Microbiology Final

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The energy storage form of ATP

(NOT)contains deoxyribose, contains a pyrimidine base AND readily releases energy by breaking the bond between the base and the sugar.

Organize the steps that are involved in the mechanism of RNA interference (RNAi)

1. cell produces short single-stranded RNA 2. and RNA-induced silencing complex (RISC) assembles 3. Binding of the RNA in the RISC to mRNA tags the mRNA for destruction 4. Enzymes cut mRNA; RISC can then bind to another mRNA molecule

One of the organisms that may cause red tide is: 1. dinoflagellates. 2. euglenids. 3. diatoms. 4. green algae. 5. brown algae.

1. dinoflagellates.

B) 4, 6

33) In Table 10.1, which feature(s) is (are) found only in prokaryotes? A) 1, 2, 3 B) 4, 6 C) 2 D) 1 E) 2, 4, 5

A) in bacterial identification.

49) Fatty acid methyl ester analysis is commonly used A) in bacterial identification. B) in DNA sequencing reactions. C) in serological identification methods. D) in DNA fingerprinting.

The pH at which most fungi thrive is ________.

5 - some fungal species can grow in concentrations of salts, sugars or acids that inhibit the growth of most bacteria. Fungi can grow on pH 2.2-9.6 and usually grow well at pH 5.0 or lower.

FALSE

7) Once a culture is purified, the next logical step in the process of identifying bacteria is biochemical testing.

The minimum bactericidal concentration is the lowest concentration of a specific antimicrobial drug that kills _______ of a specific type of bacteria. 10% 50% 99.9% 100%

99.9%

All fungi have __________ in their cell walls: A. chitin. B. pectin. C. peptidoglycan. D. phospholipids. E. cellulose.

Thymine dimers are dealt with by A. Photoreactivation repair AND excision repair B. Excision repair C. SOS repair D. No repair mechanisms E. Photoreactivation repair

What structure is indicated by: 10A, 15T, 3G, 7C? A. Single-stranded DNA. B. Double-stranded DNA. C. Double-stranded RNA. D. Single-stranded RNA.

A - still haven't seen mention of this in the text.

Type IV hypersensitivity reactions typically peak within: A) 2-3 days. B) 12 hours. C) weeks. D) minutes. E) seconds.

A peak in 48-72 hours = 2-3 days

Lac Operon

A gene system whose operator gene and three structural genes control lactose metabolism. Only transcribed when glucose levels are low.

Silent Mutation

A mutation that changes a single nucleotide, but does not change the amino acid created.

Figure 10.3 This figure shows the results of a gel electrophoresis separation of restriction fragments of the DNA of different organisms. In Figure 10.3, which two are most closely related? A) 1 and 3 B) 2 and 4 C) 3 and 5 D) 2 and 5 E) 4 and 5

A) 1 and 3

Table 10.1 1. 9+2 flagella 2. Nucleus 3. Plasma membrane 4. Peptidoglycan 5. Mitochondrion 6. Fimbriae 32) In Table 10.1, which features are found in all Eukarya? A) 2, 3, 5 B) 1, 4, 6 C) 3, 5 D) 2, 3 E) 1, 2, 5

A) 2, 3, 5

Select the correct sequence for proving Koch's postulates. 1. The microorganism must be recovered from the experimentally infected hosts. 2. The microorganism must be present in every case of the disease. 3. The same disease must be produced when a pure culture of the microorganism is introduced into susceptible hosts. 4. The microorganism must be grown in pure culture from diseased hosts. A) 2, 4, 3, 1 B) 1, 2, 3, 4 C) 1, 3, 2, 4 D) 4, 3, 1, 2 E) 4, 1, 2, 3

A) 2, 4, 3, 1

Select the sequence that indicates the steps that occur in the chain of infection. 1. Transmission. 2. Susceptible host. 3. Reservoir of infectious agent. 4. Portal of exit. 5. Portal of entry. A) 3, 4, 1, 5, 2 B) 2, 3, 5, 4, 1 C) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 D) 5, 3, 1, 2, 4 E) 3, 2, 1, 5, 4

A) 3,4,1,5,2 Need a portal of entry first, then the host has to be susceptible because susceptible or not, doesn't matter if it can't get in.

Which type of vaccine has been used in place of inactivated whole cell vaccine? A) Acellular subunit B) Whole cell attenuated C) Adjuvant D) Toxin E) Partial cell attenuated

A) Acellular subunit - sneaky: p.460 "The vaccine currently used to prevent whooping cough (pertussis) is a subunit vaccine, referred to as the acellular pertussis (aP) vaccine. It does not cause the side effects that sometimes occurred with the KILLED WHOLE-CELL VACCINE USED PREVIOUSLY."

Into which group would you place a multicellular organism that has a mouth and lives inside the human liver? A) Animalia B) Fungi C) Plantae D) Firmicutes (gram-positive bacteria) E) Proteobacteria (gram-negative bacteria)

A) Animalia

Table 10.2 Use the dichotomous key in Table 10.2 to identify a gram-negative rod that ferments lactose and uses citric acid as its sole carbon source. A) Citrobacter B) Escherichia C) Lactobacillus D) Pseudomonas E) Staphylococcus

A) Citrobacter

A clone is A) Genetically identical cells derived from a single cell. B) A genetically engineered cell. C) A taxon composed of species. D) A mound of cells on an agar medium. E) None of the above.

A) Genetically identical cells derived from a single cell.

A recombinant vaccine is used to protect against: A) hepatitis B. B) polio. C) diphtheria. D) pertussis. E) influenza.

A) Hep B - subunit vaccines produced using genetically engineered mircroorganisms are called Recombinant (subunit) vaccines. The vaccine against Hepatitis B is made using yeast cells engineered to produce part of the viral protein coat.

What is the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)? A) It is the lowest concentration of a specific antimicrobial medication needed to prevent the visible growth of a given bacterial strain in vitro. B) It is the highest concentration of a specific antimicrobial medication needed to prevent the visible growth of a given bacterial strain in vitro. C) It is the lowest concentration of a specific antimicrobial medication needed to prevent the visible growth of a given bacterial strain in vivo. D) It is the highest concentration of a specific antimicrobial medication needed to prevent the visible growth of a given bacterial strain in vivo. E) It is the lowest concentration of a specific antimicrobial medication that kills 99.9% of cells of a given bacterial strain in vitro.

A) It is the lowest concentration of a specific antimicrobial medication needed to prevent the visible growth of a given bacterial strain in vitro. -in vitro - in the lab, in vivo - in life

Compliance problems are leading to a large increase in antibiotic resistant strains of: A) Mycobacterium. B) Streptococcus. C) Staphylococcus. D) Pseudomonas. E) Mycoplasma.

A) Mycobacterium. slide 63

9) Which of the following is the best evidence for a three-domain system? A) Nucleotide sequences in ribosomal RNA vary between all three domains. B) There are three distinctly different sets of metabolic reactions. C) There are three distinctly different Gram reactions. D) Some bacteria live in extreme environments. E) There are three distinctly different types of nuclei.

A) Nucleotide sequences in ribosomal RNA vary between all three domains.

The arrangement of organisms into taxa A) Shows degrees of relatedness between organisms. B) Shows relationships to common ancestors. C) Was designed by Charles Darwin. D) Is arbitrary. E) Is based on evolution.

A) Shows degrees of relatedness between organisms.

The guidelines designed for prevention of nosocomial disease during care of all patients is called: A) Standard Precautions. B) Universal Disposables. C) Disinfection Manifesto. D) Asepsis Preference. E) Hand Hygiene Precautions.

A) Standard Precautions.

Many inactivated vaccines contain an adjuvant, a substance that enhances the immune response to antigens. An adjuvant that uses a derivative of lipid A has recently been developed.Would lipid A work well as an adjuvant? A) Yes. Lipid A alerts the immune system to the presence of Gram-negative bacteria. It would similarly alert the immune system to the components of a vaccine if used as an adjuvant in the vaccine. B) Yes. Lipid A alerts the immune system to the presence of Gram-positive bacteria. It would likely also alert the immune system to the components of a vaccine if used as an adjuvant in the vaccine. C) Yes. Lipid A alerts the immune system to the presence of Gram-negative AND Gram-positive bacteria. It would similarly alert the immune system to the components of a vaccine if used as an adjuvant in the vaccine. D) No. Lipid A is actually unlikely to be successful as an adjuvant because it always causes an intense inflammatory reaction in a host, resulting in extensive tissue damage. E) No. Lipid A is actually unlikely to be successful as an adjuvant because even minimal amounts of this molecule causes endotoxic shock in a person, usually resulting in death.

A) Yes. Lipid A alerts the immune system to the presence of Gram-negative bacteria. It would similarly alert the immune system to the components of a vaccine if used as an adjuvant in the vaccine. No idea where this information came from.

Each class of antibody is specifically defined by its: A) amino acid sequence of the constant region of the heavy chain. B) amino acid sequence of the variable region of the light chain. C) ability to cross the placenta. D) presence of disulfide bonds. E) ability to bind a range of antigens.

A) amino acid sequence of the constant region of the heavy chain.

The major class(es) of antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis include all of the following EXCEPT: A) bacitracins. B) aminoglycosides. C) tetracyclines. D) macrolides. E) streptogramins.

A) bacitracins. Bacitracins mess will cell wall synthesis.

A relationship in which one partner benefits and the other is unaffected is termed: A) commensalism. B) parasitism. C) independence. D) mutualism. E) dysbiosis.

A) commensalism.

Sulfonamides work as: A) competitive inhibitors. B) noncompetitive inhibitors. C) ribosome-binding molecules. D) feedback inhibitors. E) coenzymes.

A) competitive inhibitors.

The type of epidemiological study that determines the characteristics of the persons involved and the time and place of the outbreak is calleda(n): A) descriptive study. B) inspection study. C) cohortive study. D) retrospective study. E) cohesive study.

A) descriptive study. Studies all the facts about the person, time and place.

The single most important measure to prevent the spread of disease is: A) hand washing. B) canning. C) pasteurization. D) home cooking. E) antibiotics.

A) hand washing. Mechanical removal of (possible) pathogens.

T-independant antigens: A) include polysaccharides. B) require the involvement of T cells. C) interact with MHCI molecules. D) are usually proteins. E) include polysaccharides AND require the involvement of T cells.

A) include polysaccharides.

The number of organisms necessary to cause infection is termed the: A) infectious dose. B) fatal number. C) minimum lethal dose. D) pathogenic number. E) incidence number.

A) infectious dose. ID50 = amount to infect 50% of the population

C5a peptidase: A) is a virulence factor. B) synthesizes C5a. C) is produced by the host cell in response to infection. D) is a molecule promoting chemotaxis. E) is a virulence factor AND is a molecule promoting chemotaxis.

A) is a virulence factor. - a pathogen is trying to avoid phagocytosis and makes this virulence factor that splits C5a so it can't act as a chemoattractant to get phagocytes to the area.

Protist is a diverse group of organisms that are similar in A) rRNA sequences. B) Metabolic type. C) Motility. D) Ecology. E) None of the above.

A) rRNA sequences.

Killing of graft cells occurs through a complex series of mechanisms including: A) sensitized T cytotoxic cells AND NK cells. B) sensitized T cytotoxic cells AND erythrocytes. C) NK cells AND erythrocytes. D) erythrocytes AND basophils. E) sensitized T cytotoxic cells AND basophilic cells.

A) sensitized T cytotoxic cells AND NK cells.

The change from negative serum, without antibodies specific to an infecting agent, to positive serum, containing antibodies against that infectingagent, is called: A) seroconversion. B) complement fixation. C) ELISA. D) serum reversion. E) serology.

A) seroconversion.

Antigens interact with antibodies at: A) the outer end of each arm of the Y. B) the junction of heavy and light chains. C) different regions depending on the class of antibody. D) the bottom stem of the heavy chain of the Y. E) the disulfide bridges of the antibody molecule.

A) the outer end of each arm of the Y.

All of the following are true about attenuated agents EXCEPT: A) they only induce immunity after several doses. B) they may cause disease in immunocompromised individuals. C) they multiply in the body. D) they may revert or mutate to disease-causing strains. E) they cause a strong cell-mediated immune response.

A. - attenuated agents need only 1 or 2 doses to induce long-lasting immunity due to microbes multiplying in the body. Immune system is exposed to more antigen for longer than with inactivated agents.

26. The most efficient sterilizing conditions in a steam autoclave are A. 121C at 15 psi for 15 minutes. B. 63C for 30 minutes. C. 160C for 2 hours. D. 71.6C for 15 seconds. E. 100C for 30 minutes.

A. 121 C at 15 psi for 15 minutes

A. The development of antimicrobial resistances through spontaneous mutation or acquisition of new genetic information B. A chemical produced by certain molds and bacteria that kills or inhibits the growth of other organisms C. A chemical used to treat microbial infections; also called antimicrobial D. Plasmids that encode resistance to one or more antimicrobial medications and heavy metals E. A measure of the relative toxicity of a medication, defined as the ratio of minimum toxic dose to minimum effective dose F. Enzyme that breaks the β-lactam ring of a β-lactam drug, thereby inactivating the medication

A. Acquired Resistance B. Antibiotic C. Antimicrobial drug D. R plasmids E. Therapeutic index F. beta-lactamase

A. The group of antimicrobial medications that inhibit peptidoglycan synthesis and have a shared chemical structure called a β-lactam ring. B. The administration of two or more antimicrobial medications simultaneously to prevent the growth of mutants that might be resistant to one of the antimicrobials C. The resistance of an organism to an antimicrobial due to the inherent characteristics of that type of organism D. An antimicrobial able to inhibit or kill a wide range of microorganisms, often including both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria E. A transporter that moves molecules out of the cell

A. Beta (β)-lactam drugs B. combination therapy C. intrinsic, innate resistance D. Broad-spectrum antimicrobial E. efflux pump

A. A type of horizontal gene transfer occuring when a phage carries a random piece of bacterial DNA acquired when a packaging error occurs during the assembly of phage particles B. Infection that develop slowly and persist for months or years C. Characterized by a lipid bilayer surrounding the nucleocapsid D. The modification of cell properties resulting from expression of phage DNA integrated into a bacterial chromosome E. Infection in which the infectious agent is present but not active

A. Generalized Transdution B. Chronic Infection C. Enveloped Virus D. Lysogenic Conversion E. Latent Infection

Which of the following is not a normal portal of exit of an infectious disease? A. Removal of blood B. Urogenital tract and feces C. Coughing and sneezing D. Skin E. All of the choices are normal exit portals

A. Removal of blood Got it Right!

Chemoheterotroph (energy source + carbon source)

A. Uses chemical reactions for energy and uses organic compounds

4. The use of a physical or chemical process to destroy vegetative pathogens is A. disinfection. B. sterilization. C. antisepsis. D. sanitization. E. degermation.

A. disinfection

Two isolates with identical RFLPs are considered: A. possibly the same strain. B. identical. C. different strains. D. different genera. E. definitely the same strain.

A. possibly the same strain.

6) At this point in time, scientists believe the vast majority of the domain Bacteria have been discovered.

Answer: FALSE

Allografts: A) are normally rejected within hours. B) are grafts between non-identical members of the same species. C) involve tissues from non-human animals. D) are grafts between identical members of the same species. E) are grafts between identical twins.

B C is xenografts D and E are autografts

B) A very common form of IgE-mediated allergy is systemic anaphylaxis. - not common, is more on the RARE side

Serological testing is based on the fact that A) All bacteria have the same antigens. B) Antibodies react specifically with an antigen. C) The human body makes antibodies against bacteria. D) Antibodies cause the formation of antigens. E) Bacteria clump together when mixed with any antibodies.

B) Antibodies react specifically with an antigen.

The cell type responsible for type II hypersensitivity is the: A) mast cell. B) B cell. C) macrophage. D) platelet. E) neutrophil.

B) B cell Chart on p.440 - effector: B cell - other immune cells involved: NK cells

In the scientific name Enterobacter aerogenes, Enterobacter is the A) Specific epithet. B) Genus. C) Family. D) Order. E) Kingdom.

B) Genus.

Which antibodies cross the placenta and protect the fetus? A) IgA B) IgG C) IgM D) IgD E) IgM and IgG

B) IgG

The doctor responsible for introducing the idea of hand washing before attending patients was: A) Klein. B) Semmelweis. C) Koch. D) Pasteur. E) Galen.

B) Semmelweis. He saw that 4x the puerperal fever cases in the doctor's ward vs the midwife's birthing area was related to doctors performing autopsies (midwives don't) after a friend got cut during an autopsy and died of an infection like puerperal fever. They weren't washing their hands and were spreading disease!

Almost all of the antibodies found in a newborn are: A) the result of infection. B) the result of passive immunity. C) self-made. D) IgM. E) the result of active immunity.

B) The result of passive immunity - IgG from Mom that crossed the placenta and protect the baby for the first 6 months or so while the baby's immune system is getting up to speed. Secretory IgA from breast milk to protect the baby's GI tract (mucosal immunity). - no memory, protection is lost once the antibodies degrade.

An immune complex is defined as: A) antigen combined with antigen. B) antigen combined with antibody. C) antibody combined with antibody. D) complement combined with LPS. E) complement bound to neutrophils.

B) antigen combined with antibody.

The reservoir of the common cold is the: A) family pet. B) human. C) infected fomite. D) fruit. E) rhinovirus.

B) human.

The fetus is not rejected because: A) it is too small. B) it is in an immunologically privileged site. C) the father is immunosuppressed. D) it has no antigens. E) it has no normal microbiota.

B) it is in an immunologically privileged site. "The fetus as an allograft"

Only antigen presenting cells: A) produce MHC class I molecules. B) produce MHC class II molecules. C) produce antibodies. D) activate cytotoxic T cells. E) activate regulatory T cells.

B) produce MHC class II molecules. All nucleated cells make MHC class I so APCs have both MHC class I and II on their surface.

Opportunists or opportunistic pathogens: A) are usually saprophyte, like fungi. B) take advantage of special circumstances. C) are usually mutualistic. D) always cause disease. E) are never normal microbiota.

B) take advantage of special circumstances. slide 19

The microorganisms that are occasionally found in or on the body are called: A) abnormal microbiota. B) transient microbiota. C) variant microbiota. D) normal microbiota. E) random biota.

B) transient microbiota.

The greatest number of pathogens enter the body through the A. urinary system. B. respiratory system. C.gastrointestinal system. D.skin. E. genital system.

B. B. respiratory system. Got this right

46. _____ is a halogen used in gaseous and liquid form for large-scale disinfection of drinking water and sewage. A. Iodine B. Chlorine C. Bromine D. Fluorine E. All of the choices are correct.

B. Chlorine

Which of the following is NOT a target of drugs that inhibit protein synthesis? A. the shape of the 30S ribosomal subunit B. interference with alanine-alanine bridges C. the enzymatic site of the 50S ribosomal subunit D. movement of the ribosome from one codon to the next E. the tRNA docking site

B. interference with alanine-alanine bridges

Streptococcus pyogenes: A. may form endospores. B. is beta-hemolytic. C. is alpha-hemolytic. D. is gamma-hemolytic. E. is alpha-hemolytic AND may form endospores.

B. is beta-hemolytic

17. Microbial death occurs when there is A. no movement. B. permanent loss of reproduction. C. a change in appearance. D. a decrease in size. E. All of these occur.

B. permanent loss of reproduction

58. Which of the following represents the use of osmotic pressure as a microbial control method? A. bleaching a kitchen counter B. salting meat C. rinsing a cut with Betadine D. Both bleaching a kitchen counter and rinsing a cut with Betadine are correct.

B. salting meat

The prokaryotic cell scheme is found in

Bacteria AND archaea

The prokaryotic cell scheme is found in

Bacteria and Archaea

Mixed acid fermentation: A. produces butyric acid B. occurs in all bacteria C. produces acids plus CO2 and H2 gases D. is seen in Streptococcus and Lactobacillus E. also produces ethanol

Phage typing is based on the fact that A) Bacteria are destroyed by viruses. B) Viruses cause disease. C) Bacterial viruses attack specific cells. D) Staphylococcus causes infections. E) Phages and bacteria are related.

C) Bacterial viruses attack specific cells.

Nucleic acid hybridization is based on the fact that A) The strands of DNA can be separated. B) A chromosome is composed of complementary strands. C) Pairing between complementary bases occurs. D) DNA is composed of genes. E) All cells have DNA.

C) Pairing between complementary bases occurs.

Which of the following characterizes the Domain Bacteria? A) Prokaryotic cells; ether linkages in phospholipids B) Eukaryotic cells; ester linkages in phospholipids C) Prokaryotic cells; ester linkages in phospholipids D) Complex cellular structures E) Multicellular

C) Prokaryotic cells; ester linkages in phospholipids

Which of the following characteristics indicates that two organisms are closely related? A) Both are cocci. B) Both ferment lactose. C) Their DNA can hybridize. D) Both normally live in clams. E) Both are motile.

C) Their DNA can hybridize.

Which of the following factors is not considered important for the establishment of an infection? A) Adherence B) Dose C) Toxicity D) Virulence factors E) None of these is important

C) Toxicity

What happens when a helper T cell is activated? A) Two populations of cells are formed: helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells; the TH cells activate B cells and the TC cells target virus-infected cells. B) Two populations of cells are formed: memory TH cells and effector TH cells; the effector TH cells produce a variety of antibodies. C) Two populations of cells are formed: memory TH cells and effector TH cells; the effector TH cells play a role in activating B cells. D) Two populations of cells are formed: effector TH cells and effector TC cells; these work together to activate B cells and macrophages. E) Activated TH cells produce cytokines that stimulate dendritic cells, converting them into antigen-presenting cells.

C) Two populations of cells are formed: memory TH cells and effector TH cells; the effector TH cells play a role in activating B cells.

Myasthenia gravis is an example of an autoimmune disease that involves; A) sensitized T cells. B) cytotoxic T cells. C) antibodies. D) IgD. E) muscle genes.

C) antibodies. - antibodies bind to acetylcholine receptors at neuromuscular junctions, blocking nerve impulses that would normally tell the muscle to contract. p450

An example of genetic variation used in pathogen survival may be: A) preventing encounters with phagocytes. B) avoid the killing effects of complement system proteins. C) changing the pilus type. D) surviving within a phagocyte. E) protease production.

C) changing the pilus type.

The use of Salvarsan and Prontosil to treat microbial infections were early examples of: A) antibiotics. B) toxins. C) chemotherapy. D) inhibitors. E) vaccination.

C) chemotherapy p.501 Salvarsan and Prontosil are chemotherapeuitc agents, meaning chemicals used to treat disease. Because they are used to treat microbial infections, they can also be called antimicrobial medications, antimicrobial drugs, or, more simply, antimicrobials.

If the number of people who become ill during an epidemic rises and falls rapidly, this is called a(n): A) propagated epidemic. B) promulgated epidemic. C) common source epidemic. D) index epidemic. E) contagious epidemic.

C) common source epidemic. Means all the cases come from people being exposed at the same time to the same source of infectious disease/pathogen. See question 9 for propagated epidemic

Schistosomiasis has increased in areas where: A) snails have become a delicacy. B) crayfish are eaten. C) dams have been built. D) swamps have been drained. E) people fish for sport.

C) dams have been built. Factors contributing to the emergence and re-emergence - Development: Dams extending range of schistosomiasis by increasing habitat for snail host.

An experimental study in which neither the doctor nor the patient knows who is getting the actual treatment is called a ________ study. A) single-sided B) double-sided C) double-blind D) double-barrier E) test-sided

C) double-blind Type of experimental test - used more for testing the effectiveness of drugs - actual drug and a placebo.

C) is composed of a weakened form of the pathogen that is generally unable to cause disease.

The infectious dose: A) is the same for all microorganisms. B) may be 10-100 cells for Salmonella. C) is defined as the number of microbes needed to cause infection. D) is defined as the number of microbes needed to kill the host. E) is the same for all bacteria but varies for viruses.

