a standard amount of a test organism ----Look for inhibited growth (turbidity)

•Groups of microbes producing endotoxins

*The lipopolysaccharide (LPS) portion of the cell envelope of gram-negative Bacteria* -Released when the cell lyse Generally less toxic than exotoxins, but large doses can cause septic shock, hemorrhagic shock and tissue necrosis -Present in e.g. E. coli, Shigella, and Salmonella

Microhabitat variations in microbiome

*The skin surface varies greatly in chemical composition and moisture content* *Three microenvironments* (1) Dry skin (2) Moist skin (3) Sebaceous skin Skin microflora examined by molecular ecology methods ---19 phyla detected ---Each microenvironment shows a unique microbiota

Habitats in the GI tract (e.g. variations in pH, O2-levels etc between different parts of GI-tract)

*acidity of the stomach* and the *duodenum of the small intestine (~pH 2)* prevents many organisms from colonizing the GI tract

Effect of Antimicrobial agents

*icides:* agents which kill microbes ---->E.g., germicides: kill pathogens ---->Often effective against only a certain subset of microbes -------->E.g., algicides, fungicides, bactericides, etc... -*statics:* agents which prevent growth -------->If removed, growth continues -------->E.g., bacteriostatic, fungistatic, etc...

•Growth-dependent identification methods

*oxidase test:* colonies turn blue if contain cytochrome c

•Penicillins Vs. Cephalosporins (e.g. β-Lactaases and resistance)

*β-Lactam Antibiotics* -One of the most important groups of antibiotics of all time -*Penicillins* and *cephalosporins* Cell wall synthesis inhibitors Over half of all antibiotics used worldwide Allergies *Penicillin* -Effective primarily against gram-positive bacteria ---gram negative are impermeable -Semi-synthetic forms are effective against some gram-negative bacteria *Cephalosporins* - Produced by fungus Cephalosporium -Same mode of action as the penicillins -*Broader spectrum of activity than penicillins* -Resistant to *β-lactamases* ------Dihydrothiazine ring E.g. Ceftriaxone ----Commonly used to treat gonorrhea (Neisseria gonorrhoeae)

VRE: - Gram -/+ - Communal or HAI? - Where is it found in normal flora? - What infections does it cause?

- + - HAI - colon, female genital tract, skin - UTI, bacteremia, endocarditis

IgA (dimer only

- 4 (dimer); 2 (monomer) binding sites -percentage in serum: 13% -cant cross placenta -cant fix complement -secretory antibody;; on mucous membrane

Isocahedral virus morphology

- A 20-sided polyhedron

What is the difference between an antimicrobial and antibiotic?

- Antimicrobial: inhibits/kill bacteria; simple structures - Antibiotic: antimicrobial that is produced by another microorganisms; complex structure

Where is Polymyxin B used and what does it work against? ** How do you use it?

- Cell Membrane - Gm - ** Triple antibiotic ointment

Why is horizontal gene transfer important?

- Diversity- changes geno- and phenotype - Medically: virulence factor (transformation), can create antibiotic resistance (conjugation), toxin genes (transduction)

What should we do about resistance?

- Education - Improve immune system with other treatments - Decrease use

Natural mechanisms of resistance

- Enzymes break down antibiotics - Efflux pumps - Mutation (permanent, change structure) - Block entry (change surface)

First Line of defense of the Skin

- Epithelial cells

What is monobactams? What does it work against? What kind of antibiotic is it?

- Gm- - low toxicity - affects cell wall

Know the surface antigens for serotyping

- Haemagglutinin (HA) involved in virus entry to the cell - Neuraminidase (NA) invoved in virus release from the cell

b lymphocytes (b cells)

-involved in antibody mediated immunity -activated b cell produces specific antibodies to destroy a specific antigen

What are common mediums for growing viruses?

- Human host - Embryonated eggs (ex: chicken embryo) - Or in eukaryotic cell tissue culture

- Treatment of cholera

- IV fluid, ORT (Oral Rehydration Therapy),Vaccination

What does Isoniazid (INH) inhibit? What would you use it for and what is it good for?

- Inhibits mycolic acid sythesi - use for cell wall - good penetration ability

Helical virus morphology

- Length not fixed -- open structure - Any volume enclosed by varying length - Evolve without constraint of fixed coat

Treatment for TB? How long?

- Multiple drug therapy - 6 mths - 1 year

The speed of DNA replication is 40 minutes to copy the genome in E. coli. How can E. coli have a generation time of 20 minutes? How does this differ in a eukaryote?

- No steps; can have multiple chromosomes replicating at once- every time origin is open - has steps, have to finish first step before moving on to the next

Where is Rifamycins used and what does it inhibit? What does it penetrate and what kinds of side effects does it have?

- Nucleic Acid Synthesis -Inhibits synthesis of mRNA -Penetrates tissue -Enters CNS -Side effect •Red urine, feces, saliva, tears, and sweat

How is resistance being selected for?

- Overuse (one kind too much) - Misuse (not following prescription, using for virus, demand, wrong medication, sub-therapeutic: long term low dose) - Horizontal Gene Transfer - Travel

Where is Chloramphenicol used and what does it inhibit?

- Protein Synthesis - Inhibits peptide bond formation

- DNA -> DNA - DNA -> RNA - RNA -> Protien

- Replication - Transcription - Translation

What two characteristics make antibiotic effective treatments?

- Selectively toxic - Target something essential

Importance of Understanding Heredity

- To know flow of genetic information from genes to proteins - To solve or understand problems with antibiotic resistance - How emerging disease arise

Unknown capsid morphology

- Unknown symmetry - Neither polyhedral nor helical

Mycobacterium tuberculosis is an _____ _____ bacterium which means it contains _____ acid.

- acid fast - mycolic

Where is the genetic information found in eukaryotes? Bacteria?

- all the chromosomes - chromosome and plasmid

Mycobacterium tuberculosis grows in _____ which cause _____ in lungs. What may appear, why?

- alveoli, tubercula - small lumps; body forms granulomas to defend

Treatment of VRE

- antibiotic sensitivity test (see where there is resistance) - Linezolid (protein synthesis inhibitor) - Telavancin (synthetic glycopeptide)

Characteristics of Antibiotic: - ________ compound - Where do they come from? - Activity: nonspecific/specific - May have _____ effects - _____ exists - _____ vs. _____ spectrum

- antimicrobial - other microbes (natural products) - specific - side - resistance - broad, narrow

How would you diagnose Haemophilus influenzae?

- blood agar or chocolate agar (sphere/rod) -Facultative anaerobe -sample CSF

Vibrio cholerae: - Where is it found? - Infectious dose high/low? Is it lower in food or water, why? - Resistant to acid: yes/no?

- brackish water - high, food, food protects it from stomach acid - no

Why would it be important to understand the mutation rate?

- could potentially give rise to something new - mutations can be beneficial, not just bad

How do you die from cholera?

- dehydration, electrolyte imbalance

What does Vancomycin effect and what does it work against? When would you use Vancomycin?

- effective against penicillinase - works for cell wall - toxicity problems-- limit use - LAST LINE ANTIBIOTIC FOR RESISTANT

What kind of antibiotic is bacitracin and what does it work against? What does it affect? and what does it cause? ** how do you use it?

- effects against Gm + - causes nephrotoxicity (toxicity in the kidneys) - polypeptide antibiotic/ works against cell wall ** Triple antibiotic ointment

Who are the people most likely to have an active tuberculosis infection?

- elderly and children - immunocompromised - smokers - people who live in crowded conditions

Order easiest to hardest to treat with antibiotics and why: fungi, gram negative, gram positive, virus

- gram positive: simple; no outer membrane - gram negative: outer membrane - fungi: eukaryotes - virus: use our cells to replicate

What is the problem with targeting the cell membrane with antibiotics? So how can we use it?

- low selective toxicity because our cell membrane is the same as a bacteria - topically

Specialized transduction: - _____ virus - Virus enters host cells and enters into host's _____ (prophage) - What happens if the host cell becomes damaged? - What is the result?

- lysogenic - genome - virus will come back out and will begin to replicate (general transduction/lytic cycle) and kill the host cell (get new deformed virus) - deformed- will have viral and host DNA

t lymphocytes (t cells)

-involved in cell mediated immunity -cells mature in thymus gland -cell to cell defense -also have a role in antibody mediated immunity

Generalized transduction: - _____ virus (what does this mean) - uses _____ off host to get enough nucleotides for virus DNA - How come it makes it a defective virus?

- lytic (get in, replicate, kill cell, move on to the next) - chromosomes - carries host DNA to the new bacterium, NO viral DNA

Eukaryotes: - multiple/single chromosome - diploid+ or haploid - circular/linear chromosomes - DNA gyrase/Histone packaging - Attached to plasma membrane/Found in the the nucleus

- multiple - diploid or greater - linear - histone - nucleus

Which is broad spectrum and which is narrow spectrum? - targets only specific organisms - works on a wide range of bacteria (gram + and gram -)

- narrow - broad

How does DNA know how to begin? When proteins bind to this site it opens up DNA, which allows for _____ _____ to enter. They move around in a circle until they reach the what?

- origin of replication - replication fork - termination of replication

Bacteria: - multiple/single chromosome - diploid+ or haploid - circular/linear chromosomes - DNA gyrase/Histone packaging - Attached to plasma membrane/Found in the the nucleus

- single - haploid - circular - DNA gyrase - Attached to plasma membrane

Codons: - Wobble: _____ nucleotide is least important - How many sense codes for amino acids? Why are there more codes than amino acids? - How many nonsense? What do they code for? - What is the start codon?

- third - 61, allows for mistakes - 3 stop codons - AUG (methionine)

Bacteria can have simultaneous _____ and _____. What is the benefit? Down-side?

- transcription and translation - faster; can't control environment so need to respond quickly to environment - costly (lots of energy

What does cephalosporis work against and how is it taken?

- works against cell wall - injected

Invassiveness

-*Ability of a pathogen to grow in host tissue at densities that inhibit host function* ---->Can cause damage without producing a toxin -Many pathogens use a combination of toxins, invasiveness, and other virulence factors to *enhance pathogenicity*

•Major structural groups (aminoglycosides, macrolides etc.)

-*Aminoglycosides* are antibiotics that contain amino sugars bonded by glycosidic linkage -Target the 30S ribosomal subunit, *inhibiting protein synthesis* ------e.g. kanamycin, neomycin, amikacin, streptomycin -*Not commonly used today* ------Used when other antibiotics fail (e.g. semisynthetic penicillins) *Macrolides* contain *lactone rings bonded to sugars* --Broad-spectrum antibiotic that targets the 50S subunit of ribosome ----Patients with penicillin allergy *Tetracyclines* contain four rings, *napthacene ring system* -*Widespread* use in humans and animals -Common antibiotics resistance -*Broad-spectrum inhibition of protein synthesis* -Inhibits functioning of 30S ribosomal subunit

Degree of Removal of Microorganism

-*Sterilization:* the complete removal or destruction of all microbes ---->Even spores and viruses are removed ---->Often use chemicals referred to as sterilants -*Disinfection:* the killing, inhibition or removal of disease causing microbes ---->Also reduces the total microbial population ---->Employ disinfectants: agents to disinfect objects -*Sanitization:* reduction of microbial population to levels deemed "acceptable" -*Antisepsis:* prevention of infection of living tissue by microorganisms ----->*Antiseptics:* chemical agents that kill or inhibit growth of microorganisms when applied to tissue

non-phospholipases

-*Streptolysin O* - (Streptococci pyogenes) affect the sterols of the cytoplasmic membranes -Lysogenic bacteriophage - phage conversion ---Cause pharyngitis and acute/chronic rheumatic heart disease Leukocidins - lyse white blood cells (leukocytes) α-toxin - (Staphylococcus aureus) kills nucleated cells and lyses erythrocytes Key virulence factors in S. aureus pneumonia Ongoing development of vaccination with attenuated strains of S. aureus

Urinary tract infections

----->Escherichia coli, Proteus mirabilis and Staphylococcus saprophyticus *frequently cause urinary tract infections (UTI)* ----->*Viral and fungal infections* can also cause UTI ----->10% of females develop UTI yearly

Relationship between Lactobacillus acidophilus and estrogen levels

----Lactobacillus acidophilus, a resident organism in the vagina, ferments the glycogen, producing lactic acid ----Lactic acid maintains a local acidic environment ----L. acidophilus is present absent puberty and after menopause *(glycogen- estrogen relationship)*

*Infection*

-->situation in which a microorganism is established and growing in a host, whether or not the host is harmed

IgM

-10 binding sites (pentamer) -percentage in serum: 6% -cant cross placenta -can fix complement -produced at first response to antigen, can serve as a b-cell receptor

IgE

-2 binding sites -percentage in serum: 0.002% -cant cross placenta -cant fix complement -binds to mast cells and basophils -antibody of allergy, worm infection

IgD

-2 binding sites -percentage in serum: 1% -cant cross placenta -cant fix complement -receptor on B cells

IgG

-2 binding sites -percentage in serum: 80% -can cross the placenta -can fix complement -long term immunity; memorizes antibody; neutralizes toxins, opsonizes, fixes comlement -binds to phagocytes

*HIV structure PRINT PICTURE

-2 identical (+) strand ssRNA molecules enclosed in a capsid -Envelope with gp120 binding sites->cd 4 receptor sites -T4 helper cells same in body -Enzymes: Reverse Transcriptase (RT), Integrase, and Protease

categories and types of biological agents - know an example of each

-3 categories-A,B,C -A: high priority and mortality, require special action (Bacillus anthracis) -B: low mortality, more economic than public health impact (ricin) -C: unknown-emerging pathogens, potentially easy to disseminate, potential high mortality rate/public health threat (Zika) -bacterial agents: Bacillus anthracis (anthrax) (A) -viral agents: Variola virus (smallpox) (A) -toxins: ricin (B)

Measurement of virulence (e.g. LD-50)

->Virulence can be estimated from experimental studies of the *LD50 (lethal dose50)* -------->The amount of an agent that kills 50% of the animals in a test group ->*Highly virulent pathogens* show little difference in the number of cells required to kill 100% of the population as compared to 50% of the population

Measuring Virulence

->Virulence can be estimated from experimental studies of the *LD50 (lethal dose50)* -------->The amount of an agent that kills 50% of the animals in a test group ->*Highly virulent pathogens* show little difference in the number of cells required to kill 100% of the population as compared to 50% of the population

Biofilm formation (e.g. dental plaque)

-Attachment and growth have been well studied in the formation of *biofilms on tooth surfaces* -Acidic glycoproteins from saliva form a thin film (provide attachment site) -Streptococci colonize the film -S. sobrinus and S. mutans are common agents in tooth decay -Dextran - polysaccharide -Mixed assemblage

How do you diagnose Acanthamoeba?

-Brain biopsy (Removal of tissue for histological examination; to rule out cancer) -CFS

normally sterile body areas

-Brain; Central nervous system -Blood; Tissues; Organ systems -Bone and joints; muscle -Sinuses -Inner and Middle Ear -Lower Respiratory Tract: Larynx; Trachea; Bronchioles (bronchi); Lungs; Alveoli -Kidneys; Ureters; Urinary Bladder; Posterior Urethra -Cervix; Uterus; Fallopian Tubes

where is aminoglycosides used and what does it effect?

-Cause misreading -Effective against Gm- -Toxic side effects •Kidney damage •Auditory nerve damage - works against protein synthesis

Phenotypic Identification

-Colony morphology: What does the infectious agent look like/ shape? Colony -Biochemical: Does it have the presence of a specific enzyme?

•AB toxins

-Consist of two subunits, A and B -Protoxins -Work by binding to host cell receptor (B subunit) and transferring damaging agent (A subunit) across the cell membrane ---Examples: diphtheria toxin, tetanus toxin, botulinum toxin

Pauteurization

-Controlled heating temperature well below boiling -Reduces total microbial load and thereby increases shelf life of treated material -Keeps taste and nutrient values *Flash pasteurization* (high temperature short-term - HTST) -----72°C for 15 sec *Ultra high-temperature* (UHT) sterilization -----140-150°C for 1-3 sec

What is the diagnosis for Listeria monocytogenes?

-Culture methods are difficult -Grow best at 4 Celsius -ELISA -Immunofluorescence -DNA probe

How would you diagnose Neisseria meningitidis?

-Culture on chocolate agar (diplococcoal) -Oxidase test using CSF (positive)

Dental Plaque

-Extensive growth of oral microorganisms, results in a *thick bacterial layer (dental plaque)* -As plaque continues to develop, anaerobic bacterial species (e.g. Fusobacterium) begin to grow -As dental plaque accumulates, the microorganisms produce high concentrations of acid (especially *lactic acid*), resulting in *decalcification of the tooth enamel (dental caries)*

Where is Macrolides used and what is it good against?

-Gram+ only -Few side effects—children -Block tunnel

Contribution of human gut microorganisms to human health

-Human gut microorganisms synthesize: ---->*Enzymes* (digesting of complex carbohydrates) ---->*Amino acids* (essential) -Human gut microorganisms contribute to "maturing" of GI tract ---->*Induce expression of genes* involved in nutrient uptake and metabolism in gut epithelial cells ---->*Priming immune system* to recognize normal gut flora

Where is Quinolones used and what does it inhibit?

-Inhibits DNA gyrase - Nucleic Acid Synthesis

what does Ethambutol inhibit? What would you use it for? What kind of use is it?

-Inhibits incorporation of mycolic acid into cell wall - Use for cell wall -Used in combination to control resistance

Where is Tetracycline used and what does it interfere with? What are it's side effects?

-Interfere with tRNA - works against protein synthesis -Side effects ---Tooth discoloration in children ---Liver damage in pregnant women

How can you diagnose a Staph Infection?

-Isolation on blood agar (hemolysis- gold color) *Au-gold -Coagulase (positive/ solid)

•Biosafety level (BSL-1-4)

-Laboratories are classified according to their containment potential, or *biosafety level (BSL)*, and are designated as *BSL-1 through BSL-4* (see Table 27.2) -Most university labs have *BSL-1 and BSL-2 for teaching and research* -*BSL-3 and BSL-4 requires pressurized labs*

What is the recommended treatment for a staph infection?

-Methicilin (Use topical at first at localized area) -MRSA (Methicilin resistant staph aureus) use Amoxicillin *Use intravenous antibiotics is pathogen is getting close to blood stream

Antiviral Drugs

-Most antiviral drugs also *target host structures*, -------*Toxicity* (difficulties with selective toxicity) -Recent efforts to treat HIV have resulted in several new antiviral treatments --Most successful and commonly used antivirals are the *nucleoside analogs* (e.g. zidovudine/Azidothymidine - AZT) --Block reverse transcriptase and production of viral DNA (i.e. *nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors)*

nitrogen cycle

-Nitrogen fixation - N2 to NH3 Cyanobacteria, Azotobacter -Nitrification - NH3 to NO3 Nitrosomonas, Nitrobacter -Denitrification - NO3 to N2 Denitrifying bacteria (Pseudomonas)

Toxicity

-Organism causes disease by means of a toxin that inhibits host cell function or kills host cells -Toxins can travel to sites within host not inhabited by pathogen *Exotoxins* - proteins released from the pathogen *Endotoxins* - toxic component of gram-negative cell walls (not secreted)

physical or anatomical barriers

-Outermost layer of skin is composed of epithelial cells compacted, cemented together, and impregnated with keratin; few pathogens can penetrate if intact -Sloughing of epidermis -Flushing effect of sweat glands, urine, feces -Mucous coat impedes attachment and entry of bacteria -Mucus traps microbes -nasal hair traps larger particles -cilia of trachea -ciliated cells move mucus to pharynx

28.1 Safety in the Microbiology Laboratory

-Present significant biological hazards for workers -Standard lab practices for handling clinical samples are in place to protect workers

how is the human benefited with microbes in the gut?

-Production of various nutrients including vitamins -Protection from pathogens -Stimulation and training of the immune system -Prevention of inflammatory diseases -Proper development of lining of GI tract -Digestion of remaining nutrients in colon

detergents and soaps

-Quaternary ammonia compounds (QUATS) -soaps- mechanically remove soil and grease containing microbes

Enzymes in Saliva (category and Name)

-Saliva contains *antimicrobial enzymes*: ---->*Lyzosymes* - cleaves the glycosidic linkages in peptidoglycan ---->*Lactoperoxidase* (secreted by mammary, salivary, and other mucosal glands) - initiate oxidative reactions that result in oxidized intermediates with bactericidal effects

Microbial diversity in the gastroinstestines

-Salmonella enterica and S. bongori -*Flagellated enterobacteria* found in animals and environment -Cause various diseases such as *gastrointestinal illnesses, typhoid fever, paratyphoid fever*

Microbial traits are controlled or influenced by heredity

-Shape -Metabolism -Structure -Ability to cause disease -Everything

physical/chemical barriers

-Sneeze reflex -Skin secretions: sebum and sweat have antimicrobial chemicals. -Lysozyme and Lactoferrin (tears, sweat, saliva, mucous, human milk): lysozyme destroys the cell wall of gram-pos. bacteria; lactoferrin has various antimicrobial affects. -Acidity of stomach (pH 2) due to HCl: ↓ in microbes (gastric juice kills most bacteria) -Vagina: microbiota and acidic pH (acids released by some flora). -Semen: antimicrobial chemicals. -Urine: urine flow in ureters and bladder -Bile and intestinal enzymes: help to destroy microbes

Virulence Factors that interfere with host defense

-Some virulent factors protect the pathogen by interfering with normal host defense mechanisms -Virulent factors can affect fibrin, a blood protein that forms clots -*Clotting mechanism are often used by host to limit the spread of a pathogenic infection* ------*Fibrinolytic enzymes* - (e.g. streptokinase Streptococcus pyogenes) - dissolve the fibrin clots -----*Fibrin promoting enzymes* - (coagulase - Stapylococcus aureus) - *promote the formation of fibrin clots* and protects the pathogens by host immune cells

sulfur cycle

-Sulfur oxidation (can be both chemical and biological process) - S2H to S0 to SO4 2 - -Sulfate reduction (only biological process) - SO4 2 - to S0 to S2H

Where is Fluoroquinolones used?

-Synthetic quinolones -Broad spectrum -Nontoxic -Ciprofloxacin--anthrax - Nucleic Acid Synthesis

Urogenital Tracts and Their Microbes

-The *bladder* is typically *sterile* -Altered conditions (e.g. pH) can cause potential pathogens in the urethra to multiply and become *pathogenic* ----->Escherichia coli, Proteus mirabilis and Staphylococcus saprophyticus *frequently cause urinary tract infections (UTI)* ----->*Viral and fungal infections* can also cause UTI ----->10% of females develop UTI yearly

Attenuation

-The *decrease or loss of virulence* -Attenuation often occurs in *lab strains* (i.e. virulence has no selective advantage); *possible to purposely select for less virulent strains* (e.g. mutagenesis of virulent genes) -Virulence may be *regained or permanently lost* -Attenuated strains can be *useful to produce vaccines*, (e.g. measles, mumps, rubella, and rabies)

The availability of nutrients is most important in affecting pathogen growth

-The availability of nutrients is most important in affecting pathogen growth ---Iron is an important growth-limiting micronutrient for bacteria ---Transferrin and lactoferrin are high-affinity iron-binders, which sequester iron in the host and limit infections -Pathogens can produce iron-chelating compounds (i.e. siderophores)

Oral Cavity: Common microbes/pathogens in lower respiratory tracts

-The lower respiratory tract *lacks microflora in healthy individuals* -*Ciliated epithelial cells* act as defense by removing particles -*Bacteria and virus* can cause infection in lower respiratory tracts and lungs (*pneumonia*) Pneumonia cause >4,000,000 deaths yearly

Microbial diversity in Oral Cavity

-The oral cavity is a *complex, heterogeneous microbial habitat* -High concentrations of nutrients -Saliva contains *antimicrobial enzymes*: -Lyzosymes - cleaves the glycosidic linkages in peptidoglycan -Lactoperoxidase (secreted by mammary, salivary, and other mucosal glands) - initiate oxidative reactions that result in oxidized intermediates with bactericidal effects

- what type of habitats and microbes

-The oral cavity is a *complex, heterogeneous microbial habitat* Most microorganisms are -*facultatively aerobic* ----Obligately anaerobic ----Obligately aerobic *Not all taxa are present and similarly distributed in all individuals*

How do epithelial cells act as the first line of defense of the skin?

-They *provide barriers* *-Secrete Mucus* (water soluble proteins, glycoproteins etc.) that inhibit microbial attachment) *-Physical Removal:* swallowing or sneezing

Virulence factors (enzymes, adherence molecules, toxins)

-Virulence factors are *molecules produced by a pathogens that enhance invasiveness:* ---->Attachment/ Adherence Molecules ---->Enzymes ---->Toxins -Enhance virulence by breaking down or altering host tissue to provide access to nutrients --*Hyaluronidase* break down hyaluronic acid --*Collagenase* - destroy *collagen* -Many other types of proteases, nucleases, lipases to degrade proteins, nucleic acids and lipids

clonal selection theory

-a theory that explains how first-time exposure to antigens are recognized by lymphocytes that leads to adaptive immunity -before birth, stem cells in bone marrow undergo a continuous series of divisions and genetic changes that generate millions of different T and B lymphocytes -each lymphocyte has a particular/unique receptor specificity to a particular epitope or antigen

what are viruses

-acellular -obligate intracellular parasites -no ATP generating system -no ribosomes of protein synthesis

dyes as antimicrobial agents

-aniline dyes (crystal violent/ malachite green) very active agent against gram positive species or bacteria and various fungi

animal viruses: enveloped

-attachment -penetration by fusion (viral envelope and cell membrane fuse together) -uncoating -biosynthesis (needs to make coat proteins and receptors) -assembly -release: by budding

animal viruses: non-enveloped

-attachment: binding sites must match the receptor sites on host cell -penetration: phagocytosis -uncoating: capsid/envelope are taken away -biosynthesis: genome replication, transcription, translation -assembly: virus particles are assembled -release : by lysis

cells involvedd in b cell response

-b cells with igD antibodies displayed on their b cells are also APCs -t helper 2 cells: its tcr/cd4 bind to b cells MCH II -plasma cells: activated b cells differentiate into plasma cells; plasma cells produce antibodies (igM and igG) -memory b cells

mechanisms of drug actions

-cell wall inhibitors; blocks synthesis and repairs -cell membrane;causes loss of selective permeability -DNA/RNA; inhibit replication and transcription, inhibits gyrase -protein synthesis inhibitors acting on ribosomes -metabolic pathways and products; block pathways and inhibit metabolisms

how to protect against it

-cover nose and mouth with tissue when coughing/sneezing, then throw it away -wash hands often w/soap and water -alcohol based cleaners are effected against developed viruses like influenza -avoid touching eyes, nose, mouth -avoid unnecessary traveling to areas w/high rate of infection

how influenza kills;

-deaths from Influenza are often caused by body's own immune system destroying the respiratory epithelium -secondary bacterial infections

How likely are you to get this disease or any emerging infectious disease? (Think about this one in the global context!)

-depends on where you are or what you are doing

growing viruses-phages

-easiest to grow because bacteria are easy to grow -lawn of bacteria on spread plate -add bacteriophages -infection results in 'plaques'-clear zones on the plates where bacteria have been killed by the viruses

what is the advantage of biological agents over chemical and nuclear weapons

-easily concealed -multiply rapidly -easy production

alcohols

-ethyl -isopropyl

gases and aersols

-ethylene oxide -propylene oxide

how to distinguish between natural and intentional outbreaks of disease

-first indicator is always an increased number of pts. showing up in hospitals w/symptoms caused by the particular agent -disease that is unusual for a season/geographical area -unusual disease for an age group

aldehydes

-glutaraldehyde- sterilant for heat sensitive instruments -formaldehyde- disinfectant, preservative, extream toxicity

Baltimore classification-7 groups

-group I: dsDNA -group II: ssDNA -group III: dsRNA -group IV: ssRNA(+) -group V: ssRNA(-)template for mRNA transcription -group VI: Retroviruses (ssRNA(+)RT) -group VII: Pararetroviruses (dsDNA-RT)

growing viruses-plant

-grown in living plants -cell culture (protoplast) -problem: how to inoculate plant cells that have tough cell walls

methods of physical control

-heat; moist and dry -cold temperatures -desiccation -radiation -filtration

What percentage of cases are Viral meningitis?

80%

indications of biological attack

-mysterious illness w/many people sick for unknown reasons -large # of insects or unusual insects -large # of dead wild/domestic animals -mysterious disease of plants over large area -mass casualties w/flu-like symptoms

clonal selection theory

-naive t and b cells continually circulate between blood and peripheral lymphoid tissue until they encounter their specific antigen -first encounter of particulat lymphocyte to matching antigen causes it to expand into a clone of cells that can react to that antigen

what are viroids

-naked pieces of RNA (no capsid) -3D -insect enters the cell -plant pathogens

viral structure

-nucleic acid-DNA or RNA, but never both -capsid (protein coat): made of capsomeres -envelope

non-specific immunity

-present at birth -includes 1 and 2nd lines of defense -there is immediate maximal response -not antigen specific -exposure results in no immunologic memory

What are the symptoms of a staph infection?

-pus-filled bumps -Warm to the touch (increase immune activity) -Surrounding area red and inflammed (edema- diluting pathogen)

why viruses are not alive

-use host cell nutrients -do not have DNA and RNA at the same time -no ribosomes for protein synthesis

vaccines against seasonal Influenza;

-usually a mix of influenza A and B -usually grown in chicken eggs -not good for over year or 2 (virus mutates rapidly)

Bulla

1 cm

Monocistronic

1 mRNA = 1 protein

What is the mortality rates of viral meningitis?

1%

Naked Viral Entry

1) Capsid proteins rearrange and viral nucleic acid passes through cytoplasm 2) Receptor mediated endocytosis

Fungal virulence factors

1) Compromised immune system 2) Adhesins 3) Capsules to resist phagocytic engulfment

Naked Viral Movement

1) Endocytic vesicle lyses 2) Capsid undergoes a conformational change to create pores in the endocytic vesicle

Fungi properties

1) Eukaryotic 2) Rigid cell wall 3) Chemoheterotrophs 4) Absorption of nutrients 5) Parasites or saprophytes Most are beneficial!

Envelope Viral Movement

1) Nucleocapsid is dumped into cytoplasm because the viral envelope fused with endocytic vesicle

Damaging Fungal Virulence Factors

1) PAMPs binding to PRR 2) Secrete enzymes to digest cells 3) Mycotoxins secreted

Reverse transcriptase

1) RNA dependent DNA polymerase 2) Ribonuclease activity 3) DNA dependent DNA polymerase Double stranded DNA intermediate

Enveloped Viral Entry

1) Viral envelope fuses with host membrane and release nucleocapsid into the cytoplasm 2) Virus taken in by endocytosis

Microbial Control Goals

1- Destroy and reduce the transmission of pathogens 2- Reduce or eliminate contaminating microbes from food, water, swimming pools, etc.

ASPERGILLUS

1. AFLATOXIN 2. ASPERGILLOSIS

Importance of the nitrogen cycle?

1. Agriculture - plants require fixed nitrogen 2. Aquaculture (including Sea World) - high ammonia levels toxic for fish and orcas - "biofilters" (promote nitrification), nitrate less toxic. 3. Wastewater - denitrification promoted to remove nitrate from wastewater, reduce eutrophication)

Why is the carbon cycle important?

1. It is the base of the food chain in many environments 2. Wastewater treatment 3. Biofuel production (like making methane from agricultural waste)

*HIV infection - cellular level;

1. Attachment - HIV gp120 binding sites must match CD4 receptor cites -CD receptor sites - only found on Macrophages (WBC) -Some CNS cells, T4 helper cell - this is the main target of HIV -CD4 cells are killed by the virus itself -Apoptosis of the cells -Killing of the infected CD4 cells by CD8 cells (cytotoxic or killer T-cells) 2. Penetration by fusion - not phagocytosis 3. Uncoating - capsid is removed and viral genome is exposed 4. Integration -Viral genome (RNA) is reversely transcribed by viral reverse transcriptase to DNA -Then host cell DNA polymerase will covert the resulting single stranded DNA into dsDNA -'intergase' inserts the dsDNA into host cell genome, the resulting piece is called 'provirus' virus is latent and then, the HIV genome is expressed and the virus enters the biosynthesis stage: -RNA polymerase will synthesize the HIV genome -RNA polymerase will also transcribe mRNA for protein synthesis to make coat proteins, gp120 binding proteins, reverse transcriptase

four types of hypersensitivity rxn

1. B cell issue: immediate response (allergies) 2. B cell issue: antibody mediated (blood incompatabilities, myasthenia gravis) 3. B cell issue: immune complexes (RA, lupus) 4. T cell issue: cell medated, cytotoxic T cells (contact dermatitis, TB test)

HERPES (viruses, skin)

1. CHICKENPOX 2. SHINGLES 3. COLD SORE/FEVER BLISTER-HSV1 4. GENITAL HERPES- HSV2 5. ROSEOLA/6th Disease

Fungal Diseases of the Nervous System

1. Cryptococcus

What are the 3 roles of complement proteins?

1. Cytolysis 2. Opsonization 3. Enhance inflammation (complement proteins bind to mast cells)

Transmitted by FLEAS

1. EPIDEMIC MURINE TYPHUS 2. SEPTICEMIA

RICKETTSIA (bacterial, cardio/lymph)

1. EPIDEMIC TYPHUS 2. EPIDEMIC MURINE TYPHUS 3. ROCKY MOUNTAIN SPOTTED FEVER

Bacterial Infections of the Cardiovascular & Lymphatic System

1. Endocarditis 2. Pericarditis 3. Tularemia 4. Brucellosis 5. Anthrax 6. Gas Gangrene 7. Bubonic Plague 8. Lyme disease 9. Epidemic Typhus 10. Epidemic Murine Typhus 11. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

VRE- 2 types of bacteria: 1. most common 2. most resistant

1. Enterococcus faecalis 2. Enterococcus faecium (most VRE)

NEISSERIA

1. GONORRHEA 2. MENINGEALCOCCAL 3.

Fungal Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System

1. Histoplasmosis 2. CoccidioidoMYCosis 3. PneuMOCystis Pneumonia (PCP) 4. BlastoMYCOsis 5. Aspergillosis

STAPHYLOCOCCUS

1. INPEDIGO of the NEWBORN 2. ENDOCARDITIS 3. TSS TOXIN

Diseases of the Eyes

1. Inclusion conjunctivitis 2. Chlamydia

Clinical stages of HIV infection, how are the stages determined;

1. Incubation period (2-4 weeks) - Initial exposure of body fluids to HIV 2. Acute infection stage Viremia - fever, headaches, muscle and joint aches 2-4 weeks 3. Asymptomatic (latent) disease stage Virus is latent inside CD4 helper cells No signs or symptoms of illness HIV-positive: Immune system is making antibodies against it Antibodies can be detected Seroconversion takes 6-8 weeks 4. Symptomatic stage of the disease Viral genome is turned on, symptoms begin to appear Genome is turned on by (or in combination with) other infections Alcohol and drug abuse Shock, sunburn, etc. 5. Advanced disease stage - full-blown AIDS Severe opportunistic infections -Kaposi sarcoma - cancer causing virus that affects skin and blood vessels -Toxoplasmosis (affects brain) - protozoan -Cryptosporidiosis (GI tract) - protozoan Many other fungal and viral infections

Viral diseases of the Cardiovascular & Lymphatic System

1. Infectious Mononucleosis 2. Cytomegalovirus Inclusion Disease 3. Hemorrhagic Fevers 4. Yellow Fever 5. Dengue Fever 6. Ebola 7. Zika 8. Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome

Bacterial diseases of the skin

1. Macule 2. Papule 3. Vesicle 4. Bulla 5. Pustule 6. Pyogenic 7. Toxic shock syndrome 8. Scalded skin syndrome 9. Impetigo of the newborn 10. Osteomyelitis 11. Saint Anthony's fire 12. Scarlet fever 13. Propionibacterium 14. Pseudomonas-acne 15. Swimmers ear

Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System

1. Meningitis 2. Encephalitis 3. Neisseria Meninges 4. Streptococcus pneumoniae Meningitis 5. Listeriosis 6. Tetanus 7. Botulism 8. Leprosy

VIRAL DISEASES OF THE DIGESTIVE SYSTEM

1. Mumps 2. Hepatitis A 3. Hepatitis B 4. Hepatitis C 5. Hepatitis D 6. Hepatitis E

Factors that influence degradation of organic matter?

1. Nutrients present in environment 2. Abiotic conditions (pH, oxygen availability, temperature) 3. Microbial community present 4. Xenobiotic degradation (synthetic chemicals)

Steps in translation

1. Parts needed to begin process come together (ribosomal subunit, codon on mRNA, anticodon on tRNA) 2. On the assembled ribosome, the tRNA with first amino acid pairs with start codon on mRNA. First tRNA sits in P site 3. Second codon of mRNA pairs with tRNA carrying second amino acid at the A site. First amino acid joins the second with peptide bond. This attaches the polypeptide to the tRNA in the P site. 4. Ribosome moves along mRNA until the second tRNA is in the P site. The next codon will be brought to A site, and the first tRNA is in E site 5. second amino acid joins to the third by another peptide bond, and first tRNA is released from E site 6. Process continues until reaches stop codon where the polypeptide (amino acid chain in P site) is released 7. Last tRNA is released, ribosome comes apart, released polypeptide forms new protein

What are Koch's postulates?

1. Pathogen must be present in every case of the disease but absent in healthy individuals. 2. Pathogen must be isolated from the diseased host and grown in pure culture. 3. The pathogen from the pure culture must cause the disease when inoculated into a healthy, susceptible lab animal. 4. The pathogen must be isolated from the inoculated animal and must be shown to be the same as the original organism.

Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System

1. Pertussis 2. Tuberculosis 3. Pneumococcal Pneumonia 4. Group A Strep Pneumonia 5. Klebsiella Pneumonia 6. Serratia Pneumonia 7. Legionnaires Disease 8. Haemophilus Pneumonia 9. Atypical Pneumonia 10. Psittacosis 11. Q Fever

Mycotic infections of the skin

1. Piedra 2. Tenia Versicolor or petyriasis versicolor 3. Ringworm 4. Rose Garner's disease 5. Chromoblastomycosis 6. Candidiasis 7. Thrush/oral candidiasis 8. Vaginitis

Viral Diseases of the Nervous System

1. Poliomyelitis 2. Rhabdovir 3. Encephalitis

Steps of Transcription

1. RNA binds to promoter 2. DNA unwinds at the beginning of the gene 3. RNA synthesized with complementary base pairing of free nucleotide (based on nucleotide bases on the template strand of DNA) 4. site of synthesis moves along DNA 5. DNA that has been transcribed rewinds 6. transcription reaches the terminator 7. RNA and RNA polymerases are releases and the DNA helix re-forms

Transmitted by TICKS

1. ROCKY MOUNTAIN SPOTTED FEVER 2. LIME DISEASE 3. ULCERGLANDULAR TULAREMIA 4. Q FEVER

What are the 5 signs of inflammation?

1. Redness 2. Heat 3. Pain 4. Swelling 5. Loss of function or altered function

Viral Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System

1. Respiratory Syncytial Virus 2. Influenza

SALMONELLA (bacterial, lower digestive)

1. Salmonellosis 2. Typhoid fever

Vaccines

1. Shingles 2. Streptococcus pneumonia meningitis 3. Rubeola/Mesales 4. Typhoid 5. Hepatitis A& B 6. Mumps/Parotitis 7. Polio 8. Tetanus 9. Diphtheria 10. Pertussis

Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Digestive System

1. Staphylococcus Food Poisoning/Intoxication 2. BACillary Dysentery 3. Salmonellosis 4. Typhoid Fever 5. Cholera 6. GASTROenteritis 7. CampyloBACTER 8. Vibrio parahaemolyticus

Bacterial Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System

1. Streptococcus 2. Diphtheria 3. Common Cold - Coronavirus - Rhinovirus - Adenovirus

Viral diseases of the skin

1. Warts 2. Smallpox 3. Chickenpox 4. Shingles 5. Measles 6. Rubella 7. Cold sores/fever blisters 8. Fifth disease 9. Roseola

viral replication - lysogenic cycle,

1. attachment 2. penetration 3. integration-genome integrated, virus inserts genes into host cell genome -prophage: virus is latent -bacterial cell replicates its genome, at one point, the viral genome is turned on.. 4. biosynthesis-viral genome turned on (takes over host cell for genome replication, transcription, translation 5. assembly 6. release by lysis

viral replication - phages: lytic cycle

1. attachment-binding sites must match receptor sites 2. penetration-viral DNA is injected into bacterial cell 3. biosynthesis 4. assembly (maturation) 5. release by lysis-bacterial cell is filled up and bursts (20-40 min., 50-200 new viruses)

germicidal categories

1. halogens 2.phenolics 3.chlorhexidine 4.alcohols 5.hydrogen peroxide 6.aldehydes 7.gases 8.detergents and soaps 9.heavy metals 10.dyes 11.acids and alkalis

viral morphology

1. helical-rod made of helical capsomeres 2. spherical-many sided 3. enveloped-envelope can surround the helical or spherical capsid 4. complex structure-everything that doesn't fit in the other categories

6 characteristics of life

1. made of cells 2. grow and maintain structure by metabolizing chemicals from the environment 3. respond to the external environmental stimuli 4. reproduce and pass on their genes to the offspring 5. evolve and adapt to their environment 6. all living organisms possess both DNA and RNA

Steps of DNA replication (8 steps) and the enzyme responsible

1. remove supercoiling: DNA gyrase 2. Break hydrogen bonds to get single strands- helicase 3. keep strands apart with- single stranded protein 4. Add RNA primer (b/c it can be added w/out 3' hydroxyl)- primase 5. Adds DNA, uses old DNA strand as template (semi-conservative)- DNA polymerase III 6. Proofreading (remove RNA primers and fixes errors)- DNA polymerase I and II 7. Fix last gap- DNA ligase 8. Supercoil- DNA gyrase

4 major subdivisions of immune system

1. reticul-endothelial system 2. ECF 3. bloodstream 4. lymphatic system

functions of immune system

1. surveillance of the body 2. recognition of foreign material 3. destructino of entities deemed to be foreign

Incubation for AIDS

10 yrs

microbial cells outnumber body cells by ratio of __

10:1 Body cells: ~10^13 cells Microbes in body: >10^14 cells

Reinfection

10K-50K viruses per animal cell

autoclave-

15 PSI/121*C/15-40mins

Unique genes, ?:?

150:1

When was the last known case of smallpox?

1977

Cell to Cell, from ?:? to ?:?

1:1 to 3:1

If Cutaneous Anthrax is left untreated, what is the mortality rate?

20%

Microbes have been on earth for?

3.5 billion years.

What enviornment does Listeria monocytogenes grow the best in?

4C

What is the mortality rate in adults Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome?

50%-60% (dermis exposed- pathogen gets into blood stream & dehydration)

what percentage is plasma of your blood

60

components of blood

60% plasma water and salts (electrolytes) Proteins: albumin, immunoglobulins, fibrinogen,

how many different RNA molecules for influenza

8

E (oh yeah, now we gettin' INTEGRATIVE) (the intestinal diagnosis is giardiasis, which is an adherence [NOT INVASION] to the intestinal lumen - if you know that mucosal attachment by pathogens is inhibited by IgA, recognize the presence of sinusitis to support this conclusion, and the lack of viral or fungal infections to rule out the other choices, then you've found your answer)

A 5 year-old-boy with a history of severe allergies and recurrent sinusitis presents with foul-smelling, fatty diarrhea. He is at the 50th percentile for height and weight. The boy's mother reports that he has had several such episodes of diarrhea over the years. He does not have any known history of fungal infections or severe viral infections. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this boy's presentation? A. Thymic aplasia B. Hyper IgE syndrome C. Severe combined immune deficiency D. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome E. IgA deficiency

What is a naïve B cell? How is one activated?

A B cell that has never been exposed to an antigen. They are activated by an antibody and an epitope binding to an IgM on the cell surface.

Neisseria meningiditis

A CSF (cerebrospinal fluid) specimen from a 21 yo college student grew a pure culture of moist grey colonies. The following lab results were observed: Gram stain = gram negative diplococci BAP and Chocolate agar = aerobic growth in CO2 incubator MacConkey and PEA= no growth Oxidase= positive DNase - neg Carbohydrate fermentation = glucose-pos, maltose-pos, sucrose-neg, lactose-neg What is the most likely organism? ________________________________________

A (these guys are cute - he looks like he has a goofy moustache and big worried eyes!)

A child who lives in a rural community, presents with abdominal pain, anorexia, and watery diarrhea. Fecal smear reveals an abundance of protozoan organisms like the one pictured. The microbe most likely responsible is A. Giardia B. Entamoeba C. Cyclospora D. Cryptosporidium E. Balantidium

What is a nucleocapsid?

A combination of the capsid and nucleic acids is called a nucleocapsid.

asthma

A condition in which a person's airways become inflamed, narrow and swell, and produce extra mucus, which makes it difficult to breathe.

Clostridium perfringens

A diabetic patient presents to the emergency department with excrutiating foot pain. Upon further exam he is found to have a foul smelling wound at the base of his foot. A piece of tissue is submitted for aerobic and anerobic culture. The culture results are as follows. No growth on Blood, Chocolate and Macconkey agar incubated at 35degrees in ambient air. Growth on PRAS-ANA brucella plate inubated in a jar with a Gaspak Growth in the bottom of a thioglycollate broth. Gram stain=large gram positive (and gram variable) rods, no spores observed PRAS-ANA brucella agar shows double zone of beta hemolysis Special potency disks = Kanamycin-sensitive, Vancomycin-sensitive, Colistin-resistant Which organism is most likely the agent of his infection?

Antibodies made by a single B cell are all the same

A different B cell makes antibodies with the same "constant region", different variable region.

B (all groups of trematodes/flukes use a snail as a host, most often as an intermediate host)

A freshwater snail is always a part of the life cycle in which of the following groups? A. Cestodes B. Trematodes C. Filarial worms D. Intestinal nematodes

What is genotyping?

A genotypic test where an individual would look for genetic traces of a pathogen, then extract DNA, amplify DNA (PCR), probe DNA which an be done with PCR or can be done with colored probes

What is a Rapid Strep Test?

A immological test, The rapid strep test (RST), or rapid antigen detection test (RADT), is a rapid diagnostic test that is used to assist in the diagnosis of bacterial pharyngitis caused by group A streptococci (GAS), sometimes termed strep throat. The antibodies bind to antigens in the test confirming strep throat. *(Similar to pregnancy test)

What is a hapten?

A molecule with an epitope, but too small to elicit an immune response (antibody formation).

A (the diagnosis is leishmaniasis, vectored by the sandfly - this particular diagnosis is cutaneous leishmaniasis, since the same parasite can cause mucocutaneous, and visceral infections) (B; this is for Cyclospora spp) (C; this is for Plasmodium spp) (D; this is for amoebas and trichomonads) (E; this is for tapeworms and flukes)

A patient enters your clinic with complaint of a large and unsightly sore on her ankle. She has recently returned from a trip to Ethiopia. She recalls being very bothered by many biting flies, particularly about the legs. The lesion is as pictured. Which of the following is the best course of treatment? A. Antimony-containing compounds like sodium stibogluconate B. Folic acid inhibitors like trimethoprim C. Quinine D. Metronidazole E. Praziquantel

Bacteroides fragilis

A patient has developed renal symptoms. After a series of tests a liver abscess was found. She had recently undergone surgery of the small bowel. The abscess was aspirated and sent to lab. The following culture results were observed. Growth on ANA blood plate and LKV plate after 48 hour anaerobic incubation. (no hemolysis) Subsequent culture of those colonies to an aerobic chocolate plate resulted in no growth. Blackening was observed on BBE agar. Gram stain was gram negative rods. Special potency disks: Kanamycin-resistant Vancomycin-resistant Colistin-resistant What is the most likley ID?

C (these are whipworms, Trichuris trichiura, which are geohelminths, meaning environmentally exposed, and the infective stage is the embryonated egg, which has a characteristic bipolar plug appearance) (the prevalence of this worm is very high, and is more common in warm and moist soil) (E; whip it. whip it good)

A patient with intestinal worms has developed an iron-deficiency anemia due to blood loss as well as a deficiency in vitamin A. Microscopic examination of the pathogen is as shown. She was most likely infected by which of the following? A. Rhabditiform larva from contaminated water B. Filariform larva from the soil C. Embryonated eggs from the soil D. Unembryonated eggs from pet-to-human transmission E. The rhythm

C (A, B, and C are all the 'barefoot walking worms' [or geohelminths] but Strongyloides deposits its eggs in the mucosa, so that larvae appear in the stool, while Necator lays eggs directly into the lumen) (Ancylostoma will not lay eggs in people as the definitive host for that species is dog - this guy will cause the cutaneous larva migrans, or creeping eruption)

A patient, who was walking around barefoot on a beach, presents with diarrhea. His fecal smear shows parasitic helminth larvae, but no eggs. Your initial suspicion is infection by A. Ancylostoma B. Necator C. Strongyloides D. Anisakis

What is a phagolysosome?

A phagosome and a lysosome fuse together and function in the digestion of engulfed bacteria.

What is the Lactate Fermentation test? How do you perform this test and examine the results?

A phenotypic test that determines if the bacteria contains lactose. In the test, you use an Eosin Methylene blue plate (selective media because the dye kills gram + bacteria). If the lactose fermentation is rapid, the bacteria will appear as a dark color on the plate. If the bacteria is a non-fermentation, it will appear as colorless. Lastly, E. coli is the only bacteria that will appear green on this plate.

Panel of enzymatic tests

A phenotypic test to see if the bacteria can break down all of the enzymes (ex: Entero Pluri Test)

What is the Catalase test?

A phenotypic test used to determine if a bacteria possesses a catalase enzyme. The presence of catalase enzyme in the test is detected using hydrogen peroxide. If the bacteria possess catalase (i.e., are catalase-positive), when a small amount of bacterial isolate is added to hydrogen peroxide, bubbles of oxygen are observed.

What is a coagulase test?

A phenotypic, biochemical test which can clot plama into gel in tube or agglutinate cocci in slide. This test is useful in differentiating S.aureus from other coagulase-negative staphylococci, because Staphylococcus aureus is known to produce coagulase.

What can an activated B cell differentiate into?

A plasma cell or a memory cell.

What is an epitope?

A portion of an antigen that reacts with an antibody. (one pathogen can have multiple epitopes)

What is a chronic infection?

A prolonged infection.

Haemophilus influenzae

A specimen was isolated from the cerebrospinal fluid of a 4 yr old girl visiting from outside the US. The following results were observed after 48 hr incubation in CO2. Choc = small grey colonies with a mouse-like odor Gram stain= gram negative coccobacilli Blood agar= no growth MacConkey = no growth Satteliting with Staphylococcus = positive Oxidase= pos The most likely organism is: _____________________________________________________

Moraxella catarrhalis

A sputum specimen was obtained from a 79 year old male. He has COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease). The xrays suggest pneumonia. His culture results are as follows: Growth on Chocolate and Blood agar: large opague colonies that when pushed glide across the surface of the media Macconkey= no growth Gram stain = gram negative diplococci Oxidase=positive Carbohydrate fermentation: Glucose=neg, Maltose=neg, Sucrose=neg, Lactose=neg Dnase=positive

What is an antigen?

A substance that can generate an immune response.

What is an adjuvant?

A substance that increases immunogenicity, used in vaccines to boost immune response. (Not antigenic).

What is Immunological Identification?

A type of genotypic test that use antibodies for diagnostic purposes -Antibodies present in blood stream indicate immune response to antigen -Antigens present on surface of pathogens

D (Trichruis trichiura, to be precise - the image is showing Charcot-Leyden crystals) (whipworm is the only parasite we know of that can cause rectal prolapse, but the anemia is also a decent hint to rule out other possibilities - eosinophilia is not terribly specific where parasitic infections are concerned) (Trichuriasis is caused by ingesting the eggs found in the soil - these are NOT the 'piercing and ascending' worms, you must EAT them to get the disease)

A woman presents with a prolapse of her rectum, anemia, and eosinophilia. Her fecal smear reveals the pictured finding. She has an infection of A. Tapeworm B. Hookworm C. Pinworm D. Whipworm E. Ringworm

Why is genotype and phenotype important?

Bacteria

combination therapy

AZT it contains AZT, 3tc, protese inhibitor, and enzyme

agglutination

Ab aggregation; cross-linking cells or particles into large clumps

What are the symptoms for Yellow Fever?

Abdominal pain Hepatomegaly Jaundice Liver malfunction

neutralization

Abs fill the surface receptors on a virus or the active site on a microbial enzyme to prevent it from attaching

Nonliving virus characteristics

Acellular, no self metabolism, RNA or DNA

Why do semi-synthetic work well?

Acid resistant (can take orally) Work against gram - Resistance Central Nervous System

Cell mediated immunity

Activates T lymphocytes, macrophages, NK cells, and cytokines

How can host tissue be indirectly damaged?

Activation of host cell tissue resulting in inflammation.

The degradation of lignin only occurs?

Aerobically.

•

Aerosols importance in disease transmission

Trypanosoma brucei-gambiens

African sleeping sickness Bite of a fly, flagella movement

What is the result of antigen-immunoglobulin binding?

Agglutination (reduces the number of infectious units) Opsonization Neutralization (blocks adhesion of viruses and bacteria to mucosa) Antibody dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (antibodies attach to target cell cause destruction by macrophages, eosinophils, and NK cells) Activation of complement

Modified Thayer Martin

All of the following medium are examples of selective anaerobic media, except:

GROWTH AT THE SURFACE OF LIQUID (THIOGLYCOLLATE) MEDIA Foul odor Growth at the surface of liquid (thioglycollate) media Gas Positive gram stain with no aerobic growth

All of these are indicative of the presence of anaerobes, except:

notifying a disease does what

Allows CDC to keep track and intervene.

Multiresistance

Almost all pathogenic microbes have acquired resistance to some chemotherapeutic agents A few pathogens have developed resistance to all known antimicrobial agents *Methicillin-resistant S. aureus (MRSA)* Resistance can be minimized by using antibiotics correctly and only when needed Resistance to a certain antibiotic can be lost if antibiotic is not used for several years

_________ is added to alpha-ketoglutarate to form glutamic acid?

Ammonia. (nitrate can also be used in this step but must be reduced to ammonia first)

What causes Meningioencephalitis ?

Amoeba

capsular characteristics.