C) is defined as the number of microbes needed to cause infection. slide 20 - 10-100 cells of Shigella, 10^6 cells of Salmonella = infectious dose for these organisms.

Vertical transmission involves: A) droplet transmission. B) fomites. C) pregnant woman to fetus. D) pasteurization. E) insect to human.

C) pregnant woman to fetus. Horizontal transmission is lateral, person to person, environment to person, transmission in any other way.

The spread of toxin via circulation is called ________. A) septicemia B) bacteremia C) toxemia D) sepsis E) viremia

C) toxemia

Arthus reactions and serum sickness are examples of ________ hypersensitivity. A) type I B) type II C) type III D) type IV E) type V

C) type III

5. The use of chemical agents directly on exposed body surfaces to destroy or inhibit vegetative pathogens is A. disinfection. B. sterilization. C. antisepsis. D. sanitization. E. ionization

C. antisepsis

6. Scrubbing or immersing the skin in chemicals to reduce the numbers of microbes on the skin is A. disinfection. B. sterilization. C. antisepsis. D. sanitization. E. ionization.

C. antisepsis

Each axial filament is made up of fibrils identical in structure to : A. cilia. B. pili. C. flagella. D. pseudopods.

C. flagella.

49. The chemical agent that produces highly toxic and reactive free radicals is A. cidex. B. cationic detergents. C. hydrogen peroxide. D. chlorhexidine. E. iodophors.

C. hydrogen peroxide

56. In lab, inoculating loops are sterilized using A. moist heat. B. chemicals. C. incineration. D. filtration. E. ethylene oxide.

C. incineration

Which of the following is not a chief function of inflammation? A. Destroy microbes. B. Mobilize and attract immune components to injury site. C. To cause a fever. D. Start tissue repair. E. Block further invasion.

C. to cause a fever Got this right

Nucleic acid techniques have great power as diagnostic tools because they may be: A. used to inhibit the growth of certain bacteria. B. used to enhance the growth of bacteria. C. used to differentiate species. D. quick and easy to perform. E. All of the answer choices are correct.

C. used to differentiate species.

p. 537 Table 21.1 Virulence Factors of Streptococcus pyogenes C5a peptidase, Hyaluronic acid capsule, M protein, protein F, protein G, Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins (SPEs), Streptolysins O and S, Tissue-degrading enzymes

C5a peptidase - inhibits recruitment of phagocytes by destroying complement component C5a. Hyaluronic acid capsule - inhibits phagocytosis. M protein - interferes with phagocytosis by causing inactivation of complement component C3b, an opsonin; involved in attachment to host cells. protein F - responsible for attachment to host cells. protein G - binds to Fc portion of antibodies, thereby interfering with opsonization. Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins (SPEs) - superantigens responsible for scarlet fever, toxic shock, "flesh-eating" fasciitis Streptolysins O and S - Lyse leukocytes and erythrocytes Tissue-degrading enzymes - enhance spread of bacteria by breaking down DNA, proteins, blood clots, tissue and hyaluronic acid.

Using phenotypic characteristics to identify prokaryotes -

Can use microscopic morphology (size, shape, staining under a microscope), Culture characteristics (what it looks like on a petri dish), Metabololic capabilities, Serology, Fatty Acid analysis, and MOLDI-TOF MS.

Serological methods : - are useful in identifying bacteria. - rely on the specificity of an antibody-antigen interaction. - may be simple and rapid. - All of the choices are correct.

Ch 11 - - All of the choices are correct.

A clever technique that streamlines the identification of auxotrophic mutants is - gas chromatography. - replica plating. - direct selection. - reversion

Ch 11 - Replica plating - auxotroph = a mutant organism (especially a bacterium or fungus) that requires a particular additional nutrient which the normal strain does not.

Which of the following descriptions fits a chronic viral infection?

Characterized by continuous production of low levels of viral particles, potentially even in the absence of active symptoms of disease. The organism is usually still highly infectious during this time.

Cells infected with animal viruses lyse because: - the release of the virions depletes the cell of energy. - the virus releases enzymes that lyse the cell. - functions necessary for cell survival are not carried out and the cell dies. - the virus RNA and cellular protein interact to kill the cell.

*functions necessary for cell survival are not carried out and the cell dies.

A picnic was attended by 1,000 people. Potato salad was served at the event. The next day, 140 people reported vomiting and diarrhea. What was the attack rate of this food-borne illness? - 10% - 140% - 1.4% - 14% - More information is needed.

- 14%

Which is the correct definition of selective toxicity? - A medication that only targets Gram-negative bacteria. - The lowest dose of a medication toxic to the pathogen. - A medication causing greater harm to a pathogen than to the host. - A medication causing greater harm to a host than to a pathogen. - The range between the therapeutic dose and the toxic dose of a medication.

- A medication causing greater harm to a pathogen than to the host. That last one is the therapeutic window.

Diphtheria is an acute contagious disease caused by an exotoxin that: - functions by inhibiting protein synthesis. - may cause destruction of cardiac, kidney and nerve tissues. - can be neutralized as a result of immunity produced by the DTaP vaccine. - All of the choices are correct.

- All of the choices are correct.

Why are some tissues damaged by diphtheria toxin while others are unaffected by it? - Diphtheria toxin is a superantigen. Only TH cells are affected by this type of toxin, so tissues lacking TH cells are unaffected. - The causative agent is inhaled into the lungs, so only lung tissue is affected by the toxin released by the organism. - Diphtheria toxin is an A-B toxin. Cells that do not have a receptor for the toxin are unaffected by it. - The causative agent is ingested, so only gastrointestinal tissue is affected by the toxin released by the organism. - Diphtheria is a localized infection. Only tissues in the immediate area of the bacteria are affected by the toxin.

- Diphtheria toxin is an A-B toxin. Cells that do not have a receptor for the toxin are unaffected by it. Cells that do sustain heavy damage -> heart, kidney, nerves - why heart/kidney failure and paralysis can occur later.

Which of the following organisms is photoautotrophic protozoan? - Phytophthora - plasmodial slime mold - cellular slime mold - Euglena - oomycote

- Euglena

Why are some drugs that inhibit protein synthesis in bacteria also harmful to humans? - Some drugs are powerful enough to inhibit human cell protein synthesis as well as that of bacterial cells. - Humans and bacteria have very similar types of ribosomes. - Some human cells have mutated ribosomes, which are more susceptible to these drugs. - Eukaryotic mitochondria have 70S ribosomes

- Eukaryotic mitochondria have 70S ribosomes

Please select the FALSE statement regarding antibiotic resistance. - Changes in the porin proteins can prevent certain antimicrobials from entering a cell's periplasm or cytoplasm. - The bacterial enzyme chloramphenicol acetyltransferase confers resistance to the penicillins. - Modifications in the penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs) prevent β-lactam antibiotics from binding to them. - Some antibiotic-inactivating enzymes have an extended spectrum and confer resistance to a wide variety of antibiotics. - Bacteria that produce efflux pumps sometimes become resistant to several different antimicrobials simultaneously.

- The bacterial enzyme chloramphenicol acetyltransferase confers resistance to the penicillins.

Which of the following are characteristics of fungi? -They have a nuclear membrane AND their cell wall contains cellulose. - Their cell wall contains chitin AND they use nutrients from dead or decaying organic matter. - Their cytoplasmic membrane contains ergesterol AND they are always multicellular. - They have a peptidoglycan cell wall AND they may be photosynthetic. - Their cell wall contains cellulose AND they use nutrients from dead or decaying organic matter.

- Their cell wall contains chitin AND they use nutrients from dead or decaying organic matter.

Molecular Koch's postulates are:

- a set of experimental criteria that must be satisfied to show that a gene found in a pathogenic microorganism encodes a product that contributes to the disease caused by the pathogen. Genes that satisfy molecular Koch's postulates are often referred to as virulence factors.

Rapid diagnostic tests for streptococcal infections may use: - blood agar AND the Kirby-Bauer test. - antibodies AND blood agar. - DNA probes. - the Kirby-Bauer test AND DNA probes. - antibodies AND DNA probes.

- antibodies AND DNA probes. Antibodies is a given, blood agar isn't a rapid test - involves incubation, Kirby-Bauer isn't rapid either... Kirby-Bauer tests test whether particular bacteria are susceptible to specific antibiotics. -What is special about Mueller Hinton agar that makes it useful for the Kirby Bauer test? It is used for the routine susceptibility testing of non-fastidious microorganism by the Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion technique. Five percent sheep blood and nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide may also be added when susceptibility testing is done on Streptococcus species.

The RADT and throat culture are both negative for Streptococcus pyogenes, the causative agent of strep throat. The doctor tells you that your son likely has an adenoviral respiratory tract infection. Adenoviruses are resistant to destruction by detergents and alcohol solutions. This indicates that these viruses A) are double-stranded RNA viruses. B) are non-enveloped viruses. C) are enveloped viruses. D) are endospore-formers. E) are also resistant to multiple antibiotics.

- are non-enveloped viruses. Naked viruses are resistant to more things that will inactivate an enveloped one. Adenovirus - nakes, dsDNA and humans are their only reservoir.

Adenovirus

- attach to and infect epithelial cells, genome transported to host cell nucleus, virus multiplies - Mechanisms for avoiding host defenses: - delaying apoptosis - blocking interferon function - interfering with antigen presentation by MHC class I molecules MHC class 1 - can be made by any cell, intracellular antigens, present to CD8 Tc lymphocytes. - after replication complete, a virally encoded "death protein" is pruduced ->cell lysis - severe infection = extensive cell destruction/inflammation - different serotypes of adenoviruses affect different tissues.

Streptococcus pyogenes would be - beta hemolytic and catalase negative. - beta hemolytic and catalase positive. - alpha hemolytic and catalase negative. - alpha hemolytic and catalase positive.

- beta hemolytic and catalase negative.

The characteristic virulence factor of S. pneumoniae is: A) a capsule. B) flagella. C) pili. D) cilia. E) A-B toxin.

- capsule polysaccharide capsule that stops the opsonin C3b to avoid phagocytosis.

The pneumococcal vaccine is directed against the: A) flagella. B) pili. C) cilia. D) capsule. E) A-B toxin.

- capsule. The vaccines contain capsule polysaccharides from the 13 or 23 most common serotypes

Sequencing of rRNA is useful for:

- determining evolutionary relationships AND identification of unknown bacteria.

Viruses are commonly referred to by their ______ name.

- disease AND species

All of the following are mechanisms of action associated with drugs that inhibit cell wall synthesis except __________. - dismantling existing peptidoglycan molecules - blocking the secretion of NAG and NAM from the cytoplasm - preventing crosslinking between NAM subunits - interfering with the formation of alanine-alanine crossbridges

- dismantling existing peptidoglycan molecules

All of the following are characteristic of the Platyhelminthes EXCEPT that they? - are multicellular animals. - are hermaphroditic. - are dorsoventrally flattened. - can be divided into flukes and tapeworms. - have highly developed digestive and nervous systems.

- have highly developed digestive and nervous systems.

Giardia and Trichomonas are unusual eukaryotes because they: - are motile. - lack nuclei. - lack mitochondria. - do produce cysts. - do not produce cysts.

- lack mitochondria. Giardiasis is an intestinal infection in humans and animals, caused by a microscopic protozoan parasite Giardia duodenalis (also known as G. intestinalis or G. lamblia). "Giardia is not a "worm", bacteria or virus." Trichomoniasis (or "trich") is a very common sexually transmitted disease (STD). It is caused by infection with a protozoan parasite called Trichomonas vaginalis. Although symptoms of the disease vary, most people who have the parasite cannot tell they are infected.

Virulence factors used by S. pyogenes include all of the following EXCEPT: - protein F. - M protein. - a capsule. - lipopolysaccharide - protein G.

- lipopolysaccharide G+ chains, no outer membrane for LPS. protein F - attachment to fibrin, a protein on epithelial cells M protein - adhesin. Inactivates Cb3 of compliment Capsule - hyaluronic acid - mimics host cell structure. Protein G - binds to Fc of opsonizing IgG, avoids phagocytosis. - not listed are C5a peptidase, SPEs, streptolysins O and S plus tissue degrading enzymes (DNase, streptokinase (breaks down blood clots), hyaluronidase, proteases)

Class II MHC molecules are found primarily on: - dendritic cells AND erythrocytes. - T cytotoxic cells AND macrophages - macrophages AND erythrocytes. - T cytotoxic cells AND dendritic cells. - macrophages AND dendritic cells.

- macrophages AND dendritic cells. Antigen presenting cells

Please select the CORRECT statement regarding MHC molecules. - Dendritic cells are the only cells that make MHC class II molecules. - Cytotoxic T cells recognize antigens presented on MHC class II molecules. - Endogenous antigens are presented on MHC class II molecules. - Helper T cells recognize antigens presented on MHC class II molecules. - all nucleated cells express MHC class II molecules.

- macrophages make MHC class II molecules too - cytotoxic T cells recognize MHC class I - endogenous antigens - Exogenous antigens on MHC class II - Correct - all nucleated cells express MHC class I molecules, APCs make class II as well as class I molecules.

Algae are important environmentally as: - local contaminants. - major producers of oxygen. - supporting fungal growth. - local flora. - major producers of carbon dioxide.

- major producers of oxygen.

IgE molecules involved in hypersensitivity reactions have become attached to: A) neutrophils. B) mast cells. C) B cells. D) macrophages. E) mast cells AND B cells.

- mast cells It's my understanding that basophils are also an option. The granules these cells have contain histamine, leukotrienes, and prostaglandins - inflammatory mediators.

Otitis media and sinusitis are usually preceded by a(n): - middle ear infection. - pseudomonal infection. - oropharyngeal infection. - nasopharyngeal infection.

- nasopharyngeal infection. Middle ear opens up to the nasopharynx by eustachian tubes - infection damages the ciliated cells, resulting in inflammation and swelling.

The common cold - Tx/Prevention:

- no proven tx for common cold - analgesics (painkillers)/antipyretics (fever reducers) like aspirin/IBU can reduce symptoms but may prolong symptoms and duration of viral shedding and delay the antibody production that lead to recovery. - Prevention: handwashing, hands away from face, avoid crowded places, avoid people with colds for first few days, when they are shedding high numbers of viral particles. - NO VACCINE = large # of immunologically different viruses cause colds (more than 100 types!)

Strong chemical mutagens may be used to treat cancer cells. Is this a good idea or a bad idea? A. It is a bad idea; the cancer cells are already mutated and it is undesirable to mutate them further and make them more cancerous. B. It is a bad idea; the mutagens will also affect the non-cancerous cells, possibly leading to new cancerous states. C. It is a good idea; cancer cells must be killed as quickly as possible to cure the patient. D. The idea is both good and bad; the mutagens are very good at killing cancer cells but depending upon the mode of administration, they could also be a danger to non-cancerous cells.

The terms yeast, mold, and mushrooms refers to fungal: A. reproduction. B. parasites. C. nutrition. D. morphology. E. biochemistry.

The disease characterized by the appearance of a toxin-mediated rash that spares the area around the mouth and causes the tongue to look like the surface of a ripe strawberry is: - chickenpox. - scarlet fever. - strep throat. - measles.

- scarlet fever. Some strains of S. pyogenes make streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins (SPE) that care called erythrotoxins - red toxins - red rash of scarlet fever. Signs and symptoms: high fever, rough skin, pink-red rash, strawberry tongue. - some SPE-producing stains cause toxic shock and necrotizing fasciitis.

Which change in a gene's DNA sequence would likely have the least effect on the eventual amino acid sequence produced from it? A. Substitution of 1 nucleotide B. Addition of 1 nucleotide C. Deletion of 2 consecutive nucleotides D. Addition/deletion of 3 consecutive nucleotides E. Substitution of 1 nucleotide AND addition of 1 nucelotide

The rhinovirus contains: A) single-stranded RNA and is an enveloped virus. B) double-stranded RNA and is an enveloped virus. C) single-stranded RNA and and is a non-enveloped virus. D) double-stranded RNA and is a non-enveloped virus. E) single-stranded RNA and and is a retrovirus.

- single-stranded RNA and and is a non-enveloped virus. p.543 "a group of NON-ENVELOPED virues with a SINGLE-STRANDED RNA genome" Other quizlet worksheet says A but...

The key virulence factor of S. pneumoniae interferes with: A) the action of C3. B) the action of C3b. C) the action of C5a. D) interferon. E) All of the answer choices are correct.

- the action of C3b. 2 Virulence factors mess with the action of C3b - capsule = resistant to phagocytosis - interferes with the opsonin C3b - pneumococcal surface protein (PsaA) interferes with C3b too

A sharp reduction in the incidence of Haemophilus influenzae serotype b infections is principally due to: - the discovery of new antibiotics. - the development of an effective vaccine - the elimination of the natural reservoir of H. influenzae. - improvements in sanitary conditions in meat processing plants.

- the development of an effective vaccine

A sharp reduction in the incidence of Haemophilus influenzae serotype b infections is principally due to: A. the discovery of new antibiotics. B. the development of an effective vaccine. C. the elimination of the natural reservoir of H. influenzae. D. improvements in sanitary conditions in meat processing plants.

- the development of an effective vaccine.

The common cold - Signs/Symptoms:

- the most frequent infectious disease in humans, - accounts for >50% of upper respiratory tract infections each year. - 1-2 days after infection - malaise, then runny nose, sneezing, coughing, mildly sore throat and hoarseness. Snot is copious and water, may thicken and get cloudy. - NO FEVER unless secondary bacterial infection. - 1 wk, mild cough for a bit longer.

The eyes are protected from infection by: - the washing action of the tears and eyelids AND the use of contact lenses. - the washing action of the tears and eyelids AND the chemical action of lysozyme. - the chemical action of lysozyme AND the use of contact lenses. - the use of contact lenses AND the dryness of the eye surface. - the dryness of the eye surface AND the chemical action of lysozyme.

- the washing action of the tears and eyelids AND the chemical action of lysozyme.

A vaccine for the common cold is not possible because: A) the surface antigens of rhinovirus mutate frequently. B) there are more than 100 types of rhinovirus. C) the causative agent of colds is unknown. D) the rhinovirus cannot be grown in sufficient quantities. E) rhinoviruses are resistant.

- there are more than 100 types of rhinovirus.

You ask the doctor whether there is a vacccine that your children can be given to prevent further adenoviral infections. He tells you A) that there is no need for a vaccine because your son can be treated with antibiotics AND that adenovirus infections can be avoided by handwashing. B) there is a vaccine against two adenovirus serotypes but this is only given to military recruits AND that adenovirus infections can mostly be avoided by handwashing. C) there is a vaccine against two adenovirus serotypes but this is only given to healthcare personnel BUT that adenovirus infections are easily treated with antibiotics. D) it is not possible to generate vaccines against any double-stranded DNA viruses AND that adenovirus infections can be avoided by handwashing. E) it is not possible to synthesize vaccines for preventing diseases caused by RNA viruses BUT that adenovirus infections can be prevented with prophylactic antibiotics.

- there is a vaccine against two adenovirus serotypes but this is only given to military recruits AND that adenovirus infections can mostly be avoided by handwashing.

The resident microbial population of the human fetus is - zero. - sparse. - complex. - symbiotic.

- zero It exists in an immunologically privilaged space.

Algae

-May be green, red, or brown. -Lack roots, stems, leaves, and vascular tissues that are found in terrestrial plants. -Some marine produce neurotoxins that can be concentrated in shellfish and pose a risk of paralytic shellfish poisoning to humans who consume the shellfish. -Both asexual and sexual reproduction occurs among the diversity of species. -Most have a plantlike cell wall composed of cellulose.

Bacteria may survive phagocytosis by: A) preventing fusion of the lysosome with the phagosome AND mimicking host molecules. B) avoiding recognition and attachment of lymphocytes AND lysing the phagosome. C) lysing the phagosome AND mimicking host molecules. D) preventing encounters with phagocytes AND preventing fusion of two phagosomes. E) preventing fusion of the lysosome with the phagosome AND lysing the phagosome.

E) preventing fusion of the lysosome with the phagosome AND lysing the phagosome. It's been eaten by the phagocyte now how to survive? - get out of/lyse the phagosome - prevent fusion of phagosome to lysosome - survive the phagolysosome (few can)

All of the following is/are reservoirs of infection in a hospital setting EXCEPT: A) patient's normal microbiota. B) other patients. C) medical personnel. D) visitors. E) sterile surgical equipment.

E) sterile surgical equipment.

27) One of the most popular taxonomic tools is DNA fingerprinting to develop profiles of organisms. These profiles provide direct information about A) enzymatic activities. B) protein composition. C) the presence of specific genes. D) antigenic composition. E) the similarities between nucleotide sequences.

E) the similarities between nucleotide sequences.

Whole agent vaccines may contain: A) viruses. B) bacteria. C) toxins. D) polysaccharides. E) viruses OR bacteria.

E) viruses OR bacteria. - contains killed microorganisms or inactivated viruses - formalin/chemical treatment - inactivated whole agent vaccines include influenza, rabies and the Salk polio vaccine (text says HepA too).

Members of the Archaea typically thrive in conditions of excessive A. heat. B. acidity. C. alkalinity. D. salinity. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Autoimmunity is typically due to: A. A deficiency in T-cell development B. Transfusion reaction C. IgE and mast cells D. Graft rejection E. Autoantibodies and T cells

E. Autoantibodies and T cells Got this right.

Nystatin is the recommended drug for: A. viral infections of the skin. B. cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) fungal infection. C. infections of the intestine due to Gram-negative bacteria. D. malaria and tuberculosis. E. Candida albicans infections of the oral cavity.

E. Candida albicans infections of the oral cavity. Got this right

Wolbachia are found only in: A. plants. B. marine water. C. hot springs. D. mammals. E. arthropods.

E. arthropods - like insects, spiders and mites

Sequencing of rRNA is useful for A. determining evolutionary relationships. B. determining protein sequences. C. identification of unknown bacteria. D. serological relationships. E. determining evolutionary relationships AND identification of unknown bacteria.

E. determining evolutionary relationships AND identification of unknown bacteria.

Which of the following structures would be the best choice as a biological indicator to test autoclave operations? - Cysts formed by Azotobacter species. - Dormant spores in the conidia of Streptomyces species. - Microcysts within the fruiting bodies of myxobacteria. - Sulfur granules produced by Thiothrix species. - Endospores formed by Geobacillus stearothermophilus.

Endospores formed by Geobacillus stearothermophilus.

What are enzymes? How do they speed up a chemical reaction? How can this initial resistance be overcome in a lab experiment?

Enzymes are organic catalysts that speed up a chemical reaction by lowering the energy of activation. In a lab experiment, this initial resistance can be overcome by application of heat or increasing the concentration of the reactant.

Double-stranded DNA enters the recipient cell during transformation. True False

False

Eukaryotic mRNA usually specifies multiple proteins

False

T-F: ATP molecules are catalysts that lower the activation energy needed to initiate a reaction.

False

T/F - "Flesh-eating" Streptococcus pyogenes is considered a newly emerging disease.

False

T/F - A strong attachment of a microorganism to a host cell automatically leads to disease.

False

T/F - Antibody molecules are very rigid in structure.

False

T/F - T cell receptors are identical to antibodies.

False

T/F - The effectiveness of DNA vaccines stems from the effective production of antibodies against the naked DNA molecule.

False - I suspect the effectiveness of DNA vaccines comes from having the cell use the introduced DNA to make the microbial protein antigen that the body can then mount an immune response to.

Diphtheria is a contagious disease that spreads from person to person mainly by the fecal-oral route. T/F

False - Spread by AIR, acquired via inhalation or from fomites. Cutaneous diphtheria with chronic ulcers - may be a source is a person comes into contact with them.

T/F - Obligate intracellular parasites may be grown in special synthetic media.

False - did you read the 'obligate intracellular parasite' part? An obligate intracellular pathogen may only survive and grow inside a cell.

T/F - Only Gram-positive bacteria produce exotoxins.

False - exotoxin can be produced by both G+ and G- bacteria. Table 16.2

T/F - T cell independent antigens lead to a memory response.