Among H. influenzae strains, group designations (e.g., type b) are based on:

B (the diagnosis is most likely Giardia, which is transmitted fecal-orally through contaminated water - the infective stage is the cyst) (A; dogs do have Giardia - they just don't transmit it to people) (C, D, E; this is a whole bunch of other stuff - Giardia isn't one of them) (Giardia is considered a traveler's disease and is more prevalent in children - the diarrhea is also notable in that it's fatty, because the Giardia adheres to the small intestine and prevents fat absorption - this causes the stool to float) (treatments are azoles - usually albendazole for children, metronidazole, or tinidazole)

An 8-year old child presents abdominal distension, and a watery diarrhea that floats in the toilet bowl. Assuming all of the following are true, which is the most likely to have caused this child's infection? A. The family dog licking his face B. Drinking unfiltered water in the family's trip to Mexico one week ago C. A bite from a mosquito D. A bite from a tick E. A bite from a fly

What is hypersensitivity?

An excessive immunological response to an antigen.

What is an Agglutination Test?

An immological test, a blood test used to identify unknown antigens; blood with the unknown antigen is mixed with a known antibody and whether or not agglutination occurs ( clumping of particles) helps to identify the antigen; used in determining blood type

What is the Serology Test?

An immological test, blood tests that look for antibodies in your blood. Diagnosis based on the presence of antibodies in blood stream. This test detects autoimmune disorders, presence of antigen, presence of patient antibodies, allergens, mismatch during blood transfusion

What is autoimmunity?

An immune response against self antigens.

A (Strongyloides stercoralis penetrates the skin, such as the bare soles of feet, in its filariform stage, and ascends via the circulation, typically ending up in the lungs - the host then coughs up and swallows the larvae, which is how they end up in the GI system and become symptomatic)

An immunocompromised patient has diarrhea and abdominal cramps. A blood panel revealed marked eosinophilia and stool samples showed numerous filariform and rhabditiform larvae under microscopy. Which of the following is false regarding this patient's pathogen? A. When the infective stage of this patient penetrated the patient, it went directly to the intestines. B. This pathogen is capable of auto-infecting the patient as part of its life cycle. C. The pathogen is a facultative parasite, and is capable of living freely in soil. D. The pathogen is implicated as the causative agent in some cases of childhood asthma. E. This pathogen can be consistently and safely treated with ivermectin.

What is a nosocomial infection?

An infection originating in a hospital.

Sulfur reduction is linked to what type of respiration? Also what is an effect of sulfur reduction?

Anaerobic respiration Involved in corrosion and souring of oil wells

Denitrification can be a result of?

Anaerobic respiration, present in many facultative anaerobes.

What is a ruminant?

Animals that have stomach divided into four compartments and chew a cud.

Pregnancy test

Another immological test similar to the rapid strep test where the Control strip adheres to molecules not absorbed by the test strip (SEE POWERPOINT PICTURE)

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Anthrax toxin

Some examples of notifiable disease listed by Arkansas Dept. of Health:

Anthrax, Botulism, Hepatitis A, Pertussis, Plague, Q Fever, SARS, Smallpox, Tularemia, Typhus, Viral Hemorrhagic Fevers

What is the treatment of Cutaneous Anthrax?

Anti bacterial - rod shaped

What is the treatment of Leishmaniasis?

Anti-protist orally and topically

What is the treatment for Chagas disease?

Anti-protozoal

Quinolones

Antibacterial compounds that *interfere with DNA gyrase* (e.g., ciprofloxacin) *Prevent supercoiling of DNA* Broad spectrum Fluoroquinolones Ciprofloxacin used for UTI and against Bacillus anthracis

What is the treatment for Haemophilus influenzae?

Antibiotics

What is the treatment for Neonatal meningitis?

Antibiotics

Challenges with antibodies

Antibiotics are naturally produced antimicrobial agents Challenges with developing new therapeutic drugs: -Toxicity -Pharmokinetics -Can be modified to enhance efficacy (semisynthetic)

What is the treatment for Cellulitis?

Antibiotics to treat Staph Aureus

What is the treatment for Impetigo?

Antibiotics used for Staph aureus

_________ generally can't enter cells (are proteins)

Antibodies

•

Antibody titer in relation to infection/pathogen exposure

•

Antifungal Drugs: drug targets (potential drug toxicity)

Phagocytosis and communication

Antigen is taken up and "processed" Displayed on surface (presenting) attached to MHC molecule (UPC code of host) APCs travel to lymph nodes where majority of B & T cells hang out. Contact, activate T helper cells (CD4 cells)

Innate immunity

Antigen non-specific and immediate

Adaptive immunity

Antigen specific and takes days

28.10 Antimicrobial Drugs

Antimicrobial drugs are classified on the basis of: ----Molecular structure ----Mechanism of action ----Spectrum of antimicrobial activity ----Synthetic or antibiotics

•

Antimicrobial susceptibility tests (e.g. disk diffusion test, Etest etc.)

What is the treatment for Toxoplasmosis?

Antiprotizoal

What is the treatment for viral meningitis?

Antiviral

•

Applications of fluorescent antibody methods

What percentage of the adult population is a carrier of Roseola?

Approximately 100% , many never have symptoms

Obligate Anaerobes

Are poisoned by oxygen, so they gather at the bottom of the tube where the oxygen concentration is lowest.

composting

Arranging organic waste to promote microbial degradation

Yeast reproduction

Asexual budding Sexual spores called acospores undergo meiosis for genetic recombination Asexual spores like blastoconidia

Sporangiospore

Asexual mold spore Born on an external sac aerial hyphae on sporangiophore

Arthrospore

Asexual mold spore Born on fragmentation of vegetative hyphae

Conidiospore

Asexual mold spore Grown externally on aerial hyphae conidiophore

Blastoconidia

Asexual spores

F (any of the listed organisms can be host to a life cycle stage of a trematode species) (snails are the first intermediate hosts, and crustaceans, often crayfish and crab, are the second intermediate hosts - underwater vegetation is where the metacercariae encyst to be consumed by the definitive hosts)

At a seafood restaurant, Tamzid suddenly has crippling flashbacks to Dr. Jensen's intestinal fluke lectures. Which of the foods available are not a part of the trematode life cycle? A. Water chestnuts B. Crayfish C. Freshwater snail D. Watercress E. Crab F. None of the above

What effects viral host range?

Attachment sites on host cell, and host cell genetics/physiology are a basis for host specificity.

Nature of influenza

Attack on respiratory tract *Kills ciliated epithelial cells*, allows bacterial infections. Release of interferon from cells causes symptoms

How do pathogens avoid the innate immune system?

Avoid recognition/killing by competent proteins or phagocytes Capsules Intracellular pathogens Biofilms

Why has resistance of vancomycin sprung up?

Avoparcin (in same family) used in animal feeds

What type of cells are involved in antibody production?

B cells

Humoral immunity

B lymphocytes and antibody production Tips of antibodies block viruses from attaching to the host

What is the agent for Impetigo?

BACTERIA -Staphylococcus aureus (exfoliative toxins: break down ECM/ dermis breaks down) -Stretopcoccus pyogenes (more common in older children

What is the agent in Cutaneous Anthrax?

Bacillis Anthracis (Bacterial endospores)

•

Bacillus anthracis (soil bacteria)

Bacteria can be invasive

Bacteria spread through tissues, usually using digestive enzymes which damage tissues, kill cells.

What type of infection is Endocarditis ?

Bacterial

examples of antigens

Bacterial membrane proteins Bacterial capsules Viral capsid proteins Proteins on plant pollen, bee venom, mold spores

What type of infection is Listeria monocytogenes?

Bacterial meningitis

What type of infection is Neisseria meningitidis?

Bacterial meningitis

What type is Neonatal meningitis?

Bacterial meninigtis

What type of infection is Streptococcus pneumoniae?

Bacterial meninigtis

How can host tissue be directly damaged?

Bacterial toxins and viral multiplication can cause host cell lysis.

What is the treatment for Conjunctivits?

Bacterial: Antibacterial eye drops Viral: Clears on own

•

Bacteriophage encoded exotoxins

What is a bacterial virus called?

Bacteriophage or phage.

Periodontal disease (disease of digestive)

Bacteroides gingivalis

Balantidium coli

Balantidiasis (Diarrhea) Cilia movement

Viral classification

Based upon nucleic acid and how that acid is transcribed Type of genome they contain, the type of capsid they possess, and whether they are enveloped or naked.

What are the symptoms of Rubella in fetuses?

Birth defects: deafness, cardiac abnormalities

B (the eggs of both Ascaris lumbricoides and Trichuris trichiura must mature in soil before they are infectious, and infection occurs when the human ingests these eggs from the soil - since both nematodes are endemic in the same areas of the world, they are often seen as a mixed infection)

Because mature infectious eggs are ingested from the soil, which of the following parasites might be seen in the same patient at the same time? A. Hookworm and Ascaris lumbricoides B. Ascaris lumbricoides and Trichuris trichiura C. Trichuris trichiura and Schistosoma japonicum D. Schistosoma japonicum and hookworm

Antibodies attach to antigens. Period. But...

Because there are at least 2 binding sites, cross-bridges form, linking antigens together in clumps. Attaching covers up critical sites on the antigens

HIV Assembly

Begins in the plasma membrane Maturation occurs at budding of virion Env polyprotein is cleaved by a protease in the Golgi to make gp41 and gp120

B (even if you don't know the typical history and presentation of Clonorchis sinensis, it should be reasonable to deduce that the passing of abnormal gallstones indicates something residing in the gallbladder, with cholangiocarcinoma therefore being the most likely cancer consequence)

Bernard presents with liver dysfunctions, the most notable of which is the passing of pigmented gallstones. He admits to eating raw fish recently. The parasite currently infecting him predisposes to what kind of cancer? A. Hepatic angiosarcoma B. Cholangiocarcinoma C. Pancreatic adenoma D. Duodenal adenocarcinoma

Amphotericin B, pimaricin, and nystatin

Bind to ergosterol in cell membrane and cause leakage Treats systemic Candida infections

Protease Inhibitors

Bind to the active site of *HIV proteases* Inhibit the processing of large viral proteins into individual components Used in treatment against *HIV* and *hepatitis*

Viral Attachment

Binding of attachment sites on viral surface to receptor cells on cytoplasmic membrane of the host

what is the HIV life cycle

Binding to host cell Copying RNA into DNA by Rev Trans Integration into host DNA Transcription Translation Assembly and exit by budding

What kind of test is a Biochemical Test? What is it? Give examples.

Biochemical tests are a phenotypic test that tests the enzymes produced by a given bacteria, or presence of a bacterial chemical. Examples of this would be a Coagulase Test, Gram staining, and selective vs differential media.

How can bacteria in biofilms evade the immune system?

Biofilms are highly resistant to immune response. They can occur on teeth, catheters, and other implants.

when was the creating and stockpiling of biological weapons banned (at which convention)

Biological Weapons Convention-1972

Naftifine (Naftin) and terbinafine (Lamisil)

Block ergosterol synthesis Treats dermatophyte infections

What is the diagnosis for Streptococcus pneumoniae?

Blood agar (sphere) and gram staining (+)

What is the Nervous System's defense network?

Blood brain barrier and Microglia *Pros and cons Immune privileged Weakened defense

What is the diagnosis of Chagas disease?

Blood smear

•

Bordetella pertussis (Pertussis - whooping cough)

Pertussis (whooping cough) (disease of respiratory)

Bordetella pertussis; very contagious, toxins interfere w resp. tract normal ability to eliminate germs. destroys ciliated cells in trachea. transmission by droplets. flu-like symptoms. dry cough becomes wet cough in couple weeks. coughing spells that last over a min.

What is the treatment for Botulism ?

Botex

What is the treatment for Tetanus?

Botex (muscle relaxers)

-

Botulinum toxin

What is the portal of entry for Cellulitis?

Breaks in the skin

What is the portal of entry for Ringworm?

Breaks in the skin

D (the patient does have Giardia lamblia, as the cysts are present in his stool, but he is not symptomatic nor immunocompromised, so there is no reason to treat him - only symptomatic cases should get treatment) (B; cryptosporidium looks different from this - look for acid fast staining of spherical [not ovoid] cysts)

Bryce recently returned home from a camping trip. He is planning on heading back to college but is worried that he may have a parasitic infection after drinking unfiltered stream water on his trip. He sets up an appointment with his primary care physician. He denies any diarrhea, constipation, bloating, or flatulence. He is adamant about having a fecal exam, so the primary care physician obliges. The fecal exam reveals the image. What is the most appropriate next step in Bryce's care? A. Treatment with metronidazole to prevent future symptoms, as he is infected with Giardia lamblia B. Treatment with azithromycin because he is infected with cryptosporidium C. No treatment, as he is not currently infected D. No treatment because is not symptomatic E. No treatment because there is no effective treatment

What are the symptoms of Lyme Disease?

Bull's-eye rash Rheumatoid conditions Fever Fatigue Soreness *chronic

What is a viral protein coat called?

Capsid.

Translation for eukaryote has a _____ which tells ribosome where to bind, and a _____ which protects from enzymes

CAP, Poly A tail

AIDS diagnosis

CD4 cell count below 200/µl (from 500-1200), or if you get an opportunistic infection once you've been diagnosed with HIV

What is the nervous system comprised of?

CNS, PNS

How do you diagnose Encephalitis?

CSF/ blood plasma example sample and look for protist

What do monocytes do?

Called macrophages when they mature. Involved in phagocytosis.

Campylobacteriosis (disease of digestive)

Campylobacter jejuni; infection of colon epithelial lining with exotoxin production; frequent watery stools; nausea; headaches; transmission by ingesting contaminated meat

Plus (+) RNA viruses can perform similar actions to what?

Can act as a message i.e. like mRNA.

Facultative anaerobes

Can grow with or without oxygen because they can metabolise energy aerobically or anaerobically. They gather mostly at the top because aerobic respiration generates more ATP than either fermentation or anaerobic respiration, but some reside at bottom.

D (the diagnosis is neurocysticercosis, which is caused by ingestion of tapeworm eggs from human feces [humans are the definitive host], NOT from ingesting the infected pork that contains the cysticerci [pigs are the intermediate host]) (the pathogen is Taenia solium)

Carey is admitted to the hospital with recurring seizures and neurologic episodes. During his seizures, he is unable to talk, suffers visual disturbances, and loses consciousness. He has lingering neurological symptoms, including hemiparesis. The MRI revealed several cystic masses in the brain as shown. Carey was most likely infected by A. Ingesting undercooked beef B. Ingesting undercooked pork C. Ingesting raw fish D. Ingesting human fecal material E. Watching the pilot episode of House, M.D.

Entamoeba histolytica

Causes amoebic dysentery Cysts pass through intestines Pseudopodia

What is the Varicella virus? What type of virus is it?

Causes chicken pox and shingles. A DNA virus.

Coccidioides immitis

Causes coccidioidomycosis by inhaling arthrospores in southwestern USA

*Opportunistic pathogen*

Causes disease only in the absence of normal host resistance (e.g cancer or AIDS)

•

Causes for wide spread drug resistance

Histoplasma capsulatum

Causes histoplasmosis around the Great Lakes from bird or bat droppings Budding encapsulated yeast

Plasmodium species

Causes malaria Non motile

What is the Influenza virus? What type of virus is it?

Causes the flu. A RNA virus.

Malassezia globosa

Causes tinea versicolor which is a skin infection and is hypopigmentation of the skin. Also causes dandruff and is found naturally on the skin. Dimorphic.

Digestive organ with bacterial digestion located near the small intestine?

Cecum.

How does viral release work for naked viruses?

Cell lysis occurs.

Where do enveloped animal viruses obtain their envelope from?

Cell membrane of the host cell.

Where do DNA viruses go during uncoating?

Cell nucleus.

HIV Transmission

Cell to cell contact

Viruses do not have what?

Cells.

DNA -> RNA -> Protein

Central dogma

Oral Cavity: Common microbes/pathogens in upper respiratory tracts

Certain microbes colonizes the *upper respiratory tract* ---->E.g.: staphylococci, streptococci, diphtheroid bacilli, gram-negative cocci ---->*Potential pathogens* (e.g. staphylococcus aureus and streptococcus pneumonia) -*Innate and adaptive immune systems are typically extra active in these mucosal surfaces to protect from pathogenic infections*

H. ducreyi

Chancroid is the sexually transmitted disease caused by:

What is the treatment for Dengue fever ?

Clears on own usually after 2-7 days

What is the diagnosis for Chicken Pox and Shingles ?

Clinical

What is the diagnosis for Smallpox?

Clinical

What is the agent for Botulism ?

Clostridium botulinum (Endospores) * anaerobic

Botulism (disease of nervous system)

Clostridium botulinum; Gram + bacillus; food borne infections especially honey; botulinum toxin blocks Ach messages betweenn muscles and nerves and causes paralysis. muscle weakness and no fever

Gas Gangrene (skin disease)

Clostridium perfringens; an anaerobe, often mixed infection; really distinct smell; brown frothy pus

What is the agent that causes Tetanus ?

Clostridium tetani

Clostridium AB exotoxins

Clostridium tetani and Clostridium botulinum produce potent AB exotoxins that affect nervous tissue Botulinum toxin - consists of several related AB toxins that are the most potent biological toxins known Tetanus toxin - is also an AB protein neurotoxin Both *neurotoxins block release of neurotransmitters involved in muscle control, but they have different mode of action (with different disease symptoms)*

Tetanus (disease of nervous system)

Clostridium tetani, infection begins when spores are introduced into an injury or wound. tetanospasmin selectivley blocks inhibitory nerve transmission (GABA) release from spinal cord to muscles allowing muscle spasms. lockjaw, seizures, spasms

What is Spongiform Encephalopathy?

Clumps of misfolded prions causing a "spongy" appearance in the brain

Dimorphic fungi examples

Coccidioides immitis Histoplasma capsulatum

New Antimicrobial Drugs

Computers can now be used to design molecules to interact with specific microbial structures ----Most successful example is saquinavir ---------Binds to active site of HIV protease New methods of screening natural products are being used ---Led to the discovery of platensimycin Combinations of drugs can be used (e.g., ampicillin and sulbactam) Bacteriophage therapy

Microconidia

Conidium of the smaller of two types produced by same fungal species but differing in shape

viruses cause damage directly

Consume host resources, cell dies Blocks host transcription or translation

Oncogenes

Converted from proto-oncogenes and promote tumor growth

RNA mutates more readily than DNA explain why..

Copying mistakes by the enzymes are not corrected Not double stranded, so no mismatches noticed that can be fixed. Many variants result Less chance of lasting immunity Harder to create vaccines

SARS: Severe Acute Respiratory Distress syndrome What kind of virus what is its reservoir

Coronavirus that caused brief pandemic Reservoir is animals; currently under control.

•

Corynebacterium diphtheria (Diphtheria)

-Diptheria toxin

Corynebacterium diptheriae *Encapsulated strains are especially pathogenic (highly invasive) *Forms irregular rods during growth *Diphtheria toxin inhibits protein synthesis in eukaryotes Spreads by airborne droplets via the respiratory route Pathogenic strains lysogenized by bacteriophage produce a powerful exotoxin (diphtheria toxin) that causes: Tissue death The appearance of the pseudomembrane in the patient's throat Previous infection or immunization provides resistance Vaccine (DTaP - diptheria toxoid, tetanus toxoid, and pertussis) Diphtheria antitoxin available for acute cases

exit from mouth by

Coughing sneezing speaking

Give an example of Spongiform Encephalopathy.

Creutzfeldt-Jakob /Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy

What are Koch's postulates used for?

Criteria used to determine the cause for a disease.

Cryptococcus neoformans

Cryptococcosis infection from bird feces that can inflame the meninges Dimorphic

V factor

Cultivation of H. ducreyi will require all of the following, except:

Drug treatment for HIV

Current drugs block 6 different steps in HIV ART cocktail includes a mixture of several drugs

prevalence in the world (don't need to know the numbers - just have a general idea how bad it is);

Currently an estimated 34 million people are living with HIV/AIDS (0.6% of world's population)

Pathology

Cutaneous lesions Scalded Skin Syndrome Impetigo of the Newborn

HIV Attachment

Cyclophilin protein binds to heparin receptor on the host cell

Candida albicans virulence factors

Cytokine GM-CSF suppresses complement production, acquires iron, switch to virulent form

What happens after a phagocyte binds a pathogen?

Cytokines are released, more phagocytes are recruited to the area, inflammation is triggered. Then the pathogen is engulfed into a phagosome which then fuses with a lysosome to form a phagolysosome.

Type I interferons

Cytokines blocking viral replication

Where do RNA viruses go during uncoating?

Cytoplasm.

What are Tc?

Cytotoxic T cells.

Replication

DNA -> DNA

Transcription

DNA -> RNA

Central Dogma

DNA -> RNA -> Protein

Important enzyme in DNA replication: makes covalent bonds to join DNA strands; Okazaki fragments, and new segments in excision repair

DNA Ligase

Important enzyme in DNA replication: Synthesizes DNA; proofreads and repairs DNA

DNA Polymerases

Neutrophils release *what two things*

DNA and anti-microbial proteins

Important enzyme in DNA replication: reduces supercoiling ahead of the replication fork

DNA gyrase

Definition of a virus criteria

DNA or RNA not both (single or double) Dependent on host cell for replication Viral components must assemble

What is the vaccine for Tetanus?

DTaP- killed virus (only good for 10 years)

What enzyme do bacteria use in order to perform ammonification?

Deaminase.

Mortality and morbidity rate:

Death and sickness per total population over a given period of time.

What is humoral immunity?

Defends against extracellular pathogens only. Can be active or passive. Produces and secretes B cells, antibody production.

What is the portal of entry for Hemorrhagic Fever ?

Dengue fever (mosquitos) Yellow fever (mosquitos) Ebola (bats)

Tropical and other arboviruses tropics:

Dengue fever, Yellow fever, other hemorrhagic fevers.

What is the treatment for Septicemia?

Depends on agent for treatment

Obtaining a viral envelope

Derived from host cell membrane through budding

Where is the reservoir for Chicken Pox and Shingles ?

Dermatome (spinal nerve area)

What is the agent for Ringworm?

Dermatophytes (fungal)

4)

Describe how orally taken antibiotics can result in the harmful alteration in digestive functions and disease. How can you minimize these alterations of the natural microflora during/after an antibiotics therapy?

1)

Describe mechanisms of transfer of healthcare-associated infections (HAIs). Why are the incidences of HAIs so high?

5)

Describe the use of combination drugs and why they are effective.

What do natural killer (NK) cells do?

Destroy target cells (host cells that have a pathogenic infection or tumor).

What cells does HIV infect?

Destroys helper T cells.

What happens when someone gets Naegleria fowleri?

Destruction of brain and spine, hemmorage

•

Detection of viral infections

What are diagnosis of Nonhemorrhagic Fever ?

Diagnosis culture based/patient history based

•

Difference between direct agglutination and passive agglutination

Blastomyces dermatitidis

Dimorphic fungi that causes blastomycosis in Great Lakes through inhalation or skin leading to pulmonary infection

What shape is Neisseria meningitidis?

Diplococcal

•

Direct and indirect fluorescent antibody methods

What is the portal of entry for Endocarditis ?

Direct entry to blood stream

What is the portal of entry for Septicemia?

Direct entry to blood stream, can arise as secondary infection UTI Some maternal death post-childbirth

2)

Discuss antimicrobial susceptibility testing and how the use of minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC) values.

7)

Discuss different types of virulence factors a pathogen can use to infect a host.

4)

Discuss how recent advances in molecular biology of nucleic acids have revolutionized methods used for identification of infectious disease agents and how they are favored over traditional biochemical tests.

What are prions?

Disease caused by misfolded proteins

BACTERIAL FOOD INFECTION

Disease results from microbial growth in host tissues. Slower onset of symptoms.

Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System

Diseases of the digestive system rank 2nd only to respiratory diseases. 1. Dental Carries/Tooth decay 2. Acute Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitis

What is the agent for Infectious Mononucleosis?

EBV

What is the diagnosis for Rubella?

ELISA

What is the diagnosis for measles?

ELISA

What is the diagnosis for Lyme Disease?

ELISA Genetic methods

How do you diagnose Dengue fever ?

ELISA Genotyping (RNA)

What is the diagnosis for Botulism ?

ELISA (look for toxin, agent) Gram staining (+) Presence of microbe in stool sample

What is the diagnosis of HIV?

ELISA-based test to look for virus particles Viral load tests - PCR-based test to determine amount of virus circulating. Monitors progression of the disease

•

Effect on immune system

What type of disease are prions?

Encephalitis

What type of disease is Spongiform Encephalopathy?

Encephalitis

What type of disease is Toxoplasmosis?

Encephalitis

What type of disease is rabies?

Encephalitis **ZOONOTIC DISEASE*

released upon G- cell death

Endotoxin

what are considered super antigens

Endotoxin, Toxic Shock Syndrome toxin

Steps in an infectious disease-Overview

Entry and attachment Deal with host defense Damage Escape

What is essential to a virus binding to a host cell and infecting it?

Envelope if present or capsid if not.

What is a virus called that has a membrane?

Enveloped.

What is Penicillinase? What is it produced by?

Enzyme -an enzyme that can inactivate penicillin -produced by bacteria

28.7

Enzyme Immunoassays, Rapid Tests, and Immunoblots

HIV detection - ELISA and Western Blot;

Enzyme Linked Immunosorbant Assay (too many false positive) Test for HIV antibodies If ELISA is positive, the same sample is tested again If comes back positive 2 times, the sample is subjected to Western Blot test - test for viral antigen

•

Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)

F+ x F- = ?

F+

Can only conjugate with _____ cell

F-

Hfr x F- = ?

F-

Cutaneous lesions

FOLLICULITIS ➡️ FRUNCLES ➡️ CARBUNCLES ALL = staphylococcus

HIV- classification, origin, discovery;

Family: Retrovirus (VI) Genus: Lentivirus Species: HIV 1 (high virulence) and HIV 2 (low virulence) discovered 1983-Luc Montagnier

Transmission of cholera

Fecal-oral - water (ice) - raw foods - undercooked foods - washing foods in contaminated water Found in copepods and algae

What are the symptoms of Septicemia?

Fever, chills, shaking, altered mental state

What are the symptoms of Endocarditis ?

Fever, fatigue, joint pain, edema, anemia, abnormal heartbeat, heart murmurs, fever, blue nail beds Bacterial Vegetation in valve

What are the symptoms for Malaria?

Fever, nausea, weakness

Mold

Filamentous, multinucleated fungi composed of hyphae Reproduce with sexual or asexual spores

Virulence of the pathogen

Fimbriae, capsules, toxins, antibiotic resistance Pathogen concentration (for fecal-oral spread)

Protozoa Asexual Reproduction

Fission, budding, schizogeny Can reproduce sexually with gametes

Macule

Flat red lesion

What are the symptoms in Toxoplasmosis?

Flu-like symptoms, although many in the population are asymptomatic, chronic, behavioral changes

What is the treatment for Cryptococus neoformans?

Flucanazole, amphotericin B (Antifungal orally) *Opportunistic Pathogen*

Vesicle

Fluid filled < 1 cm

Cells specializing in Antigen presenting

Follicular dendritic cells Macrophages, and B cells

IgE

Found on mast cells and basophils, binds to antigens on parasites, also involved in response to allergens.

IgD

Found on the surface of some B cells instead of IgM

What is the agent for Tularemia?

Francisella tularensis (intracellular)

Tularemia (rabbit fever) (disease of circulatory)

Francisella tularensis; spread through direct contact and usually spread through mammals; red spots on skin, enlarged lymph nodes where site is, weight loss, joint stiffness, chills

What type of infection is Coccidioides?

Fungal Meningitis

Pseudohyphae

Fungal filament that grew and remain attached made of budding yeast cells

Mycoses

Fungal infection

What type of infection is Cryptococus neoformans?

Fungal meningitis

•

Fusion inhibitors (entry inhibitors)

Food Poisoning by Clostridum perfringens (disease of digestive)

G+ bacillus, endospore, food borne intoxication; diarrhea; bacteria usually in meat and animals

Diphtheria (disease of respiratory)

G+, pleomorphic, rods; fever, headaches, sore throat, tiredness, eventual formation of a pseudomembrane that covers throat and nasal passages

50% of infectious diseases of

GI tract

where do lots of bacteria live at on human. and do they colonize?

GI tract, Skin yes

exit in excretory system by

GI tract, in feces; in urine

Cryptosporidium

Gastrointestinal infection called cryptosporidiosis Non motile Intracellular parasite

What is Meningitis?

General inflammation of the meninges

People have lots of entry points name same:

Glands, follicles that open to outside Larger openings: respiratory system, digestive system, genito-urinary tract Cuts, bites, burns, surgical incisions Crossing the placenta, infecting the fetus

How can you prevent Staph Aureus?

Good hygiene is the only prevention; Clean scratches and scrapes when they occur with a topical antibiotic

LTA is what LPS is what

Gram + Gram -

What is the treatment for Listeria monocytogenes?

Gram + Antibiotic (ex: penicillin)

Is the Bubonic Plague gram + or - ? Shape?

Gram-negative rods

What is the agent for Acanthamoeba?

Granulomatous AM

Dermatophyte

Group of molds causing superficial mycoses of the skin, hair, and nails by utilizing keratin EX: Ringworm, tinea

Dimorphic yeast

Grows as an oval, budding yeast, but can elongate and remain attached using pseudohyphae EX: Candida

Why is Listeria monocytogenes so hard to fight off?

Grows within cells, contributing to virulence

Viruses Causing Cancer

HBV, HCV, HPV, EBV, KSHV, HIV, HTLV-1

What is the vaccine for Haemophilus influenzae?

HIB

what causes AIDS

HIV

examples of RNA virus

HIV and Common Cold (Rhinovirus)

Modes of HIV transmission;

HIV is transmitted by exposure to infected body fluids, blood, some, semen and vaginal secretion, needle sharing -tears, urine, not potent enough -mother to child: breast milk, blood, etc, 100% to antibodies 25% HIV positive

*Treatment for HIV - nucleoside inhibitors, why don't we have vaccine;

HIV mutates too rapidly -several vaccines have been developed, none of the m successful -inhibit some viral structures, entry and exit from cell

•

HIV pathogenesis

•

HIV treatment

What is the Cardiovascular system?

Heart, lungs, and blood vessels

Virus shapes

Helical, polyhedral, enveloped, binal 5 to 300 nm

Important enzyme in DNA replication: Unwinds double stranded DNA

Helicase

Gastritis/Peptic Ulcers (disease of digestive)

Heliobacter pylori; bacteria thrives in environment of stomach by producing enzyme that converts urea to ammonia, raising ph in the cells vicinity. G- bacillus; sharp burning pain, bloody stools, vomiting, may lead to stomach cancer.

What are Th?

Helper T cells.

•

Hemagglutination (human blood typing)

Transmitted by sex, blood, mother to child Lasts for weeks; can become chronic, cause cancer

Hep B

Transmitted through blood contact *Quietly* destroys liver; chronic, cancer possible

Hep C

Enteric virus, transmitted fecal oral route Lasts for weeks; seldom chronic, no cancer related to rhinovirus

Hep. A

can cause chronic inflammation Liver cells replaced by connective tissue, organ fails can also lead to liver cancer

Hepatits B, C

HSV-1

Herpes virus that remains latent Causes fever blisters or oral herpes Replicates in epithelial cells

HSV-2

Herpes virus that remains latent Genital herpes Replicates in epithelial cells

EBV

Herpes virus that remains latent Mononucleosis

Viral Replication

Host cell ribosomes will translated viral mRNA into structures and enzymes

Host processes

Host defenses, like inflammation, may over-respond, cause significant tissue damage. Bacteria can aid this: Gram neg. endotoxin (LPS)

describe more of a opportunistic pathogen

Host is compromised (cuts, underlying conditions, etc.) Organism gets where it doesn't belong -E. coli and urinary tract infections. Lack of microbial antagonism, e.g. superinfection -competition for space, nutrients; bacteriocins.

HHV

Human Herpes Virus Member of large Herpes virus family

What is the agent for Roseola?

Human Herpesvirus 6

Cause of genital warts and cervical cancer

Human Papilloma virus HPV

What is an example of an oncogenic virus?

Human Papilloma virus (HPV) which causes cervical cancer.

reservoirs

Humans -May be sick, or may be carriers Animals -Many diseases are zoonotic but can also be caught by humans; animal may be healthy or not. Non-living -Soil, water are typical homes to microbes, some of which can cause disease.

What type of morphology does Coccidioides have?

Hyphae (filamentous) morphology

What is another name for rabies?

Hyrdophobia

Following antibiotic therapy, patients are often administered ________ to facilitate recolonizaton of normal flora. A. Fluoride. B. Probiotics. C. Iron. D. Antivirals.

I think it is B

What is clonal proliferation?

If an antigen/antibody interaction occurs, the body needs to make more of these specific B cells, these B cells will secrete antibodies that specifically target the antigen present in the body.

What type of rash is Cellulitis?

Large Pustular

28.5

Immunoassays and Disease

•

Immunoblots

What is congenital immunodeficiency?

Immunodeficiency from birth.

Naturally resistant of microbes to antibiotics

Impermeable to antibiotic Inactivate the antibiotic Modify the target of the antibiotic Resistant biochemical pathway Ability to pump out the antibiotic (efflux)

C (ingestion of Taenia solium cysticerci in undercooked or raw pork will cause the adult tapeworm to mature in the intestine, making the human the definitive host - if the eggs from the adult tapeworm are ingested, then the cysticerci will develop in the human causing cysticercosis and making the human the accidental intermediate host)

In infections with Taenia solium, humans can serve as the A. Definitive host B. Intermediate host C. Both of the above D. None of the above

What is a plus single-stranded (+ss) nucleic acid?

It is analogous to the sense strand.

Where does RNA replication of RNA viruses occur?

In the cytoplasm, nucleus is not involved.

Yes- this is a suitable source

Indicate whether the following clinical specimens are suitable or unsuitable for anaerobic culture: Aspirated bladder urine

T-tropic

Infect mature dendritic cells and T4 lymphocytes, faster replicating, more harmful Bind to CD4 and CXCR4

What is a generalized/systemic infection?

Infection affects many or all parts of the body.

Acanthamoeba

Infection of eye, skin, and CNS Enters eye through contact lens/wounds Pseudopodia

CYSTITIS

Infection of the bladder

What is Keratitis?

Infection of the cornea

PYLONEPHRITIS

Infection of the kidney

PROSTATITIS

Infection of the prostate

URETHRITIS

Infection of the urethra

What is a localized infection?

Infection restricted to one area.

Haemophilus influenzae

Infection with which of the following organisms is not associated with the ingestion of food products

Prions

Infectious protein particles causing transmissible neurodegenerative disorders EX: Mad cow disease, Parkinsons, Alzheimers

Acute HIV infection (Early)

Infects T4 lymphocytes expressing CCR5 Binds to dendritic cells and dendritic cells detach and carry virus to lymph nodes

Trichomonas vaginalis

Infects male urinary tract and female vagina Flagella movement

ENCEPHALITIS

Inflammation of the Brain

What is Encephalitis?

Inflammation of the brain itself

What is Conjunctivits?

Inflammation of the conjunctiva

What is Endocarditis ?

Inflammation of the endocardium, heart valves

MENINGITIS

Inflammation of the meninges

•

Influenza outbreaks (antigenic drift/shift)

•

Influenza viruses (Orthomyxovirus)

a serious respiratory disease Virus has a segmented genome

Influenza:

What is the portal of entry for prions?

Ingested

Examples of portals of entry?

Inhalation, ingestion, wounds, sexual contact, etc.

What is the portal of entry for Spongiform Encephalopathy?

Injestion

What is a minus single-stranded (-ss) nucleic acid?

It is analogous to the antisense strand.

What is the immune status of the host?

Innate immune system must be breached to allow pathogen to get established.

What basically occurs in nitrogen assimilation?

Inorganic N is converted to organic N.

CO2

Inorganic carbon Carbon dioxide

CH4

Inorganic carbon Methane

C

Inorganic carbon. Graphite, Diamonds, Charcoal.

What encompasses the first line of defense?

Intact skin/ mucous membranes Normal microbiota

Antimetabolites (trimethoprim + sulfomethoxazole , trimetrexate, atovaquone, and flucytosin)

Interfere with nucleic acid synthesis Treats Candida, Pneumocystis

Clotrimazole, miconazole, itraconazole, fluconazole, and ketoconazole

Interferes with ergosterol synthesis and alters membrane structure

Griseofulvin

Interferes with nuclear division by preventing microtubule aggregation Only for dermatophytes

Antibiotic(s) that target mycolic acid

Isoniazid Ethambutol

Isoniazid

Isoniazid is a *growth analog effective specific against Mycobacterium tuberculosis* Interferes with synthesis of mycolic acid required for mycobacterial cell walls Combination with other drugs (e.g. moxifloxacin - fluoroquinolones)

How does gastric juice aid in reducing pathogens?

It acts as a chemical barrier that inhibits almost all pathogens.

How does vomiting aid in reducing pathogens?

It acts as a physical barrier. Forcefully expels microbes.

What is hemolysis? What media would you use for this test? What are the results?

It is the breaking down red blood cells (phenotypic test). This test is performed on a sheep blood agar. If the bacteria is a greenish/brown color, it is considered "Alpha" meaning the oxidation of iron in blood cells. If the bacteria is a yellow color with a halo, it is considered "Beta" meaning iron was not oxidized, but broke down the blood cells. If the bacteria is clear, it is considered "Gamma", meaning no hemolysis took place.

Why is it important to follow prescription?

It lowers all the microbes long enough, so immune system can wipe out resistant ones

Why is fever an important non-specific defense?

It prevents pathogens from replicating, decreases free iron, and increases interferon production (this protects mainly from viral infections)

A (the diagnosis is amebiasis from Entamoeba histolytica - a key feature is bloody diarrhea, as opposed to watery and fatty diarrhea as with giardiasis or cryptosporidiosis) (B; this is a trait of tapeworm infection, not amoeba) (C; a stool sample is a good idea, but the E. disbar cysts are not pathogenic nor diagnostic) (D; too many organisms are spread by contaminated water in underdeveloped countries for this to be a useful avenue of investigation - asking about symptoms is usually better than asking about etiology) (E; immune compromise is a good question to ask if suspecting cryptosporidiosis, but the MRI gives you no reason to suspect that, as the liver abscess is more characteristic of Entamoeba)

Jen, a medical student recently on mission to Colombia, comes in with complaints of right upper quadrant abdominal pain, but the history didn't match a true appendicitis. Suspicious, you popped her into the MRI, and found a large liver abscess in the right lobe of the liver. Which of the following should you do to determine the presence of a key symptom/sign? A. Ask about bloody diarrhea B. Check for a low level of vitamin B12 C. Acquire a stool sample and look for Entamoeba disbar cysts D. Ask if the patient drank the water in Colombia E. Whether the patient is immune-compromised

•

Kaposi's sarcoma

What are the symptoms of HIV?

Kaposi's sarcoma (picture) Muscle atrophy, wasting AIDS associated dementia

functions of non specific host defenses

Keep microbes "out" Minimize microbial load Internal, non-specific line of defense

C (this guy has a cestode/tapeworm, most likely Diphyllobothrium latum based on the diet - tapeworms are long and flat, and in fact D. latum is one of the longest; adults can reach up to 10 meters long) (A; this describes ascarids/roundworms) (B; this describes trichuris/whipworm) (D; this describes trematodes/flukes) (E; Giardia or entamoeba, but those would cause diarrhea)

Kelsey comes in for tests due to a concern over his stool: he says that his stool is riddled with semitransparent white spheres, and he's worried he has a parasite. He has no diarrhea or symptoms of any kind that he knows of, nor has he felt ill. When asked about recent travel, he replies that he was in Japan a couple months ago, where he ate sushi as fresh (meaning raw) as he has ever had. Blood tests revealed pernicious anemia. Which of the following is the most likely morphology of Kelsey's parasite? A. Pencil-thick and about 30 cm long B. A thread-like anterior end and a tightly coiled posterior end C. Flat and several meters long D. Flat and leaf-shaped with two suckers E. Amoeboid

What do Tc cells do?

Kill cells infected with intracellular pathogens and tumor cells (target cells) Infected cells display an antigen from the infecting organism on their surface, marks them as "non-self" and Tc cells find these cells with the non-self antigens and destroy them.

Lactic acid in Vagina

Lactic acid maintains a local *weak acidic environment*

What are the symptoms of Impetigo?

Lesions of 'crusty skin' around mouth or face

Which cells play a role in the second line of defense?

Leukocytes (white blood cells)

•

Library screening methods

What are the symptoms of Dengue fever ?

Life threatening complications: anemia, low blood pressure

What happens to lignin under anaerobic conditions?

Lignin accumulates to form peat bogs and muck soils.

Tumor suppressor genes

Limits the growth of tumors

Yeast PAMPs

Lipoteichoic acid, zymosan, mannose rich glycans

What is the vaccine for Smallpox?

Live Vaccine- bio-terrorism agent

What is the vaccine for Chicken Pox and Shingles ?

Live attenuated vaccine

Hyphae

Long filament of cells divided by cell like crosswalls called septa

What is a memory cell?

Long-lived cell for quick future response to same antigen.

Development of new antimicrobial agents

Long-term solution to antimicrobial resistance relies on the development of new antimicrobial compounds Average new drug = 10-25 years; >$0.5 billion Modification of current antimicrobial compounds is often productive Automated chemistry methods (combinatorial chemistry) have sped up drug discovery 7 million compounds must be screened to find a single useful clinical drug

what means for some viruses, patients show no symptoms,mild symptoms, or occasional symptoms.

Low activity or latency

What are the 2 chemical barriers of mucous membranes and their secretions? How do they work?

Lysozyme - breaks down bonds between NAG and NAM Lactoferrin - binds iron in the body so there's no iron for pathogens

Oral Cavity: Defense against pathogens

Lyzosymes lactoperoxidases) Mucus ciliated epithelial cells

30.6

MMR and Varicella-Zoster Infections

What is the vaccine for Rubella?

MMR vaccine the mothers can get to protect fetus

What is the vaccine for the measles?

MMR vaccine- Live attenuated

•

MRSA and other multi-resistant microbes

What types of leukocytes are involved in phagocytosis?

Macrophages (wandering and fixed) Dendritic cells Neutrophils

What kind of rash is Fifths Disease?

Maculopapular

What type of rash are measles?

Maculopapular

What type of rash is Roseola?

Maculopapular

What type of rash is Rubella?

Maculopapular

What types of rashes are there?

Maculopapular, Vesicular, Large Pustular

HIV envelope

Made of gp120 and gp41

HIV matrix

Made of p17

cells infected with HIV

Main types of cells infected: T helper cells and dendritic cells (including macrophages, microglia)

•

Major antibacterial targets

•

Major classes/groups of toxins (e.g. how can you catalog toxins based on mechanism or target)

•

Major groups of antibiotics and their targets

How does ORT work?

Make a Gatorade type solution (salt, water, packet of stuff) using boiled water (think of drink made for xc)

Campylobacter jejuni

Match the organism with the appropriate term, disease or selective media. Choose the best answer: Curved "seagull wings" gram negative bacilli

Clostridium difficile

Match the organism with the appropriate term, disease or selective media. Choose the best answer: Antibiotic associated diarrhea

Bacteroides fragilis

Match the organism with the appropriate term, disease or selective media. Choose the best answer: BBE agar

Legionella pneumophilia

Match the organism with the appropriate term, disease or selective media. Choose the best answer: BCYE agar

Clostridium botulinum

Match the organism with the appropriate term, disease or selective media. Choose the best answer: Botulinal neurotoxin

Moraxella catarrhalis

Match the organism with the appropriate term, disease or selective media. Choose the best answer: Friable "hockey puck" colony

Clostridium perfringens

Match the organism with the appropriate term, disease or selective media. Choose the best answer: Gas gangrene

Haemophilus influenzae

Match the organism with the appropriate term, disease or selective media. Choose the best answer: Satellite test

Is there a vaccine for Neisseria meningitidis?

Menactra (live attenuated)

What type of disease is Naegleria fowleri?

Meningioencephalitis

•

Meningitis

30.5

Meningitis and Meningococcemia

What is the diagnosis of Leishmaniasis?

Microscopic analysis of host tissue

Dermatophyte examples

Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton

B (Crypto can cause watery diarrhea in immunocompromised or immunocompetent patients, but is obviously more severe in the former - don't let immune status or age or food poisoning possibilities confuse you, acid-fast cysts are almost definitely crypto!) (the treatment is nitazoxanide)

Mike returns from vacation in Eastern Europe. He reports he had been eating new, strange foods, and had been swimming daily in a local river for exercise. He reports that since returning home, he has had daily watery diarrhea. He denies having any blood in his stools. You order a particular stool test, and the results are shown above. What is the cause of Mike's diarrhea? A. Giardia B. Cryptosporidium C. E. coli D. S. aureus E. B. cereus

What is the portal of entry for Dengue fever ?

Mosquitos (Vector)

What is a viral host range?

Most animal viruses only infect and replicate in one host and even one host cell type.

IgG

Most common in serum, appears after IgM, neutralization of toxins and viruses, protects fetus.

Resistance Mechanisms and Spread

Most drug-resistant bacteria isolated from patients contain drug-resistance genes located on R plasmids Evidence indicates that R plasmids predate the antibiotic era The use of antibiotics in medicine, veterinary medicine, and agriculture selects for the spread of R plasmids ----Many examples of overuse of antibiotics ----Antibiotics are used far more often than necessary

Where does most nitrogen occur and how is it found?

Most nitrogen occurs in the atmosphere as N2.

•Enrichment culture and different media types (e.g. general-purpose media, enriched media, selective media, differential media)

Most pathogens can be grown, isolated, and identified with specialized growth media *General-purpose media* Support growth of most aerobic and facultatively aerobic organisms *Enriched media* Contain specific growth factors that enhance growth of selected pathogens *Selective media* Allow some organisms to grow while inhibiting others *Differential media* Allow identification of organisms based on their growth and appearance on the medium

IgM

Most prominent in the circulatory system, first to appear after antigen exposure, found on the surface of B cells.

B (tapeworms/cestodes often do not produce any symptoms, with the exception of a potential B12 deficiency - the other statements are false) (A; this is true for trematodes/flukes - tapeworms are acquired by eating raw or undercooked meat infested with the procercoid) (C; praziquantel or albendazole for everybody!) (D; tapeworms are a global disease, but they are more common in some places than others) (E; humans, and many other mammals, are definitive hosts for tapeworms)

Most tapeworm infections A. Can be caused by swimming in contaminated water B. Are asymptomatic C. Have unique treatments for each species D. Occur only in underdeveloped nations E. Use the human as an accidental host

What is the treatment for Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome?

Nafcillin, vancomycin (MRSA)

What is a virus called that does not have a membrane?

Naked.

Viral Assembly

Naked: Capsid assembled around the genome Enveloped: Released by budding then glycoproteins added Can bud into ER or other organelles to gain a membrane

Cell Release

Naked: Host cell lysis Enveloped: Released by budding if obtained from membrane, released by exocytosis if envelope came from organelles Some can be transmitted through cell to cell contact

What is the portal of entry for Naegleria fowleri?

Nasal cavity or respiratory tract -Enters body during swimming activities in flagellated or trophozoite stage

•

Natural Vs. synthetic/semisynthetic drugs

•

Natural antibiotics resistance

Obligate Aerobes

Need oxygen because they cannot ferment or respire anaerobically. They gather at the top of the tube where the oxygen concentration is highest.

Gonorrhea (disease of urinary)

Neisseria gonorrheae; G- diplococci; possess pili that allows them to attach to epithelial cells and sperm; endotoxin damages reproductive tract mucosa and produce proteases that destroy IgA antibodies. areas involved can be cervix, urethra, rectum, pharynx, and conjunctiva

What is the most severe form of Meningitis?

Neisseria meningitidis

What are some of the agents that could responsible for Meningitis?

Neisseria meningitidis Streptococcus pneuomoniae Haemophilius influenza Listeria monocytogenes Cryptococcus neoformans (fungus) Coccidioides immitis (fungus) Viral meningitis (Nancy screamed hairy lollipops cause crying)

•

Neisseria meningitidis (meningococcus)

Meningococcal Meningitis (disease of nervous system)

Neissseria meningitidis; gram- diplococci; meningitis symptoms with red pinpoint rash (petechiae)

What is the PNS comprised of?

Nerves Ganglia Schwann cells

•

Neuraminidase inhibitors

•

New drug discovery approaches (e.g. combinatorial chemistry)

What makes nitrogen hard to use?

Nitrogen gas is inert, and it takes a lot of energy to change it. The reaction from N2 → NH3 takes a lot of energy.

What enzyme do bacteria use for nitrogen fixation?

Nitrogenase.

Why would accuracy be important in bacteria?

No backup on another chromosome; only have one copy

How does AIDS effect the host immune system?

No immunity. Results in susceptibility to secondary infections. (ex: pneumonia, tuberculosis, Kaposi's sarcoma) These secondary infections can cause death.

What is the treatment for Naegleria fowleri?

No treatment

What is the treatment for Spongiform Encephalopathy?

No treatment

How can you treat the measles?

No treatment, Clears on its own

How can you treat Rubella?

No treatment, clears on its own

What is the treatment for Roseola?

No treatment, clears on own

What is the treatment for fifths disease?

No treatment, clears on own

What is the treatment for Smallpox?

No treatment, clears own

What is the vaccine for Botulism ?

No vaccine

What is the vaccine for Cellulitis?

No vaccine

What is the vaccine for Impetigo?

No vaccine

What is the vaccine for Listeria monocytogenes?

No vaccine

What is the vaccine for Naegleria fowleri?

No vaccine

What is the vaccine for Ringworm?

No vaccine

What is the vaccine for Roseola?

No vaccine

What is the vaccine for Spongiform Encephalopathy?

No vaccine

What is the vaccine for Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome?

No vaccine

What is the vaccine for Toxoplasmosis?

No vaccine

What is the vaccine of Leishmaniasis?

No vaccine

What is the recommended treatment for Fifth Disease

No vaccine, no treatment; clears on own

What are features of the innate immune system?

Non-specific response No memory Short-term response

•

Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI)

Normal microbiome (Human Microbiome)

Normal microbial flora ~10^14 microbial cells Microorganisms usually *found associated with human body tissue* Many different habitats Colonized by microorganisms at birth Most microorganisms are *benign* *Few contribute to health, and fewer pose direct threats to health*

water borne pathogen from drinking water

Norovirus

What is Sulfonamides and when would you use it?

Not antibiotics -Early therapy -Bacteriostatic -Blocks folic acid synthesis

How can you tell the difference between MRSA and Staph Aureus?

PCR (genetic test to see if genes are present in bacteria (regular strand vs MRSA)

How can you diagnose Bubonic Plague?

PCR, Serology, blood sample Gram stain (-)

What is the diagnosis for Yellow Fever?

PCR, serology

What is the vaccine for Streptococcus pneumoniae?

PCV13 and PPSV24

What are the symptoms of Poliomyelitis?

Paralysis, weakness in legs -Bulbar polio can cause paralysis of lungs

What is the agent in Fifth Disease?

Parvovirus B19

What do phagocytes use in order to recognize bacteria?

Pathogen associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)

What are exceptions to Koch's postulates?

Pathogen specificity, pathogens can't be grown in lab, some pathogens can cause multiple diseases, etc.

Infectious Disease is caused by *what*

Pathogens

Siderophores

Pathogens can produce iron-chelating compounds

Siderophores

Pathogens can produce iron-chelating compounds (i.e. siderophores)

How do pathogens avoid the adaptive immune system?

Pathogens like HIV can avoid the adaptive immune system altogether.

Types of Microbial infections

Pathogens may grow locally at the site of invasion or may spread throughout the body ---->*Bacteremia:* the presence of bacteria in the bloodstream ---->*Septicemia:* bloodborne systemic infection May lead to massive inflammation, septic shock, and death

Found on a variety of immune cells Causes release of multiple inflammatory molecules

Pattern Recognition Receptor TLR4

What are phagocyte receptors called?

Pattern recognition receptors. (PRRs)

What are the cell wall antibiotic(s)?

Penicillin Monobactams Cephalosporins Vancomycin Bacitracin

Capsomere

Protein subunits forming a capsid

non specific host defenses

Physical barriers Cellular defense Chemical defenses

What is the agent for Malaria?

Plasmodium falciparum (Vector) Mosquito

What is the agent for meningitis Streptococcus pneumoniae?

Pneumococcal meningitis

Examples of opportunistic "infections" *on test*

Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP pneumonia) Kaposi's sarcoma; Tuberculosis; several others

What are some AIDS-defining illnesses?

Pneumonia, HIV-related Encephalitis, Tuberculosis

What is the vaccine for Poliomyelitis?

Polio vaccine, stay away from infected

Which antibiotic(s) target cell membrane?

Polymyxin

What are some common symptoms in Cardiovascular infections?

Poor oxygenation Irregular heartbeat or blood pressure Weakness/fatigue

Vegetative mycelium

Portion of the mycelium that anchors the mold and brings in nutrients

Aerial mycelium

Portion of the mycelium that produces asexual reproductive spores

Is Botulism gram + or - ?

Positive

Is Listeria monocytogenes gram + or - ?

Positive

Is Pneumococcal meningitis gram + or - ?

Positive

prevention of HIV

Practice monogamous sex, avoid shared needles HIV cannot be spread by casual contact, skeeters

•Assays to determine presence of endotoxins

Presence of endotoxin can be detected by the *Limulus amoebocyte (Horseshoe crab) lysate assay*

Actinomyces

The following gram stain is characteristic of this branching anaerobe:

The common cold

Primarily Rhinoviruses, but also Adenovirus, Coronavirus, Parainfluenza virus.

What is the agent in Naegleria fowleri?

Primary amoebic meningioencephalitis (PAM)

Important enzyme in DNA replication An RNA polymerase that makes RNA primers from a DNA template

Primase

processes of non specific host defenses

Processes: Phagocytosis Inflammation

What do basophils do?

Produce histamine which is an allergic response.

What do eosinophils do?

Produce toxic proteins, kill parasites. (helminths)

Where are B cells produced?

Produced and mature in the bone marrow.

What is active humoral immunity?

Produced by a host in response to an antigen. Can be artificial (ex: a vaccine) or natural (ex: catching a cold)

_________ responsible for all natural nitrogen fixation.

Prokaryotes (some archaea and bacteria)

What type of cells do viruses infect?

Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic cells.

72 hours

Proper incubation time for specimens being screened for Campylobacter jejuni is

What is bacteriophage DNA called that incorporates into a bacterial host chromosome?

Prophage.

What is the treatment for Malaria?

Prophylactic antiprotozoal Quinine (tonic water)

•

Pros and cons

•

Protease inhibitors

What are the symptoms of Cellulitis?

Red Inflamed skin around large pus filled bump (infection has spread to the surrounding tissue and the immune system is yet to respond)

Blood typing using agglutination

Red blood cells contain antigens on their surface (A = A antigen, B = B antigen) Your body contains antibodies to the opposite blood type, can cause agglutination in your blood stream if given an incompatible blood type during a transfusion (SEE PICTURE IN POWERPOINT)

What are the symptoms of Fifth Disease

Red cheeks

How does inflammation recruit phagocytes to the infection site?

Redness & heat causes increased permeability and vasodilation (increase in diameter of blood vessels) Allows phagocytes to leave the blood and enter injured tissue. (also brings fluid into the injured tissue)

Epitope

Region of the antigen that reacts with the antibody

•Specificity and sensitivity of a diagnostic test

Reliability of a diagnostic test depends on:

Latent life cycle

Remain within the host cells without replicating or causing harm due to established miRNA

RNA Genome

Replicate in cytoplasm

DNA Genome Release

Replicate in the nucleus Uncoated: Goes through nuclear pores Coated: Capsid binds to the pores and dumps in genomes, entire capsid fits through pore then removed in nucleus

Living virus characteristics

Reproduce and mutate

always found on human tissues.

Resident microbiota

Resilience of host

Resistant normal microbiota Healthy immune response Age (very young, old, more susceptible) Genetics factors

What is the portal of entry for Chicken Pox and Shingles ?

Respiratory Tract

What is the portal of entry for Haemophilus influenzae?

Respiratory Tract

What is the portal of entry for Smallpox?

Respiratory Tract

What is the portal of entry for Toxoplasmosis?

Respiratory Tract

What is the portal of entry in Poliomyelitis?

Respiratory Tract

What is the portal of entry for Coccidioides?

Respiratory Tract (Spores released into the lungs, move to bloodstream )

•

Respiratory infections (different types of respiratory pathogens)

What is the portal of entry for Rubella?

Respiratory system

What is the portal of entry for the measles?

Respiratory system

What is the portal of entry for Infectious Mononucleosis?

Respiratory tract

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSF) (disease of skin)

Ricksettsia rickettsii; transmitted by bite of ticks; fever,chills, headache, muscular pain. distinctive spotted rash (petechiae) rash present on hands and soles. disease affects cells lining blood vessels.

Antibiotic(s) that target nucleic acid

Rifamycin Quinolones Fluoroquinolones

(diarrhea, children and infants)

Rotavirus

cause of German measles Major cause of viral birth defects; vaccination campaign has made it 2nd to CMV.

Rubella

•

Rubella (togavirus)

What are the symptoms of Chagas disease?

Rupture of blood cells Chagoma (swelling at the site of insect bite)

Sulfur reduction equation.

SO4 → S2

STAPHYLOCOCCAL skin infection

STAPHYLOCOCCUS PYOGENIC- Pus producing TOXIC SHOCK SYNDROME - TSS TOXIN

portals of entry - transplacental

STORCH (syphillis, toxoplasmosis, other, rubella, cytomegalovirus, and herpes simplex virus

Salmonellosis (disease of digestive)

Salmonella enterica; diarrhea, cramps, fever, vomiting, dehydration or systemic bloodborne infection

Typhoid fever (disease of digestive)

Salmonella typhi; high fever; enlarged lymph nodes, liver and spleen and ulcerated intestine; transmission-fecal oral route

What are the symptoms of Rubella in adults?

Same as regular measles (Bumps, Laryngitis, etc)

Describe some ways specimens can be collected

Samples are usually collected from bodily fluids and must be cold and moist. Samples can be stored immediately (preferred), in a culturette (must be kept moist), or dry and in an aerobic/anaerobic environment.

What is a plasma cell?

Secrete IgM and then IgG into bloodstream (Isotype/class switching - a B cells production of antibody changes from one class to another)

IgA

Secretory immunoglobulin, found in secretions (tears, mucus, saliva, breast milk) Newborn protection against GI pathogens.

C (this is the classic 'flask shaped' lesion in the colon that indicates infection by Entamoeba histolytica, which can progress to the liver if left untreated - under microscopy, these amoeba will have ingested red blood cells in their cytoplasm, so they are distinct there as well)

Shamim traveled to Latin America presents with abdominal pain and bloody diarrhea. A biopsy of the colon revealed the histological finding shown. If treatment is withheld, Shamim is in danger of developing which of the following conditions? A. Aplastic anemia B. Neurocysticercosis C. Hepatic amoebiasis D. Bladder cancer E. Cholangiocarcinoma

Shigellosis (disease of digestive)

Shigella dysenteriae; bacteria cause lysis of infected colon cells=patchy areas of destruction and inflammation; shiga toxin=damage to blood vessels in intestinal wall and intense inflammation; transmission-fecal oral route; bacteria invades large intestine

In translation, the specific sequence that tells ribosome where to bind; looks for UG to start

Shine Dalgarno Sequence

What are cationic antimicrobial peptides? How do they protect us from pathogens?

Small cationic peptides made by the host. Inhibit cell wall synthesis Form pores in pathogens plasma membrane and destroy pathogen nucleic acids.

What are interferons? How do they protect us from pathogens?

Small proteins, stable at low pH and high heat. (they work well in fever conditions) Cell infected with a virus make interferons (sacrifice itself for the greater good). Bind to healthy cells and cause them to make antiviral proteins, protects them from potential infection.

Viroid

Small, circular, single stranded molecules of infectious RNA lacking a protein coat EX: Potato spindle tuber disease

True

T/F: Haemophilus influenzae is spread person to person.

Why are viral proteins potentially useful?

Some viral proteins are unique to viruses and can be targets for antiviral drugs.

What encompasses the third line of defense?

Specialized lymphocytes (T and B cells) Antibodies

Hemagglutinin and Neuraminidase are what

Spikes

How do you diagnose Meningitis?

Spinal tap

Disc diffusion test

Standard procedure for assessing antimicrobial activity Agar media is spread evenly with culture of bacteria Inhibition zones Used to determine an organism's susceptibility to an antimicrobial agent

What is the agent for Cellulitis?

Staph Aureus

What is the agent in Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome?

Staph aureus

Rheumatic fever (disease of the respiratory)

Streptococccus pyogenes; autoimmune reaction results in antibodies directed @ strep to cross react w heart antigens. affects joints, skin, brain, and children.

•

Streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumonia)

Pneumococcal Meningitis (disease of nervous system)

Streptococcus pneumoniae; gram + diplococci (sometimes chains)

•

Streptococcus pyogenes diseases (strep throat, erysipelas, scarlet fever, rheumatic fever, necrotizing fasciitis etc)

Scarlet fever (disease of respiratory)

Streptococcus pyogenes strains that produce the erythrogenic (pyrogenic) exotoxin. pinkish-red rash on whole body except palms and soles , feels like sandpaper, tongue spotted like strawberry

•Growth factor analogs

Structurally similar to growth factors but do not function in the cell --Analogs similar to vitamins, amino acids, and other compounds

•

Structure-activity relationship

deal with host defense

Successful parasite must infect, persist long enough to reproduce, then escape. Host defense seeks to kill it.

Sulfur oxidation equation?

Sulfide and sulfur can be oxidized to H2SO4 → corrosion Also used for recovery of Cu from sulfide ores

________ binds tightly to a lot of metals?

Sulfide.

Sulfa Drugs

Sulfonamides Discovered in the 1930s First widely used growth factor analogs Inhibit growth of bacteria Sulfanilamide is the simplest Blocks the synthesis of folic acid inhibit nucleic acid synthesis Sulfa allergies are common

What is the treatment for Acanthamoeba?

Symptom management

How do you diagnose Tetanus?

Symptoms

How do you diagnose rabies?

Symptoms

What are the symptoms of Hemorrhagic Fever ?

Symptoms range in severity based on viral agent

Clonal expansion

T & B cells replicate themselves

Where are T cells made? Where do they mature?

T cells are made in the bone marrow. They mature in the thymus (thymic selection)

Activation

T cells mature to T-cytotoxic (CD8) cells, kill cells B cells become Plasma cells, make Aby

*what* cells help B & T cells thru direct contact

T helper

*what* either kill cells directly or recruit macrophages to kill cells directly

T lymphocytes

T and B cells receive signals from *what*

T-Helper cells

False

T/F: All specimens received for anaerobic culture should be plated and incubated for 18-24 hours.

True

T/F: Campylobacter jejuni, Moraxella catarrhalis and Neisseria meningitidis are all oxidase positive.

-

Tetanus toxin

D (Cryptosporidium is fecal-oral and transmitted by contaminated water - it will cause mild watery diarrhea in the immunocompetent, and is markedly more severe in the immunocompromised)

The CDC investigates a series of outbreaks of cryptosporidiosis. The cluster of cases occurs in separate upscale suburban communities. Which of the following is the most plausible source of transmission for these outbreaks? A. Fecal-oral person-to-person route B. Parasite-infected meat C. Bird-mosquito-human route D. Manure-recontaminated drinking water E. Inhalation of bird droppings

30.7

The Common Cold

when was the use of biological warfare banned (by what protocol)

The Geneva Protocol-1925

•

The R plasmid (HGT spread, enzymes that give antibiotics resistance)

Antimicrobial Drug Resistance

The acquired ability of a microorganism to resist the effects of a chemotherapeutic agent to which it is normally sensitive

C (the hydatid cysts are found in sheep or humans, which are accidental intermediate hosts, but the adults are found in the intestines of dogs)

The adult tapeworm of Echinococcus granulosus is found in the intestine of A. Humans B. Sheep C. Dogs D. Cattle

What reaction occurs in nitrification?

The aerobic 2-step process of ammonia oxidation NH3 → NO2 nitrite oxidation NO2 → NO3

Carbohydrate fermentation

The boxed in area of this test kit represents the following reaction

A (cutaneous larva migrans, or "creeping eruption" is indicative of a pathogen that has infected its non-definitive host - Ancylostoma is a dog hookworm, and is unable to do anything to a human host other than aimlessly wander through the skin - aww, poor baby is lost...)

The causative agent of this particular lesion is most likely of the genus A. Ancylostoma B. Ascarida C. Dermacentor D. Strongyloides E. Diphyllobothrium

What is cell mediated immunity?

The cellular response to tumors. Fights intracellular pathogens, responsible for transplant rejection.

•

The common cold (rhinoviruses)

What is ammonification?

The conversion of organic nitrogen into inorganic ammonia.

6)

The emergence of multi-drug-resistant pathogens has become a major health care problem. What are some ways we can deal with these antibiotics resistant strains?

NAD

The factor present in several bacteria and yeast and is responsible for satellite growth of Haemophilus sp. around colonies of Staphylococcus species on sheep blood agar is

C (which is insane)

The fever generated by Plasmodium vivax malaria consumes ____ calories a day. A. 1,000 B. 3,000 C. 5,000 D. 10,000 E. 2

What is the first step of DNA replication?

The first step in DNA replication is to 'unzip' the double helix structure of the DNA molecule.

M. catarrhalis

The following biochemical profile would most likely belong to: Glucose-negative, maltose-negative, lactose-negative , sucrose negative, and DNase positive

D (the giant intestinal fluke is commonly found in Southern and Eastern Asia but considerably rarer in the US)

The following organisms are linked with specific relevant information. The incorrect combination is A. Strongyloides stercoralis ::: internal autoinfection B. Echinococcus granulosus ::: hydatid disease C. Taenia solium ::: humans can serve as definitive and intermediate hosts D. Fasciolopsis buski ::: common within the United States

Fusobacterium

The gram stain shown below is consistent with:

A (this is a tapeworm, and the anterior structure is a scolex - the scolex is NOT used to feed, but to attach to the intestine - nutrients are absorbed directly through the tapeworm's surface, as it does not have or need a digestive system)

The image shows the anterior end of a cestode. The structure at the tip of the organism is used for A. Attachment B. Reproduction C. Feeding D. Looking scary

What is phagocytosis?

The ingestion of a microorganism or other substances by a cell.

Clostridium botulinum

The ingestion of honey is not recommended for young children because it may contain the spores of this anaerobic organism.

What is a primary infection?

The initial infection.

contamination of food, milk, or water with animal feces.

The majority of human infections with Campylobacter species are caused by:

D (normally, the filariform larva penetrates the body and the rhabditiform larva leaves it - but Strongyloides stercoralis is able to make the switch from one to the other within the same host, and reinfect and multiply to absurd numbers) (A; hyperparasitism is when a parasite is a host to another parasite, like a tapeworm inside a flea) (E; man, I wish)

The nematode Strongyloides stercoralis is one of the only parasites known to be capable of A. Hyperparasitism B. Hyperinfection C. Autoparasitism D. Autoinfection E. Megahypersuperultrarareparasitinfectionism

D (Ascarid worm eggs are remarkably resilient, lasting viable for up to 10 years, and a lipid layer surrounding the egg protects it from destruction)

The only way to destroy Ascaris lumbricoides eggs is to A. Freeze them B. Dessicate them C. Bathe them in formaldehyde D. You can't

42 degrees C

The optimum temperature for the primary cultivation of Campylobacter jejuni is:

Campylobacter jejuni

The organism in this gram stain is most likely to be identified as:

Clostridium perfringens

The organism in this gram stain is most likely to be identified as:

How do pathogens actively penetrate host tissue?

The pathogen has its own mechanism for penetration.

B (notable features - large kidney-shaped nucleus [macronucleus] and cilia) (symptoms are similar to entamoebiasis, but the buzzword is pigs - look out for farmers and such) (treatment is tetracycline or metronidazole)

The pictured organism is from the genus A. Ascarida B. Balantidia C. Cyclospora D. Diphyllobothria E. Entamoeba

C (this is Entamoeba histolytica, as evidenced by the endocytosed red blood cells, which colonizes the large intestine, often the cecum) (D; E. histolytica does eventually get to the liver via the portal system to create abscesses, but that is not the initial site)

The pictured pathogen initially infects the A. Duodenum B. Ilium C. Cecum D. Liver

What is the polymerase chain reaction?

The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a technique used in genotyping, to amplify a single copy or a few copies of a piece of DNA across several orders of magnitude, generating thousands to millions of copies of a particular DNA sequence.

Gastric Biopsy

The proper specimen to collect when Helicobactor pylori is suspected is:

What happens if an enveloped virus loses its envelope?

The virus becomes non-infectious.

What is an immunoglobulin?

These bind and destroy antigens but alone are not harmful. Mark pathogens for destruction by complements, phagocytes, other effects.

How do peristalsis and defecation aid in reducing pathogens?

They act as a physical barrier. Propel food and microbes out of the GI tract.

How do urine flow and vaginal secretions aid in reducing pathogens?

They act as a physical barrier. They physically flush microbes from the body.

Are nucleic acids DNA or RNA?

They can be either.

How many strands are nucleic acids?

They can be single-stranded (ss) or double stranded (ds).

How can Mycobacteria, Legionella, and Listeria evade the immune system?

They can multiply within phagocytes.

What do Th cells do?

They help to activate B cells (in the place of an antibody in some cases) They release cytokines that activate B cells and enhance immune response. They also produce memory cells.

How do viruses reproduce?

They must infect living cells.

How do T cells bind to antigens?

They use T cell receptors (and not antibodies)

fungi

This list describes the functions of _____________ in nature: 1. decompose organic matter 2. provide food for humans (mushrooms) 3. provide food for ants (lepiota fungi) used in brewing, wine making, and bread making 4. source of industrial chemicals and enzymes 5. source of drugs (penicillin)

Haemophilus influenzae

This organism is known to be the major cause of bacterial meningitis worldwide among non-vaccinated children.

Neisseria meningitidis

This organism may cause lethal meningitis but is commonly carried in the respiratory tract of humans and may be asymptomatic.

Clostridium botulinum

This organism produces a powerful preformed toxin which may be ingested with food and lead to respiratory paralysis:

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

This oxidase positive, gram-negative diplococci is not part of normal human flora and is spread person to person by sexual contact.

What are molecular postulates?

This postulates relies on the presence of a gene found only in pathogenic strains. (This gene must be absent in non-pathogenic members of the same genus/species)

Gram negative coccobacilli

This typical gram stain of Haemophilus influenzae is best described as:

How do pathogens attach to host tissue?

Through adhesion, pathogens have adhesins or ligands that specifically bind to host receptors.

How do you identify an infectious agent?

Through culturing bacteria, isolating pure cultures, and diagnostic tests (5 "I's" of Culturing Bacteria-Inoculation, Incubation, Isolation, Inspection, Identification)

What are the 3 physical barriers of the skin?

Tightly packed Waterproof Sheds

Dermatophyte infections

Tinea capitis, tinea barbae, tinea corporis

Mycelium

Total mass of hyphae

What is the agent in Toxoplasmosis?

Toxoplasma gondii (Apicomplex)

Toxoplasma gondii

Toxoplasmosis (nervous system) Non motile

What are virulence factors?

Traits or features that act as pathogen weapons.

come and go, can include potential pathogens.

Transient microbiota

C (rule of thumb; protozoans are transmitted either fecal-orally, or by arthropod vectors - and the tsetse fly vectors something much scarier than cyclosporiasis)

Transmission of cyclosporiasis occurs by what method? A. Person-to-person B. Through the bite of the tsetse fly C. Fecal-oral route D. Respiratory route E. Sexual transmission

simple life cycle

Transmission to host and entry into host Attachment to host cell, entry into cell Transcription and translation, replication, assembly Lysis of cell or budding to release virus from host cell Exit from host organism, spread

Pneumocystis jiroveci

Transmitted by respiratory route and is often asymptomatic Can cause severe PCP (pneumonia)

What is Neonatal meningitis?

Transmitted during birth, or in utero *Opportunistic Pathogen*

What is the portal of entry for Listeria monocytogenes?

Transmitted through food - Ingestion

•

Treatment

•

Treatment and vaccination

Syphilis (disease of urinary)

Treponema pallidum; 3 phases; 1 phase- chancres 2 phase- rash phase 3- damage to all organs and death. treatable with penicillin

true or false Some diseases are found only in some geographic areas

True

true or false Some bacteria specialize in disease, some are opportunists

True

30.4

Tuberculosis and Leprosy

A (the fish tapeworm egg resembles the liver fluke egg - both are operculated [meaning they have little caps] - you need a specialist to distinguish them - D latum is the ONLY cestode that infects humans and lays operculated eggs)

Two helminth eggs that may resemble one another are A. Diphyllobothrium latum and Fasciola hepatica B. Opisthorchis sinensis and Taenia solium C. Taenia saginata and Hymenolepis nana D. Ascaris lumbricoides and Trichostrongylus

Which hypersensitivity type involves the IgE on mast cells binding to antigens and releasing histamine? (ex: allergic response)

Type I hypersensitivity.

What are the 4 types of hypersensitivity?

Type I: Immediate or anaphylactic Type II: Antibody-dependent cytotoxic Type III: Immune-complex Type IV: Delayed or cell-mediated

Which hypersensitivity type involves the combination of IgM and IgG on cell surfaces that leads to cell death by complement activation or phagocytosis? (ex: blood group incompatibility)

Type II hypersensitivity.

Which hypersensitivity type involves a small antigen-antibody combination (called an immune complex) that is deposited in the organs which results in surrounding host cell/tissue destruction?

Type III hypersensitivity.

Which hypersensitivity type involves T cells bound to antigens that release cytokines to cause inflammatory response and phagocytosis that damages tissue? (ex: poison ivy or latex allergy)

Type IV hypersensitivity.

Disease: TULAREMIA Causative organism: FANCISCELLA

Type of Organism: BACTERIAL Part of Body Affected: Cardiovascular & lymphatic system Mode of Transmission: 1. TICK BITES- DIRECT CONTACT with INFECTED ANIMALS: ULCEROGLANDULAR TULAREMIA 2. INHALATION: PNEUMONIC TULAREMIA 3. EATING INFECTED/ contaminated MEAT: TYPHOID TULAREMIA 4. EYE: OCULOGLANDULAR TULAREMIA Characteristic Sign or Symptom: Skin ulcer, septicemia, abscesses

Disease: NEISSERIA MENINGITIS/ MENINGOCOCCAL MENINGITIS Causative organism: NEISSERIA MENINGITIDIS

Type of Organism: Bacteria Part of Body Affected: Nervous System Characteristic Sign or Symptom: rash and throat infection Notes: primarily in young adults

Disease: LISTERIOSIS Causative organism: LISTERIA monocytogenes

Type of Organism: Bacteria Part of Body Affected: Nervous System Mode of Transmission: Dairy, eating animal products Characteristic Sign or Symptom: headache, stiff neck, delirium Complications: coma Notes: NEONATAL and FETAL INFECTIONS* *crosses the PLACENTA

Disease: BOTULISM Causative organism: CLOSTRIDIUM

Type of Organism: Bacteria Part of Body Affected: Nervous System Mode of Transmission: INGESTION of EXOTOXINS in FOOD* Mechanism: BOTULIN- BLOCKS the RELEASE of ACETYLCHOLINE* Complications: lethal Notes: Infant botulism - cases from HONEY HONEY should NOT be FED to INFANTS <1 y.o.

Disease: LEPROSY -HANSONS DISEASE Causative organism: MYCOBACTERIUM

Type of Organism: Bacteria Part of Body Affected: Nervous System Mode of Transmission: respiratory, skin contact Characteristic Sign or Symptom: 1. NEURAL Form: TUBERCULOID 2. PROGRESSIVE Form: LEPROMATOUS/LEPROMAS- disfiguring nodules

Disease: TETANUS Causative organism: CLOSTRIDIUM

Type of Organism: Bacteria Part of Body Affected: Nervous System Mode of Transmission: soil Characteristic Sign: TETANOSPASMIN* (exotoxin) sustained muscle contraction Symptom: LOCKJAW /RISUS SARDONICUS* Prevention: TDap* (older children and adults) or DTap* (children)

Disease: Bacterial Meningitis Causative organism: HAEMOPHILUS INFLUENZAE MENINGITIS

Type of Organism: Bacteria Part of Body Affected: Nervous System Notes: Occurs in children (6 mos - 4 yrs)

Disease: STREPTOCOCCUS PNEUMONIA MENINGITIS

Type of Organism: Bacteria Part of Body Affected: Nervous System Notes: most common in children 1 mo-4 yrs Prevention: VACCINATION*

Disease: GROUP A STREPTOCOCCAL PNEUMONIA Causative organism: STREPTOCOCCUS PYOGENS

Type of Organism: Bacterial Part of Body Affected: Lower Respiratory

Disease: PERTUSSIS - WHOOPING COUGH Causative organism: BORDETELLA

Type of Organism: Bacterial Part of Body Affected: Lower Respiratory Mode of Transmission: INHALATION Characteristic Sign or Symptom: 1. CATARRHAL stage: HIGHLY CONTAGIOUS 2. PAROXYSMAL stage: lMPEDES CILIARY ACTION ➡️ SEVERE, SPASMODIC and RECURRENT/EPISODIC COUGH ➡️ ANOXIC-SHORT of OXYGEN 3. CONVALESCENT stage: lasts for MONTHS Complications: CONJUNCTIVAL HEMORRHAGE, DETACHED RETINA - may result in BLINDNESS, RECTAL PROLAPSE, HERNIA, CRACKED RIBS* Prevention: DTaP (a= ACELLULAR)*

Disease: PNEUMOCOCCAL PNEUMONIA Causative organism: STREPTOCOCCUS

Type of Organism: Bacterial Part of Body Affected: Lower Respiratory Mode of Transmission: INHALATION Characteristic Sign or Symptom: OTITIS MEDIA Prevention: PNEUMOCOCCAL POLYSACCHARIDE VACCINE

Disease: HAEMOPHILUS PNEUMONIA Causative organism: HAEMOPHILUS

Type of Organism: Bacterial Part of Body Affected: Lower Respiratory Complications: meningitis, OBSTRUCTIVE EPIGLOTTIS (OBSTRUCTION of the TRACHEA ➡️ TRACHEOTOMY required)

Disease: LEGIONNAIRES DISEASE/LEGIONELLOSIS Causative organism: LEGIONELLA

Type of Organism: Bacterial Part of Body Affected: Lower Respiratory Mode of Transmission: INHALATION, WATER*- LIVE & MULTIPLY in WATERBORNE PROTOZOA Notes: PONTIAC FEVOR: MILDER form of LEGIONELLOSIS

Disease: SERRATIA PNEUMONIA Causative organism: SERRATIA

Type of Organism: Bacterial Part of Body Affected: Lower Respiratory Mode of Transmission: OPERATION SEASPRAY*-biological weapon

flagellin are what *what* are made of

flagella

Disease: KLEBSIELLA PNEUMONIA Causative organism: KLEBSIELLA

Type of Organism: Bacterial Part of Body Affected: Lower Respiratory Mode of Transmission: RESPIRATORY and NOSOCOMIAL infections Characteristic Sign: MALNUTRITION Notes: MALE ALCOHOLICS over 40 y.o. MOST SUSCEPTIBLE

Disease: TUBERCULOSIS Causative organism: MYCOBACTERIUM

Type of Organism: Bacterial Part of Body Affected: TUBERCLE*-body walls of the lung Mode of Transmission: droplet route Characteristic Sign or Symptom: CASEOUS LESION* ➡️ GHON COMPLEXES- SCAR FORMATIONS and CALCIFICATION seen on CHEST X-RAY Complications: MILIARY (spread) TUBERCULOSIS/CONSUMPTION* Prevention: VACCINE- BCG* (bacillus of Calmette and Guerin)

Disease: STREP THROAT Causative organism: STREPTOCOCCUS -Group A strep

Type of Organism: Bacterial Part of Body Affected: Upper Respiratory Mode of Transmission: Characteristic Sign or Symptom: PHARYNGITIS, INFLAMMATION of MUCUS MEMBRANES of the THROAT, TONSILS* Complications: SCARLET FEVER*

Disease: DIPHTHERIA Causative organism: CORYNEBACTERIUM

Type of Organism: Bacterial Part of Body Affected: Upper Respiratory Mode of Transmission: INHALATION of Droplets Characteristic Sign or Symptom: PSEUDOMEMBRANE LEATHER/MEMBRANE Prevention: DPT, DtaP D Vaccine

Disease: COCCIDIOMYCOSIS Common name: SAN JOAQUIN VALLEY FEVER, VALLEY FEVER Causative organism: COCCIDIOIDES

Type of Organism: FUNGAL Part of Body Affected: Lower Respiratory Mode of Transmission: INHALATION of SPORES Complications: Notes: DIMORPHIC FUNGUS

Disease: Candidiasis Causative organism: CANDIDA

Type of Organism: FUNGAL Part of Body Affected: skin Mode of Transmission: sugary diet -Opportunistic Characteristic Sign or Symptom: WIDESPREAD YEAST*- oral cavity, genitalia & large intestine Complications: Fatal

Disease: RESPIRATORY SYNCYTIAL VIRUS (RSV)

Type of Organism: Viral Part of Body Affected: Lower Respiratory - to blame for 1:13 PEDIATRICIAN VISITS - STRIKES HEALTHY KIDS, and it affects MORE youngsters than the FLU