False - memory B cells do not exist for T independent antigens

T/F - A monoclonal antibody is typically IgE and recognizes several epitopes.

False - monoclonal antibodies recognize 1 specific epitope and I'd think they could be which ever class is needed.

T/F - Infection always leads to disease.

False - subclinical infection may cause no damage and have no signs or symptoms.

False Antibiotics don't work on viruses, antivirals do.

Corynebacterium diphtheriae is an invasive, toxin-producing, pleomorphic spore-forming bacterium that aggressively enters tissues and the bloodstream. T/F

False Bacterium stays in the throat - is non-motile = Non-invasive non-spore forming It's the A-B exotoxin it produces (lysogenic conversion) that enters the blood stream and moves throughout the body (toxemia).

T/F - Cross-sectional surveys are very useful in establishing cause of a disease.

False Cross-sectional surveys look at a slice of time - all the factors at one moment, more about seeing what was involved right then.

T/F - The portal of entry typically has little effect on the course of a disease.

False If it gets in the wrong portal of entry it may not be able to cause infection, might just go on to be a part of the normal microbiota.

T/F - The infectious dose of most pathogens is about equal.

False slide 20 - 10-100 cells of Shigella, 10^6 cells of Salmonella = infectious dose for these organisms.

T/F - Anti-Rh antibodies may not cross the placenta.

False - anti-Rh IgG antibodies CAN cross the placenta the second time an Rh- mom carries an Rh+ fetus. The first time she carries same she makes IgM which doesn't cross the placenta.

Translation occurs on ribosomes only in prokaryotes

False, eukaryotes too.

Ag-Ab binding may result in all of the following EXCEPT: A) neutralization. B) immobilization. C) agglutination. D) opsonization. E) fever.

Fever

Operons

Genes that coordinate the regulation of gene expression. Promoter, operator, structural genes, regulatory genes.

Example of spikes on viruses

H and N on the influenza virus.

Which is the most efficient at initiating the classical pathway of the complement cascade? - IgG - IgE - IgD - IgA - IgM

IgM

E Site

In ribosome. The exit site, where discharged tRNAs leave the ribosome.

Negative Control

Inhibition of transcription of the DNA to mRNA by the action of specific repressor proteins. Repressor binds to the operator region of the operon.

Which of the following colonize the vagina during childbearing years? - Enterobacter - Lactobacilli - Clostridium - Clostridium AND lactobacilli - Streptococci

Lactobacilli

Translation Initiation

Large and small ribosomal subunits spontaneously assemble. mRNA binding site for ribosome aligns with the Shine-Dalgarno sequence on mRNA. fMet is first for prokaryotes, Met for eukaryotes.

The bacterial lung infection acquired by inhalation of aerosols of contaminated water is:

Legionnaires' Disease

DNA Ligase

Links together adjacent Okazaki fragments.

Thermoplasma and Picrophilus grow best in which of the following extreme conditions?

Low pH and high temperature

Allergic reactions occur only in people who are sensitized by prior exposure to a specific allergen. Please identify the correct sequence of events that occur in a type I response. 1. The activated B cells proliferate into IgE-producing plasma cells and memory cells. 2. The Fc portion of the IgE binds to Fc receptors on either mast cells or basophils, so that the Fab sites of the antibodies can interact with a specific allergen. 3. Sensitization begins when the first contact with the allergen induces an antibody response—helper T cells activate naive B cells. 4. Cross-linking triggers the mast cell or basophil to undergo degranulation, a process that releases its inflammatory mediators. 5. On second exposure to the antigen, when adjacent IgE molecules on a mast cell or basophil bind to that antigen, the IgE molecules are cross-linked. 6. These inflammatory mediators can have a variety of effects associated with a type I allergy response. A) 3, 4, 1, 2, 5, 6 B) 2, 3, 1, 4, 6, 5 C) 6, 4, 3, 2, 5, 1 D) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4, 6 E) 3, 1, 6, 5, 2, 4

D) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4, 6

Biochemical tests are used to determine A) Staining characteristics. B) Amino acid sequences. C) Nucleic acid-base composition. D) Enzymatic activities. E) All of the above.

D) Enzymatic activities.

Which of the following would be considered a sign of a disease? A) Severe headache B) Throbbing pain C) Intense nausea D) Fever of 39°C E) All of these are signs

D) Fever of 39°C Key word here is SIGN. Signs are objective and others can see/detect them. Symptoms are subjective and patient reported.

Which statement about penicillins is INCORRECT? A) Penicillins + β-lactamase inhibitor is a combination of agents that protects the penicillin against enzymatic digestion. B) Broad-spectrum penicillins are active against penicillin-sensitive Gram-positive bacteria and also many Gram-negative bacteria. C) Some S. aureus strains have the ability to make altered penicillin binding proteins to which most β-lactam antibiotics do not bind as well. D) The penicillins produced naturally by the mold P. chrysogenum are broad-spectrum, effective against all Gram-positive and many Gram-negative bacteria. E) Bacteria that produce penicillinase are resistant to the natural penicillins.

D) The penicillins produced naturally by the mold P. chrysogenum are broad-spectrum, effective against all Gram-positive and many Gram-negative bacteria. - these penicillins are NARROW SPECTRUM

Which of the following about immune complexes is FALSE? A) They consist of antigen-antibody bound together. B) They are usually cleared rapidly from the body. C) They bind to Fc receptors on cells. D) They are involved in type II hypersensitivity reactions. E) They are involved in type III hypersensitivity reactions

D) They are involved in type II hypersensitivity reactions.

Which of the following statements about archaea is false? A) They are prokaryotes. B) They lack peptidoglycan in their cell walls. C) Some are thermoacidophiles; others are extreme halophiles. D) They evolved before bacteria. E) Some produce methane from carbon dioxide and hydrogen.

D) They evolved before bacteria.

A more modern equivalent to Koch's postulates is termed: A) Pasteur's systematics. B) Hoch's postulates. C) atomic theory. D) molecular postulates. E) protein theory.

D) molecular postulates. molecular (Koch's) postulates

Because of the natural evolution of microorganisms, it is necessary to use techniques that allow distinguishing them at the level of: A) species. B) genus. C) family. D) strain. E) domain.

D) strain. Natural evolution of microbes explains why you might not be immune to something later - it evolves and changes just enough.

Delayed-type cell-mediated hypersensitivity is also known as ________ hypersensitivity. A) type I B) type II C) type III D) type IV E) type V

D) type IV There is no type 5.

57. Antimicrobial agents can target the cell wall by A. blocking its synthesis. B. digesting it. C. inhibiting peptidoglycan synthesis. D. All of the choices are correct.

D. All of the choices are correct

E. coli is a Gram-negative bacillus that is found as intestinal normal microbiota. Which of the following would not be useful for an initial step in identifying E. coli O157:H7 strains in a stool sample? A. Growth on selective media, because all strains of E. coli will have the same metabolic capabilities. B. Serology, because E. coli strains all express the same antigens. C. RFLPs, because E. coli strains will be identical at the genome level. D. Gram staining, because E. coli strains will appear identical using this approach. E. These methods can all be used to differentiate between E. coli strains.

D. Gram staining, because E. coli strains will appear identical using this approach.

14. A cleansing method that mechanically removes microbes and other debris to reduce contamination is A. disinfection. B. sterilization. C. antisepsis. D. sanitization. E. degermation.

D. sanitization

7. Which of the following types of control agents would be used to achieve sterility? A. virucide B. bactericide C. germicide D. sporicide E. fungicide

D. sporicide

Which of the following shows the direction genetic information flows?

DNA → RNA → protein

The group of Fungi in which sexual reproduction has not been observed is: Deuteromycetes has been further classified using:

Deuteromycetes. rRNA analysis

Fungal diseases are generally referred to as: A. systemics. B. infections. C. infestations. D. polymorphic. E. mycoses.

If the thymus fails to develop, A) functional T cells are absent. B) functional B cells are absent. C) Di George's syndrome exists. D) complement deficiencies exist. E) functional T cells are absent AND Di George's syndrome exists.

In bacterial cells, when glucose is completely oxidized by all the pathways of aerobic cellular respiration, how many ATP are generated? A. 2 ATP B. 3 ATP C. 24 ATP D. 36 ATP E. 38 ATP

Luminescence A. is catalyzed by luciferase. B. may be controlled by quorum sensing. C. may be produced by bacteria. D. is triggered by high bacterial density. E. All of the choices are correct

Ribozymes are: A. ribosomes which catalyze reactions B. unique to prokaryotes C. unique to eukaryotes D. catalysts for RNA splicing E. catalysts for DNA splicing

Swarmer cells are: A. Characteristic of Pseudomonas aeruginosa. B. formed by Myxobacteria. C.part of the green nonsulfur bacteria. D. also known as coliforms. E. formed by sheathed bacteria.

The most likely place where an exoenzyme participates in a chemical reaction is: A. mitochondria B. within the cell membrane C. lysosomes D. cytoplasm E. outside of the cell

Which of the following do not induce a strong immune response? A) Lipids B) Proteins C) Polysaccharides D) Simple sugars E) Lipids AND simple sugars.

Would a denatured antigen be expected to have the same epitopes as its native (non-denatured) counterpart? Why? A) Yes; epitopes are just a sequence of amino acids in a row, so they do not change regardless of 3D shape of the protein molecule they lie within. B) Yes; all proteins must be broken down into individual epitopes for presentation to B and T cells on MHC molecules, so each antigen protein MUST be denatured to yield ANY epitopes. C) No; ALL epitopes are dependent on being in the proper original 3D conformation of the protein. Denaturing them would destroy them by destroying that conformation. D) No; denaturing an antigen results in epitopes with a different amino acid sequence from those on an intact antigen, so they are not the same at all. E) Yes AND No; SOME epitopes are dependent on 3D conformation (conformational epitopes), while some simply depend on the sequence of amino acids (linear epitopes). So, really, it depends on the particular epitope.

Which of the following is the correct explanation of desensitization? A) In desensitization, a person is injected with dilute preparations of an allergen, causing their immune system to produce IgE against that allergen. The IgE antibodies protect the patient by binding to the antigen, coating it and facilitating its removal before it can attach to bound IgG on mast cells or basophils. B) In desensitization, a person is injected with dilute preparations of an allergen, causing their immune system to produce multiple varied antibodies against that allergen. These antibodies protect the patient by binding to the antigen, coating it and destroying it before it can attach to bound IgE on mast cells or basophils. C) In desensitization, a newborn baby is exposed to multiple common allergens, stimulating the infant's immune system to produce antibodies against those allergens. The antibodies protect the child later in life by binding to any antigens they come into contact with, tagging them for destruction before they cause an allergic response. D) In desensitization, a pregnant woman is injected with dilute preparations of an allergen, causing their immune system to produce IgG against that allergen. The IgG antibodies cross the placenta, protecting the fetus by preventing it from being exposed to those allergens after birth. E) In desensitization, a person is injected with dilute preparations of an allergen, causing their immune system to produce IgG against that allergen. The IgG antibodies protect the patient by binding to the antigen, coating it and facilitating its removal before it can attach to bound IgE on mast cells or basophils.

E) In desensitization, a person is injected with dilute preparations of an allergen, causing their immune system to produce IgG against that allergen. The IgG antibodies protect the patient by binding to the antigen, coating it and facilitating its removal before it can attach to bound IgE on mast cells or basophils.

Which of the following is NOT based on nucleic-acid hybridization? A) DNA chip B) FISH C) PCR D) Southern blotting E) Western blotting

E) Western blotting

A high therapeutic index is: a. more toxic to the patient. b. less toxic to the patient. c. has no effect on the patient. d. has no effect on the pathoge

b. less toxic to the patient. Selective toxicity = means harmful to one, not to the other.

Which does not refer to the shape of a virus? - Helical - Icosahedral - Bacillus - Complex - These are all virus shapes.

bacillus

The cell types that lack a membrane-bound nucleus and have rigid cell walls of peptidoglycan are

bacteria

All members of the penicillin family have: beta-lactam rings. alpha-lactam rings. phenolic rings. sulfanilic rings.

beta-lactam rings. beta-lactamases break the beta-lactam rings and inactivate these antimicrobial drugs.

Attachment of the virus to the host cell (the first step in the viral life cycle) requires:

binding of complementary molecules on the virus and host cell

After entry of the bacteriophage into the host cell, a phage enzyme

breaks the host DNA into fragments.

The anti fungal medication griseofulvin is used to treat: a) vaginal infections b) systemic infections c) nail infections d) eye infections

c) nail infections

Multiple-drug resistant microbes: a. are resistant to all antimicrobial agents b. respond to new antimicrobials by developing resistance c. frequently develop in hospitals d. all of the above

c. frequently develop in hospitals

DNA Polymerase

can only add nucleotides in a certain direction

Cytotoxic T cells primarily are responsible for: - humoral immunity. - anamnestic immunity. - cell-mediated immunity. - producing antibodies. - producing haptens.

cell-mediated immunity

Which world in the description tells us that Hershey and Chase used high speed spinning to separate 2 things?

centrifugation

Plants are dependent on microorganisms for

changing atmospheric nitrogen to a usable form

All fungi have ________ in their cell walls. chitin cellulose peptidoglycan pectin ergesterol

chitin

The site in a photosynthetic eukaryotic cell where photosynthesis occurs is the: - carotenoid. - Golgi. - chloroplast. - nucleus. - mitochondria.

chloroplast.

Two relatively widespread North American lung mycoses are A) candidiasis and coccidioidomycosis. B) candidiasis and aspergillosis. C) aspergillosis and Reyes syndrome. D) coccidioidomycosis and histoplasmosis. E) None of the choices is correct.

coccidioidomycosis and histoplasmosis

__________ are groups of three bases in mRNA that specify one amino acid in the amino acid chain

codons - also called a triplet

Folic acid is ultimately used in the synthesis of topoisomerases. proteins. DNA gyrases. sulfonamides. coenzymes.

coenzymes.

If the side chains of amino acids contain carboxyl (-COOH) groups, they

contribute a negative charge to the amino acid at pH 10 AND are considered acidic amino acids.

The conversion of ammonium to nitrate could be accomplished by the presence of: - Nitrosomonas, Nitrobacter, and Anabaena. - Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter. - Anabaena alone. - Nitrosomonas alone. - Nitrobacter alone.

Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter.

Which of the following statements is true about the relationship between natural selection and mutation? A) Natural selection creates mutations. B) Mutations assist natural selection. C) Mutations produce natural selection. D) Natural selection does not rely on mutations. E) None of the above are true.

No answer - I think it's B.

Would ID50 and LD50 necessarily be the same for a given virus? Why or why not?

No, because a virus may be highly infectious (very low ID50 value) but only marginally lethal (very high LD50 value), for example the rhinovirus (common cold virus).

Adenoviral pharyngitis is effectively treated with: A) antibiotics. B) lysozyme. C) proteases. D) nucleotide analogs. E) None of the choices is correct.

None of the choices is correct.

Viruses are in the group

None of the choices is correct.

Burst size

Number of phage particles released -for T4 phages, it is around 200

On one of the strands of bacterial DNA, the new complementary strand is synthesized discontinuously into small pieces of DNA called _______

Okazaki fragments

Semi Conservative

One original strand and one new strand make up a new DNA.

You are sent three clinical samples and are asked to determine whether they are the same strain. You perform standard identification techniques but cannot come to a conclusion. You decide to do an RFLP test. You digest the genomes of the organisms with the same restriction enzyme and run a gel. Each organism yields 5 bands on the gel, of the following sizes: Organism A: 3 kb, 7 kb, 11 kb; 14 kb, 21 kb; Organism B: 3 kb, 7 kb, 2 kb, 8 kb, 11 kb; Organism C: 11 kb, 3 kb, 14 kb, 7 kb; 21 kb What conclusion(s) can you make from this result?

Organisms A and C are likely the same strain but are different from organism B.

The initial transfer RNA occupies the _______ site on the ribosome

P site

Which of the following most accurately describes the pathogenesis of inhalation anthrax? A) EF binds to host cell membranes, forming a pore that allows PA or LF to enter the cells, where they disrupt critical cell functions. This triggers a series of events that cause death of the cell resulting in pulmonary edema. B) PA binds to host cell membranes, forming a pore that allows EF or LF to enter the cells, where they disrupt critical cell functions. This triggers a series of events that cause death of the cell resulting in pulmonary edema. C) LF binds to host cell membranes, forming a pore that allows EF or PA to enter the cells, where they disrupt critical cell functions. This triggers a series of events that cause death of the cell resulting in pulmonary edema. D) PA and EF bind to host cell membranes, forming a pore that allows LF to enter the cells, where they disrupt critical cell functions. This triggers a series of events that cause death of the cell resulting in pulmonary edema. E) EF and LF bind to host cell membranes, forming a pore that allows PA to enter the cells, where it disrupts critical cell functions. This triggers a series of events that cause death of the cell resulting in pulmonary edema.

PA binds to host cell membranes, forming a pore that allows EF or LF to enter the cells, where they disrupt critical cell functions. This triggers a series of events that cause death of the cell resulting in pulmonary edema. See, the endospores sit in the lungs for up to 60 days before they head to the chest lymph nodes to germinate but the vegetative cells make 3 proteins that function together as anthrax toxin to kill phagocytes and damage surrounding tissues. p.558 "First, PA (protective antigen) binds to host cells, forming a pore that allows EF (edema factor) or LF (lethal factor) to enter the cells, where they disrupt critical cell functions. This results in pulmonary edema, and triggers a series of events that cause death of the cell."

- is a molecule that contains a beta-lactam nucleus - prevents the cross linking of carbs in peptidoglycan in cell walls - can cause an anaphylactic reaction in sensitive individuals - includes semisynthetic derivatives such as amoxicillin and ampicillin

Penicillin

Why did scientists originally believe that genetic material was protein rather than DNA?

Proteins are more complex in structure than DNA; they though DNA was too simple in structure to have such an important cellular role

Members of this group cause malaria and diarrheal illnesses such as amebiasis and giardiasis. Many members of this group are motile by means of cilia, flagella, or pseudopods

Protozoa

Which of these scientist(s) was/were involved in, among other things, investigating the idea of spontaneous generation?

Redi AND pasteur

Which of these scientist(s) was/were involved in, among other things, investigating the idea of spontaneous generation?

Redi and Pasteur

Positive Control

Regulator (activator) protein facilitates the binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter. CAP-cAMP (low when glucose is present, accumulates when glucose is absent. Binds to CAP protein near promoter of lac operon).

Okazaki Fragments

Relatively short fragment of DNA synthesized on the lagging strand during DNA replication.

About 60% of the bacterial pneumonias that require hospitalization of adults are caused by: A) S. pyogenes. B) S. pneumoniae. C) S. aureus. D) K. pneumoniae. E) M. pneumoniae.

S. pneumoniae - G+ diplococci, with capsule

RNA Structure

Single stranded with nucleotide bases. Ribose sugar.

Primase

Synthesizes a RNA primer so DNA polymerase III can add on to a 3' OH. Makes a series of RNA primers.

True or False: F plasmids and oftentimes R plasmids are both able to code for production of a pilus

What component of RNA is different from one person (or bacterium) to the next?

The order or nitrogenous bases

Why is it so important to protect against influenza?

The vaccine is fairly effective in protecting against the flu. However, a problem comes from the changing nature of the flu virus. The antibody generated from the last exposure may be useless against the next iteration of the virus. The virus has several segments of RNA and is also found in animals. Both of these characteristics allow for changing and mixing of the nucleic acid, which may be reflected in changes in the antigenic nature of the virus. Therefore, every year there is a possibility that the antigens have changed enough from the last infection to be unrecognizable. In particular, the changes appear in the neuraminidase and hemagglutinin molecules coating the virus.

T/F - A human fetus has no resident microbial population.

True - fetus is sterile inside mom.

T/F - Otitis media is an infection of the middle ear that is rare in the first month of life.

True - it becomes very common in early childhood, children who use pacifiers after age 2 have an increased risk of developing otitis media. Older children develop immunity to H. influenzae and the bacterium rarely causes otitis media in children older then 5. Sinusitis affects adults and older children.

T/F - Alum is an adjuvant.

True - the most common adjuvant actually

A lysogen is: - a temperate phage that can insert its DNA into the host's DNA. - a bacterium that carries phage DNA (a prophage) integrated into its genome. - an insect that carries virus DNA in its genome. - a bacteriophage that lyses its host as a result of its replication cycle. - a bacteriophage that carries bacterial DNA integrated into its genome.

a bacterium that carries phage DNA (a prophage) integrated into its genome.

Coccidioidomycosis is: - a protozoan disease caused by Candida sp. - a viral disease caused by Coccidioides sp. - a protozoan disease caused by Coccidioides sp. - a fungal disease caused by Candida sp. - a fungal disease caused by Coccidioides sp.

a fungal disease caused by Coccidioides sp. - Valley Fever - The name and the myco- = fungal was the give away.

All of the following interfere with the function of the ribosomes except: a) fluoroquinolones b) lincosamides c) macrolides d) streptogramins e) tetracyclines

a) fluoroquinolones

In a Kirby-Bauer susceptibility test, the presence of a zone of inhibition around disks containing anitmicrobial agents indicates: a. that the microbe does not grow in the presence of the agents b. that the microbe grows well in the presence of the agents c. the smallest amount of the agent that will inhabit the growth of the microbe d. the minimum amount of an agent that kills the microbe in question

a. that the microbe does not grow in the presence of the agents

If an organism lost the ability to make primase, what would it be unable to do?

add a short sequence of complementary RNA to the existing DNA strand

Most fungi are: - obligate anaerobes. - microaerophiles. - photosynthetic. - aerobes or facultative anaerobes. - obligate aerobes.

aerobes or facultative anaerobes

Agar is obtained from: - protozoans. - bacteria. - plants. - algae. - yeasts.

algae

Which group(s) below contain single-celled and multicellular organisms?

algae AND fungi

The largest group of chemical mutagens consists of radiation. base analogs. nitrous acid. alkylating agents.

alkylating agents

Smallpox!!!

all of the choices are correct.

Proteins

are involved in almost every important function performed by a cell AND comprise more than 50% of the dry weight of a cell

The methanogens: - are part of the domain Archaea AND appear only in aerobic environments. - are part of the domain Archaea AND oxidize hydrogen gas to produce methane. - use oxygen as a terminal electron acceptor AND appear only in aerobic environments. - oxidize hydrogen gas to produce methane AND appear only in aerobic environments. - use oxygen as a terminal electron acceptor AND oxidize hydrogen gas to produce methane.

are part of the domain Archaea AND oxidize hydrogen gas to produce methane.

Pseudomonas

are resistant to many disinfectants and antimicrobials AND are mostly harmless except for the opportunistic P. aeruginosa.

Ribozymes

are self-catalytic RNA AND suggest that nucleic acids evolved before proteins

Haustoria... 1. are specialized hyphae used by parasitic fungi. 2. are a form of parasitic protozoan. 3. are the reproductive form of protozoans. 4. are a type of root used by all climbing plants. 5. refers to the reproductive structure formed by slime molds.

are specialized hyphae used by parasitic fungi.

Which determines the chemical and physical properties of an atom of an element?

atomic number

The target of the sulfonamides is: a) cytoplasmic membrane proteins b) folate synthesis c) gyrase d) peptidoglycan biosynthesis e) RNA polymerase

b) folate synthesis

Lysozyme does which of the following? a. Disrupts cell membranes b. Hydrolyzes peptidoglycan c. Waterproofs skin d. Propels gastrointestinal contents e. Propels the cilia of the respiratory tract

b. Hydrolyzes peptidoglycan

Routine antimicrobial therapy to treat tuberculosis involves taking: a) one medication for 10 days b) two or more medications for 10 days c) one medication for at least 6 months d) two or more medications for at least 6 months e) five medications for 2 years

d) two or more medications for at least 6 months

Staphylococcus aureus strains referred to as HA-MRSA are sensitive to: a) methicillin b) penicillin c) most cephalosporins d) vancomycin e) none of the above

d) vancomycin

The zone size obtained in the Kirby-Bauer test is influenced by the drug's: a. size. b. stability. c. concentration. d. All of the choices are correct.

d. All of the choices are correct.