Disease: Q FEVER - QUERY Causative organism: COXIELLA

Type of Organism: Viral Part of Body Affected: Lower Respiratory Mode of Transmission: ANIMAL to ANIMAL by TICKS, INHALING CONTAMINATED DUST, TICK or CATTLE FECES, RESPIRATORY DROPLETS, UNPASTEURIZED MILK, TICK BITE to HUMANS-RARE Notes:

Disease: PSITTACOSIS/ORNITHOSIS Causative organism: CHLAMYDIA

Type of Organism: Viral Part of Body Affected: Lower Respiratory Mode of Transmission: INHAILING organism in airborne DUST/BIRD DROPPINGS, BITE of INFECTED BIRD or DROPLETS from an INFECTED HUMAN Complications: EXTENSIVE PULMONARY INFECTION ➡️ CYANOSIS

Disease: INFLUENZA

Type of Organism: Viral Part of Body Affected: Lower Respiratory Mode of Transmission: INHALATION, RESPIRATORY DROPLETS, INDIRECT CONTACT Complications: REYES SYNDROME ANTIGENIC VARIATION: H SPIKE: HEMMAGGLUTININ - BINDS to HOST CELLS N SPIKES: NEURAMINIDASE- ASSISTS in VIRAL BUDDING and RELEASE TYPE A: MOST PANDEMICS TYPE B: EVERY 4-6 YRS, GEOGRAPHICALLY LIMITED TYPE C: ONLY SPORADIC CASES DRIFT: minor mutations in the genes that code for the H & N spikes SHIFT: reassortment of RNA from different strains

Disease: MYCOPLASMA PNEUMONIA Common name: WALKING PNEUMONIA Causative organism: MYCOPLASMA

Type of Organism: Viral Part of Body Affected: Lower Respiratory SMALLEST FREE LIVING CELLULAR ORGANISM, LACK CELL WALLS - MOST COMMON ATYPICAL PNEUMONIA - PAP

Causative organism: RHABDOVIRUS

Type of Organism: Viral Part of Body Affected: Nervous System Mode of Transmission: ENTERS through WOUND CONTAMINATED with SALIVA - ANIMAL BITE Characteristic Sign or Symptom: Complications: HYDROPHOBIA -can't swallow

Disease: POLIOMYELITIS Causative organism: PICORNAVIRUS

Type of Organism: Viral Part of Body Affected: Nervous System Mode of Transmission: FOOD or WATER* Characteristic Sign or Symptom: fever, headache, sore throat, vomiting Complications: paralysis Pathology: MOST cases DON'T PROGRESS - NEUROTROPHIC* Prevention: 1. SALK - CONTAINS KILLED POLIOVIRUS 2. SABIN - ORAL VACCINE: WEAKEND/ATTENUATED LIVE VIRUS * TYPE III may REVERT to VIRULENCE

Disease: Arboviral encephalitis Causative organism: ENCEPHALITIS

Type of Organism: Viral Part of Body Affected: Nervous System Mode of Transmission: MOSQUITO Characteristic Sign or Symptom: chills, headache, fever, mental confusion, coma Complications: Brain damage and deafness Notes: ST. LEWIS (SLE) & WEST NILE (WNV)

INPETIGO of the NEWBORN Causative organism: staphylococcal

Type of Organism: bacteria Part of Body Affected: skin Characteristic Sign/Symptom: superficial pustule Complications: OSTEOMYELITIS* Notes: PEMPHIGUS NEONATORUM*

Otitis Externa -SWIMMERS EAR Causative organism: PSEUDOMONAS

Type of Organism: bacteria Part of Body Affected: skin Mode of Transmission: Direct contact/contaminated water Characteristic Sign or Symptom: fatal infections due to exotoxin A Complications: major cause of nosocomial infections

Inflammatory acne Causative organism: PROPIONIBACTERIUM

Type of Organism: bacteria Part of Body Affected: skin Mode of Transmission: opportunist Characteristic Sign or Symptom: ACNE LESIONS

ERYSIPELAS- ST ANTHONY's FIRE Causative organism: STREPTOCOCCAL

Type of Organism: bacteria Part of Body Affected: skin, lymphatic vessels Characteristic Sign or Symptom: PAINFUL REDDISH, SWELLING PATCHES (rea)

SCARLET FEVER Causative organism: streptococcal

Type of Organism: bacteria (lymphatic vessels) Part of Body Affected: skin Characteristic Sign or Symptom: STRAWBERRY TONGUE Complications: NECROTIZING FASCIITIS Notes: EXOTOXIN A - SUPERANTIGEN

Disease: ENDOCARDITIS Causative organism: ALL STAPHS and STREPS

Type of Organism: bacterial Part of Body Affected: Cardiovascular & lymphatic system 1. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 2. ACUTE BACTERIAL ENDOCARDITIS - STAPH* PERICARDITIS - STREP*

Disease: BUBONIC PLAGUE/BLACK DEATH Causative organism: YERSINA

Type of Organism: bacterial Part of Body Affected: Cardiovascular & lymphatic system Mode of Transmission: FLEA Characteristic Sign or Symptom: BUBO= SWELLING Complications: fatal Notes: 1. SYLVATIC PLAGUE- ZOONOSIS 2. SEPTICEMIA PLAGUE-FLEA bite 3. PNEUMONIC PLAGUE- HUMAN to HUMAN by DROPLET ROUTE

Disease: EPIDEMIC TYPHUS Causative organism: RICKETTSIA

Type of Organism: bacterial Part of Body Affected: Cardiovascular & lymphatic system Mode of Transmission: LICE* or feces Characteristic Sign or Symptom: rash Complications: fatal, FRIGHTFUL DREAMS, HALLUCINATIONS and DELIRIUM

Disease: EPIDEMIC MURINE TYPHUS Causative organism: RICKETTSIA

Type of Organism: bacterial Part of Body Affected: Cardiovascular & lymphatic system Mode of Transmission: RODENTS & FLEAS Characteristic Sign or Symptom: rash Notes: less severe than epidemic typhus

Disease: ANTHRAX Causative organism: BACILLUS

Type of Organism: bacterial Part of Body Affected: Cardiovascular & lymphatic system Mode of Transmission: Spores Complications: mortality Notes: 1. Cutaneous Anthrax- 20% mortality 2. Gastrointestinal Anthrax- 50% mortality 3. Inhalation Anthrax - 100% mortality

Disease: LYME DISEASE Causative organism: BORRELIA

Type of Organism: bacterial Part of Body Affected: Cardiovascular & lymphatic system Mode of Transmission: TICK Characteristic Sign or Symptom: ERYTHEMA CHRONICUM MIGRAINES Complications: DESTRUCTION of MYELIN SHEATH - CROSS the PLACENTA

Disease: ROCKY MOUNTAIN SPOTTED FEVER Causative organism: RICKETTSIA

Type of Organism: bacterial Part of Body Affected: Cardiovascular & lymphatic system Mode of Transmission: TICKS Characteristic Sign or Symptom: MACROPAPULAR RASH Complications: fatal Notes: vaccine available. Protective clothing and insect repellent

Disease: BRUCELLOSIS Causative organism: BRUCELLA

Type of Organism: bacterial Part of Body Affected: Cardiovascular & lymphatic system Mode of Transmission: mouth; CONTAMINATED DAIRY products, UNDERCOOKED MEAT, CATTLE SECRETIONS or EXCRETIONS in CUTS or eyes Characteristic Sign or Symptom: UNDULANT FEVER*- INCREASES in the EVENING Notes: Hepatosplenomegaly

Disease: HEPATITIS D- DELTA VIRUS

Type of Organism: bacterial Part of Body Affected: Digestive System Mode of Transmission: CONFECTION HBV Signs and symptoms: JAUNDICE, CHRONIC HEPATITIS, CIRRHOSIS and DEATH

Disease: MUMPS or PAROTITIS Causative organism: RUBULAVIRUS

Type of Organism: bacterial Part of Body Affected: Digestive System Mode of Transmission: DROPLETS, FOMITE's Signs and symptoms: PAINFUL SWELLING of the PAROTID GLANDS Prevention: MMR, MEASLES- MUMPS - RUBELLA

Disease: CHOLERA Causative organism: VIBRIO

Type of Organism: bacterial Part of Body Affected: Digestive System Mode of Transmission: CONTAMINATED FOOD and WATER Signs and symptoms: 1. ENTEROTOXIN ➡️ "RICE WATER STOOLS" ➡️ SUDDEN LOSS OF FLUID ➡️ BLOOD THICKENS 2. VISCOUS BLOOD: ORGAN DYSFUNCTION, VOMITING, DECREASED BLOOD to BRAIN ➡️ SHOCK ➡️ COLLAPSE ➡️ COMA Complications: ➡️ DEATH Notes: food infection

Disease: TYPHOID FEVER Causative organism: SALMONELLA

Type of Organism: bacterial Part of Body Affected: Digestive System Mode of Transmission: CONTAMINATED FOOD and WATER. FLIES, FOOD HANDLERS- "TYPHOID MARY" Signs and symptoms: Complications: can LEAVE the G.I. TRACKED - DISSEMINATE and INVADE OTHER ORGANS Prevention: VACCINE, CHOLECYSTECTOMY of CARRIERS Notes: food infection

Disease: HEPATITIS B- SERUM HEPATITIS

Type of Organism: bacterial Part of Body Affected: Digestive System Mode of Transmission: IV DRUG USE, NEED STICK, TATTOOS or BODY PIERCINGS, SEXUAL CONTACT, DIALYSIS, BLOOD TRANSFUSIONS (before 1972), FOMITES (survives several days) Signs and symptoms: JAUNDICE Prevention: VACCINE Notes: OFTEN PROGRESSES to CIRRHOSIS, CHRONIC HEPATITIS, LIVER CANCER and DEATH

Disease: BACILLIARY DYSENTERY/ SHIGELLOSIS Causative organism: SHIGELLA- SHIGA TOXIN

Type of Organism: bacterial Part of Body Affected: Digestive System Mode of Transmission: ORAL, BY MOUTH. CONTAMINATED FOOD and WATER. Signs and Symptoms: DYSENTERY, ULCERATIONS, BLOODY-MUCOID STOOLS Complications: Notes: FOOD INTOXICATION

Disease: SALMONELLOSIS Causative organism: SALMONELLA

Type of Organism: bacterial Part of Body Affected: Digestive System Mode of Transmission: ORAL, BY MOUTH. INGESTING, PET TURTLES, REPTILES in general* Signs and symptoms: ENDOTOXIN RELEASED* Complications: Notes: FOOD INFECTION

Disease: PSEUDOMEMBRANOUS COLITIS (GASTROENTERITIS) Causative organism: CLOSTRIDIUM

Type of Organism: bacterial Part of Body Affected: Digestive System Mode of Transmission: ORAL. BY MOUTH

Disease: HEPATITIS A- INFECTIOUS HEPATITIS

Type of Organism: bacterial Part of Body Affected: Digestive System Mode of Transmission: ORAL. BY MOUTH Signs and symptoms: JAUNDICE Prevention: VACCINE Acute DOESN'T CAUSE CHRONIC HEPATITIS or CIRRHOSIS Similar to Hep E

Disease: GASTROENTERITIS Causative organism: VIBRIO PARAHAEMOLYTICUS

Type of Organism: bacterial Part of Body Affected: Digestive System Mode of Transmission: ORAL. BY MOUTH. INGESTING UNCOOKED/UNDERCOOKED SEAFOOD MOST COMMON

Disease: STAPHYLOCOCCUS FOOD POISONING/INTOXICATION Causative organism: STAPHYLOCOCCUS

Type of Organism: bacterial Part of Body Affected: Digestive System Mode of Transmission: ORAL. BY MOUTH. Ingesting CONTAMINATED FOOD Produces: EXOTOXINS. VERY HEAT STABLE

Disease: HEPATITIS E- ENTERIC NON-A NON-B HEPATITIS

Type of Organism: bacterial Part of Body Affected: Digestive System Mode of Transmission: ORAL. CONTAMINATED water and food Signs and symptoms: JAUNDICE Similar to Hep A Acute

Disease: HEPATITIS C-POSTTRANSFUSION NON A NON B HEPATITIS

Type of Organism: bacterial Part of Body Affected: Digestive System Mode of Transmission: as for HBV, TRANSFUSIONS before 1992 Signs and symptoms: JAUNDICE

Disease: GASTROENTERITIS Causative organism: ESHERICHIA & CAMPYLOBACTER

Type of Organism: bacterial Part of Body Affected: Digestive System Signs and symptoms: INFANTILE/EPIDEMIC DIARRHEA, TRAVELLERS DIARRHEA, HEMOLYTIC-UREMIC SYNDROME

Disease: LEPTOSPIROSIS

Type of Organism: bacterial Part of Body Affected: Genital and Urinary System Complications: WEIL'S DISEASE- KIDNEYS and LIVER BECOME INFECTED

Disease: GONORRHEA Causative organism: NEISSERIA

Type of Organism: bacterial Part of Body Affected: Genital and Urinary System Mode of Transmission: STD, Progress to PID Complications: NO IMMUNITY - May cause STERILITY in males OPTHALMIA NEONATORUM -blindness

Urinary tract infection

Type of Organism: bacterial Part of Body Affected: Genital and Urinary System Signs and symptoms: FREQUENCY and URGENCY of URINATION Complications: DYSURIA - DIFFICULTY or PAIN in URINATING, BURNING feeling NOCTURIA - INCONTINENCE, INVOLUNTARY VOIDING of URINE at NIGHT BLATTER CRAMPS and SPASMS.

Disease: CHLAMYDIAL URETHRITIS, NGU, NONGONOCOCCAL URETHRITIS Causative organism: CHLAMYDIA

Type of Organism: bacterial Part of Body Affected: Genital and Urinary System Mode of Transmission: Signs and symptoms: Complications: FALLOPIAN TUBES, BLOCKAGE/SALPINGITIS Females: PID- PELVIC INFLAMMATORY DISEASE - ANY EXTENSIVE BACTERIAL INFECTION of PELVIC ORGANS Males: May CAUSE STERILITY CHLAMYDIAL OPTHALMIA/INCLUSION CONJUNCTIVITIS: ACQUIRED by NEWBORNS, BURNING PASSAGE THROUGH an INFECTED BIRTH CANAL

Disease: SYPHILIS Causative organism: TREPONEMA

Type of Organism: bacterial Part of Body Affected: Genital and Urinary System Mode of Transmission: STD Signs and symptoms: PRIMARY: CHANCRE SECONDARY: SKIN RASH TERTIARY: GUMMA Complications: NEUROSYPHILIS - INSANITY Notes: CONGENITAL SYPHILIS HUTCHINSON'S TRIAD

Disease: ACUTE NECROTIZING ULCERATIVE GINGIVITIS, ANUG, TRENCH MOUTH Causative organism: PROPHYROMONAS BACTEROIDES* PREVOTELLA

Type of Organism: bacterial Part of Body Affected: Mouth/Digestive System Mode of Transmission: Signs: ULCERS & NECROSIS of PERIODONTAL TISSUE ➡️ Tooth loss PREDISPOSING FACTORS: Poor oral hygiene, stress, heavy smoking, malnutrition.

Disease: DENTAL CARIES Causative organism: STREPTOCOCCUS

Type of Organism: bacterial Part of Body Affected: PERIODONTAL DISEASE Ferments sugars* ➡️ Lactic and other acids* ➡️ Dissolves tooth enamel and dentin.*

Scalded Skin Syndrome Causative organism: staphylococcal

Type of Organism: bacterial Part of Body Affected: skin Mode of Transmission: Direct contact Characteristic Sign/Symptom: DESQUAMATION- epidermis becomes necrotic and peels off Complications: TOXIC SHOCK SYNDROME - TSS TOXIN Notes:EXFOLIATIVE TOXIN

Disease: BLASTOMYCOSIS Causative organism: BLASTOMYCES

Type of Organism: fungal Part of Body Affected: Lower Respiratory

Disease: ASPERGILLOSIS

Type of Organism: fungal Part of Body Affected: Lower Respiratory Mode of Transmission: INHALATION of SPORES Signs: CONTINUES to GROW in a MOLD form WITHIN the BODY - ASPERGILLOMA's, BALL of MYCELIUM in the LUNGS (not dimorphic)

Disease: PNEUMOCYSTIS PNEUMONIA (PCP) Causative organism: PNEUMOCYSTIS

Type of Organism: fungal Part of Body Affected: Lower Respiratory Mode of Transmission: INHALATION, DROPLET route Signs and Symptoms: Complications: often FATAL in AIDS patients

Disease: HISTOPLASMOSIS - DARLINGS DISEASE Causative organism: HISTOPLASMA

Type of Organism: fungal Part of Body Affected: Lower Respiratory Mode of Transmission: INHALATION of SPORES Notes: DIMORPHIC FUNGUS

Disease: Thrush/Oral Candidiasis Causative organism: CANDIDA*

Type of Organism: fungal Part of Body Affected: MUCUS MEMBRANE of the ORAL CAVITY* Mode of Transmission: Vaginal passage- Opportunistic Characteristic Sign or Symptom: WHITE MILK LIKE GROWTH COVERING the MUCUS MEMBRANE

Causative organism: CRYPTOCOCCUS

Type of Organism: fungal Part of Body Affected: Nervous system Mode of Transmission: INHALATION of SPORES Characteristic Sign or Symptom: CHRONIC MENINGITIS Complications: cutaneous lesions Notes: YEAST FORM ONLY

Disease: INCLUSION CONJUNCTIVITIS Causative organism: CHLAMYDIA

Type of Organism: fungal Part of Body Affected: eyes Mode of Transmission: Fingers/Fomites; Flies (birth canal) Characteristic Sign: scar tissue on cornea Symptom: dry eyes Complications: BLINDNESS-LEADING CAUSE*

Disease: MADURA FOOT Causative organism: Mycetoma, MADURELLA

Type of Organism: fungal Part of Body Affected: skin

Disease: FONSECAEA Causative organism: CHROMOBLASTOMYCOSIS

Type of Organism: fungal Part of Body Affected: skin Characteristic Sign or Symptom: VARICOSE LESIONS- tough, Warty

Disease: PIEDRA

Type of Organism: fungal Part of Body Affected: skin Characteristic Sign or Symptom: colored nodules on hair shaft Complications: WHITE PIEDRA: TRICHOSPORON BLACK PIEDRA: PIEDRAIA

Disease: TINEA VERSICOLOR or PITYRIASIS VERSICOLOR Causative organism: MALASSEZIA fur fur

Type of Organism: fungal Part of Body Affected: skin Characteristic Sign or Symptom: spotty appearance

Disease: SPOROTHRIX Causative organism: Sporotrichosis (Rose Gardener's Disease)

Type of Organism: fungal Part of Body Affected: skin Mode of Transmission: thorns and splinters Characteristic Sign or Symptom: hard nodule and lesions

Disease: VAGINITIS* Causative organism: CANDIDA*

Type of Organism: fungal Part of Body Affected: vaginal skin Characteristic Sign or Symptom: itching, burning sensation, white "cheesy" discharge Complications: systemic; meninges & heart tissues

Disease: MYCOTOXINS- Poisonous Mushrooms Causative organism: AMANITA

Type of Organism: fungi- MYCOTOXINS Part of Body Affected: Digestive System Potent toxins: PHALLOIDIN & AMANITIN

Disease: AFLATOXIN Causative organism: ASPERGILLUS

Type of Organism: fungi- MYCOTOXINS Signs and symptoms: CARCINOGEN. Known to CAUSE CANCER, LIVER and COLON

Disease: ERGOT POISONING Causative organism: CLAVICEPS

Type of Organism: fungi- MYCOTOXINS Signs and symptoms: HALLUCINATIONS, CONSTRUCTION of CAPILLARIES ➡️ GANGRENE of the EXTREMITIES

Disease: CHICKENPOX Causative organism: Herpes VZ/VERACELLA/ZOSTER VIRUS -VZV*

Type of Organism: viral Mode of Transmission: RESPIRATORY DROPLETS and SKIN LESIONS Notes: VIRUS can CROSS the PLACENTA ➡️ CONGENITAL ABNORMALITIES*

Disease: SHINGLES Causative organism: Herpes zoster

Type of Organism: viral Mode of Transmission: RESPIRATORY DROPLETS and SKIN LESIONS Prevention: VACCINE Note: more localized

Disease: EBOLA Causative organism: EBOLAVIRUS

Type of Organism: viral Part of Body Affected: Cardiovascular & lymphatic system Mode of Transmission: DIRECT CONTACT with BODY FLUIDS* Characteristic Sign or Symptom: BLEED BOTH INTERNALLY and EXTERNALLY - hemorrhaging

Disease: PULMONARY SYNDROME/ SIN NUMBRE VIRUS Causative organism: HANTAVIRUS

Type of Organism: viral Part of Body Affected: Cardiovascular & lymphatic system Mode of Transmission: INHALATION of MOUSE droppings SALVIA, FECES and URINE Characteristic Sign or Symptom: LUNGS FILL with FLUID Complications: DEATH from RESPIRATORY FAILURE Causes : HANTAVIRUS PULMONARY SYNDROME- 4 CORNERS DISEASE

Disease: DENGUE HEMORRHAGIC FEVER Causative organism: YF VIRUS

Type of Organism: viral Part of Body Affected: Cardiovascular & lymphatic system Mode of Transmission: MOSQUITO Characteristic Sign or Symptom: BREAK BONE FEVER* high fever, sharp pain in muscles and joints Complications: HEMORRHAGES in SKIN Notes: SHOCK

Disease: YELLOW HEMORRHAGIC FEVER Causative organism: FLAVIVIRUS YF

Type of Organism: viral Part of Body Affected: Cardiovascular & lymphatic system Mode of Transmission: MOSQUITO* Characteristic Sign or Symptom: JAUNDICE - BILE PIGMENTS in BLOOD, BLEEDING GUMS, BLOODY STOOLS, VOMITING BLOOD, DELIRIUM Complications: fatal hemorrhaging

Disease: ZIKA VIRUS Causative organism: FLAVIVIRUS

Type of Organism: viral Part of Body Affected: Cardiovascular & lymphatic system Mode of Transmission: MOSQUITOS and SEXUAL CONTACT* CROSSES the PLACENTA causing MICROCEPHALY*

Disease: CYTOMEGALIC INCLUSION DISEASE Causative organism: CYTOMEGALOVIRUS (CMV)

Type of Organism: viral Part of Body Affected: Cardiovascular & lymphatic system Mode of Transmission: TRANSPLACENTAL Characteristic Sign or Symptom: Complications: 1. CONGENITAL CMV -BLUEBERRY RASH- ENLARGED LIVER and SPLEEN- HEPATOSPLENOMEGALY - JAUNDICE and CAPILLARY BLEEDING 2. MICROCEPHALY Disseminated Cytomegalovirus OPPORTUNIST in AIDS PATIENTS HIGH MORTALITY

Disease: INFECTIOUS MONONUCLEOSIS*/KISSING DISEASE Causative organism: EPSTEIN-BARR VIRUS (EBV)

Type of Organism: viral Part of Body Affected: Cardiovascular & lymphatic system Mode of Transmission: saliva Characteristic Sign or Symptom: ENLARGED cervical LYMPH NODES- LYMPHADENOPATHY, B CELLS proliferation Complications: ONCOGENETIC Notes: 1. BURKITT'S LYMPHOMA-jaw 2. NASOPHARYNGEAL CARCINOMA 3. LYMPHATIC TUMORS- kidney transplant or aids

Disease: NORWALK AGENTS/ROTAVIRUS Causative organism: NOROVIRUSES

Type of Organism: viral Part of Body Affected: Genital and Urinary System Signs and symptoms: GASTROENTERITIS Notes: MOST COMMON cause of VIRAL ENTERIC DISEASE WORLDWIDE

Disease: COMMON COLD

Type of Organism: viral Part of Body Affected: Upper Respiratory Mode of Transmission: INHALATION, FOMITES Characteristic Sign or Symptom: sneezing, nasal secretions, congestion Notes: 1. CORONAVIRUS 2. RHINOVIRUS (most common) 3. ADENOVIRUS (most severe)

GENITAL WARTS* Causative organism: HUMAN PAPILLOMA VIRUS - HPV*

Type of Organism: viral Part of Body Affected: genital and urinary Mode of Transmission: Direct contact Characteristic Sign or Symptom: CONDYLOMATA ACUMINATA Associated with CANCER OF THE CERVIX & PENIS

Disease: ROSEOLA/6th Disease Causative organism: HUMAN HERPES VIRUS- HHV6

Type of Organism: viral Part of Body Affected: skin Mode of Transmission: Direct contact Characteristic Sign or Symptom: Rash

Disease: 5TH DISEASE/Erythema infectiosum /Slap Face/Slap Cheek Causative organism: HUMAN PARVOVIRUS B19

Type of Organism: viral Part of Body Affected: skin Mode of Transmission: Direct contact Characteristic Sign or Symptom: facial rash & flu symptoms

WARTS* Causative organism: HUMAN PAPILLOMA VIRUS - HPV*

Type of Organism: viral Part of Body Affected: skin Mode of Transmission: Direct contact Characteristic Sign or Symptom: wart Complications: may be associated with cancer

Disease: COLD SORE/FEVER BLISTER Causative organism: Herpes Simplex Type 1 (HSV-1*)

Type of Organism: viral Part of Body Affected: skin Mode of Transmission: Direct contact/Oral Characteristic Sign or Symptom: lesions on oral mucosa Notes: HERPETIC WHITLOW - infection of fingers

Disease: GENITAL HERPES Causative organism: HERPES SIMPLEX TYPE 2 (HSV-2*)

Type of Organism: viral Part of Body Affected: urinary and genital system Mode of Transmission: STD Characteristic Sign or Symptom: HSV2 REMAINS LATENT in DORSAL NERVE ROOT GANGLIA Notes: 1. NEONATAL HERPES - CESAREAN SECTION RECOMMENDED 2. TRANS PLACENTAL - MICROCEPHALY and MICROPTHALMIA

Disease: SMALLPOX Causative organism: VARIOLA

Type of Organism: virus Notes: ERADICATED*

Disease: Rubeola/ Measles Causative organism: MORBILLIVIRUS

Type of Organism: virus Part of Body Affected: skin Mode of Transmission: RESPIRATORY DROPLETS/CONJUNCTIVA Characteristic Sign or Symptom: Koplik spots (bulls eye along gums) Complications: Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis - SSPE Notes: MMR VACCINE

Disease: RUBELLA/ GERMAN MEASLES Causative organism: RUBIVIRUS

Type of Organism: virus Part of Body Affected: skin Mode of Transmission: respiratory droplets Characteristic Sign or Symptom: rash and fever Complications: CONGENITAL RUBELLA

vectors

Typically arthropods (insects, ticks)

removing DNA primer and fixing errors

proofreading

Eclipse period

Uncoating because no intact viruses in the cell

Protozoa Characteristics

Unicellular eukaryotes that lack a cell wall

Yeast

Unicellular fungi that is 1-5 um wide and 5-30 um long Eukaryotic, facultative anaerobes, polysaccharide cell wall

Viral PAMP

Unmethylated C-G repeats high frequency

A (this reaction to medication and the morphology of the worm suggests ascariasis, for which the ascaricide albendazole is the best drug of choice - pyrantel pamoate is also good, but may cause intestinal obstruction if the worm load is high - it's also contraindicated in pregnant women and young children) (B; use this for Giardia and Entamoeba) (C; use this for cryptosporidiosis) (D; this could treat the symptoms of ascariasis, but it does not kill or expel the worms) (E; who wants chowdah?)

Upon giving a patient some medication for a suspected parasitic worm infection, the patient vomited up a large bolus of dozens of thick live worms. An even larger amount were found in his stool. The drug most likely administered was A. Albendazole B. Metronidazole C. Nitazoxanide D. Corticosteroids E. Ipecac

What is a rumen?

Upper part of the ruminant stomach that contains large, diverse population of microbes.

How does bacteria attach to a host cell?

Using a capsid or cell envelope.

What are common portals of entry for Cardiovascular infections?

Usually occur if something enters the bloodstream directly -Into bloodstream through lesions in skin -Kidney infections can transmit pathogen to bloodstream through glomeruli (tonsils) -Childbirth

Resistance to antibiotics sometimes considered a *what*

V factor

Causes chickenpox and shingles Member of Herpes family, produces distinctive rash

VZV: Varicella/Zoster virus

Haemophilus influenzae

Vaccination is responsible for the reduced incidence of severe invasive infections caused by

What is the vaccine for Tularemia?

Vaccine (live attenuated)

What is the agent in Chicken Pox and Shingles ?

Varicella-zoster, herpes virus

What is the agent in Smallpox?

Variola

Trophozoite

Vegetative form of protozoa

What type of rash is Impetigo?

Vesicular

What kind of rash is a staph infection?

Vesticular

What bacteria causes cholera?

Vibrio cholerae

Cholera (disease of the digestive)

Vibrio cholerae, G- vibrio in salty waters; vomiting ,rice water stools, sunken eyes, cramps, coma, hypotension , death if left untreated within 48 hrs; grows in small intestine and produces an exotoxin

What are the symptoms for rabies?

Violent behavior, fear of water , Confusion, loss of consciousness

What are the symptoms of Tetanus?

Violent muscle contractions Lock-jaw Motor neurons firing uncontrollably (Patient can survive symptoms, patient will live)

What type of disease is Dengue fever ?

Viral

How does viral release work for enveloped viruses?

Viral budding, the viruses pick up membranes from host cell.

What is Poliomyelitis?

Viral infection of Motor neurons in the spinal cord

What is Hemorrhagic Fever ?

Viral infection which causes hemorrhaging (capillaries rupturing on skin)

What type of infection is Conjunctivits?

Viral, Bacterial, can also be Allergens

Individual infectious virus particle is called what?

Virion.

•

Virulence factors (diphtheria toxin)

What is the invasive ability of a pathogen?

Virulence factors that help to establish a pathogen

What kind of pathogen causes Rabies

Virus

5)

What are some of the microenvironment occurring on skin of the human body? Do microbial communities differ between these different microbial habitats?

8)

What are the different categories of exotoxins, and how do they function?

Dependent part of the name

What type of nucleic acid is being copied

When does someone have AIDS and not HIV anymore?

When the t cell count drops below a certain level leaving the body open for opportunists diseases

Provirus

When viral DNA has been incorporated into the host cell's DNA

D (the shedding of cysts is intermittent and inconsistent, making wet mounts and samples equally unreliable - the lateral flow immunoassay has a 100% sensitivity and specificity, can be read in 15 minutes, eliminates the need for a trained miscroscopist, and doesn't rely on the presence of cysts in the stool)

Which laboratory test is superior for diagnosing giardiasis? A. Wet mount examination of stool B. Trichrome stained stool sample C. DNA analysis by PCR D. Lateral flow immunoassay E. Immunofluorescence assay

Polymerase part of the name

Which nucleic acid is being synthesized

C, E (the sequence is egg, miracidium, sporocyst, redia, cercaria, metacercaria, adult) (egg passed in feces into water, miracidium swims to infect first intermediate host, the snail, and becomes sporocyst, which asexually divides to become the redia, which produces the cercaria that swims to the 2nd intermediate host, where it becomes the metacercaria and encysts - the adult forms in the definitive host after the metacercaria is eaten)

Which of the following fluke life stages is adapted for free-swimming? (Select all that apply) A. Egg B. Metacercaria C. Cercaria D. Redia E. Miracidium F. Adult G. Sporocyst

E (but this is still a global disease that can and does affect any age group or nation)

Which of the following groups has the highest rate of helminth infections? A. Adults in industrialized countries B. Children in rural America C. Teenage males D. Young girls in cold climates E. Children in rural tropical or subtropical areas

B (these are the flukes, several species of which can predispose to cancers of the liver, gallbladder, and bladder)

Which of the following helminth families is best known for promoting malignancies? A. Nematoda B. Trematoda C. Cestoda D. Annelida

C (E. granulosus causes hydatid disease, and to diagnose it, you use imaging to find the cyst and an aspirate to find the proscolices inside)

Which of the following is an incorrect pairing between the parasitic pathogen and the procedure used to diagnose it? A. Cryptosporidium ::: acid-fast stain of stool sample B. Schistosoma haematobium ::: microscopic examination of urine sample C. Echinococcus granulosus ::: routine ova screen D. Taenia solium ::: microscopic examination of stool sample

C (instead, they actually resemble the eggs of tapeworm species, namely fish tapeworms - you'll need a specialist to tell them apart, but the buzzword for the eggs is 'operculated', meaning they look like they have little caps on ONE end [as opposed to having caps on BOTH ends, which is a trait of whipworm eggs])

Which of the following is false about the family represented by the pictured organism? A. Infection can cause symptoms ranging from biliary fibrosis and diarrhea to nasopharyngeal obstruction B. Its standard life cycle involves the infection of at least three hosts, one definitive and two intermediate C. The eggs produced by the species of this family greatly resemble those of the threadworm species D. The drug of choice for treatment of infection is praziquantel

E (the dwarf tapeworm, Hymenolepis nana, has a direct life cycle - it only infects one host, which serves as both the definitive and intermediate host - typically rats and humans)

Which of the following is false regarding cestode reproduction? A. Cestodes can reproduce sexually or asexually B. Cestodes require a definitive host for their sexually mature stage to survive C. Cestodes are hermaphrodites D. The proglottids contain both male and female gonads, and each individual proglottid is capable of making numerous eggs E. All species of tapeworm require an intermediate host separate from their definitive host to complete their life cycle

E (this is a Giardia intestinalis cyst, which colonizes the duodenum, is not-invasive and therefore does not cause bloody diarrhea) (the symptoms are caused by the trophozoite stage of the organism, NOT the cyst)

Which of the following is false regarding the pictured organism and life cycle stage? A. It is in the infective stage B. It is in the sexually mature stage C. It is in the environmentally resistant stage D. It is transmitted fecal-orally E. It causes bloody diarrhea as a chief symptom

A (E. granulosus forms a cyst with a capsule that settles in the liver and is treatable - E. multilocularis forms cysts with no capsules in multiple locations, and is usually fatal)

Which of the following is most characteristic of Echinococcus worms? A. Hydatid cysts B. Cutaneous larva migrans C. Predisposition to hepatic and cystic cancer D. Charcot-Layden crystals E. Eggs in the urine

D (flukes are members of the phylum Platyhelminthes, all of whom are unsegmented flatworms)

Which of the following is not a morphological feature of an intestinal fluke? A. Leaf-shaped B. Dorsoventrally flattened C. Oral and ventral suckers D. Segmented E. Unbranched digestive system

A (diarrhea is a pathologic effect of protozoans, bacteria, and viruses - things that alter the biochemistry of the GI tract with toxins and virulence factors to cause nutrient or water loss - helminths just attach and suck, or migrate, until they can reproduce and pass out eggs)

Which of the following is not a pathological effect of helminth infections? A. Diarrhea B. Hemorrhage C. Enlargement and swelling of organs D. Anemia E. Weight loss

D (you see ascariasis, you should think viscera larva migrans - Ascaris doesn't hang out in the skin, ever - the egg is ingested, hatches, migrates to the liver, migrates to the lung, gets coughed up and reswallowed) (this is a big worm, and one of the most prevalent global parasites - can be easily fatal by causing intestinal obstruction by sheer volume of worm bolus - the female lays 200,000 eggs a day, and the eggs can remain viable in the soil for 10 years)

Which of the following is the correct path of travel for the parasite Ascaris lumbricoides upon infecting a host? A. Skin B. Skin -> Muscle C. Skin -> Intestine -> Liver -> Lung D. Intestine -> Liver -> Lung -> Intestine E. Intestine -> Liver

Chocolate agar

Which of the following media provides the factors necessary for the growth of Haemophilus spp.?

A (the mnemonic is EAT - for enterobus, ascaris, and trichuris) (Strongyloides penetrates the skin, ascends into the lungs, and is swallowed, to reach the intestines)

Which of the following nematodes does not cause intestinal infection by ingestion of its eggs? A. Strongyloides B. Enterobus C. Ascaris D. Trichuris

C (Ascaris eggs require a period of development in soil before they are infective - ingesting the larva or unembryonated eggs will not get you sick)

Which of the following organisms and infections can occur under normal conditions but not in a hospital setting? A. Hymenolepis nana - dwarf tapeworm disease B. Taenia solium - cysticercosis C. Ascaris lumbricoides - ascariasis D. Enterobius vermicularis - pinworm infection

E (Giardia interferes with intestinal absorption - Plasmodium causes tissue absorption by lysing red blood cells)

Which of the following parasites is paired with its LEAST correct mechanism of pathogenesis? A. Diphyllobothrium latum ::: pernicious anemia B. Ascaris lubricoides ::: intestinal obstruction C. Hookworms ::: microcytic anemia D. Echinococcus granulosus ::: increased cranial pressure E. Giardia ::: tissue destruction

D (Chlorine does NOT kill Giardia - iodine does, as does boiling) (filters are somewhat effective, depending on the filter - giardia cysts are flexible and can pass through, but this is still more effective than chlorination)

Which of the following prevention and control methods on water against Giardia is LEAST effective? A. Filters B. Boiling C. Iodination D. Chlorination

Proprionibacterium sp.

Which of these anaerobes is part of the normal flora of the skin and is often the cause of acne:

•

Why is antimicrobial susceptibility testing important?

•Cytotoxins (phospholipases and non-phospholipases)

Work by *degrading cytoplasmic membrane integrity, causing cell lysis and death* --->*Hemolysins* - toxins that lyse red blood cells (i.e. erythrocytes) --->*Production of hemolysins* can be *tested on blood agar plates* --->Zone of hemolysis

Candida albicans

Yeast causing candidiasis leading to thrush, vaginitis, balantitis, dermatitis, onychomycosis, septicemia, meninges infections Dimorphic & opportunistic

Fungi Groups

Yeast, mold, fleshy fungi

What is Yellow Fever?

Yellow fever virus, attacks RBC

What agent is the Bubonic Plague?

Yersinia pestis

do microbes outnumber us?

Yes

E (hookworms have a skin-lung-intestine path, and form their eggs in the lungs - contrast this with the Strongyloides, which use the rhabditiform larva instead and do not lay eggs)

You suspect your patient is infected with hookworms. Which of the following is the diagnostic stage for this pathogen? A. Cyst B. Procercoid C. Trophozoite D. Rhabditiform larva E. Egg

C (Anisakis worms, also called herring worms, use fish as paratenic hosts and marine mammals like whales and porpoises as definitive hosts - the human is an accidental host)

Your patient, Miles, has complaints of severe acute abdominal pain after eating ceviche, a Latin American dish that utilizes raw fish. A gastroscopic examination revealed the presence of parasitic helminth larva. Miles is which of the following for this parasite? A. Definitive host B. Paratenic host C. Accidental host D. Vector host E. Faculty awards host

Name one emerging infectious disease, the agent causing the disease, how is it transmitted, what are the symptoms, is there a treatment?

Zika -mosquito borne disease -when present, symptoms are mild and last less than a week. They include fever, rash, joint pain, and red eyes. -no vaccine or specific treatment, relieving symptoms

Tropical and other arboviruses South America:

Zika virus

you can treat shingles with what

anti herpes medication

clostridium botulinum

a Gram-positive, rod-shaped, anaerobic, spore-forming, motile bacterium with the ability to produce the neurotoxin botulinum. Can cause paralysis or death.

clostridium difficile

a bacterium that can cause symptoms ranging from diarrhea to life-threatening inflammation of the colon

HIV is no longer a death sentence like it once was. with current medications it is now considered what

a chronic disease

Giardia muris

a flagellate protozoan, is an intestinal parasite found in rodents, birds and reptiles

Blepharisma Japonicum

a free-living ciliated protozoan

Pathogen must be able to leave host to be transmitted to

a fresh host

vector

a live animal (other than human) that transmits an infectious agent from one host to another

proteobacteria

a major phylum of Gram-negative bacteria

pathogen

a microbe that can cause disease

firmicutes

a phylum of bacteria, most of which have Gram-positive cell wall structure.

opsonization

a process that enhances phagocytosis by which bacteria are coated by opsonins so as to become more readily and more effeciently engulfed by phagocytes

Lactobacillus acidophilus

a resident organism in the vagina, ferments the glycogen, producing lactic acid

Ergosterol

stabilizes the fungal membrane

natural immunity

acquired as part of normal life experiences

artificial immunity

acquired thru a medical procedure ex: vaccine

Protein molecules produced by *what*

activated B cells

naive cytotoxic t cells

activated by APCs or cytokines released from dendritic cells, macrophages, and t helper cells -divide into: effector cytotoxic cells, or memory cytotoxic cells

complement fixation

activation of the classical complement pathway can result in the specific rupturing of cells and some virues

eosinophils

active in worm and fungal infections, allergy, and inflammation

immature t helper cell

actively differentiating t helper cells from original naive t cell ultimately mature into: t helper 1 cells, t helper 2 cells, memory cells

biological vector

actively participate in pathogens life cycle

interferon

acts against viruses involved in immune regulations inhibits viral replication

The "illness" phase is also called the "_______" phase

acute

What are the nitrogenous bases in DNA? What are the pairs?

adenine - thymine guanine - cytosine

-stasis/static

stand still

attachment to specific tissues (adhesin binding)

adhesins: specific structures or macromolcues on microbes that aid in attachment receptors: complimentary macromolecule binding site on eukaryotic surface that binds specific adhesins binding is highly specific and typically dictates type of host to which bacteria can attach

movement of lymph

adjacent skeletal muscle one way valves, arterial pulsations

How is TB transmitted?

aerosols (prolonged contact)

primary response

after first exposure to an Ag, and after a lag period, plasma cells gradually produce igM followed by prodcution of igG (IgM produced first, IgG second)

secondary (anamnestic) response

after second contact with same Ag, immunse system produces a more rapid, stronger response due to memory cellls with high IgG titer, lower igM

Aby links cells, viruses together to make clumps that attract macrophages

agglutination

precipitation

aggregation of particulate antigen

vehicles microbes attached to dust, skin flakes, dried mucus become aerosols, travel thru air.

airborne

reticuloendothelial system (RES)

aka mononuclear phagocyte system network of reticular fibers that interconnect other cells and meshes with the connective tissue network surrounding organs inhabited by phagocytic cells ready to attack and ingest microbes that passed the first line of defense

tissues lining surfaces (that connect to the outside)

alimentary canal, respiratory system, genito-urinary tract

acids and alkalis

alkaline solution-ammonium -organic acids prevent spore germination and bacterial and fungal growth

antimicrobials

all inclusive term for any antimicrobial drug

What is the treatment for Poliomyelitis?

alleviating symptoms

serum created by

allowing blood to clot

endogenous agents

already exist on or in the body (noraml flora)

infant botulism

an illness that can happen when a baby ingests bacteria that produce a toxin inside the body.

opportunistic pathogen

an infection caused by pathogens (bacteria, viruses, fungi, or protozoa) that take advantage of an opportunity not normally available, such as a host with a weakened immune system, an altered microbiota (such as a disrupted gut flora), or breached integumentary barriers

zoonosis

an infection indigenous to animals but naturally transmissible to humans

commensal

an integral part of a complex of natural mechanisms on mucosal surfaces and skin that safeguard the resistance of the organism against pathogenic micro-organisms.

first line of defense

anatomical and physiological barriers that keep microbes from penetrating sterile body compartments (physical, chemical, and genetic barriers)

secondary infection

another infection by a different microbe

What is a Disk-diffusion or Kirby-Bauer Method. Why do you use it?

antibiotic testing -uses antibiotic-containing wafers or disks to test whether particular bacteria are susceptible to specific antibiotics.

what does not work on viruses and why

antibiotics they aren't cellular

B lymphocytes are the source of

antibodies

T and B cells independently contact

antigen

antigens vs epitopes

antigen (Ag): is a substance that provokes an immune response in specific lymphocytes epitopes: smaller specific molecules that are recognized on the antigen by lymphocytes

your immune system recognizes, responds to, and remembers molecules that are *what*

antigens

synthetic drugs

antimicrobial compounds synthesized in the laboratory through chemical reactions

Leaf-cutting ants

ants that have a symbiotic relationship with lepiota (fungus)

chemotherapeutic drugs

any chemical used in the treatment, relief, or prophylaxis of a disease

Prereduced, anaerobically sterilized (PRAS) media:

are produced, packaged, shipped, and stored under anaerobic conditions.

convalescent period

as person begins to respond to the infection, symptoms decline

What shape is Listeria monocytogenes?

bacillus (rod)

genetic drift (small)

creates influenza virus with slightly modified antigens

Humoral refers to

body fluids

Furuncles (skin disease)

boil; reddening,swelling,pus; staphylococcus sp; staphylococcus aureus

boiling water

boiling at 100*C for 30 minutes destroys non-spore forming pathogens

Carbuncles (skin disease)

boils combined; staphylococcus sp; staphylococcus aureus

What is the portal of entry for Botulism ?

breaks in skin

What is the portal of entry for Rabies?

breaks in skin from infected saliva Virus travels from peripheral nerves -> brain

What is the portal of entry in a staph infection?

breaks in the epidermis

What is the portal of entry for Tetanus?

breaks in the skin

how is virus host range determined

by viruses ability to interact with the host cell -binding sites must match receptor sites

What do antibiotics target?

cell wall protein synthesis (ribosomes) cell membrane nucleic acid Other- mycolic acid

if disease is involved, *what* occurs

damage

Infectious disease can be Communicable:

can be spread from one person to another by some means Contagious: not rigorously defined. can easily be spread from one person to another, usually by contact. -----Genital herpes, measles.

Why is it important that a bacteria is selectively toxic?

can take it internally

Dysregulation of hostcell division

cancer (some viruses are associated with cancer)

true or primary pathogen

capable of causing disease in healthy person w normal immune defenses

Amoeba proteus

captures a ciliate by surrounding it with is pseudopodia

oppurtunistic pathogens

cause disease when the hosts defenses are compromised or when they grow in part of the body that is not natural to them

Mumps (disease of digestive)

caused by infection of salivary glands by mumps virus (ss enveloped RNA virus) spread by droplets; fever, headache, sore throat, face pain, swelling of parotid glands and temples or jaw. testicle pain or lumps. can lead to complications to other organs like the brain

Disease: STOMACH ULCERS and CANCER Causative organism: HELICOBACTER

causes stomach ulcers

Direct effects of viruses: Viruses alter ____ _______ ________ to promote their own replication; may lead to cancer.

cell cycle regulation

Direct effects of viruses: Viruses multiply inside host cells, using _______ __________, often killing cells.

cell resources

acute infection

comes on rapidl, with severe but short lived effects

one organism benefits, the other is not particularly benefited or harmed; to eat at the same table

commensalism

what is a successful virus (name an example)

common cold

The microbial relationship may be better described in terms of microbial *what*, not individual species

communities

Why would a microbe produce an antibiotic?

competition; kill other microbes

antibiotic that mainly works on resistance factor

competitive inhibitors

Blood and Fluid Proteins collection of >20 blood proteins that work in cascade fashion

complement

Results in lysis of infected cells, stimulation of inflammation, and increased phagocytosis

complement

Streptococcus pneumoniae (disease of respiratory)

constant inflammation bc capsule makes it hard to phagocytose. sputum is rust colored from blood coughed up from lungs, diagnosis=culture of G+ diplococci from sputum

thymus

contains t cells a specialized organ of the immune system t cells migrate here from the red bone marrow to mature function: secretion of thymosin

genetic shift how do they happen and what do they cause (big)

creates a virus with completely new and highly pathogenic antigens -cause pandemics

Put the following steps of animal virus replication in order. a) Viral replication b) Penetration c) Viral release d) Attachment to host cell e) Expression of viral genes f) Uncoating

d, b, f, e, a, c (attachment, penetration, uncoating, expression of viral genes, replication, release)

phospholipases

damage the phospholipids Unspecific *α-toxin (lecithinase)* produced by Clostridium perfringens produce dissolve membrane lipids (lecithin) in plants and animals Causes *myonecrosis* and *hemolysis* C. perfringens common infection in

Flu vaccines made from

deactivated viruses

ionizing radiation

deep penetrating power that has sufficient energy to cause electrons to leave their orbit, breaks DNA

what temporarily decreases the microbial population

defecation

what can a pathogen do

defend, attack, or hide

hemolysin

deissolve host blood cells -> release iron for bacterial metabolism (staph sp., steptococcus sp., clostridium)

artificial active immunity

deliberately exposing a person to material that is antigenic but not pathogenic

disinfection

destruction of vegetative pathogens on inanimate objects

MHC (major histocompatibility complex)

different types of T cells bind to MCH I and MCH II

hyaluronidase

digests hyaluronic acid and allows tissue penetration (staph sp., steptococcus sp., clostridium)

interleukine (IL-1, IL-2)

direct the migration of phagocytes and lymphocytes direct the differentiation of lymphocytes

malfunction in or damage to the host.

disease

pathogen

disease causing bacteria

Viruses may be latent;

disease pops up again later

what is zoonosis;

disease that can be transmitted from animals to humans

endemic

disease that exhibits a relatively stready frequency over a long period of time in a particular geographic locale

the study of disease

epidemiology

nosocomial infections

diseases that are acquired or developd during a hospital stay from surgical procedures, equiptment, personnel, ad exposure to drug resistant microorganisms

modes of action- proteins

disrupt or denature proteins

exoenzymes

dissolve extracellular barriers and penetrate through or between cells

streptokinase

dissolves fibrin clots in host allows organism to spead to other sties

small mutations, making host susceptible Requires new vaccine each year *on the test*

drift

competitive inhibition

drug competes with normal substrate for enzymes active site

selectively toxic

drugs should kill or inhibit microbial cells without damaging the host

semisynthetic drugs

drugs that are chemically modified in the laboratory after being isolated from natural sources

signs and symptoms of inflammtion

earliest symptoms of disease as a result of the activation fo the body defense: fever, pain, soreness, swelling signs of inflammation: edema, granulomas and abcesses (walled off collections of inflammatory cells and microbes)

atopic dermatitis

eczema

narrow spectrum

effective on a small range of microbes

low- level germicides

eliminate only vegetative bacteria, vegetative fungal cells, and some viruses

continually present in low numbers

endemic

family of resp. and GI viruses Includes rhinovirus, Enterovirus 68 (respiratory), Polio, hep A

eneteroviruses

Microbe needs to approach tissue, then attach to it.

entry and attachment

Transformation picks up DNA from _____

environment

Damage occurs due to

enzymes and toxins

1-5% stain red, *attack parasites*

eosinophils

higher than normal occurrence

epidemic

pandemic

epidemic across continents

microbial control methods- mechanical removal methods

filtration- disinfection and sterilization

Terbinafine

ergosterol inhibitor antifungal agent. derived from streptomyces

parasite must escape and spread to others.

escape

It is *what* that reliable information be collected so that worrisome trends can be spotted and specific measures taken.

essential

normal flora

essential to the heath of humans inhibit growth of pathoens - prevents infections enhance host defenses enhance digestion produce useful biochemicals: coenzymes, antioxidants, enzymes, vits

The study of the causes of disease

etiology

exotoxins vs endotoxin - typical sources (gram neg or pos)

ex: a few gram pos and gram neg end: all gram neg

exotoxins vs endotoxin - toxoid formation

ex: can be converted to toxoid end: cannot be converted to toxoid

exotoxins vs endotoxin - manner of release

ex: secreted from live cell end: released from cell wall during lysis

exotoxins vs endotoxin - chemical composition

ex: small proteins end: lipopolysaccharide of cell wall

exotoxins vs endotoxin - effects on the bdoy

ex: specific to a cell type (blood, liver, nerve) end: systematic: fever, shock, inflammation, weakness

exotoxins vs endotoxin - immune response

ex: stimulate antitoxins end: do not stimulate antitoxins

exotoxins vs endotoxin - toxicity

ex: toxic in tiny amounts end: toxic in higher doses

exotoxins vs endotoxin - heat denaturation at 60* C

ex: unstable end: stable

exotoxins vs endotoxin - fever stimulation

ex: usually not end: yes

How is Coccidioides diagnosed?

examining colony morphology under microscope on blood agar

Phenotype

expressed properties of the genotype

Refers to non-specific defense:

external barriers, internal blood cells, complement, interferon, etc

Bacterial Conjuctivitis (pink eye) (disease of the eye)

extremely contagious; S. aureus, S. pyogenes, Haemophilis influenzae, pseudomonas sp. , Neisseria gonnorhoeae; swollen eyelids, dilated blood vessels, grey or yellowish discharge. commonly caused by viruses. if its just bloodshot red, its pink eye but if it has yellow junk then its conjunctivitis.