Drugs that are bacteriostatic: a. kill bacteria. b. promote bacterial growth. c. inactivate bacterial spores. d. inhibit the growth of bacteria.

d. inhibit the growth of bacteria. Bacteriocidal = kills bacteria

Cross resistance is: a. the deactivation of an antimicrobial agent by a bacterial enzyme b. alteration of the resistant cells so that an antimicrobial agent cannot attach c. the mutation of genes that affect the cell membrane channels so that antimicrobial agents cannot cross into the cell's interior d. resistance to one antimicrobial agent because of its similarity to another antimicrobial agent

d. resistance to one antimicrobial agent because of its similarity to another antimicrobial agent

PABA is: a. a substrate used in the production of penicillin b. a type of B-lactamase c. molecularly similar to cephalosporins d. used to synthesize folic acid

d. used to synthesize folic acid

The hypersensitivity treatment that stimulates an increase of IgG and regulatory T cells, as well as causes a decrease in IgE, is known as: A) desensitization. B) immunity. C) sensitization. D) exposure. E) anaphylaxis.

desensitization

hemagglutination assay:

determines highest dilution of virus that causes red blood cells to clump together

The major class(es) of antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis is/are: a. aminoglycosides. b. tetracyclines. c. macrolides. d. bacitracins. e. aminoglycosides, tetracyclines AND macrolides

e. aminoglycosides, tetracyclines AND macrolides Bacitracins mess with cell wall synthesis.

Beta-lactamases: a. bind to penicillin-binding proteins. b. bind to peptides. c. prevent the linking of glycan d. chains in peptidoglycan. e. break the beta-lactam ring.

e. break the beta-lactam ring.

Sulfonamide and trimethoprim are both: a. examples of metabolic inhibitors. b. folate inhibitors. c. protein synthesis inhibitors. d. inhibitors of cell wall synthesis. e. examples of metabolic inhibitors AND folate inhibitors.

e. examples of metabolic inhibitors AND folate inhibitors. animal cells can't make folate, we have to supplement it.

The diffusion bioassay: a. determines the concentration of antimicrobial necessary to kill a bacteria. b. determines the concentration of antimicrobial necessary to inhibit growth of a bacteria. c. is similar in principal to the Kirby-Bauer test. d. determines the concentration of antimicrobial in a fluid. e. is similar in principal to the Kirby-Bauer test AND determines the concentration of antimicrobial in a fluid.

e. is similar in principal to the Kirby-Bauer test AND determines the concentration of antimicrobial in a fluid.

Antiviral drugs may target: a. uncoating. b. nucleic acid synthesis. c. viral assembly. d. viral ribosomes. e. uncoating, nucleic acid synthesis AND viral assembly

e. uncoating, nucleic acid synthesis AND viral assembly

One bacterial chromosome replicates to become 2 chromosomes with

each made of one strand of DNA from the original chromosome and one newly synthesized strand

The part of the atom that is most involved in chemical reactivity is the

electron

If reasonably pure preparations of virus are available, the number of virus present may be determined by: - light microscopy. - photocolorimetry. - gas chromatography. - spectrophotometry. - electron microscopy.

electron microscopy.

endocytosis OR fusion

The structures present in the hay infusions used in experiments on Spontaneous Generation that made them difficult to sterilize are

endospores.

Binding of an activator to an activator binding site on DNA

enhances the ability of RNA polymerase to bind to the promoter site

One advantage of having genetic control mechanisms is

enzymes are only produced when they are needed

A scientist discovers a new species near coral reefs in Australia. He finds that this single-celled species is photosynthetic (using sunlight for energy), has a rigid cell wall structure with no peptidoglycan, uses a flagellum for motion, and contains a variety of internal structures that are bound by plasma membranes. Given this information, this new species is most likely a ______ cell in the _____ subcategory.

eukaryotic; algae

The phages T4 (lytic) and lambda (temperate) share all of the following characteristics EXCEPT

existing as a prophage

Prokaryotic Translation

fMet is the first amino acid of the growing polypeptide chain. Can occur simultaneously with transcription. Has Shine-Dalgarno sequence. Read in 5' to 3' direction. Processing: fMet is removed, cofactors attached, quarternary structures formed, activation.

Viruses simultaneously contain DNA, RNA, and protein.

false

The bacterial viruses that are released by a process termed extrusion are called: - filamentous phages. - lambda viruses. - temperate phages. - helical phages. - lysogenic viruses.

filamentous phages.

Bacteria have been used to help produce or modify food products

for several thousand years

What is an isotope?

forms of the same element that contain equal numbers of protons but different numbers of neutrons

In addition to investigations with bacteria that led to him being considered the Father of Microbiology, Pasteur also

found that some molecules can exist as stereoisomers AND separated organic acids using a microscope.

If the side chains of amino acids contain the ammonium ion, they readily form ions that

give positive electric charges to the amino acid AND are described as basic amino acids.

To increase the chance of detecting carcinogens in the Ames Test, the test substance is treated with penicillin. heat. ground up rat liver. reverse transcriptase. penicillin AND heat.

ground up rat liver

Eucarya

have a more complex internal structure than archaea or bacteria AND have a membrane around the DNA.

Diseases such as ulcers and cardiovascular disease

have been shown to be, or may be due to, a bacterial infection.

early in the process of DNA replication, the enzyme _________ separates the two strands

helicase

The best known chronic infection involves: - herpes. - hepatitis B. - chickenpox. - hepatitis A. - influenza.

hepatitis B

The best-known examples of viruses that cause latent infections are: - measles AND chickenpox. - polio AND herpes. - herpes AND measles. - herpes AND chickenpox. - chickenpox AND polio.

herpes AND chickenpox.

Lyme disease is an example of a disease that is due to

increased interaction between humans and tick-carrying animals.

The molecules that bind to a repressor and cause it to no longer bind to the operator are called

inducers

Planar molecules used as chemical mutagens are called nitrous oxide. base analogs. alkylating agents. intercalating agents.

intercalating agents

Sulfuric acid is

involved in bioleaching AND produced by unicellular sulfur-oxidizers.

If electrons are gained or lost in the formation of a bond, the bond is termed

ionic.

Charged atoms are termed

ions.

The idea of spontaneous Generation postulated that

living organisms could spontaneously arise from non-living material.

In Gram-negative bacteria many of the genes required for pathogenicity are:

located close together on chromosomes in regions called pathogenicity islands.

The phenomenon responsible for the ability of Corynebacterium diphtherium to produce the virulent toxin responsible for the devastating effects of diphtheria is called: - self-assembly. - phase variation. - matrix conversion. - lysogenic conversion. - prion protein.

lysogenic converstion

Antigens may be processed for presentation by: - T cytotoxic cells, B cells, AND dendritic cells. - dendritic cells AND erythrocytes. - macrophages, B cells, AND dendritic cells. - macrophages AND erythrocytes. - erythrocytes, macrophages, AND dendritic cells.

macrophages, B cells, AND dendritic cells.

Organisms

may be classified in three domains

Newly emerging or re-emerging diseases

may be due to changing lifestyles, are exemplified by Lyme Disease and toxic shock syndrome AND may reflect a breakdown in sanitation/social order.

Nematodes: - includes the trematodes. - are carried by bacteria and fungi. - may enter the gastrointestinal tract or the blood. - only infect aquatic plants. - have flat, segmented bodies.

may enter the gastrointestinal tract or the blood.

Dimorphic fungi - may grow as mycelia or yeast AND are mushrooms. are strictly hyphae AND are often associated with disease in humans. - are often associated with disease in humans AND are mushrooms. - are strictly yeasts AND are often associated with disease in humans. - may grow as mycelia or yeast AND are often associated with disease in humans.

may grow as mycelia or yeast AND are often associated with disease in humans.

A new organism was found that was unicellular and 1 cm long. The "large" size of this organism alone would

mean little

Schizogony: 1. means multiple fissions AND is performed by protozoa. 2.is performed by protozoa AND is a type of reproduction. 3.is a form of reproduction AND means multiple fissions. 4.is performed by bacteria AND is performed by protozoa. 5.means multiple fissions AND is performed by bacteria.

means multiple fissions AND is performed by protozoa.

The terms yeast, mold, and mushrooms refers to: - fungal - morphology. - nutrition. - reproduction. - parasites. - staining.

morphology

Complex structures called fruiting bodies are a characteristic of: - Streptomyces. - myxobacteria. - lactic acid bacteria. - Clostridia. - bacilli.

myxobacteria.

L-amino acids occur in proteins and are designated

natural AND left handed.

Atoms that gain electrons are now

negatively charged.

The uncharged component of the atom is the

neutron.

RNA is a chain of ______

nucleotides

Both viruses and viroids are capable of independent reproduction. obligate intracellular parasites. larger than most bacteria in size. interdependent with one another for reproduction.

obligate intracellular parasites.

In specialized transduction

only bacterial genes near the site of integration of the phage DNA can be transduced.

Viruses, viroids and prions all

operate intracellularly AND may be considered acellular agents of disease.

A _______ is a cluster of genes that perform related functions, found in ____________

operon, prokaryotes

The properties of a cell which are determined by its DNA composition are its phenotype. genotype. metabolism. nucleoid.

phenotype

3 basic parts of a DNA nucleotide are

phosphate deoxyribose sugar nitrogenous base

What 3 components make up RNA subunits?

phosphate nitrogenous base ribose sugar

Free-floating, photosynthetic organisms found in marine environments are blue-green algae. phytoplankton. omega-3s Bucella. krill.

phytoplankton

Spongiform encephalopathy occurs in all of the following EXCEPT - humans. - plants. - sheep. - cattle. - cattle AND sheep.

plants

The cells that actually secrete antibodies are: - naive B cells. - natural killer cells. - plasma cells. - phagocytes. - T cells.

plasma cells

Bdellovibrio species: - are parasites of plants. - are filamentous. - may fix nitrogen. - prey on other bacteria. - are photosynthetic.

prey on other bacteria.

The ability to exist as either a trophozoite or a cyst is characteristic of many: - bacteria. - archaea. - protozoa. - fungi. - viruses.

protozoa

DNA polymerase

requires a template for the synthesis of DNA

Streptomyces

resemble fungi in their pattern of growth AND produce a number of antibiotics.

The carbohydrate(s) found in nucleic acids is/are

ribose AND deoxyribose

Which of the following is found in RNA but not in DNA?

ribose AND uracil

Weak bonds are important for the ______________ structure of proteins.

secondary, tertiary AND quarternary

One of the earliest antimicrobials isolated from a bacterium was: penicillin. ampicillin. Salvarsan. streptomycin.

streptomycin. Waksman isolated a bacterium from soil, Streptomyces griseus, that produced an antibiotic he called streptomycin - antibiotic (naturally produced antimicrobial) Molds and bacteria can produce antibiotics. - (Fleming) penicillin from a mold, ampicillin - a penicillin derivative, Salvarsan (arsphenamine) is an arsenic compound (Ehrlich)

The virulence of the tubercle bacillus is due to its: A) toxin. B) lysogenic conversion. C) resistance to antibiotics. D) survival within macrophages. E) lysogenic conversion AND resistance to antibiotics.

survival within macrophages. Look at your PP notes - I laid it all out nice and neat in the notes. - airborne cells inhaled into lungs - Alveolar macrophages engulf; unable to destroy - Mycolic acids prevent fusion of phagosome with lysosomes - Bacteria exit, multiply within macrophage's cytoplasm

Drugs that are more effective when taken together are called: energetic. antagonistic. subtractive. synergistic.

synergistic. Antagonistic ones interfere with each other.

Unlike DNA, RNA is usually single-stranded

true

tRNA

type of RNA molecule that carries amino acids to the growing peptide chain during translation

mRNA

type of RNA molecule that contains the genetic information decoded during translation

The most important molecule(s) in the world is (are)

water

Which phylum of protozoa contains organisms that are non-motile, obligate intracellular parasites? - Euglenozoa - Amoebozoa - Apicomplexa - ciliates

Apicomplexa

The earliest oxygenic phototrophs are thought to be: A. purple non-sulfur bacteria. B. cyanobacteria. C. cyanoarchaea. D. green non-sulfur bacteria. E. purple sulfur bacteria.

B. cyanobacteria

T-F: Only yeast produces alcohol as a fermentation product.

False

T/F - All antigens are immunogens.

False

T/F - DNA vaccines are dangerous due to the possibility of the DNA causing reversion in the inactivated pathogen.

False

T/F - Fungi are often capable of locomotion through the use of flagella.

False

T/F - If each of two bacteria have a GC content of 50%, they are both definitely closely related.

False

T/F - First exposure to an allergen results in a violent hypersensitivity reaction.

False - first exposure is all about Sensitization.

T/F - Generalized anaphylaxis may be quickly controlled with the use of antihistamines.

False - get you an epinephrine pen!

T/F - Algae may directly infect humans and cause disease.

False - indirectly - toxins

T/F - Mismatch of either the Rh antigen or the AB antigen results in lysis of red blood cells by complement.

True

T/F - Streptococci are grouped by their cell wall carbohydrates.

True

T/F - The most successful parasites are the ones that live in harmony with their hosts.

True

If the infecting phage lacks some critical pieces of DNA necessary for replication, it is called: - incomplete. - defective. - mutated. - vegetative. - carcinogenic.

defective

Viruses

(NOT)are obligate intracellular parasites AND are single-celled organisms.

Adenovirus Respiratory Tract Infections -

- Adenoviruses are widespread, cause a dif types of infection depending on the viral serotype. - some cause a sore throat, others eye infections Adenoviruses are representative of the many viruses that cause upper respiratory tract infections characterized by FEVER. Symptoms look much like the common cold but with FEVER - 5-10 days after infection, sore throat, pus on pharynx and tonsils - is why this can be CONFUSED WITH STREP THROAT. - Lymph nodes large/tender, mild cough maybe. - Conjuntivitis and diarrhea maybe. - if severe cough with chest pain, can be mistaken for Pnuemonia - recovery in 1-3 wks

Fungi that are important for fermentation of fruits: - are yeasts. - are facultative anaerobes. - grow well at acid pH. - secrete enzymes that degrade organic molecules. - All of the choices are correct.

- All of the choices are correct

Legionella pneumophila may be found in: - soil and aquatic ecosystems. - air-conditioning systems. - shower stalls. - All of the choices are correct.

- All of the choices are correct.

Which class of antibody accounts for most of the circulating antibodies? A) IgD B) IgA C) IgM D) IgE E) IgG

- IgG There is a pic: in primary response of adaptive immunity some IgM is made and a little more IgG is made with a small hill. In secondary response there is a little IgM bump and a HIGE IgG response that turns downward as antigen is bound, pathogen is defeated and the amount of antibody decreases.

What was the first practical antimicrobial agent to be widely used? - Penicillin - Vancomycin - Sulfanilamide - Arsenic compounds

- Sulfanilamide Scientist responsible for the discovery of sulfanilamide, the first practical antimicrobial agent used to treat a wide array of bacterial infections. Gerhard Domagk.

The virulence of Klebsiella is due partly to the: A) motility of the organism AND exotoxin produced. B) structure and organization of flagella. C) structure of their pili AND exotoxin produced. D) antiphagocytic properties of their capsules. E) exotoxin produced AND antiphagocytic properties of their capsules.

- antiphagocytic properties of their capsules. Can get into bloodstream and produce endotoxic shock though. K. pneumoniae is G- rod. G- have LPS in their outer membrane. LPS = endotoxin.

Diphtheria is treated with: - antitoxin and antibiotics. - anti-inflammatory drugs and antibiotics. - DPT vaccine. - diuretic drugs and antibiotics.

- antitoxin and antibiotics. Antibiotics to kill the bacteria and antitoxin to stop the toxin.

If the body recognizes parts of itself as being foreign, this is termed: A) immunodeficiency disease. B) agammaglobulinemia. C) autoimmune disease. D) AIDS. E) hypersensitivity.

- autoimmune disease

A positive (+) strand of RNA: The negative (-) sense strand of RNA:

- can directly act as mRNA - is used to synthesize more (+) strands.

The surface receptors on B and T cells both: - have two binding sites for antigen. - play the same role in each type of cell. - play the same role in each type of cell AND bind to free antigen. - have variable and constant regions. - bind to free antigen.

- have variable and constant regions.

The Fc region on IgG: - interacts with complement AND attaches to receptors on macrophages. - reacts with and coats the antigen AND attaches to receptors on macrophages. - attaches to receptors on macrophages AND contains a variable region. - reacts with and coats the antigen AND interacts with complement. - interacts with complement AND contains a variable region.

- interacts with complement AND attaches to receptors on macrophages.

Fungi are classified according to their - mode of locomotion. - this is protozoans - cap color. - morphology. - method of sexual reproduction. - mode of nutrition.

- method of sexual reproduction. - found it. slide 18 - The sexual forms (of reproduction) play an important role in FUNGAL CLASSIFICATION and some are commercially valuable.

The rhinovirus contains: - single-stranded RNA. - double-stranded RNA. - double-stranded DNA. - multiple pieces of single-stranded DNA.

- single-stranded RNA.

The signs and symptoms of adenovirus respiratory tract infections may be confused with those of: A) pneumonia AND tuberculosis. B) tuberculosis AND diphtheria. C) pertussis AND pneumonia. D) strep throat AND pneumonia. E) strep throat AND pertussis.

- strep throat AND pneumonia.

Organisms that are found together and interact on a more or less permanent basis are in a relationship termed: A) mutualism. B) parasitism. C) symbiosis. D) transient microbiota. E) variance.

- symbiosis Symbiotic relationships = MUTUALISM - both parties benefit COMMENSALISM - one party benefits without harming the other PARASITISM - one party benefits at the expense of the other.

The genus of bacteria that is able to fix nitrogen and form heterocysts is

-Anabeana

FALSE

1) The cell membranes of all three domains are composed of straight carbon chains attached to glycerol by ester linkage.

D) They evolved before bacteria.

1) Which of the following statements about archaea is FALSE? A) They are prokaryotes. B) They lack peptidoglycan in their cell walls. C) Some are thermoacidophiles; others are extreme halophiles. D) They evolved before bacteria. E) Some produce methane from carbon dioxide and hydrogen.

Which are the three ways in which fungi cause illness in humans? 1. Hypersensitivity - person has allergic reaction to fungal components. 2. Intoxication - fungus produces a toxin that is ingested. 3. Immune suppression - fungus destroys all red blood cells. 4. Infection - fungus grows on body as a mycosis. -- 1. 1, 2, and 4 2. 4 only 3. 2, 3, and 4 4. 1, 3, and 4 5. 1, 2, and 3

1. 1, 2, and 4

Miscellaneous infections to know

1. Amoebiasis 2. Periodontal disease 3. Leukemias 4. Fungal keratitis 5. H5N1 6. SARS

Fungal infections

1. Aspergillosis 2. PCP 3. Coccidiomycosis 4. Histoplasmosis 5. Sporotrichosis 6. Malassezia

Examples of Zoonoses

1. Bubonic plague 2. Tularemia 3. Brucellosis 4. Pasteurella multocida 5. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

Common antifungals

1. Clotrimazole 2. Nystatin 3. Fluconazole 4. Amphotericin 5. Echinocandins

Parasitic infections

1. Giardiasis 2. Malaria 3. Hookworm 4. Trichinosis 5. Pinworm 6. Elephantiasis

Herpes associated pathogens/illnesses

1. HSV1 2. HSV2 3. Varicella-Zoster 4. EBV - mononucleosis 5. HHV6 - Roseola

Hepatitis illnesses

1. Hepatitis A 2. Hepatitis B - Acute 3. Hepatitis B - Chronic 4. Hepatitis C 5. Heptatitis E

Common STDs

1. Human Papillomavirus 2. Chlamydia 3. Gonorrhea 4. Syphilis 5. Chanroid 6. Trichomoniasis

Cardiovascular and Lymphatic System pathogens

1. Lyme disease 2. Streptococcus mutans 3. Staphylococcus aureus/epidermididis 4. Yellow Fever 5. Trench Fever 6. Yersinia pestis

Genitourinary Tract infections

1. Proteus mirabilis 2. Pseudomonas aeruginosa 3. Bacterial vaginosis 4. VVC 5. Gardnerella 6. Leptospirosis

Cold and Flu

1. Respiratory syncytial virus 2. H. influenza type B 3. influenza A 4. Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome 5. Rhinovirus

Common causes of diarrhea

1. Shigella 2. Enterohemorrhagic E. Coli (ETEC) 3. Vibrio cholerae 4. Salmonella 5. Campylobacter

One of the greatest causes of human deaths through time has been due to: 1.Plasmodium spp. 2.Giardia spp. 3.Escherichia spp. 4.Trypanosoma spp. 5.Histoplasma spp.

1.Plasmodium spp. - causes malaria

D) capability of a microbe to perform a specific enzymatic activity

10) A biochemical test, in the microbiology world, is used to determine A) staining characteristics. B) amino acid sequences of enzymes. C) nucleic acid-base composition of DNA sequences. D) capability of a microbe to perform a specific enzymatic activity. E) All of the answers are correct.

D) Viruses are not composed of cells.

13) Which of the following statements is a reason for NOT classifying viruses in one of the three domains of life (Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya) rather than in a fourth separate domain? A) Some viruses can incorporate their genome into a host's genome. B) Viruses direct anabolic pathways of host cells. C) Viruses are obligate parasites. D) Viruses are not composed of cells. E) All of the answers are correct.

E) cladogram

14) Which of the following provides taxonomic information that includes the information obtained in the others listed? A) nucleic acid hybridization B) nucleic acid-base composition C) amino acid sequencing D) biochemical tests E) cladogram

D) 3.5 billion years ago

15) Fossil evidence indicates that prokaryotic cells first existed on the Earth A) 350 years ago. B) 3500 years ago. C) 35000 years ago. D) 3.5 billion years ago. E) 3.5 × 1012 years ago.

D) d

16) In Figure 10.1, species "c." is most closely related to which of the following? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e

The last case of naturally contracted smallpox occurred in: A) 1900. B) 1950. C) 1965. D) 1977. E) 1989.

1977 - in Somalia, Africa. The WHO started an aggressive vaccination campaign and smallpox is now said to be completely irradicated.

The return of carbon dioxide to the atmosphere and nitrogen to the soil is due to the action of: 1. fungi and viruses. 2. fungi and bacteria. 3. viruses and plants. 4. plants and bacteria. 5. bacteria and viruses.

2. fungi and bacteria.

Lice and mites... 1. cause Lyme disease. 2. may both be spread by personal contact. 3. are both arachnids. 4. are intestinal parasites. 5. both cause respiratory illness.

2. may both be spread by personal contact.

The end of the nucleic acid chain that grows by adding more nucleotides is always the

3 prime end

TRUE

3) As molecular techniques improve, scientists are finding it necessary to reclassify some genera.

A) Citrobacter

39) Use the dichotomous key in Table 10.2 to identify a gram-negative cell that ferments lactose and uses citric acid as its sole carbon source. A) Citrobacter B) Escherichia C) Lactobacillus D) Pseudomonas E) Staphylococcus

FALSE

4) The highest level in the current taxonomic hierarchy is "Kingdom."

B) Members absorb dissolved organic matter.

4) What is the outstanding characteristic of the Kingdom Fungi? A) All members are photosynthetic. B) Members absorb dissolved organic matter. C) Members absorb dissolved inorganic matter. D) All members are microscopic. E) All members are macroscopic.

Select the TRUE statement regarding algae. 1. Algae are plants and therefore possess a highly organized vascular system. 2. Algae are generally saprophytic, living off dead and decaying matter. 3. Some algae can directly cause infectious diseases in humans and other animals. 4. Although most algae have a cellulose/pectin cell wall, some algae lack a cell wall. 5.Algae always reproduce sexually, producing both haploid and diploid generations.