Virus in saliva:

facilitates its own spread

virulence factors examples

factors used for motility factors used for attachment factors that hekp spread between tissue cells factors that help penetrate inside host tissue and kill cells factors that help overcome host defenses

Cellulitis (disease of skin)

fast spreading infection in dermis & in subcutaneous tissues below, deep cut with bacteria. pain lymphangitis (red streaks leading away from the area), fever,swelling

What are the symptoms of Chicken Pox and Shingles ?

fatigue, fever

Chemical Defenses Secretions:

fatty acids in sebum on skin, low pH and are toxic Lysozymes in tears, saliva, other fluids

Conjugation has to have what?

fertility plasmid (F+)

What are the symptoms of Roseola?

fever

What are the symptoms of Meningitis?

fever, *stiff neck*, nausea, vomiting, headache, bulging fontanelles

What are the symptoms for Tularemia?

fever, inflammation

Many diseases have unique patterns, such as

flu occurring during the winter months.

halogens

fluoride, bromine, chloride, iodine

Indirect contact, via

fomites (inanimate objects)

vehicles unpasteurized or contaminated food, either improperly grown, processed, or prepared.

food

portals of entry - GI

food, drink, and other ingested materials

What is the vaccine for Cutaneous Anthrax?

for bio-terrorism agents (and small pox)

coagulase

forms a fibrin clot in host protects organism from phagocytic cells

virulence factors that help an organism survive attack from phagocytes *coagulase*

forms fibrin clots (microbes hiding inside)

coccidioidomycosis

found in the southwest united states. called the "valley fever"

lyophilization

freeze drying; preservation of bacteria (American Stock Culture Collection)

How can you get Toxoplasmosis?

from changing your cat's litter box

Congenital syphilis (disease of urinary)

from pregnant womans circulation into the placenta and fetal tissues; inhibits fetal growth; notched incisors, deformed shin bone and aged face with saddle shaped nose

basophils

function in inflammatory events and allergies

growing viruses- animal

harder to grow 1. living animals: expensive and time consuming, need space, cleaning, food 2. chicken embryos (eggs): used to be common method for some viruses, still used to produce influenza vaccine 3. cell cultures: most common method, easier to maintain than living animals

Allergitis Rhinitis

hay fever, seasonal allergies

microbial control methods- physical agents

heat and radiation

pasteurization

heat is applied to kill potential agents of infection and spoilage without destroying the food flavor or value; milk, fruit juices, wine, beer

What enzymes make the DNA 'unzip'?

helicase which breaks the hydrogen bonds holding the complementary bases of DNA together (A with T, C with G)

HIV destroys what cells

helper T cells

Differ by type, disease progression, and transmission

hepatitis viruses

indirect protection from disease due to there being a high number of immune individuals in the population.

herd immunity

Microbial traits are controlled or influenced by _____

heredity

H5N1 "bird flu": strain, why is it a concern; why has it not yet become an epidemic among the people

high mortality rate when humans are infected (60%) -current bird->human transmission is very inefficient, no human ->human transmission has been noted

Severe or easily-caused disease is caused by pathogens with *what*

high virulence

Impetigo (skin disease)

highly contagious; isolated pustules that become crusted that are honey colored. staphylococcus aureus, streptococcus pyogenes. easily treated with pennicillins; common in children

viral encephalitis, incl West Nile. Encephalitis, reservoir includes _____ West Nile, reservoir = _______

horses birds

Disease is a condition of the *what*, not an infectious microbe.

host

T cells directly kill *what* invaded by bacteria or viruses; combat intracellular infections

host cells

Damage occurs from battling the *what*

host defenses

3rd line of defense

host defenses that must be developed uniquely for each microbe through the action of specialized WBC specific (B and T lymphocytes, antibodies, cytotoxicity)

what are the reservoirs for most human viruses

humans

influenza-difference in transmission and severity of the disease by the infection location

if it has specificity to respiratory tract-can be spread easily attaches to lower respiratory tract, more serious, but transmission is lower

antibodies Belong to class of proteins called ______________

immunoglobulins -(Ig), a subclass of globulins.

What is the diagnosis for Malaria?

immunological, or based on blood smear

where in the body do microbes usually benefit and why? What is it classified as?

in the gut. Warm, wet place to live/Plenty to eat. Mutualism

Mycobacterium tuberculosis (disease of respiratory)

inactive- organism is growing in lungs but shows no symptoms, necrotic tissue healed by calcifying, when tubercules are ruptured ,infection is reactivated. active- macrophages spread through bloodstream. diagnosed by presence of acid fast cells

what is the most effective route for biological agents

inahalation

# of new cases during a time period

incidence

flora of resp tract

included in nose/nostrils, nasal cavity, mouth, pharynx and larynx

advatanges of moderate fever

increased phagocytosis, tissue repair decreased blood iron

WBCs

innate capacity to recognize and differentiate any foreign material

When B cells multiply, some become ______ ______, able to respond later.

memory cells

stages of disease

incubation period prodromal period illness decline convalescence

source

individual or object from which an infection is acquired

Sty (skin disease)

infected eyelash, folliculitis of eyelash; staphylococcus sp; staphylococcus aureus

WBC fight what

infection

infection vs disease

infection (to corrupt): invasion/multiplication of pathogenic microorganisms intot he body; may proceed to damage tissues and result in disease disease (living apart): a loss of homeostasis in body from various cause; causes: infecton, deficiency, hereditary, physiological; characterized by certain clinical manifestions

systemic infection

infection spreads to several sites and tissue fluids usually in the bloodstream

disease caused by an infectious agent such as a bacterium, virus, fungus

infectious disease

non-communicable

infectious disease that does not arise through transmission from host to host

Gingivitis/Periodontitis (disease of digestive)

inflamed and receding gums; patches of redness and increased bleeding of the gingival

Messy death and pattern recognition lead to *what*

inflammation

Normally protective, too much results in damage

inflammation

Pattern recognition receptors activated Cytokines released, stimulating

inflammation

Endocarditis (disease of circulatory)

inflammation of endocardium; organism latches on to heart; fever, anemia, similar symptoms to heart attack, tachycardia, petechiae (rash) (broken blood vessels) under fingernails and upper half of body. can actually hear heart murmur

Pneumonia (disease of the respiratory)

inflammation of lung w accompanying fluid buildup in alveoli, high fever, difficulty breathing, lungs have reddish appearance due to dilated blood vessels

Pharyngitis (disease of respiratory)

inflammation of throat or pharynx. "sore throat"

Ureteritis (disease of urinary)

inflammation of ureter

Urethritis (disease of urinary)

inflammation of urethra

Cytolysis of host cells releases *what kind of* compounds

inflammatory

Strep throat (disease of respiratory)

inflammed mucous membranes of the throat, Streptococcus pyogenes. throat may be red w white patches, swollen lymph nodes, trouble swallowing, loss of appetite

BACTERIAL FOOD INTOXICATION

ingesting contaminated food or water containing preformed bacterial toxins. Symptoms: occur rapidly

Folliculitis (skin disease)

ingrown hair, infection of hair follicle; reddening, swelling, puss; staphylococcus sp.; staphylococcus aureus

pathogenicity

inherent or genetic ability of a pathogen to inflict damage to host may or may not occur or be expressed

primary infection

initial infection

you have it from birth

innate

What is the vaccine for HIV?

no vaccine

exit from blood by

insect bites, shared needles

Shuts down host translation and Destroys viral mRNA Makes protein synthesis for virus very difficult, but usually kills cells. Makes you feel bad.

interferon

several types, warn neighboring cells of local viral infection, induce anti viral state. -function also as interleukins

interferon

shut down mRNA and block translation which leads to cell death

interferon

immune active proteins involved in communication

interleukins

tyndallization

intermittent sterilization for substances that cannot withstand autoclaving -exposed to free-flowing steam for 30-60 mins then incubated for 23-24 hours -repeat cycle for 3 days -disinfected -used for some canned food and laboratory media

lymph circulation

interstitial areas -> lymphatic capillaries -> lymphatic ducts -> lymph nodes -> lymphatic ducts -> right subclavian vein

Like cold viruses, many, and common

intestinal viruses

probiotics

introducing known microbes back into the body

Molecules called _________ help bacteria enter host cells

invasins

Cell mediated refers to the direct *what*

involvement of cells to attack an infection

describe an antigen

is foreign is large (>5000 MW) is molecularly complex

What are the symptoms of Ringworm?

itching, characteristic rash

phenolics (carbolic acid)

joseph lister- 1867 -lysol -triclosan- antibacterial additive to soap

skin is high in *what* and also water repellant

keratin

Pyelonephritis (disease of urinary)

kidney infection

-cide

kill

oncolytic viruses

kill cancer cells -ex: strains of adenovirus

high-level germicides

kill endospores; may be sterilants

intermediate level germicides

kill fungal spores (not endospores), tubercle bacillus and viruses

What does HIV do to the cells in your body?

kills the CD4, t cells in blood stream lose adaptive immunity, body only has b cells now

vagina typical resident

lactobacillus

Genito-urinary tract: Female reproductive tract colonized, especially with ______________ which is helpful and _____ which is sometimes harmful

lactobacillus yeast

What are the symptoms of Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome?

large patches of separation of the epidermis from dermis (appears burnt looking)

Large Pustular

large pustules

immune system

large, complex, and diffuse network of tissue, vessels, cells, and flids that penetrate into every organ and tissue

macrophages

largest phagocytes; ingest and kill foreign cells required for certain specific reactions

nonionizing radiation

little penetrating power so it must be directly exposed

What is the vaccine for rabies?

live attenuated virus

hepatits viruses All multiply in *what*, generally cause jaundice (buildup of bilirubin)

liver cells

Central Dogma is the same in every _____ thing

living

lymph nodes

location: head, neck, limbs, thorax anatomy: pea size groups of nodes, containing T and B cells and macrophages function: filter lymph

How can you get VRE?

long term antibiotic use hospitalization weakened immune system surgical procedures medical devices carriers of VRE

modes of action- the cell membrane

loses integrity (holes)

thermal death time (TDP)

lowest temperature required to kill all microbes in a sample in 10 minutes

98% of lymphocytes in body are where

lymph system

lymphatic vessels

lymphatic capillaries permeate all parts of the body except the CNS, bone, placenta, and thymus

25-33% of total T and B cells, deal with specific immunity

lymphocytes

phagolysosome

lysosome fused with phagosome

Which RNA? - product of transcription - message from the genome to the ribosome

mRNA

messenger RNA

mRNA

Upon first exposure to antigen, accumulation of antibody is slow. Memory cells do what

make for a quicker, larger response afterwards.

virulence factors that help an organism survive attack from phagocytes *slime layer or capsule*

makes phagocytosis difficult and imparts an ability to survive intracellular phagocytosis

Measels (Rubeola) (disease of skin)

measels virus-ss enveloped virus; infection of respiratory tract spreads to blood then skin. syncytia formation of infected cells due to fusion protein. kopliks spots (white spots on roof of mouth), fever, rash develops on head tunk, extremities.

MMR

measles(Rubeola), mumps, and rubella

*Virulence*

measure of pathogenicity

simply spread disease, e.g. houseflies walking on feces, spread germs to humans.

mechanical vectors

recognize, bind to different types of pathogens activate cascades leading to up regulation of immune-activating proteins

membrane and endoscope proteins

microbiostatic

merely slows, or stops the growth of microbes

lymph nodes filter out

microbes ---nodes filled with macrophages and lymphocytes

localized infections

microbes enter the body and remains confined to a specific tissue

transient flora

microbes that occupy the body for only short periods of time (hrs to weeks) do not become establsihed

outer layers of skin slough off, reducing *what*

microbial load

septicemia

microorganisms are multiplying in the blood and present in large numbers

infectious dose (ID)

minimum number of microbes required for infection to proceed microbes w small IDs have greater virulence lack of ID wil not reslt in infection, but may lead to immunity of some microbes

pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)

molecules only associated wtih microorganisms

2-8% of total grow up to macrophages, big eaters

monocytes

antibodies aka immunoglobins

monospecific (bind 1 specific antigenic determinant or epitope) structure: most are monomers, some can exist as dimers, some are pentamers

Helicobacter pylori and correlation with stomach ulcers and cancer

most common (>50% of human population) human gut bacteria H. pylori colonize the gut walls Ureases (urea CO2 + ammonia)

is there a vaccine possible for common cold?

no. different viruses and mutations in Rhinovirus, an RNA virus.

Consists of protein shell (capsid) plus nucleic acid Envelope, spikes, accessory proteins may be present

non cellular life

What are the symptoms of Keratitis?

pain, photophobia, red eye

lines various cavities in the body and surrounds internal organs.

mucous membranes

mucous membranes are easier for microbes to invade but they are coated with *what* that traps microbes

mucus

what acts as a nutrient source for bacteria

mucus

period of invasion

multiplies at high levels, becomes well-established; more specific signs and symptoms

organisms live together, both benefit

mutualism

APC-MHC II binds to ..

naive CD4 helper T cell

APC-MHC I binds to ..

naive CD8 cytotoxic T cell

Isoniazid and Ethambutal are _____ spectrum

narrow

Respiratory tract:

nasal passages, sinuses, trachea, lungs. Lungs well protected, other areas colonized.

What is the problem of using IV fluids to treat cholera in developing countries?

need sterile needles

Is Haemophilus influenzae gram + or -?

negative

Is Neisseria meningitidis gram + or - ?

negative

cuts sugar on glycoprotein receptor off end so its not sticky anymore

neuraiminidase

toxins, viruses no longer active. Because critical binding site is covered

neutralization

50-70% numerous short lived phagocytes

neutrophils

Dead cells attract *what two things*

neutrophils and macrophages

what are ex. of granulocytes

neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils

Incidence is _____ and Prevalence is _________.

new ongoing

portals of entry - skin

nicks, abrasions, punctures, incisions

What makes up DNA?

nitrogenous bases deoxyribose phosphate

can you get the flu from the flu shot?

no you would have to get it from another strain. The interferons may make you feel bad

What are the symptoms of Naegleria fowleri?

no symptoms til too late

What is the vaccine for Chagas disease?

no vaccine

commensalism

only beneficial to one organism

can cause disease under the right circumstances.

opportunistic pathogen

stimulate inflammation, act as *what*, lyse cells; work together with antibodies

opsonins

portals of entry - respiratory tract

oral andnasal cavvities

symbiotic relationship

organism existing togehter that may or mat not be a beneficial relationship

frank pathogen

organism that causes disease in the host by direct interactions with the host. AKA primary pathogen

Septicemia (disease of circulatory)

organisms are actively multiplying in blood, very flu-like, shaking, chills, gastrointestinal symptoms, increased heart rate and breathing . septic shock. spreads by use of non sterile needles

Rickettsia

origin of mitochondria, genus of gram-negative, nonspore-forming, highly pleomorphic bacteria that present as cocci, rods, or thread-like. Genus of alphaproteobacteria

exogenous agents

originate from source outside of body

RBC carry what

oxygen

Food poisoning by Stapphylococcus aureus (disease of digestive)

pain, diarrhea, vomiting. exotoxin cant be destroyed by refrigeration or by cooking

expressed properties of the genotype

phenotype

bacteriodetes

phylum composed of three large classes of Gram-negative, nonsporeforming, anaerobic or aerobic, and rod-shaped bacteria that are widely distributed in the environment, including in soil, sediments, and sea water, as well as in the guts and on the skin of animals

Actinobacteria

phylum of Gram-positive bacteria. They can be terrestrial or aquatic. They are of great economic importance to humans because agriculture and forests depend on their contributions to soil systems.

direct contact

physical contact with an infected individual/animal or large droplets that travel short distances

filtration

physical removal of microbes by passing a gas, liquid, or through ffilter -used to sterilize heat sensitive liquids and air in hospital isolation units

virulence factors

physical/biochemical characteristics that enhance the ability to inflict damage and cause disease

lymph

plasma like iquid carried by lymphatic circulation formed when blood components move out of blood vvessels into extracellular space made of water, dissolved sals, 2-5% proteins transports WBC, fats, cellular debris, and infectious agents

Can attack CNS, cause paralysis

polio

Injury to plasma membrane

polymyxin B

colonization

population increases to infectious dose or peyond while overcoming host defenses

superantigens

powerful antigens that stimulate massive rates of mitosis of T lymphocytes in an uncontrolled manner resulting in fever, shock, and death

toxin molecules come out of solution, can be cleared out.

precipitation

passive immunity

preformed antibodies are donated to an individual; does not create memory, acts immediately, and is short term

Food Poisoning by Bacillus cereus (disease of digestive)

present in soil, water, tracts of humans and animals

modes of action- protein and nucleic acid synthesis

prevention of replication, transcription, translation, peptide bond formation, protein synthesis

lymphocytes

primary cells involved in specific immune reactions to foreign matter

reservoir

primary habitat of pathogen in the natural world human or animal carrier, soil, water, plants

hydrogen peroxide

produce highly reactive hydroxyl-free radicals

toxins

produce toxins at the site of multiplication

What are antibiotics?

produced by other microorganisms

chronic infection

progress and persist over long period of time

In transcription _____ sequence tells ribosome where to bind and start

promoter

what are prions, which diseases do they cause

proteinaceous infection particles -proteins that have lost their shape and cause other prions to lose their normal shape -cause scrapie, Kuru, BSE

complicated pathway featuring inactive proteins becoming activated

prothrombin to thrombin; fibrinogen to fibrin; fibrin cross linked by Factor XII

functions of lymphatic system

provides an auxilliary route for return of extracellular fluid to the circulatory system act as a drain off system for the inflammatory response renders surveillance, recogntion, and protection against foreign materials, transports fats during digestion

Vesicular

pus, small vesicles

Inhibition of nucleic acid replication and trsncription

quinolones, rifampin, Fluoroquinolones

Which RNA? important in protein synthesis

rRNA

ribosomal RNA

rRNA

fever - nonspecific defense

raised body temp pyrogens (fever substances) - produced by activated macrophages, bacteria, viruses, and other microbes

What is Therapeutic Index

ratio between the toxic dose and the therapeutic dose -Measure of the relative safety of the treatment

Once transmission occurs, pathogen must do what

reach tissue that it can successfully infect

pathogen recognition receptors (PRRs)

recepor on WBCs for PAMPs

antigen presenting cells

recognize antigens, endocytize them, break them into small pieces, thn displat them on the surface of APC

Maculopapular

red patches, no pus but has inflammation

Bind bacteria, viruses outside of cells, leading to:

removal by phagocytes, lysis by complement, or simply inactivation

Collagenase and other proteases, hyaluronidase, streptokinase assist what

spread

Influenza virus (disease of respiratory)

ss, enveloped RNA virus. fever, sore throat, non productive cough, myalgia (muscle pain), malaise (discomfort), complications depend on age of patient. transmission by droplet. damage to cilia in respiratory tract

Pathogen must evade host defense and do what

reproduce

acquired and specific

requires exposure to microbe/allergern your body responds to, *remembers* specific invader; once exposed

portals of exit

respiratory skin scales fecal exit GU tract removal of blood

70-80% of infectious diseases of

respiratory tract

active immunity

results when a person is challenged with antigen that stimulates production of antibodies; creates memory, takes time and is lasting

hit and run virus

rhinovirus

rabies virus multiplies in

salivary glands

What is the agent in Leishmaniasis?

sandfly (VECTOR) carrying Leishmania sp.

decompose dead stuff.

saprotroph

Genetics

science of heredity

Phagocytic cells protect against *what*

secondary infections

what maintains low Ph

secretions

Genes

segments of DNA that code for functional proteins/products

kills/harms bacteria, but not you

selectively toxic

part of the antibiotic is modified, part of the antibiotic is natural

semi-synthetic

Solutions to limitation of antibiotics

semi-synthetic (look at slide 14) competitive inhibitors

details of parallel circulatory system

series of vessels and nodes drains off excess body fluids from tissues, returns fluid to cardiovascular system

*what is plasma without the clotting factors?*

serum

mixed infection

several microbes grow simultaneously at teh infection site

Influenza: virus classification, family, species

ssRNA(-) group V-virus, family:Orthomyxoviridae A - rapidly mutating, harbored in wild birds, occasionally jumps species causing outbreaks, epidemics and pandemics (esp. in pigs and humans); most severe diseases are associated with A B-almost exclusively human virus (can infect seals and ferrets), low mutation rate, less severe than A, no epidemics because of limited host range C - less common virus of humans and pigs, severe disease

portals of entry - GU tract

sexual, displaced organisms

major mixing of RNAs, whole new virus *on the test*

shift

thermal death time (TDT)

shortest length of time required to kill all test microbes at a specified temperature

things outside of target that may be affected when given an antibiotic

side effect

observable/measurable

signs

signs vs symptoms

signs: what the doctor can detect or measure; objective symptoms: what the pt notices or feels; subjective

largest organ of the body

skin

layered tissue and puncture resistant

skin

physical barriers

skin

sites that harbor normal resident microbes

skin upper resp tract GI tract outer opening of urethra external genitalia vagina external ear and canal externel eye

flora of skin and GI Tract

skin: mostly gram pos bacteria GI: highest amts of microbes in mouth and lg intestine, with smaller numers throughout

bacteremia

small numbers of pacteria present in blood not necessarily multiplying

viremia

small numbers of viruses present not necessarily multiplying

cytokines

small protein molecules secreted by cells for cell-cell communication used extensively in immune response

heavy metals (mercury, silver, gold, copper, arsenic, zinc.)

solutions of silver and mercury kill vegetative cels in low concentrations by inactivating proteins

protein molecules dissolved in blood, body fluids, and secretions

specifically antibodies

other lymphoid tissue

spleen, thymus, tonsils

other lymphatic organs/systems: protective tissues

spleen: monitors circulating blood cells and removes old RBCs and pathogens tonsils MALT/GALT

cases show up only occasionally

sporadic

pressure cooker

steam under pressure- sterilization

pathogensis

stepwise progression of host-pathogen events during disease

Genito-urinary tract: Lower portion of urinary tract contains some bacteria (VNC), but ureters and kidneys normally *what*.

sterile

nose typical resident

streptococcus

mouth typical resident

streptococcus (cheek) Neisseria (teeth)

Necrotizing Fasciitis (disease of skin)

streptococcus pyogenes, msra. extreme pain at infection site , then discolored, hot & rash. fever, malaise, confusion, nausea,. may cause shock. fatalities very high. bacteria attacks subcutaneous ct which becomes necrotic, moves swiftly under skin. limb amputation can be necessary

Define Serology

study of antibodies in blood plasma

antibiotics

substances produced by the natural metabolic processes of some microorganisms that can inhibit or destroy other microorganisms

Inhibition of essential metabolite synthesis

sulfanilamide, trimethoprim

What is the treatment of Chicken Pox and Shingles ?

symptom management , clears on own

are experienced by patient

symptoms

Food Poisoning (disease of digestive)

symptoms are from preformed toxin

collection of signs and symptoms

syndrome

functions of human microbiota

synthesis of vitamins, fermentation of non-digestible substances, digestion of harmful compounds, stimulation of immune system, antimicrobial effect, physical barrier against pathogens

t cell responses vs b cell responses

t cell: naive t cell only bind to antigens displayed on APCs - cell mediated immunity occurs b cell: naive b cells bind directly to free antigens - antibody mediated immunity occurs

transfer RNA

tRNA

additional protection from flushing actions. name some

tears, urine, saliva, other secretions

how does biological warfare differ from bioterrorism

terrorism involving the release of toxic biological agents -purpose is to create social paralysis through mass terror, confusion, and community disruption -target is civilian population (young, elderly, immunocompromised, and healthy) -pre-attack vaccination is either impossible or complex w/unacceptable complications -timing may not be obvious until many casualties have been presented, indicating that a bioterrorism attack has taken place. -by this time, massive secondary spread may have already happened sponsored by groups of people (individual)

*Pathogenicity*

the ability of a parasite to inflict

human microbiota

the aggregate of microorganisms that resides on or within any of a number of human tissues and biofluids, including the skin, mammary glands, placenta, seminal fluid, uterus, ovarian follicles, lung, saliva, oral mucosa, conjunctiva, and gastrointestinal tracts

virulence

the amount of virulence factors being expressed by the microbe during specific host-pathogen interactions a pathogen may be viurlent when infecting one type of tissue and non-virulent wen infecting different tissue a pathogen can be exhibit different levels of virulence dependent on the nature of the infection and hosts immunological condition

Parasitology

the branch of biology or medicine that is concerned with the study of parasitic organisms

obesity

the condition of being grossly fat or overweight

decontamination

the destruction, removal, or reduction in the number of undesirable microbes

synergistic effect

the effects of a combination of the antibiotics are greater than the sum of the effects of the individual antibiotics.

you produce a lot of interferons when you have what

the flu

parallel circulatory system

the lymph system

sterilization

the removal or destruction of all viable pathogens

what is biological warfare

the state sponsored use of biological toxins or microorganisms as weapons of war -target is military (fit healthy soldiers with pre-attack vaccinations -time and place of attack is likely known beforehand, allows for preparation -primary objective is mass destruction/disruption of enemy forces

Epidemiology is the study of disease:

the study of the factors involved in the frequency and spread of disease.

epidemiology

the study of the frequency and distribution of disease and health related factors in human population

mortality

the total number of deaths in a population due to a certain diseas

antimicrobial chemotherepy

the use of chemotherapeutic drugs to control infection

generally no vaccines for some viruses because why

there are not a lot of cases

What is the portal of entry for Lyme Disease?

tick bite

incubation peroid

time from initial contact with the infetious aent to the appearance of first symptoms; agent is multiplying but damge is insuffiecient to cause symptoms; several hours to several years

inflammation response

tissue injury: 1. damaged cells release chemical mediators 2. vasodilation and increased capillary permeability - fluids and phagocytes enter injured area 3. phagocytosis (neutrophils and macrophages) 4. walling off (blood clot) of affected area -> pus forms -> abscess may form -> abscess may rupture -> tissue repair

Anaerobic phenylethyl alcohol agar (PEA)

to isolate anaerobic gram-positive organisms, which of the following media should be used?

What is the treatment for Ringworm?

topical antifungal

Microbes live where it is "__________ ___________"

topologically outside -We are a tube within a tube. We have sacs open to the outside.

(transmission) example of direct contact

touching, kissing, sex, endogenous spread (one part of you to another)

virulence factors that help an organism survive attack from phagocytes *leukocidins*

toxic that destroy white blood cells

Which RNA? - brings amino acids to the ribosome - one for each amino acid

transfer RNA

Which HGT? least common

transformation

Antibiotics that target protein synthesis all target _____

translation

set of rules that determine how the nucleotide sequence is converted into the amino acid sequence

translation

Microbe gets to human tissue or already present

transmission

Microbe needs to get from reservoir to you.

transmission

What is the treatment for Infectious Mononucleosis?

treat symptoms

What is the treatment for HIV?

treatable/ but not curable

true or false Many pathogens have a preferred portal of entry and are much less likely to cause disease if they cannot get in that way.

true

what kills ciliated cells?

viral infections. ex: flu

Things that bacteria have that improve their abilities to cause disease Fimbriae, capsules, enzymes, toxins, all these things.

virulence factors

Ebola (disease of circulatory)

virus infects epithelial cells lining blood vessels; uses phagocytes to spread body to lymph nodes , liver, spleen and lungs. major inflammation to these organs. hemmorhaging, virus makes you bleed and spreads virus this way. blood vessels are breaking bc cells surrounding them are damaged.

In transduction _____ picks up host DNA and moves to another bacterium

viruses

What is the problem with the central dogma?

viruses are not living, so don't always follow the central dogma

ICTV classification of viruses

viruses that are related can be classified similarly to living things: -order, family, subfamily, genus, species

oncogenic viruses

viruses that cause cancer -ex: HPV

By mapping all the known cases of cholera, John Snow guessed cholera was spread by

water

Since cholera is an enterotoxin it makes epithelial cells highly permeable to _____

water

vehicles various viruses, bacteria, protozoa, mostly that cause diarrhea and enter water supply.

water

examples of vehicles

water, food, airborne

attachment to nonspecific tissues

weak attractive bonds

communicable disease

when an infected host can transmit the infectious agent to another host and establish infection in that host

How is Viral meningitis diagnosed?

when another cause is ruled out

sporadic

when occasional cases are reported at irregular intervals

epidemic

when prevalence of a disease is increasing beyond what is expected

are antibodies Y shaped molecules with hinges?

yes

is skin self repairing?

yes

is the GI tract crowded?

yes

plasma still has clotting factors in it. Yes or no?

yes

How are animal viruses classified?

• DNA or RNA, ss or ds • Capsid morphology • Enveloped or naked • If ss nucleic acid is it + or -

What are some antibiotic resistance mechanisms?

•Block entry •Inactivation of resistance enzymes •Alteration of target molecule •Efflux of antibiotic

What is E test?

•Gradient of antibiotics •Minimal Inhibitory Concentration

What are some factors leading to resistance? ()

•Horizontal gene transfer: plasmids -Hospitalization -World travel •Overuse -Patient demand -Immunosuppression •Misuse -Improper prescription -Failure to follow treatment -Long-term, low-dose use -Use in animal feeds

Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)

•Nitrogenous bases-adenine-guanine-cytosine-Thymine •Deoxyribose •Phosphate