4. Although most algae have a cellulose/pectin cell wall, some algae lack a cell wall.

A) Neisseria

40) Use the dichotomous key in Table 10.2 to identify a gram-negative coccus. A) Neisseria B) Pseudomonas C) Staphylococcus D) Streptococcus E) Micrococcus

A) Animalia

41) Into which group would you place a multicellular organism that has a mouth and lives inside the human liver? A) Animalia B) Fungi C) Plantae D) Firmicutes (gram-positive bacteria) E) Proteobacteria (gram-negative bacteria)

E) Proteobacteria (gram-negative bacteria)

42) Into which group would you place a photosynthetic organism that lacks a nucleus and has a thin peptidoglycan wall surrounded by an outer membrane? A) Animalia B) Fungi C) Plantae D) Firmicutes (gram-positive bacteria) E) Proteobacteria (gram-negative bacteria)

B) Micrococcus and Mycobacterium

43) In the cladogram shown in Figure 10.4, which two organisms are most closely related? A) Streptomyces and Micrococcus B) Micrococcus and Mycobacterium C) Mycobacterium and Lactobacillus D) Streptomyces and Lactobacillus E) Streptomyces and Mycobacterium

There are ________ major families of DNA-containing viruses that infect vertebrates.

D) is a population of cells with similar characteristics.

8) A bacterial species differs from a species of eukaryotic organisms in that a bacterial species A) does not breed with other species. B) has a limited geographical distribution. C) can be distinguished from other bacterial species. D) is a population of cells with similar characteristics. E) breeds with its own species.

Trp Operon

A group of genes that are used together that codes for the components for production of tryptophan.

Mutation

A permanent change in the DNA or RNA sequence.

Immunity to superinfection (infection of a cell at a later time with a second, identical bacteriophage) is a consequence of lysogeny. Why does this occur?

A repressor produced by the first virus will actively suppress the lytic cycle of the second virus.

A.Wherein a parasite sexually reproduces B. Taxonomic category of related organisms, usually containing several species; the first name of an organism in the Binomial System of Nomenclature C. Flowchart of tests used for identifying an organism; each test gives either a positive or negative result D. Characteristic structures of motility in spirochetes E. The group of Gram-negative oxygenic phototrophs genetically related to chloroplasts

A. Definitive Host B. Genus C. Dichotamous Key D. Endoflagella E. Cyanobacteria

A. The procedure using labeled antibody molecules to detect specific proteins that have been separated by gel electrophoresis B. The generalized allergic reaction caused by IgE, resulting in a profound drop in blood pressure C. The modified form of a toxin that is no longer toxic but still able to stimulate the production of antibodies capable of neutralizing the toxin D. The measure of the concentration of a substances in solution E. The specific unresponsiveness of the adaptive immune system reflecting its ability to ignore any given molecule such as normal cellular protein

A. Western Blot B. systemic anaphylaxis C. toxoid D. titer E. tolerance

Streptococcus pyogenes would be

A. beta hemolytic and catalase negative.

A. In epidemiology, any living organism that can carry a disease-causing microbe; most commonly arthropods such as mosquitoes and ticks B. The inanimate objects such as books, tools or towels that can act as transmitters of pathogenic microorganism or viruses C. An antibody preparation protective against a given toxin D. Diseases that are spread from an infect animal or person to another animal or person E. The soluble, poisonous protein substance secreted by a microorganism or released upon lysis

A. biological vector B. fomites C. antitoxin D. communicable E. exotoxin

42. Filtration can result in sterilization of serum and blood products A. by removing viruses. B. by relying on gravity. C. by removing toxins. D. using high heat and filtration. E. All of the choices are correct.

A. by removing viruses

36. Removal of moisture by dehydration is called A. desiccation. B. flash freeze. C. lyophilization. D. pasteurization. E. sterilization.

A. desiccation

Why do animal viruses have envelopes and phages rarely do?

Animal viruses will often use the envelope in order to fuse with the plasma membrane of a new target cell, gaining entry into the cytoplasm.

Into which group would you place a multicellular heterotroph with chitin cell walls? A) Animalia B) Archaea C) Bacteria D) Fungi E) Plantae

Answer: D

1) The cell membranes of all three domains are composed of straight carbon chains attached to glycerol by ester linkage.

Answer: FALSE

4) The highest level in the taxonomic hierarchy is "Kingdom."

Answer: FALSE

Proteins that react specifically with the chemical structures in the antigen that induced them are called: A) determinants. B) antibodies. C) proteases. D) macroproteins. E) epitopes.

Antibodies

Members of this group have hard exoskeletons and jointed appendages. Members of this group serve as vectors, transmitting several different viruses, bacteria, and protozoan parasites between hosts.

Arthropods

The material responsible for transformation was shown to be DNA by Watson and Crick. Avery, MacLeod and McCarty. Lederberg. Stanley.

Avery, MacLeod and McCarty.

Cyanobacterium (energy source + carbon source)

B. Uses light energy and uses carbon dioxide

The use of phenol (carbolic acid) as a wound disinfectant was first practiced by: A) Semmelweis. B) Pasteur. C) Lister. D) Holmes. E) Koch.

C) Lister.

DNA Helicase

Enzyme that breaks down hydrogen bonds between complementary bases. Replication proceeds in both directions.

T/F - Viruses are very effectively treated with antibiotics.

False

Members of this group come in flat or round forms, and although many parasitize animals, there are also free-living forms. Parasitic members of this group often have complex life cycles involving one or more intermediate hosts in which larvae develop.

Helminths

Which of the following class of antibody is primarily found in external secretions? - IgG - IgD - IgE - IgM - IgA

IgA

Which of these bonds are weak individually but are much stronger as a group?

Ionic AND Hydrogen

T/F - T-independent antigens can activate B cells directly.

True - like polysaccharides

Outside a cell, Viruses are

inactive

Archaea are typically found living in extreme environments. An exception to this are the: - methanogens. - sulfur-oxidizing archaea. - methanogens AND sulfur-reducing archaea. - sulfur-reducing archaea. - sulfur-oxidizing archaea AND sulfur-reducing archaea.

methanogens

Fungal diseases are generally referred to as:

mycoses

What usually terminates the process of translation?

presence of a stop codon on mRNA - UAA, UAG, UGA

Bacteria

provide protection to us from disease by covering our bodies, crowding out 'bad' invading bacteria

The 3-domain system is based on evolutionary relatedness - based on differences in:

rRNA

Most colds are probably caused by: A) rhinovirus. B) S. aureus. C) Pseudomonas sp. D) E. coli. E) varicella.

rhinovirus. More than 100 types of human rhinoviruses.

What does the word "transcribe" mean?

to make a copy

Strain differences are helpful in

tracing the source of outbreaks of disease

rRNA

type of RNA molecule present in ribosomes

Yeast infections are caused by: - Saccharomyces cerevisiae. - Candida albicans. - Histoplasma. - Penicillium. - Aspergillus.

- Candida albicans.

Which of the following is not used for treating bacterial infections? - Griseofulvin - Methicillin - Rifampin - Tetracycline - Ampicillin

- Griseofulvin

Your patient has recently been diagnosed with an immunodeficiency disorder. Your supervisor asks you to help the patient understand what this means and the impact it will have on her. You inform your patient that the human body has several mechanisms of defense: innate immunity, which is routine protection present at birth, and adaptive immunity, which is a more specific response that develops after birth. You tell your patient that her adaptive immune response uses two basic strategies for eliminating foreign material: humoral immunity, which involves ________ and cell-mediated immunity, which involves ________. A) T lymphocytes; B lymphocytes B) B lymphocytes; T lymphocytes C) T lymphocytes; NK cells D) B cells; neutrophils E) neutrophils; macrophages

An acute, sometimes fatal reaction with airway obstruction and circulatory collapse is: A. Atopic B. Systemic anaphylaxis C. Delayed D. T-cell mediated E. Antibody-mediated

B Got this right

Table 10.1 1. 9+2 flagella 2. Nucleus 3. Plasma membrane 4. Peptidoglycan 5. Mitochondrion 6. Fimbriae In Table 10.1, which feature(s) is (are) found only in prokaryotes? A) 1, 2, 3 B) 4, 6 C) 2 D) 1 E) 2, 4, 5

B) 4, 6

One of the earliest researchers to explore the use of chemicals to kill microbial pathogens was: A) Koch. B) Ehrlich. C) Hooke. D) Fleming. E) Salvarsan.

B) Ehrlich He saw that bacterial cells took up dye differently than animal cells and realized that there must be some fundamental difference between them - thought it might be possible to find a chemical that selectively harms bacteria w/o affecting human cells (some "Magical Bullet"). The 606th arsenic compound he tested, arsphenamine, treated syphilis in animals. medication given name Salvarsan = salvation + arsenic. His discovery proved that some chemclals could selectively kill microbes.

Which of the following antibodies is a dimer: A) IgD B) IgA C) IgM D) IgE E) IgG

B) IgA

Who is credited with first observing cells? A) Louis Pasteur B) Robert Hooke C) Anton van Leeuwenhoek D) Robert Koch E) Carolus Linnaeus

B) Robert Hooke Cork, common bread mold

Inanimate objects capable of transferring infectious disease agents are: A) vectors. B) fomites. C) vehicles. D) reservoirs. E) arthropods.

B) fomites.

In higher organisms, successful mating can occur between members of the same A. genus. B. species. C. class. D. order.

B. species

A ratio of the dose of the drug that is toxic to humans versus the minimum effective dose for that pathogen is assessed to predict the potential for toxic drug reactions. This is called the: A. Antibiogram B. Kirby-Bauer C. Therapeutic index (TI) D. E-test E. MIC

C Got this right

Robert Koch identified the cause of: A) diphtheria. B) tuberculosis. C) anthrax. D) smallpox. E) AIDS.

C) anthrax.

Monoclonal antibodies: A) are usually of different classes. B) usually recognize several epitopes. C) have the same variable regions. D) are always IgE. E) All of the answer choices are correct.

C) have the same variable regions - they have the same constant and variable regions - all the same class, all recognize the same apitope - all are identical.

The phylogenetic classification of bacteria is based on A) Cell morphology. B) Gram reaction. C) rRNA sequences. D) Habitat. E) Diseases.

C) rRNA sequences.

Inhibitors of protein synthesis typically act on: A) peptidoglycan precursors. B) penicillin-binding proteins. C) ribosomes. D) porin proteins. E) transfer RNA.

C) ribosomes. The 30S and 50S of the bacterial 70S ribosome.

The Euryarchaeota includes all A. known thermophilic extreme acidophiles. B. the bacteria. C. known methanogens. D. green sulfur bacteria.

C. known methanogens.

If a positive reaction is last observed at a dilution of 1:256, the titer is ________. A) 128 B) 1/512 C) 1/256 D) 256 E) 512

D) 256 - use of SERIAL DILUTIONS to find the concentration (titer) of antibody molecules. Titer is the RECIPROCAL of the last dilution that gives a detectable antigen-antibody reaction.

Which of the following methods allows monitoring of the progressive destruction of CD4 T cells during an HIV infection by tagging the cells with specific antibodies to CD4 surface proteins and measuring their concentrations in serum? A) Western blot B) ELISA C) Latex beads agglutination D) Fluorescence-activated cell sorter E) FA test on a microscope slide

D) Fluorescence-activated cell sorter FACS = Fluorescence-activated cell sorter

Why are pneumococcal pneumonia infections so dangerous in nursing homes? A) There is a vaccine for protecting children against pneumococcal pneumonia but no vaccine available for protection of older adults. B) There is no longer an antibiotic effective against the infection, and older adults are unable to fight the infection without medication. C) This type of pneumonia causes permanent lung damage, and old people often have impaired lung function in the first place. D) The immune system of older people is usually impaired, leaving them predisposed to more serious and potentially life-threatening pneumonia. E) This question is misleading. Pneumococcal infections are not dangerous.

D) The immune system of older people is usually impaired, leaving them predisposed to more serious and potentially life-threatening pneumonia.

In Figure 10.1, species "c." is most closely related to A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e

D) d

Diseases constantly present in a population are called: A) epidemic. B) chronic. C) latent. D) endemic. E) prodromic.

D) endemic. Endemic diseases (like flu and pneumonia) can become epidemic when they occur in unusually large numbers of cases in a population.

The target of most antifungal drugs is: A) the ribosome AND the cytoplasmic membrane. B) the nucleus AND mitochondria. C) cholesterol. D) ergosterol. E) cholesterol AND ergosterol.

D) ergosterol.

DNA vaccines work by: A) stimulating production of antibodies against DNA. B) stimulating interferon production. C) inactivating the host DNA. D) having the cell use the introduced DNA to make the microbial protein antigen. E) having the cell use the introduced DNA to make inactivating microbial mRNA.

D) having the cell use the introduced DNA to make the microbial protein antigen. - which causes an immune response. Artificial Active Immunity!

An infection acquired during hospitalization is referred to as a(n) ________ infection. A) antibiotic-induced B) therapeutic C) medication-stimulated D) nosocomial E) herd initiated

D) nosocomial

Variolation is a procedure once used to protect against: A) measles. B) bubonic plague. C) rabies. D) smallpox. E) cowpox.

D) smallpox.

A breath test assaying for radioactive carbon dioxide may be used to indicate the presence of :

D. Helicobacter pylori.

DNA Structure

Deoxyribose (sugar) and phosphate backbone with a nitrogenous base.

DNA is characterized by which of the following feature(s)? A. Thymine. B. Ribose. C. Single-stranded. D. Deoxyribose. E. Deoxyribose AND Thymine.

E - DNA - ds, deoxyribose sugar, thymine - RNA - ss, ribose sugar, uracil, no thymine

Anti-human-gamma-globulin antiserum is often used in: A) direct fluorescent antibody tests AND indirect ELISA. B) indirect ELISA AND Western blot. C) Western blot AND indirect fluorescent antibody tests. D) indirect fluorescent antibody tests. E) indirect ELISA, Western blot, AND indirect fluorescent antibody tests.

E) indirect ELISA, Western blot, AND indirect fluorescent antibody tests.

Which of these may pertain to the term strain?

E. coli 0157:H7 AND minor variation of a species

Bacteria and eukarya both contain membrane-bound organelles.

False

The purpose of RNA synthesis is to provide a new copy of DNA as the original deteriorates over time.

False

The scientific name of an organism indicates its domain.

False

There are no antibiotics that have proven effective against the bacterium that causes diphtheria. T/F

False

A Site

In ribosomes. Acceptor. Holds the tRNA that carries the next amino acid to be added to the chain.

Regulatory Genes

May encode for a repressor. Has its own promoter region.

Why are molecular methods particularly useful for identification of microbes when they are difficult to grow?

Since all microbes use DNA, and we can sometimes detect and identify them through even very small amounts of their DNA, molecular methods allow us to identify microbes even when they can't be grown at all. (I'm thinking PCR here.)

Histoplasmosis may mimic tuberculosis. T/F

True

T/F - A probe is a single-stranded piece of nucleic acid labeled with a detectable marker, used to locate a unique nucleotide sequence that identifies a particular microbial species.

True

The common species name of the virus is based on the

diseases the virus causes.

Transcription begins when RNA polymerase binds to the

promoter on DNA

When an amino acid such as arginine binds to a repressor,

the repressor binds to the operator site

A mechanism that blocks transcription

will block the production of mRNA

Why is translation needed? Translation is needed because:

- The subunits of nucleic acids are nucleotides, while those of proteins are amino acids - the subunits of DNA and RNA are nucleotides while those of protein are amino acids

Meningitis causing pathogens

1. Cryptococcus neoformans 2. Neisseria meningitidis 3. Streptococcus pneumoniae 4. Listeria monocytogenes 5. Streptococcus agalactiae 6. Haemophilus influenzae

C) pairing between complementary bases occurs.

26) Nucleic acid hybridization is based on the fact that A) the strands of DNA can be separated. B) a chromosome is composed of complementary strands. C) pairing between complementary bases occurs. D) DNA is composed of genes. E) all cells have DNA.

D) Fungi

34) Into which group would you place a multicellular heterotroph with chitin cell walls? A) Animalia B) Archaea C) Bacteria D) Fungi E) Plantae

A) 1 and 3

35) In Figure 10.3, which two are most closely related? A) 1 and 3 B) 2 and 4 C) 3 and 5 D) 2 and 5 E) 4 and 5

B) Bacteria

36) Into which group would you place a photosynthetic cell that lacks a nucleus? A) Animalia B) Bacteria C) Fungi D) Plantae E) Protista

B) Archaea

37) You discovered a unicellular organism that lacks a nucleus and peptidoglycan. You suspect the organism is in the group A) Animalia. B) Archaea. C) Bacteria. D) Fungi. E) Plantae.

Explain the most likely reason why smallpox was successfully eradicated but rabies probably never will be. A) Smallpox was only found in humans; rabies is found in numerous animal reservoirs. We cannot reasonably eliminate rabies in all of the animal reservoirs that exist. B) It was far easier to vaccinate the world population against smallpox than against rabies, due to the lower number of injections required for the smallpox vaccine. It becomes a compliance issue. C) Since there are very few cases of rabies each year, there is little financial incentive to push health organizations to eradicate the illness through worldwide vaccination. D) The symptoms of smallpox are easier to identify than the symptoms of rabies, so some carriers of rabies are not accurately diagnosed. This can lead to asymptomatic carriers present within the population of susceptible individuals, spreading the virus. E) Smallpox was eradicated because anyone who got the disease died from it, so at some point there was no reservoir for the virus.

A) Smallpox was only found in humans; rabies is found in numerous animal reservoirs. We cannot reasonably eliminate rabies in all of the animal reservoirs that exist.

The stimulation of B cells to divide and mature is provided by: A) T helper cells. B) macrophages. C) T cytotoxic cells. D) plasma cells. E) erythrocytes.

A) T helper cells.

22) Which of the following best defines a strain? A) a pure culture that is not totally identical to other cultures of the same species B) a group of organisms with a limited geographical distribution C) a population of cells with similar characteristics D) a group of cells derived from a single parent E) same as a species

A) a pure culture that is not totally identical to other cultures of the same species

The number of cases of a specific disease per one hundred people exposed is called the: A) attack rate. B) index rate. C) mortality rate. D) obesity rate. E) attack index.

A) attack rate. The attack rate describes the number of susceptible people who become ill in a population after exposure to an infectious agent. Is expressed as a percent so per 100 people makes sense.

Growth of a parasitic organism in or on the host is referred to as: A) colonization. B) infection. C) pathogenism. D) mutualism. E) commensalism.

A) colonization.

A cluster of cases in a specific population occurring in a brief period of time is called a(n): A) outbreak. B) endemic. C) pandemic. D) attack break. E) mortality.

A) outbreak. An outbreak may signal the onset of an epidemic.

29. Disinfection of beverages such as apple juice, milk, wine is optimally achieved by A. pasteurization. B. chlorination. C. moist heat autoclave. D. filtration. E. boiling water.

A. pasteurization

Prions - replicate by converting normal host proteins into prion proteins. - responsible for "mad cow disease" can cause a similar disease in humans. - can be transmitted by consumption of dried or cooked food. - that cause Spongiform Encephalopathy have the same amino acids - but different folding properties from PrPc. - all of the above

All of the above.***

The damage caused by parasites may be due to: - competition for nutrients. - the physical blocking of organs. - the direct digestion of host tissue. - the host's immune response. - All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

Water

All of the choices are correct.

Genome

All the DNA in a cell

Luminescence: - may be produced by bacteria. - may be controlled by quorum sensing. - is catalyzed by luciferase. -All of the choices are correct. - None of the choices is correct.

All the choices are correct. - bioluminescence - density-dependent light emission

A relationship in which one partner benefits and the other is harmed is termed: A) commensalism. B) parasitism. C) independence. D) mutualism. E) normal microbiota.

B) parasitism.

The basic taxonomic unit in the classification scheme of plants and animals is:

B. species

Catabolite Repression

Bacteria inhibit synthesis of enzymes involved in the catabolism of carbon sources other than a preferred source.

Blood for transfusion is frequently tested for HIV by using the: A) complement fixation test. B) agglutination test. C) ELISA method. D) Ouchterlony test. E) light microscope.

C) ELISA method. The Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA) is a technique used to detect antibodies or infectious agents in a sample. - Western Blot more reliable.

An epidemic that spreads worldwide is called a(n): A) epidemical. B) endemic. C) pandemic. D) syndemic. E) plague.

C) pandemic. When an epidemic spreads over several continents - like AIDS has - it is called a pandemic. p.478

For which of the following childhood diseases is a subunit vaccine recommended? A) Polio B) Measles C) Hepatitis B D) Pertussis E) Chickenpox

D - whooping cough - acellular pertussis (aP) vaccine. Inactivated vaccine - subunit type.

Graft-versus-host disease is primarily a: A) type I reaction. B) type II reaction. C) type III reaction. D) type IV reaction. E) type V reaction.

D) type IV reaction. Transplant rejections involve T cells and NK cells.

Which of the following statements regarding fungi is FALSE? A-Fungi reproduce by forming asexual or sexual spores. B-Most fungi grow well in acidic culture condition. C-Fungi tolerate low moisture conditions. D-Most fungi are pathogenic for humans. E-Fungi are eukaryotic heterotrophs.

D-Most fungi are pathogenic for humans.

Gram-positive encapsulated diplococci found in sputum are likely: A. Bacillus cereus. B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. C. Escherichia coli. D. Streptococcus pneumoniae. E. Neisseria gonorrhea.

D. Streptococcus pneumoniae. (C and D are G-)

Photoheterotrophs (energy source + carbon source)

D. Uses light energy and uses organic compounds

Very often clinically relevant information may be obtained by examining: A. the sequence of proteins. B. the size and shape of the organism. C. the transformation ability. D. a wet mount AND the size and shape of the organism. E. a wet mount.

D. a wet mount AND the size and shape of the organism.

Chemoorganotrophs A. may use substrate-level phosphorylation to produce ATP. B. may use oxidative phosphorylation to produce ATP. C. utilize an electrochemical gradient. D. all of the above are true

D. all of the above are true

1. Which of the following microbial forms have the highest resistance to physical and chemical controls? A. naked viruses B. protozoan cysts C. fungal spores D. bacterial endospores E. yeast

D. bacterial endospores

The E test determines which of the following? A. susceptibility B. MBC C. MIC D. both susceptibility and MIC E. both MBC and MIC

D. both susceptibility and MIC

The nucleocapsid is composed of: - nucleic acid in the ribosome. - DNA or RNA, lipid, and protein. - protein located in the nucleus. - DNA and RNA and protein. - DNA or RNA, and protein.

DNA or RNA, and protein. - a virus will never have DNA AND RNA, it's either or.

Diseases that can be transmitted from one person to another are termed: A) symptomatic. B) clinical. C) acute. D) latent. E) communicable.

E) communicable. also = contagious Non-communicable diseases do not spread from one host to another - arise from the environment or from a person's own normal microbiota.

Why would it be more difficult to treat diseases in humans caused by members of the Eukarya than diseases caused by the Bacteria?- - Eukaryotic microbes (unlike prokaryotes) often secrete compounds that breakdown and eliminate drugs used against them. This makes them much harder to effectively eliminate than bacteria. - Multicellular organisms always have their own immune systems for protection, so any treatment we develop needs to overcome this built-in protection mechanism. - Since bacteria are so much simpler (being single-celled) than multi-cellular eukaryotic microbes, they are naturally easier to kill off. - Eukaryotic pathogens multiply much more effectively in a human host than bacterial pathogens do; they attain extremely high numbers in the host, making it very difficult to get rid of them. - Eukaryotic microbes use many of the same enzymes and systems as humans, so we lose the ability to target certain molecules that might be present ONLY in the cell type we want to eliminate.

Eukaryotic microbes use many of the same enzymes and systems as humans, so we lose the ability to target certain molecules that might be present ONLY in the cell type we want to eliminate.

Metabolic capabilities . A set of biochemical tests can be used to ID an organism. - a lot of these rely on pH indicators

Ex) catalase test Ex) sugar fermentation Ex) urease production

T/F - Anoxygenic phototrophs grow photosynthetically only under aerobic conditions.

FALSE

Organisms termed his- are considered prototrophic for histidine. True False

False

Protozoans are eukaryotes and as such will always possess a nucleus, mitochondria, and chloroplasts, true or false?

False

Spontaneous generation referred to the idea that organisms came from other organisms.

False

T-F: ATP is composed of deoxyribose, adenine, and 3 phosphate groups.

False

T/F - Slime molds and water molds are types of fungi.

False

T/F - Serratia marcescens are red when incubated at 37°C.

False. - red at 22°C.

T/F Numerical taxonomy uses a battery of genotypic characteristics to classify bacteria.

False. It uses comparison of a lot of phenotypic traits.

If the name given ends in -aceae, it's a ________________ name but if it ends in -ales it is a(n) _________________ name.

Family, Order

The idea that communicable diseases were caused by the passage of living things from one person to another was first put forth by: - Fracastorius. - Pasteur. - Thucydides. - Leeuwenhoek.

Fracastorius

Which is FALSE about pertussis toxin? A) It uses part B to attach to receptors on the host cell. B) It uses part A to inactivate G protein. C) It affects the level of cAMP in a cell. D) It affects the level of mucus secretion. E) It uses part A to attach to receptors on the host cell.

It uses part A to attach to receptors on the host cell. Pertussis toxin is an A-B toxin - part B does attach to receptors on the host cell - part A does inactivate G protein (regulatory protein in host cell) - it does affect the level of cAMP in cell which affects the level of mucus secretion

Perforin is produced by: - macrophages. - B cells. - B cells AND NK cells. - NK cells. - T helper cells.

NK cells - is a lymphocyte, delivers "death packages" of perforin and proteases, can see cells who have had their MHC class I molecule taken away by an infecting virus (so cytotoxic T cells can't see and kill them) and kills them anyway.

Substitution

Point mutation. A mutation in which a nucleotide or a codon in DNA is replaced with a different nucleotide.

Insertion

Point mutation. A mutation involving the addition of one or more nucleotide pairs to a gene.

If electrons are shared unequally. this forms a(n)

Polar bond

Promoter Region

Specific site for the start of replication. Prokaryotes only have one, eukaryotes have multiple.

What are the characteristics of Lactic acid bacteria such as Streptococci?

They are obligate fermentors.

Which is not usually true of Archaea?

They contain peptidoglycan as part of their cell walls.

Which is usually NOT true of archaea? They are found as rods, spheres, or spirals. They are found as single cells. They reproduce by mitosis. They contain rigid cell walls.

They reproduce by mitosis.

Archaea are very similar to bacteria and have rigid cell walls made of peptidoglycan.

True

T-F: Building block molecules for biosynthetic pathways come from the cell's catabolic pathways and from the environment.

True

T/F - A fly may serve as a mechanical vector.

True

rRNA sequence comparisons are useful for determining evolutionary relationships. True False

True

Triphosphate Deoxyribonucleotides

Used to build new DNA. dATP, dGTP, dCTP, and dTTP.

Eukaryotic Chromosome

Usually multiple, linear, and diploid. Found in the nucleus. Circular in mitochondria and chloroplasts.

In the absence of lactose

a repressor protein binds to the operator - keeps it shut off. Off when glucose present

Viroids

are naked (lacking a protein shell) pieces of RNA.

Which of the following statements is false? a) a bacteriostatic chemical stops the growth of a microorganism b) The lower the therapeutic index, the less toxic the medication c) Broad-spectrum antibiotics are associated with the development of severe Clostridium difficile infections d) Azithromycin has a longer half-life than does penicillin V e) Chloramphenicol can cause a life-threatening type of anemia

b) The lower the therapeutic index, the less toxic the medication High therapeutic index is less to toxic to patient, low therapeutic index means the therapy dose is close to the toxic dose and the pt must be monitored carefully.

A particular characteristic of disease-causing Streptococcus is: - lactic acid production. - beta-hemolysis. - endospore formation. - growth at refrigerator temperatures. - catalase production.

beta-hemolysis

An extreme environment in which archaea have been found is

boiling hot springs

Amino acids in proteins are linked to one another by peptide bonds between the

carboxyl group of one amino acid and the amino group of another. ?????

Ribozymes

catalytic RNA molecules that function as enzymes and can splice RNA

X-rays have no effect on DNA. cause thymine trimers. cause single and double strand breaks in DNA molecules. make the DNA radioactive.

cause single and double strand breaks in DNA molecules.

Diseases that can be transmitted from one person to another are termed: communicable. latent. symptomatic. clinical. acute.

communicable.

Bacteria is present on the body

constantly

Nitrous acid most frequently causes mutations by substituting oxygen for hydrogen bonds. converting keto groups to amino groups. altering the bonding ratios of nitrogen bases. converting cytosine to uracil.

converting cytosine to uracil

Sharing of electrons between 2 atoms forms a(n)

covalent bond AND strong bond.

Fluoroquinolones typically target: a. ribosomes. b. penicillin-binding proteins. c. peptidoglycan. d. DNA gyrase.

d. DNA gyrase. Fluoroquinolones mess with nucleic acid synthesis.

A scientist discovers a new species near coral reefs in Australia. On basic microscopic examination and after conducting a few simple experiments, he finds that this single-celled species is photosynthetic (using sunlight for energy), has a rigid cell wall structure with no peptidoglycan, uses a flagellum for motion, and contains a variety of internal structures that are bound by plasma membranes. Given this information, this new species is most likely a ______ cell in the _____ subcategory.

eukaryotic; algae

The plus (+) strand of DNA acts as a template during transcription

false - the (-) strand of DNA does

Sexual reproduction in algae involves meiosis that results in the production of: 1. spores with twice as much DNA as the parental cells. 2. gametes with the same amount of DNA as in the parental cells. 3. gametes with half the amount of DNA as in the parental cells. 4. swarming cells with the same amount of DNA as the parental cells. 5. spores with the same amount of DNA as the parental cells.

gametes with half the amount of DNA as in the parental cells.

Eukaryotic mRNA contains non-coding regions called ___________

introns - Tell me about eukaryotic mRNA

After mRNA is made, what generally occurs?

it is translated to protein

The idea of Spontaneous Generation postulated that

living organisms could spontaneously arise from non-living material.

A protein

may need help, in the form of chaperones, to assume the correct shape.

the atomic weight is equal to

number of neutrons and protons

Pediculus humanus

only uses humans as a host AND can transmit a bacterial disease

The sudden, violent, uncontrollable cough of pertussis is described as: A) productive. B) contagious. C) infective. D) paroxysmal. E) catastrophic.

paroxysmal. Occurs during paroxysmal stage - 3 stages for pertussis Catarrhal stage - inflammation of mucus membranes Paroxysmal stage - repeated sudden attacks - the cough and the whoop Convalescent stage - not contagious, recovery

Although unusually resistant to many control factors, the tubercle bacillus is easily killed by: A) strong acids. B) disinfectants. C) pasteurization. D) strong alkalis. E) All of the answer choices are correct.

pasteurization. Mycobacterium tuberculosis - slender, acid-fast, rod-shaped bacterium, aerobe with a generation time of over 16 hours. - cell wall contains mycolic acids, cells resist drying, disinfectants, strong acids and alkalis, responsible for acid-fast staining. - easily killed by PASTURIZATION

To increase the proportion of mutants in a population of bacteria one may use direct selection. replica plating. penicillin enrichment. individual transfer.

penicillin enrichment

The bond connecting amino acids is a ______ bond

peptide

A __________ is the physical expression of the genes present and can change depending upon what genes are turned "on"

phenotype

The characteristics displayed by an organism in any given environment is its genotype. archaetype. mutatotype. phenotype.

phenotype

Live, beneficial microbes provided to populate the intestines are known as: A. Prebiotics B. Phytobiotics C. Lantibiotics D. Probiotics E. Riboswitches

probiotics Got this right

Phage-encoded enzymes are

produced in a sequential manner AND used to customize the cell for viral production

Gonyaulax... 1. infects the nervous system of humans AND is a monoflagellate. 2. produces a non-protein enterotoxin AND is a dinoflagellate. 3. produces a protein neurotoxin AND is a dinoflagellate. 4. is a monoflagellate AND produces a non-protein neurotoxin. 5. produces a non-protein neurotoxin AND is a dinoflagellate.

produces a non-protein neurotoxin AND is a dinoflagellate.

A microbiologist obtained two pure isolated biological samples: one of a virus, and one of a viroid. The labels came off during a move from one lab to the next, however. The scientist felt she could distinguish between the two samples by analyzing for the presence of a single type of molecule. What type of molecule would she be looking for to differentiate between the two?

protein

Within a lab, a scientist has two samples-the first is a prion sample, while the second is a viroid sample. But those pesky labels have come off of the flasks! She wants to run a simple analysis to determine which one is which. What type of molecule would she look for to determine which one is which?

protein

The positively charged component of the atom is the

proton.

Protein synthesis occurs on the ________

ribosomes

The helices and sheets of amino acids form a protein's

secondary structure.

The advantageous genes that can be transferred by transduction are genes for:

sugar fermentation. toxin production. drug resistance.

Trimethoprim and sulfonamides have a(n): antagonistic effect. synergistic effect. energetic effect. subtractive.

synergistic effect.

Lyme Disease is an example of a disease

that is due to a greater degree of interaction between humans and tick-carrying animals.

What happens when a hairpin loop forms in mRNA?

the RNA polymerase and the mRNA dissociate from the DNA

In some degradative pathways, in the absence of an inducer (such as arabinose),

the activator protein can't bind to DNA, and RNA polymerase can't bind to the promoter site

Dehydration reactions are involved in

the formation of polypeptides AND the formation of polysaccharides.

The designation his- refers to the genotype of a bacterium that lacks a functional gene for histidine synthesis. the genotype of a bacterium that has a functional gene for histidine synthesis. the opposite of a hers gene. bacteria that are auxotrophic for histidine. the genotype of a bacterium that lacks a functional gene for histidine synthesis AND bacteria that are auxotrophic for histidine.

the genotype of a bacterium that lacks a functional gene for histidine synthesis AND bacteria that are auxotrophic for histidine.

The diploid character of eukaryotic cells may mask the appearance of a mutation since this may be a frame shift. the mutation is often reversible. the mutation may be palindromic. the matching chromosome may carry the dominant gene.

the matching chromosome may carry the dominant gene.

The atom, as a whole, is uncharged because

the number of protons equals the number of electrons

The atom, as a whole, is uncharged because

the number of protons equals the number of electrons.

The atomic number for an atom of a specific element is equal to

the number of protons in a single atom of that element.

If Pasteur had done his experiments investigating spontaneous generation in a horse stable,

the results would probably have supported the idea of spontaneous generation.

Lyme disease is transmitted by

ticks

The scientist usually considered the first to see microorganisms, which he called "animalcules", was

van Leeuwenhoek

The word "Animalcule" was coined by

van Leeuwenhoek

Fungi capable of dimorphism grow either as: - yeast-like or mycelium. - rhizoids or hyphae. - spores or mushrooms. - germ tubes or buds. - yeast-like or mushrooms.

yeast-like or mycellium

Which of the following is used to classify viruses? i. Nucleic acid ii. Shape iii. Size iv. Host range v. Biochemical tests

(i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)

Which disease is INCORRECTLY matched with its arthropod vector? 1. Dengue fever—mosquitoes 2. Malaria—Anopheles mosquito 3. Lyme disease—ticks 4. Plague—fleas 5. African sleeping sickness—sand fly

5. African sleeping sickness—sand fly

D) identity

50) Flow cytometry, where a cell is passed through a light source such as a laser beam, can directly indicate all EXCEPT which one of the following about a cell? A) size B) shape C) density D) identity

An mRNA has the codon 5′ UAC 3′. What tRNA anticodon will bind to it?

5′ GUA 3′ - remember that the nucleotides match up antiparallel so this is 3' AUG 5' so UAC matches AUG and the answer flipped it around.

FALSE

6) At this point in time, scientists believe the vast majority of the domain Bacteria have been discovered.

C) They undergo photosynthesis.

6) Which of the following statements about the members of the Kingdom Animalia is FALSE? A) They are multicellular. B) They are composed of eukaryotic cells. C) They undergo photosynthesis. D) They ingest nutrients through a mouth. E) They are heterotrophs.

Which statement regarding phage replication is TRUE? - Lambda can be a lytic or a temperate phage. - Lambda is a good example of a lytic phage. - When integrated into host DNA, phage DNA is called a virophage. - A lysogen is a virus that has bacterial DNA in it. - A lysogen is a bacterial cell with an integrated prophage.

A lysogen is a bacterial cell with an integrated prophage.

Rhizobium - fix nitrogen inside nodules on the roots of legumes.

A symbiotic bacterium that lives in the nodules on roots of specific legumes and that incorporates nitrogen gas from the air into a form of nitrogen the plant requires

Phages that can either replicate and cause cell lysis or can integrate their DNA into the host DNA are called

A temporate phage.

If you examined the acidic runoff from a coal mine, which of the following would you most likely find grow there?

Acidithiobacillus

Horizontal Gene Transfer

Acquisition of genes from cells of the same generation.

Which of the following has been associated with the flesh-eating organism? - H. lechter - Pseudomonas aeruginosa - Streptococcus pyogenes - Staphylococcus aureus

- Streptococcus pyogenes - some Streptococcus pyrogenic exotoxin SPE-producing stains of Steptococcus pyogrenes cause toxic shock and necrotizing fasciitis.

In conjugation, transformation, or transduction, the recipient bacteria is most likely to accept donor DNA: - from any species of bacteria. - from the same species of bacteria. - from any source AND only through plasmids. - only through plasmids. - from any source.

- from the same species of bacteria.

Ringworm is caused by a(n)? - trematode. - nematode. - fungus. - cestode. - protozoan.

- fungus

Helminthic diseases are usually transmitted to humans by: - aerosols. - vectors. - respiratory route. - genitourinary route. - gastrointestinal route.

- gastrointestinal route.

A secondary immunodeficiency disease is not the result of: A) genetic defects. B) malignancies. C) advanced age. D) malnutrition. E) certain virus infections.

- genetic defects (that's primary (congenital) immunodeficiency) But the rest contribute to secondary immunodeficiency disease.

The conjuctivae: - have no resident bacteria. - are often covered with bacteria. - are populated with S. aureus. - are populated with S. pyogenes.

- have no resident bacteria. slide 11 - surface of the eye and lining of eyelids covered by conjuntiva. Conjuntiva - very few bacteria present, infection = conjuntivitis.

An IgG molecule has two: - antibody binding sites AND antigen binding sites. - heavy chains, light chains, AND antigen binding sites. - heavy chains, light chains, AND antibody binding sites. - Fc regions AND one Fab region. - light chains, antigen binding sites, AND antibody binding sites.

- heavy chains, light chains, AND antigen binding sites.

Projecting from the outer envelope of the influenza virus are two glycoproteins called: A) leukocidin and hemolysin. B) hyaluronidase and coagulase. C) hemagglutinin and neuraminidase. D) lysozyme and coagulase. E) coagulase and gp160.

- hemagglutinin and neuraminidase HA spikes attach to receptors on host epithelial cells. NA spikes are critical in the release of new virions - it destroys the host cell surface receptors that bind to budding virions. Subtypes of flu viruses based on HA, NA types - mostly HI,2,3 and Ni,2 infect people.

A term synonymous with antibody is: A) antigen. B) immunoglobulin. C) epitope. D) determinant. E) immunotope.

- immunoglobulin There are 5 classes of antibodies.

A virion is composed of: - protein, either RNA or DNA, and possibly lipid. - protein and either RNA or DNA, but no lipid. - protein, and possibly lipid. - lipid, protein, and either RNA or DNA. - protein and both RNA and DNA, but no lipid.

- protein, either RNA or DNA, and possibly lipid.

Antimicrobials that kill microorganisms have the suffix: -cidal. -static. -anti. -genic.

-cidal Bacteriostatic = inhibits bacterial growth

TRUE

10) When building a cladogram, the length of the horizontal branch is based on the calculated percent similarity between organisms.

E) Western blotting

11) Which of the following is NOT based on nucleic-acid hybridization? A) DNA chip B) FISH C) PCR D) Southern blotting E) Western blotting

C) rRNA sequences

12) The phylogenetic classification of bacteria is based on A) cell morphology. B) Gram reaction. C) rRNA sequences. D) habitat. E) diseases.

E) 5

17) In Figure 10.1, the closest ancestor for both species "a." and species "b." would be which of the following? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

A) Protists

18) ________ are a diverse group of eukaryotic organisms that are similar in rRNA sequences, but quite different from each other in motility types and ecology. They have been used previously as a "catch-all" for organisms that couldn't be easily classified into other groups. A) Protists B) Fungi C) Plants D) Methanogens

B) genus

19) In the scientific name Enterobacter aerogenes, Enterobacter is the A) specific epithet. B) genus. C) family. D) order. E) kingdom.

TRUE

2) Chloroplasts possess circular DNA and reproduce by binary fission.

C) prokaryotic cells; ester linkages in phospholipids

2) Which of the following characterizes the Domain Bacteria? A) prokaryotic cells; ether linkages in phospholipids B) eukaryotic cells; ester linkages in phospholipids C) prokaryotic cells; ester linkages in phospholipids D) complex cellular structures E) multicellular

Once Y. pestis is in the human host, it is ingested by macrophages. Conditions within the macrophage activate certain genes in the bacterium, one of which is a gene for a capsule production. The capsule: 1.allows the bacteria to survive excess heat. 2.allows the bacteria to avoid phagocytosis. 3.provides a source of nutrients for the bacteria. 4. allows the bacteria to float in water. 5.allows the bacteria to exchange DNA with other bacteria.

2.allows the bacteria to avoid phagocytosis.

How many different amino acids are there to choose from when assembling a protein?

A) shows degrees of relatedness between organisms.

20) The arrangement of organisms into taxa A) shows degrees of relatedness between organisms. B) shows relationships to common ancestors. C) was designed by Charles Darwin. D) is arbitrary. E) is based on evolution.

D) considered prokaryotic cells

21) Bacteria and Archaea are similar in which of the following? A) peptidoglycan cell walls B) methionine as the start signal for protein synthesis C) sensitivity to antibiotics D) considered prokaryotic cells E) plasma membrane ester linkage

A) a pure culture that is not totally identical to other cultures of the same species

22) Which of the following best defines a strain in microbiological terms? A) a pure culture that is not totally identical to other cultures of the same species B) a group of organisms with a limited geographical distribution C) a mixed population of cells,genetically distinct, but with highly similar phenotypic characteristics D) groups of cells all derived from and identical to a single parent species E) same as a species

B) antibodies react specifically with an antigen

23) Serological testing is based on the fact that A) all bacteria have the same antigens. B) antibodies react specifically with an antigen. C) the human body makes antibodies against bacteria. D) antibodies cause the formation of antigens. E) bacteria clump together when mixed with any antibodies.

C) bacterial viruses attack only members of a specific species.

24) Phage typing is based on the fact that A) bacteria are destroyed by viruses. B) viruses cause disease. C) bacterial viruses attack only members of a specific species. D) Staphylococcus causes infections. E) phages and bacteria are related.

P Site

In ribosomes. Peptide. Holds the tRNA carrying the growing polypeptide chain.

Culture characteristics give clues to the identity of an unknown organism. - size of the colony (Streptococci make small colonies) - colony color - the color the growth medium turns/smells - Differential media can aid in identification

Initial clues from colony morphology but other tests are needed for more reliable identification.

Most temperate phages integrate into the host chromosome, whereas some replicate as plasmids. Which kind of relationship do you think would be more likely to maintain the phage in the host cell, and why? - Integration, because plasmids are frequently lost during cell division, which could leave a daughter cell without the virus genome. - Plasmids; they're smaller, so they would be easier to replicate by the host cell. - Integrated; the host cell would be less likely to view this DNA as "foreign" on subsequent rounds of replication, and would retain it more easily. - Plasmids; these structures often carry other genes that may give the host cell a selective advantage over cells that don't have them. - Either plasmids or integration because once a virus genome is in a host cell, there is not way for that genome to be removed from the infected cell.

Integration, because plasmids are frequently lost during cell division, which could leave a daughter cell without the virus genome.

The connection between a particular organism and a specific disease was first made by: A) Jenner. B) Pasteur. C) Koch. D) van Leeuwenhoek. E) Hooke.

Koch anthrax and mice. Led to Koch's Postulates.

Which of the following microbes is (are) important to cheese-making?

LACTIC ACID BACTERIA & PROPINONIBACTERIUM

DNA Methylation

Adds a CH3. Usually on adenines in bacteria. Defines the origin, involved in DNA repair and regulation, and helps identify bacterial DNA from foreign DNA.

DNA Polymerase III

Adds new nucleotides to 3' end of the growing strand. Has a proofreading function. Needs helicase to function. Replicates both strands.

Enlargement of which of the following structures may contribute to ear infections by interfering with normal drainage from Eustachian tubes? - Nasal chamber - Nasal conchae - Adenoids - Epiglottis - Parotid glands

Adenoids - tonsils at the back of the throat

Which of the following is a special binding substance that enhances immunogenicity and prolongs antigen retention at the injection site? A. Adjuvant B. "Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine C. Booster D. Antibodies to toxin E. Gamma globulin

Adjuvant Got this right

Sulfolobus species are found at the surface of acidic sulfur-containing hot springs such as many of those found in Yellowstone National Park. They only grow at temperatures above 50°C and at a pH between 1 and 6. How would you classify these organisms? - Psychrotrophic neutrophiles - Aerobic, psychrophilic acidophiles - Anaerobic, acidophilic mesophiles - Microaerophilic, halotolerant basophiles - Aerobic, acidophilic thermophiles

Aerobic, acidophilic thermophiles

Members of this group generally don't cause infections, but some produce neurotoxins that cause intoxications in animals that consume them. Members of this group are found predominantly in aquatic environments.

Algae

Which group(s) below contain single-celled and multicellular organisms? Algae AND bacteria Protozoa AND bacteria Fungi AND archaea Algae AND fungi

Algae AND fungi

Why is it virtually impossible to eradicate a disease caused by a zoonotic virus? - You would have to drive the vector organism extinct to do so. - Many viruses transmitted in this manner may utilize more than one vector organism. - Many zoonotic viruses may be able to reside in more than one host organism, complicating control measures. - Many vector organisms have multiple stages of their life cycle that can carry a zoonotic virus, which complicates controlling the vector-borne transmission. - All of the answer choices are correct.

All are correct.

Which is true of carbohydrates

All of the choices are correct

Which is usually true of Archaea?

All of the choices are correct

Please identify the CORRECT statement regarding basic epidemiology concepts. - Attack rate—the number of susceptible people developing illness in a population exposed to an infectious agent. - Prevalence—the number of new cases of a disease in a population at risk during a specified time period. - Morbidity rate—the proportion of people diagnosed with a specific disease who die from that disease. - Incidence—the total number of cases of a disease in a given population at any time or for a specific period. - Contagious disease—an infectious disease that cannot be transmitted from one host to another.

Attack rate—the number of susceptible people developing illness in a population exposed to an infectious agent. I've seen other people with study guides say the last choice but that definition is for NON-CONTAGIOUS DISEASE.

A common way to identify E. coli that carry the desired recombinant DNA is by using a: A. vector. B. probe. C. host. D. plasmid. E. restriction enzyme.

Direct selection involves inoculating cells onto growth media upon which A. the nutrients necessary for mutation to occur are present. B. the mutant, but not the parental cell type, will grow. C. the mutagen is present. D. the mutation will be reversed.

Disagreements between conclusions obtained from rDNA data and other techniques may be explained by: A. differences in the translation machinery. B. horizontal DNA transfer. C. vertical DNA transfer. D. the lack of DNA polymerase proof-reading. E. vertical RNA transfer.

During aerobic cellular respiration, the final electron acceptor is: A. pyruvic acid B. oxygen C. nitrate D. cytochrome c E. FAD

Each NADH that enters the electron transport system gives rise to ______ ATP. A. 2 B. 3 C. 24 D. 36 E. 38

Enzymes are: A. broken down in reactions that require energy input B. proteins that function as catalysts C. electron carrier molecules D. not needed for catabolic reactions E. all of the choices are correct

Enzymes that catalyze removing electrons from one substrate and adding electrons to another are called: A. phosphotransferases B. oxidoreductases C. decarboxylases D. aminotransferases E. ligases

How long after initiation of a primary response do significant amounts of antibody appear in the blood?: A. One day B. 10-14 days C. 4 weeks D. 6 months

If the G+C content of two organisms is 45% in both A. the A+T content is 65%. B. they may or may not be related. C. they are definitely not related. D. they are definitely related AND the A+T content is 65%. E. they are definitely related.

In the cell, energy released by electrons is often used to phosephorylate: A. ATP B. ADP C. pyruvic acid D. oxygen E. NAD

In which pathway is the most NADH generated? A. electron transport system B. TCA cycle C. glycolysis D. alcoholic fermentation E. mixed acid fermentation

Newborn infants can be infected with Group _______ streptococcus during birth.

Outside of living cells, viruses are: A. scavenging glucose. B. metabolically inert. C. using cilia to move to the next host. D. slowly stockpiling ATP from the mitochondria.

The name Lactococcus (Streptococcus) lactis: A. indicates that Lactococcus is the old class name. B. indicates that Streptococcus is the old genus name. C. indicates that the subgenus is Streptococcus. D. indicates that the family is Lactococcus.

When DNA probes are used to identify bacterial DNA similarities by hybridization, the probe DNA is heated and the template DNA is treated to separate the 2 strands. Why would the probe DNA be heated? A. DNA hybridization can only take place at high temperatures so all the DNA must be heated up prior to hybridization. B. The probe DNA is single stranded but it may have folded back on itself and formed portions that are double-stranded; heating it up breaks any possible hydrogen bonds that may have formed, returning it to a single-stranded state prior to hybridization. C. Heating up the probe DNA activates the tag on the probe DNA before it hybridizes to the bacterial template DNA D. This is the only way to properly label the probe DNA.

Wolbachia are found only in A. plants. B. arthropods. C. mammals. D. hot springs. E. fungi.

Characterizing strain differences - how can we tell strains of the same species apart?

Biochemical typing Serological typing Molecular typing Phage typing Antobiograms

Define competitive and non-competitive inhibition in an enzyme regulation.

Competitive inhibitions: A 'mimic' of the substrate is supplied by the cell, which goes and occupies the enzyme's substrate-binding site and prevents the actual substrate to bind there. Non-competitive inhibition: The regulator molecule, which is mostly the product of enzyme-substrate interaction, binds to the regulatory site of the enzyme and blocks further reaction.

What are the components of a conjugated enzyme? Where does the substrate bind and how that site is formed?

Conjugated enzyme consists of a protein component called apoenzyme and one or more cofactors, which are either organic molecules called coenzymes or inorganic molecules like metallic ions. The substrates bind to the active sites which are formed by 3-dimensional folding of apoenzyme.

Strain differences are helpful in: A. transduction. B. electrophoresis. C. replica plating. D. tracing the source of outbreaks of disease. E. transformation.

The immunity of some black Africans to malaria is probably due to their A) general health. B) genetic background. C) cultural practices. D) age. E) All of the answer choices are correct.

B) genetic background. They don't have the receptors on their RBCs needed for binding by the Plasmodium species that causes malaria.

Precipitation reactions carried out in agarose are called: A) hemagglutination tests. B) immunodiffusion tests. C) complement fixation tests. D) ELISA tests. E) disc diffusion assays.

B) immunodiffusion tests. - used for the detection of antigen (direct) or antibodies (indirect).

The member of the hospital staff who surveys the types and numbers of nosocomial infections is called the: A) head nurse. B) infection control practitioner. C) staff control. D) attending physician. E) external epidemiologist.

B) infection control practitioner.

Which of the following is NOT a criterion by which all antimicrobial agents can be evaluated? A. their spectrum of action B. their efficacy C. their activity against cell walls D. their route of administration E. their safety

C. their activity against cell walls

Phage typing: A. is used to extract DNA from cells. B. is used to distinguish bacterial strains AND is dependent on the type of eukaryotic cell. C. is dependent on the type of eukaryotic cell. D. is used to distinguish bacterial strains. E. is useful for determining eukaryotic cell types.

D. is used to distinguish bacterial strains.

Which of the following drugs specifically targets cell walls that contain arabinogalactan-mycolic acid? A. vancomycin B. penicillin C. methicillin D. isoniazid E. bacitracin

D. isoniazid

32. _____ heat is more rapidly effective and efficient compared to _____ heat. A. High, dry B. High, moist C. Dry, moist D. Moist, dry E. Moist, high

D. moist, dry

The relatedness of organisms determined by counting common characteristics is called A. evolutionary taxonomy. B. amino acid sequences. C. DNA sequences. D. numerical taxonomy. E. suggests the organisms are very closely related at the species level AND means the GC content is 45%.

D. numerical taxonomy.

55. Which of the following acids is not used to destroy or inhibit microbial cells in food? A. acetic acid B. benzoic acid C. lactic acid D. phosphoric acid E. propionic acid

D. phosphoric acid

3. The process of using a cleansing technique to mechanically remove and reduce microorganisms and debris to safe levels is A. disinfection. B. sterilization. C. antisepsis. D. sanitization. E. degermation.

D. sanitization

24. Sterilization is achieved by A. flash pasteurization. B. hot water. C. boiling water. D. steam autoclave. E. All of the choices are correct.

D. steam autoclave

You are working in a clinical lab. Two E. coli samples are sent to you for analysis and you are asked to determined whether they are the same strain. You perform an antibiogram and find that the two samples exhibit the same sensitivity to the antibiotics you use in the procedure. This indicates: A. the organisms are the same strains but they will react differently in serology tests. B. the organisms are likely different strains but you need to confirm this with other methods. C. the two organisms are not likely to be susceptible to the same bacteriophages. D. the organisms are likely the same strain but you need to confirm this with other methods. E. the two organisms will show different results if they are Gram stained.

D. the organisms are likely the same strain but you need to confirm this with other methods

In E. coli O157:H7, the O157:H7 refers to the A. specific type of DNA present. B. specific genus. C. general family. D. the specific LPS and flagella type present

D. the specific LPS and flagella type present

If the GC content of two organisms is 45% in both, D. they may or may not be related.

D. they may or may not be related. - similarity doesn't mean relatedness - if the ratio deviates by more than a few %, organisms are not related.

33. A method for sterilizing milk, called _____ treatment, uses 134C for 1 to 2 seconds. A. pasteurization B. batch pasteurization C. flash pasteurization D. ultra high temperature E. None of the choices is correct.

D. ultra high temperature

Media that change color as a result of the biochemical activity of growing bacteria: A. usually require the addition of various reagents before the color is evident. B. contain a colorless reagent that breaks down. C. usually contain blood. D. usually contain a pH indicator. E. are always selective media.

D. usually contain a pH indicator.

A _____ is an infection indigenous to animals that can, on occasion, be transmitted to humans. A. secondary infection B. sequelae C. nosocomial infection D. zoonosis E. None of the choices is correct.

D. zoonosis Got this right

Which of the following would be least likely to produce an acquired immune deficiency? A. Radiation treatment B. Malnutrition C. Pregnancy D. Stress E. Bacterial infection

It isn't Stress - got it wrong Maybe it's E... It is E. Bacterial infection

Which is true about botox? It is an endotoxin. It is produced by S. aureus. It may cause botulism. It is useful in treating conditions related to muscle contractions. It may cause botulism AND it is useful in treating conditions related to muscle contractions.

It may cause botulism AND it is useful in treating conditions related to muscle contractions.

Which is not true about mismatch repair? It utilizes an endonuclease. It requires DNA polymerase and DNA ligase. It utilizes the state of methylation of the DNA to differentiate between strands. It removes both strands in the mismatch area.

It removes both strands in the mismatch area.

Why is Legionella pneumophila detected using immunofluorescence? A) It is a virus. B) It stains poorly with conventional dyes. C) It is Gram-non-reactive. D) It is an acid-fast bacterium. E) It lacks a peptidoglycan cell wall.

It stains poorly with conventional dyes. - Legionella pneumophila G- rod, fastidious (needs added nutrients if we want to culture it) Stains poorly in tissue/with conventional dyes Facultative intracellular parasite - live in freshwater amoebas and can persist in biofilms (if disturbed, huge numbers can be released) p.556 "the organism stains poorly with conventianal dyes, but it can be detected using immunofluorescence."

Which of the following about the Golden Age of Medical Microbiology is FALSE? It is a time when the knowledge of bacteria and work with them expanded. It started in the 1990s with the development of genetic engineering. It was during this time that people realized that diseases could be caused by invisible agents. It occurred during the late 1800s to the early 1900s.

It started in the 1990s with the development of genetic engineering.

How does Legionella pneumophila survive adverse conditions? A) It forms endospores when in dry or hot environments. B) It produces cysts. C) It is acid-fast and resists dehydration. D) It survives in protozoa that can withstand adverse conditions. E) It is an intracellular parasite in fish.

It survives in protozoa that can withstand adverse conditions. Facultative intracellular parasite; survives well in freshwater amebas, which can form cysts during adverse conditions, allowing bacteria within to survive - inhaled in aersolized water, they lodge in lungs and promote their uptake by alveolar macrophages. - surface protein called macrophage invasion potentiator (Mip) aids entry into macrophages - the cells also bind C3b as an opsonin

The scientist who made variolation safer and more effective was: A) Pasteur. B) Jenner. C) Metchnikoff. D) Fleming. E) Ehrlich.

Jenner

________ is the physician first associated with vaccination. A) Koch B) Escherich C) Pasteur D) Jenner E) Lister

Jenner - better/safer methods of variolation with cowpox to grant immunity to smallpox. - Pasteur coined 'vaccination' - vacca = cow

The causative agent of the pneumonia that results in permanent lung damage, may be nosocomial, and has a high mortality if untreated is: A) S. pneumoniae. B) K. pneumoniae. C) S. pyogenes. D) S. aureus. E) M. pneumoniae.

K. pneumoniae. Klebsiella pneumoniae - G- rod with large capsule and makes large, mucoid colonies when grown on agar.

Which of the higher taxanomic rankings is within Domain Bacteria is still in flux?

Kingdom

Fatty acid analysis A. can be used to identify Gram-negative bacteria. B. can be used to identify Gram-positive bacteria. C. uses gas chromatography to analyze fatty acid methyl esters. D. requires that cells be grown under standardized conditions. E. All of the above

E. All of the above

50. Hydrogen peroxide can be A. sporicidal. B. fungicidal. C. bactericidal. D. virucidal. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct

Antigen presenting cells: A. Include dendritic cells B. Include macrophages C. Engulf and modify antigen to be more immunogenic D. Hold and present processed antigen on their cell membrane surface E. All of the choices are correct

E. All of the choices are correct

Attenuated agents: A. may induce immunity after a single dose. B. may cause disease in immunocompromised individuals. C. multiply in the body. D. may revert or mutate to disease-causing strains. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct

Agglutination tests can be used to diagnose diseases caused by A. bacteria. B. hormones. C. fungi. D. viruses. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Monoclonal antibodies may be used in the rapid diagnosis of A. pregnancy. B. hepatitis. C. influenza. D. chlamydia. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Which technique(s) is/are used to help identify and classify bacteria? A. microscopic examination B. culture characteristics C. biochemical tests D. nucleic acid analysis E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Ag-Ab binding may result in: A. neutralization. B. immobilization. C. agglutination. D. opsonization. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct. Ch 17

16. Which of the following factors will influence the action of microbial agents? A. the number of microorganisms B. the kind of microorganisms C. temperature and pH D. mode and dosage of the agent E. All of these will influence the action.

E. All of these will influence the action

Base-Excision Repair

Enzymes recognize the altered base and remove and correct only that base.

A transfusion reaction primarily involves: A) leukocytes. B) erythrocytes. C) phagocytes. D) platelets. E) IgE.

Erythocytes - RBC's - ABO groups - A and B antigens, Anti-A and Anti-B antibodies. - Type II Hypersensitivity

If you read that coliforms had been found in a lake, the repot could have been referring to which of the following genera?

Escherichia

Define exoenzyme endoenzyme, constitutive enzyme and regulated enzymes.

Exoenzyme: Extracellular enzymes Endoenzymes: Intracellular enzymes Constitutive enzymes: Are always present and in a constant amount Regulated enzymes: Production is turned on or off in response to the substrate concentration.

Which shows the incorrect complementary base pairing?

G:T

Which of the following are diseases caused by protozoa? 1. Schistosomiasis, amebiasis, AND primary amebic meningoencephalitis. 2. Dengue fever, malaria, AND plague. 3. Amebiasis, malaria, AND plague. 4. Giardiasis, malaria, AND toxoplasmosis. 5. Giardiasis, malaria, AND trichinellosis.

Giardiasis, malaria, AND toxoplasmosis.

Paralytic shellfish poisoning occurs when humans eat shellfish that have fed on: - Vibrio cholerae. - Salmonella species. - Volvox species. - E. coli. - Gonyaulax species.

Gonyaulax species.

Why is it not surprising that AIDS patients frequently suffer a viral-induced tumor?

HIV genomes integrate into the host cell chromosome. This integration might result in loss of control of the cell cycle (also known as cancer).

Which allergic condition is characterized by the formation of a wheal and flare? A) Hives B) Transfusion reaction C) Arthus reaction D) Serum sickness E) All of these

Hives

Transduction

Horizontal gene transfer. Bacterial DNA transferred by bacteriophage.

Conjugation

Horizontal gene transfer. Genes passed by direct cell-cell contact mediated by pilus. Donor cells remain alive.

Transformation

Horizontal gene transfer. Recipient cells take up DNA from environment.

Which of the following is the most abundant immunological class produced? A) IgA B) IgD C) IgG D) IgE E) IgM

IgA

The immunoglobulin associated with Type I hypersensitivity is: - IgM - IgA - IgE - IgD - IgG

IgE

The immunoglobulin that is important in hypersensitivity reactions is ________. - IgM - IgA - IgE - IgG - IgD

IgE - also the least amount in serum

The only class of antibody that can cross the placenta is ________. A) IgA B) IgD C) IgG D) IgE E) IgM

IgG

The natural antibodies in serum that react with A or B polysaccharide antigens are mostly of the class: A) IgG. B) IgE. C) IgM. D) IgD. E) IgA.

IgM

Which of the following antibodies is a pentamer? A) IgA B) IgD C) IgM D) IgE E) IgG

IgM

If the immune system responds inadequately to antigenic stimulation, this is termed: A) hypersensitivity. B) immunodeficiency. C) autoimmunity. D) cell-mediated immunity. E) allergy.

Immunodeficiency

nucleic acid probe Ch9

In DNA technology, a labeled single-stranded nucleic acid molecule used to locate a specific nucleotide sequence in a nucleic acid sample. Molecules of the probe hydrogen-bond to the complementary sequence wherever it occurs; radioactive, fluorescent, or other labeling of the probe allows its location to be detected.

Deletion

Point mutation. The loss of one or more nucleotides from a gene by mutation.

mRNA

Polycistronic in prokaryotes (encodes for more than one protein), monocistronic in eukaryotes. Type of RNA that carries instructions from DNA in the nucleus to the ribosome.

DNA Gyrase

Removes DNA supercoils as well as generates them when replication is finished.

Plasmids

Replicate independently of the chromosome in prokaryotes. Carries gene not essential for survival: fertility, resistance, toxins, or pathogenic.

Which of the following drugs is incorrectly paired with its mode of action? Reverse transcriptase inhibitor: binds to DNA polymerase Actinomycin: blocks DNA replication Quinolones: inhibit DNA gyrase AZT: nucleotide analogs are incorporated into

Reverse transcriptase inhibitor: binds to DNA polymerase

Which of the following molecules would be expected to be immunogenic? - Glucose, a simple sugar. - Serum albumin, a large protein. - Progesterone, a lipid hormone. - Linoleic acid, a fatty acid. - These are all equally immunogenic.

Serum albumin, a large protein.

An early attempt by Cohn at bacterial classification grouped bacteria according to their A. biochemistry. B. Gram stain. C. shape. D. arrangement.

Shape

Generalized anaphylaxis is generally characterized by: A) wheal and flare. B) inflammation. C) shock. D) rash. E) sepsis.

Shock pg 442 - anaphylactic shock - anaphylaxis is life threatening - epi pen - Type I Hypersensitivity: Immediate IgE-mediated.

- Tightly binds and solubilizes iron for uptake by bacteria. - Provides adhesion to select tissues. - Increases penetration through or between cells to underlying tissues. - Interferes with phagocytosis. - Confers motility to reach infective site.

Sidiophore Fimbriae Exoenzyme Slime Layer Flagella Got these right

The characteristic common to all lipids is their

Solubility in organic solvents AND hydrophobic nature

Translation Termination

Stop codon aligned to A site. Proteins called release factors stop elongation and activate riboenzymes in the large subunit to sever polypeptide from the tRNA in the P site.

Which of the following is NOT associated with a Clostridium species? - Botulism - Antibiotic-associated diarrheal disease - Gas gangrene - Strep throat - Tetanus

Strep throat

Which of the following members of the normal flora inhibits the growth of Corynebacterium diphtheriae by producing hydrogen peroxide?

Streptococcus species.

- was isolated from prontosil by Pasteur institute investigators -was the first of the modern chemotherapeutic agents - is an example of a true chemotherapeutic agent - is not produced by a living organism - interferes with folic acid metabolism in susceptible bacteria

Sulfonamide

CD8 cells are: - natural killer cells. - macrophages. - T cytotoxic cells. - plasma cells. - T helper cells.

T cytotoxic cells

The stimulation of B cells to divide and mature is provided by: - T helper cells. - plasma cells. - erythrocytes. - T cytotoxic cells. - macrophages.

T helper cells

CD4 cells are: A) T helper cells. B) natural killer cells. C) T cytotoxic cells. D) macrophages. E) neutrophils.

T helper cells - T cytotoxic cells are CD8 cells

T/F - Bacteria and Archaea both have members that use sulfur compounds as a terminal electron acceptor.

TRUE

T/F - Endospores of Bacillus stearothermophilus are used in testing autoclave operation.

TRUE

T/F - The most medically relevant species of Pseudomonas is P. aeruginosa.

TRUE

Prokaryotic Transcription

Takes place in the cytoplasm. Less complex.

Eukaryotic Transcription

Takes place in the nucleus. Has more transcription factors. Processing occurs after termination: addition of a 5' guanine cap, 3' polyadenylation, and splicing of introns/exons.

You add an unknown phage to a mixture of F+ and F− cells of E. coli and plate out the bacteria. The bacterial colonies that grow are all F−. How can you explain this phenomenon?

The phage bound to a receptor on the sex pilus, and therefore only infected the F+ cells (leaving the F− cells alone).

The purple sulfur and green sulfur bacteria: - generate oxygen and lack gas vesicles. - generate oxygen. - preferentially use organic molecules as an electron source. - both use hydrogen sulfide as a source of electrons. - both lack gas vesicles.

both use hydrogen sulfide as a source of electrons.

If you know the sequence of nucleotides in mRNA, you can deduce the DNA sequence it was transcribed from

True

Klebsiella species easily acquire and are a source of R pneumococcal pneumonia. T/F

True

Most of the medically important multicellular parasites are arthropods or helminths, true or false?

True

New cases of tuberculosis are frequently the result of reactivation of old dormant infections. T/F

True

Of infectious diseases, pneumonia is a major killer in the general population. T/F

True

Only eukaryotic mRNA is processed before translation

True

Plasmids often carry the information for antibiotic resistance. True False

True

Prokaryotes lack membrane-enclosed organelles

True

T-F: ATP synthase is a complex enzyme needed for oxidative phosphorylation.

True

T/F - Agglutination reactions utilize particles rather than molecules.

True

T/F - All known species of bacteria are described in Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology.

True

T/F - All viruses must separate the nucleic acid from the capsid before replication.

True

T/F - An adjuvant has been developed from lipid A.

True

T/F - An infectious disease is an infection that impairs the normal state of health.

True

T/F - Anaphylaxis is the name given to allergic reactions caused by IgE-mediated release of mast cell granules.

True

T/F - Antifungal drugs usually target the cell membrane.

True

T/F - Antimicrobial resistance can be due to spontaneous mutation or gene acquisition.

True

T/F - Antimicrobials that have a high therapeutic index are less toxic to the patient.

True

T/F - Based on DNA hybridization, humans and chimpanzees are the same species.

True

T/F - Beta-lactam drugs are only effective against growing bacteria.

True

T/F - Certain antimicrobials may be life-threatening.

True

T/F - Chlamydia occurs in two forms, a reticulate body and an elementary body.

True

T/F - Drugs that target peptidoglycan do not affect eukaryotes.

True

T/F - Gene rearrangement is responsible for the generation of the various antibody molecules

True

T/F - Gene rearrangement is responsible for the generation of the various antibody molecules.

True

T/F - High concentrations of some bacteria are necessary for successful invasion because their virulence genes are only expressed at high population densities.

True

T/F - Human population growth and expansion contribute to emergence of diseases.

True

T/F - IgA is the most abundant immunoglobulin made by the body.

True

T/F - In 1928, Alexander Fleming observed that the growth of the bacterium Staphylococcus aureus was inhibited by a mold thereby discovering the first antibiotic.

True

T/F - MHC plays a pivotal role in transplant rejection.

True

T/F - Nosocomial infections are those acquired at a hospital.

True

T/F - Pneumonias are inflammatory diseases of the lung in which fluid fills the alveoli.

True

T/F - Recombinant vaccines and inactivated vaccines typically require several shots to be effective.

True

T/F - The MBC may be determined by an extension of the MIC.

True

T/F - The host range of a virus depends on the presence of host receptor molecules.

True

T/F - The key characteristic of a useful antimicrobial is selective toxicity.

True

T/F - The skin and oral cavity may have anaerobic microenvironments.

True

T/F - Virulent as well as temperate phages can serve as generalized transducing phages.

True

T/F - Viruses, viroids, and prions are obligate intracellular agents.

True

T/F - You isolate a prokaryote. After performing analysis on the organism, you cannot find a description matching that of your organism in the reference text Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology. This suggests that you have likely isolated a new organism.

True

T/F Horizontal DNA transfer may make it more difficult to construct phylogenetic trees.

True

T/F Size and shape may allow one to differentiate between a bacterium, fungus, or protozoan.

True

T/F Sometimes a piece of bacterial DNA near the specific site of insertion stays attached to the phage DNA, and a piece of phage DNA remains behind.

True

T/F The lambda phage DNA always integrates into the host DNA in the same specific site.

True

T/F: For prokaryotes, species is a group of closely related isolates or strains.

True

T/F: some antimicrobial fail to kill/inhibit a pathogen simply because the microbe is naturally (intrinsically) resistant to it.

True

The sequence of DNA bases ultimately determines the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide

True

Transposons may leave a cell by incorporating themselves into a plasmid. True False

True

True or false: transduction often involves defective virus

True

Typically, arthropods serve as vectors of disease, while helminths directly cause disease, true or false?

True

true or false: the integration of phage DNA into host DNA occurs in much the same fashion as seen in transformation, transduction, or conjugation.

True

T/F - Inactivated vaccines typically require booster shots.

True - attenuated (weakened but can still replicate) need 1 or 2 shots but inactivated ones can't replicate and typically require booster shots.

T/F - The risk of serious illness from measles is 500 times greater than from vaccination against the disease.

True - chances when not immunized is 1 in 2,000 but chances of serous illness from the vaccination itself is only 1 in 1,000,000. 2,000 times 500 is 1,000,000.

T/F - Attenuated agents often give rise to a long-lasting immunity.

True - create a stronger immune system response - memory cells get made.

T/F - The very young and the elderly are more susceptible to infectious disease.

True Age is a factor in susceptibility.

T/F - Diseases with long incubation periods are more likely to spread extensively.

True People walking about, not even knowing they are infected yet, spreading it around.

Klebsiella easily acquire and are a source of R factors. T/F

True Resistance transfer factor (shortened as R-factor or RTF) is an old name for a plasmid that codes for antibiotic resistance.

T/F - A lack of T cells makes one more vulnerable to intracellular parasites.

True - I think it's a subset of helper T cells.

T/F - Allergic rhinitis and hives may both respond to antihistamines.

True - Type I Hypersensitivity: Immediate IgE-mediated. Mast cell granules have histamines.

In prokaryotes, the mRNA transcript encounters ribosomal subunits immediately as it leaves the DNA

True - creation of polyribosome (polysome)

T/F - Rhizobium is considered an endosymbiont with plants.

True - specifically with root nodules of legumes where they fix nitrogen

A filamentous phage is incapable of causing a lytic infection.

True - they leave via extrusion

Replication, transcription and translation take place in the bacterial cytoplasm

True -in eukaryotes, 1 &2 in nucleolus, 3 in cytoplasm

Antibiotics that are most likely to disrupt the normal flora are termed: narrow-spectrum. broad-spectrum. targeted spectrum. semi-synthetic

broad-spectrum. Narrow spectrum affect a limited range and are less disruptive to normal microbiota.

In addition to lysis, animal viruses may exit the host cell by: - budding. - fusion. - endocytosis. - extrusion. - fission.

budding

The type of hypersensitivity expressed with the lysing of red blood cells is: A) type I. B) type II. C) type III. D) type IV. E) type V.

Type II - Type I is Immediate IgE-mediated - Type III involves immune complexes - Type IV is delayed-type cell-mediated

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? - nematodes : complete digestive tract - cestodes : all are free-living - trematodes : flukes - nematodes : many are free-living - cestodes : segmented body made of proglottids

cestodes all are free-living - these are tapeworms.

Convergent evolution... 1. refers to two different organisms that develop similar characteristics in adaptation to similar environments 2.explains the morphological similarity yet major genetic differences found between slime molds and fungi AND refers to two different organisms that develop similar characteristics in adaptation to similar environments. 3. explains the morphological similarity yet major genetic differences found between slime molds and fungi.

explains the morphological similarity yet major genetic differences found between slime molds and fungi AND refers to two different organisms that develop similar characteristics in adaptation to similar environments.

What metabolic process creates the rotten egg smell characteristic of many anaerobic environments?

When sulfur compounds are used as terminal electron acceptors, they become reduced to hydrogen sulfide (chemical responsible for smell)

Why would all protozoa be expected to require large amounts of water in their habitats? - They require water to help them during photosynthesis by providing an electron source. - Without being in water, they would quickly undergo plasmolysis (due to their small size) and die. - Without being in water, they would quickly dehydrate (due to their small size) and die. - They require water to move around in to seek food particles and would be unable to move without water. - None of the statements is correct.

Without being in water, they would quickly dehydrate (due to their small size) and die.

During maturation or formation of phage particles:

a few phage heads may surround fragments of host bacterial DNA.

Macroscopic algae possess a special structure that acts as an anchor and is commonly called: 1. the stipe. 2. roots. 3. the bladder. 4. a thallus. 5. a holdfast.

a holdfast

Plague is caused by Yersinia pestis, a Gram-negative facultatively anaerobic rod. It is non-motile and grows best at 28°C. Because you are a microbiology student, you know that the organism is: - a mesophile that cannot grow when oxygen is present. - a mesophile that grows best in the presence of oxygen but can also grow without it. - a mesophile that grows best without oxygen but can also grow when oxygen is present. - a psychrophile that grows best in the presence of oxygen but can also grow without it. - a psychrophile that grows best without oxygen but can also grow when oxygen is present.

a mesophile that grows best in the presence of oxygen but can also grow without it.

The changes that occur in virally infected cells are characteristic for a particular virus and are referred to as the: - genotypic expression. - cytology. - cytopathic effect. - symptomatic effect. - phenotypic effect.

cytopathic effect

E. coli 0157:H7

does not ferment sorbitol AND produces a toxin.

The work of Tyndall and Cohn

explained why some spontaneous generation investigators got different results from those of Pasteur.

Convergent evolution

The site at which a virus has infected and subsequently lysed the infected cell, releasing its progeny to infect and lyse surrounding cells, thereby forming a "clear zone," is: - a plaque. - a burst area. - a lyse area. - a dead zone. - a zone of inhibition.

a plague - they count these in plaque assays

If the codon CCU is positioned in the A site of the ribosome, which of the following will occur?

a tRNA with the anticodon CCA will deliver its amino acid to the site - Should be GG

In a quantal assay, animal viruses are quantified by

administering several dilutions of a virus preparation to a number of animals, cells, or chick embryos, then determining the dilution that infected/killed 50% of the group.

Why are we concerned at all with monitoring emerging/reemerging diseases?

all of the above.

Protein denaturation can

all of the choices are correct

The subunits (building blocks) of proteins are

amino acids.

Localized injury or death of tissue resulting from repeated injections of an antigen into a person with high levels of circulating specific antibody is known as: A) farmer's lung. B) German measles. C) serum sickness. D) an Arthus reaction. E) disseminated intravascular coagulation.

an Arthus reaction

In conjugation the donor cell is recognized by the presence of an F plasmid. a Y chromosome. diploid chromosomes. an SOS response. an F plasmid AND diploid chromosomes.

an F plasmid

The antimicrobials produced by some molds and bacteria are generally called: insecticides. biocides. antiseptics. antibiotics.

antibiotics. Molds and bacteria can produce antibiotics. - antibiotics - antimicrobial medications naturally produced by microorganisms.

The humoral immune response is delivered by: A) antibodies. B) T cells. C) lymphokines. D) antigens. E) antibodies AND lymphokines.

antibodies

Specific regions on an antigen molecule to which the immune response is directed are: - allergens. - monomers. - an autoimmune response. - antigenic determinants. - antibody determinants.

antigenic determinants - also called epitopes.

The process used for identifying different carbohydrates of streptococci: - Lancefield grouping. - CHO typing. - peptidoglycan typing. - fermentation testing. - NAAT typing.

Lancefield Grouping - Better predictor of pathogenic potential then hemolysis (beta or alpha on blood agar plate)

Legionella pneumophila, a fastidious Gram-negative rod.

Why is it a good strategy for a microbe to adhere to a receptor that plays a critical function for a host cell?

Microbes want to evade detection and elimination by the immune system-the closer they can adhere to host cells, the less likely they are to trigger destructive immune responses. This would be similar to using a hostage as a shield in a police-standoff situation.

Antibodies that have arisen in the blood plasma without any obvious or deliberate stimulus are called: A) natural. B) acquired. C) injurious. D) active. E) inactive.

Natural

Repression

Negative control. A co-repressor activates the repressor. Usually anabolic pathways that are regulated this way. Trp operon.

Induction

Negative control. An inducer deactivates the repressor. Usually catabolic pathways that are regulated this way. Lac operon.

Which of the following best explains why Bruce Ames added a rat liver step to his mutagen testing? A) It better modeled how carcinogens act in the body. B) The rat liver extracts increased the mutation rate in the bacteria. C) Rat liver cells detected the mutagens. D) The rat liver produces histidine. E) None of the above are correct.

No answer but I think it's A. - add rat liver to the Ames test so see if a suspected mutagen becomes a problem when in the presence of bodily enzymes.

An antibiotic is added to a culture of E. coli, resulting in death of the cells. Bacteriophages are then added. Would the phages replicate in the E. coli cells? Why or why not? - No, because the bacteriophages would depend too much on having the active machinery of a living host cell for replication. - Yes, because bacteriophages are capable of reanimating dead cells to force them to produce more virus particles. - No, because dead E. coli cells do not have any receptors on their cell walls to which the bacteriophages can attach for entry into the host cell by fusion. - Yes, because the cellular machinery of the bacteria is most likely still active. The bacteriophages could use that machinery to replicate new virus particles. - No, because entry of the bacteriophages into the target cell is dependent on the cell being alive to conduct endocytosis of the virus.

No, because the bacteriophages would depend too much on having the active machinery of a living host cell for replication.

Azotobacter -is used as an indicator of fecal pollution. - forms endospores. - fixes carbon dioxide. -is a hyperthermophile. -fixes nitrogen.

fixes nitrogen - and forms cysts

Bacteria have been used to help produce or modify food products

for several thousand years.

In conjugation, transformation, or transduction, the recipient bacteria is most likely to accept donor DNA from any source. from any species of bacteria. from the same species of bacteria. only through plasmids. from any source AND only through plasmids.

from the same species of bacteria.

DNA repair mechanisms occur only in prokaryotes. only in eukaryotes. in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes. in neither eukaryotes or prokaryotes.

in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes.

Viruses may only be grown

in living cells.

Viruses are often referred to as

infectious agents

Microorganisms can also be placed in ____________________ groups that are may be genetically unrelated.

informal ex) lactic acid bacteria, anoxygenic phototrophs, endospore formers, sulfate reducers

The spread of mycoplasma is through: A) inhalation of infected droplets. B) the fecal-oral route. C) an insect vector. D) a fomite such as a towel. E) opportunistic normal microbiota.

inhalation of infected droplets.

Organisms probably do not have a common ancestor. may be classified in three domains. may be classified in four domains. have never shared genes between domains.

may be classified in three domains.

Carriers: - have been cured of the infection. - may have a persistent infection. - may be a source of infection. - may have a persistent infection AND may be a source of infection. - usually show symptoms of the disease AND may be a source of infection.

may have a persistent infection AND may be a source of infection.

The beauty of specific immunity is the production of ____ that provide long-lasting protection. A. plasma cells B. memory cells C. phagocytotic cells D. T helper cells E. antibodies

memory cells Got this right

Although it is said that the twentieth century was the Age of Physics, it is predicted that the twenty-first century will be the age of

microbial biodiversity

Although it is said that the twentieth century was the Age of Physics, it is predicted that the twenty-first century will be the age of

microbial biodiversity.

Cellulose is a major component of plants and is only directly digested by

microorganisms.

Prions affect the: - respiratory system. - lymphatic system. - nervous system. - urogenital system. - gastrointestinal tract.

nervous system

The Golden Age of Medical Microbiology

occurred during the late 1800s to early 1900s, is a time when the knowledge of and techniques to work with bacteria blossomed AND was when people realized that diseases could be caused by invisible agents.

Viruses:

probably keep the numbers of bacteria in check AND are active in passing DNA from one bacterium to another.

The most important feature of a protein is its

shape

Bacteria are good models to use because they

share many biochemical and physiological properties with more complicated organisms.

Bacteria are good models to use because they

share many biochemical/physiological properties with more complicated organisms.

The contradictory results obtained by scientists apparently doing the same experiments in investigating spontaneous generation

shows the importance of exactly duplicating experimental conditions.

When cellular slime molds run out of food, they form a: 1. bladder. 2. rhizoid. 3. myxamoeba. 4. plasmodium. 5. slug.

slug

The science that studies organisms to arrange them into groups, or _________, is:

taxa, Taxonomy

nucleic acid probe

the complementary molecule, a short, single-stranded nucleic acid that can be either RNA or DNA

Anoxygenic phototrophs: - use water as a source of electrons. - use the same form of chlorophyll found in terrestrial plants. - produce oxygen. - produce oxygen AND use the same form of chlorophyll found in terrestrial plants. - use hydrogen sulfide or organic compounds as a source of electrons.

use hydrogen sulfide or organic compounds as a source of electrons.

Direct selection involves inoculating cells onto growth media on which the mutant but not the parental cell type will grow. the mutation will be reversed. the nutrients necessary for mutation to occur are present. the mutagen is present.

the mutant but not the parental cell type will grow.

The smallest organism is probably determined by

the number of molecules necessary for its growth and replication AND the size of the molecules necessary for its growth and replication.

the smallest organism is probably determined by

the number of molecules necessary for its growth and replication AND the size of the molecules necessary for its growth and replication.

The integration of phage DNA into the bacterial chromosome occurs because of: - the similarity in enzyme metabolism in the phage and the bacterial cell. - the phage's ability to synthesize enzymes to enter the bacterium AND similar RNA nucleotides in both. - the phage's ability to synthesize an enzyme that integrates its DNA into the host's chromosome. - similarity in RNA nucleotides in both the phage and the bacterial host. - the phage's ability to synthesize enzymes that allow it to enter the bacterium.

the phage's ability to synthesize an enzyme that integrates its DNA into the host's chromosome. - the enzyme integrase

If while investigating Spontaneous Generation, Pasteur had his laboratory located in a stable

the results would, most likely, have supported the idea of spontaneous generation

The F plasmid carries the information for antibiotic resistance. recipient cell DNA replication. the Y chromosome. the sex pilus. antibiotic resistance AND the Y chromosome.

the sex pills

global control

the simultaneous regulation of many bacterial genes

Two different mechanisms for copying the DNA strands are used because

the strands are oriented in opposite directions

The process of transcription is similar to

the synthesis of the leading strand during DNA replication - made in the 5' to 3' direction (past to future)

During penetration of E. coli by the T4 phage,: - the tail acts as a "hypodermic needle," injecting the phage DNA into the cell. - the protein fibers digest a hole in the cell wall. - the intact phage enters the host by endocytosis. - lysozyme is used to allow entry of the phage capsid. - the bacterial receptor molecules open a hole through the cell wall.

the tail acts as a "hypodermic needle," injecting the phage DNA into the cell.

The toxicity of a given drug is expressed as the: selective toxicity. biocide index. biostatic index. therapeutic index.

therapeutic index TI = toxic dose/therapeutic dose - higher is better - means a larger difference between toxic and therapeutic dose (larger therapeutic window)

HIV/AIDS can be categorized as a new or emerging infectious disease. By putting it into this category, we are effectively saying that

this infection hasn't been observed in the human population prior to recent (approximately 50 years or sooner) outbreaks.

Irradiation of cells with ultraviolet light may cause 4 nucleotides to covalently bind together. thymine dimers. adenine complementary base pairing with cytosine. the addition of uracil.

thymine dimers

In general, when saturated fats are compared to unsaturated fats (assuming the same number of carbon atoms in the molecule)

unsaturated fats have a lower melting temperature. ????

The scientist usually considered the first to see microorganisms, which he called "animalcules", was

van Leeuwenhoek.

A phage that replicates inside the host cell and then lyses its host during its release is a: - dormant phage. - temperate phage. - virulent or lytic phage. - lysogenic phage. - latent phage.

virulent or lytic phage. - ex) T4 lytic phage

The immunoglobulin monomer consists of: - five light chains. - three heavy and three light chains. - four large chains. - two heavy and two light chains. - one heavy and two light chains.

- two heavy and two light chains.

T/F - During incubation and convalescence a person may still spread infectious organisms.

True - carriers

The outbreak of measles within the last few years was due to

a decline in vaccination of children in the previous years.

Penicillin has been modified to make derivatives that differ in all of the following except: a) spectrum of activity b) resistance to beta-lactamases c) potential for allergic reactions d) a and c

c) potential for allergic reactions

Gene transfer that requires cell-to-cell contact is transformation. competency. conjugation. functional genomics.

conjugation

The transfer of vancomycin resistance from Enterococcus faecalis to Staphylococcus aureus is thought to have involved conjugation. transformation. transduction. transposons. conjugation AND transposons.

conjugation AND transposons

A catalase-negative colony growing on a plate that was incubated aerobically could be which of the following genera?

Streptococcus

This strep throat bacteria yields Beta-hemolytic colonies on blood agar.

Streptococcus pyogenes

What type of bonding holds one strand of DNA to the complementary strand of DNA?

hydrogen

Synthesis of mRNA is

in the 5' to 3' direction with new nucleotides being added to the 3' end of the mRNA molecule

When a repressor binds to the operator site on DNA,

it blocks RNA polymerase binding and mRNA synthesis

Which of the following is not typical of an antigen? A) Protein B) Foreign C) Low molecular weight D) Polysaccharide E) Low molecular weight AND protein

low molecular weight - it's the larger things that tend to be antigenic

Prosthecae are an adaptation for

low nutrient aquatic environments - for attachment and nutrient absorption

RNA interference (RNAi) is a mechanisms by which

eukaryotic cells destroy RNA transcripts in a selective and specific manner to control gene expression

The filamentous phages all contain: - single-stranded RNA. - single-stranded DNA. - single-stranded RNA, OR single-stranded DNA - double-stranded RNA. - double-stranded DNA.

single-stranded DNA.

Klebsiella Pneumonia

- Enterobacteria such as Klebsiella sp. and other Gram negative rods can cause pneumonia, especially if host defenses are impaired - Klebsiella sp. common hospital-acquired pathogens, cause most of the deaths from healthcare-associated infections Signs/Symptoms: - 1-3 day incubation - cough, chills, SOB, fever, chest pain and cyanosis - same as for penumococcal pneumonia - chills are repeated chills and a thick, bloody, JELLY-LIKE sputum Causative Agent: - Klebsiella pneumoniae - G- rod with large capsule that produces mucoid (mucusy) colonies - common part of normal microbiota in GI tract and my be sound in mouth or throat Pathogenesis: - person-to-person contact through secretions (contact or inhalation) or from medical equipment like ventilators - first colonize throat, then to lungs via inhaled air or mucus - adhesins aid in colonization - virulence factors: - capsule - interferes with opsonin C3b - sidiophore - high affinity for Fe, quickly grabs up the cell's iron. The iron depletion acts as a celluler stressor that induces inflammation and ehances the spread of bacteria. - klebsiella bacteria results in more tissue damage than does pneumococcal pneumonia and in the rapid formation of LUNG ABSCESSES. - means even if meds work the damage to lungs may be permanent and the perosn may still die. - infeciton can spread through the blood, causing abscesses in other tissues, like liver/brain or causing septic/endotoxic shock. Epidemiology: - Klebsiella is widespread in nature and common in normal microbiota. People who get this pneumonia are very old/young or have a comprommised immune system - strains that circulate in hospitals/nursing homes are often resistant to antimicrobials and more are becoming multi-drug resistant Tx/Prevention: - treat with antibiotics - drug sensitivity testing to figure out which ones - seriously ill? Immediately give combination antibiotic therapy - surgery to drain abscesses - tx is challenging - strains becoming multi-drug resistant Most have plasmids: β-lactamase (resist β-lactams such as penicillin); many also extended-spectrum lactamase (ESBL) (resist many cephalosporins) - fatality rate can reach 50% - No specific preventative measures like vaccination - prevent spread by following infection control measures (gown, glove, wash hands), disinfect environment, use sterile respiratory equipment and give antibiotics only when you have to control but avoid development of resistance.

Nonsense Mutation

A mutation in which a coding codon is changed to a stop codon.

Bacteria are useful to study because

All of the choices are correct

The most effective form of penicillin is: A. B. E. G.

Nucleotide Excision Repair

Short section removed and corrected on one strand.

Sarcoptes scabiei

The mite that causes scabies in humans and mange in dogs.

T/F - A placebo is a mock drug.

True

Viruses, viroids, and prions all

are acellular agents of disease.

The lac operon is _______

inducible - usually off, can be turned on.

Bioremediation refers to

using bacteria to clean up pollutants.

Which antibiotics may be completely ineffective in treating a mycoplasmal infection? A) Penicillin AND tetracycline B) Penicillin AND cephalosporin C) Tetracycline AND cephalosporin D) Cephalosporin AND erythromycin E) Erythromycin AND tetracycline

Penicillin AND cephalosporin Both work against the cell wall, mycoplasma has no cell wall.

The 3 toxins that Bordatella pertussis produces:

Petussis Toxin (PT) - an A-B toxin, B attaches to receptor on host cell, A detaches and gets into cytoplasm where it is activated into an ENZYME. It activates a membrane-bound regulatory protein that controls production of cAMP, leading to more cAMP being made. High levels of cAMP interfere with cell isgnalling -> significant increase in mucus made, decreased killing ability of phagocytes, massive release of lymphocytes into blood, ineffective NK cells and low blood sugar. Adenylate cyclase toxin (ACT) - an a membrane-damaging toxin and an enzyme. Toxin reduces phygocytosis by causing lysis of accumulating WBCs. INsdie the cell it also catalyzes the rxn that converts ATP to cAMP. Tracheal cytotoxin (TCT) - is a fragment of peptidoglycan that B. pertussis released during growth and it causes host cells to release a fever-inducing cytokine (interleukin-1). Is also toxic to ciliated epithelial cells - they die and slough off, rapid decline in ciliary action.

Frameshift Mutation

Mutation that involves the insertion or deletion of a nucleotide in the DNA sequence.

Please select the definition that is INCORRECT. - Mycobacteria—Gram-negative bacteria that group together to form complex fruiting bodies. - Chemolithotrophs—organisms that harvest energy by oxidizing inorganic chemicals. - Anoxygenic phototrophs—photosynthetic organisms that do not produce O2. - Chemotrophs—organisms that obtain energy by oxidizing chemical compounds. - Nitrifiers—Gram-negative bacteria that obtain energy by oxidizing inorganic nitrogen compounds.

Mycobacteria—Gram-negative bacteria that group together to form complex fruiting bodies.

The Gram-positive rod that is also acid-fast and is a human pathogen is

Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

Which of the following bacteria have an innate resistance to penicillin? S. aureus S. epidermidis M. luteus Mycoplasma

Mycoplasma With no cell wall and not peptidoglycan synthesis - what's a penicillin to do?

What is the sequence of electron carriers in a respiratory chain?

NADH dehydrogenase, FMN, Co Q, Cytochrome b, Cytochrome c1, Cytochrome c, Cytochrome a and a3.

The most common method of transfer of antimicrobial resistance is through the use of: viruses. R plasmids. introns. exons.

R plasmids. Conjugation - plasmid transfer - other microorganisms become resistant too.

The scientist who developed a system of identifying the variety of strains of Streptococci was: - Hans Zimmer. - Donald Sutherland. - O. T. Avery. - Rebecca Lancefield. - Louis Pasteur.

Rebecca Lancefield

Rebecca Lancefield - demonstrated that streptococci can be classified according to their cell wall carbohydrates. - this system : Lancefield grouping Before Lancefield streptococcal classification was based on the type of hemolysis displayed when organism were grown on blood agar. - beta hemolysis = clear spots on blood agar - alpha hemolysis = greenish partial clearing on blood agar

Rebecca Lancefield • divided streptococci into groups based on surface antigens instead of blood agar hemolysis • α-hemolytic streptococci • classified β-hemolytic streptococci according to cell wall carbohydrates • System now known as "Lancefield grouping" • Strains from human infections have same cell wall carbohydrate ("A"), different from other sources • Better predictor of pathogenic potential then hemolysis •

Which of the following definitions is CORRECT? - Zooplankton—microscopic free-floating photosynthetic organisms. - Saprophytes—organisms that take in nutrients from dead and decaying matter. Proglottids—short, non-segmented, bilaterally symmetrical flatworms. Kinetoplastids—a group of protozoa that penetrate host cells by means of a structure called an apical complex. Mycelium—thread-like structure that characterizes the growth of most fungi and some bacterial species.

Saprophytes—organisms that take in nutrients from dead and decaying matter. - zoo = animal - flatworms (Platyhelminthes) - proglottids are the tapeworm segments with both male and female reproductive structures. - Apicomplexans have the apical complex. - the threadlike structures are filaments and a visible mass of them is the mycellium.

Prokaryotic cell mutations can be observed very quickly because the prokaryotic chromosome is diploid. polyploid. haploid. polysomal.

haploid

Smallpox

has been eliminated as a naturally occurring infection in human beings, AND was dealt with by vaccination

Smallpox probably only had a human reservoir. has been eliminated as a naturally occurring infection in human beings, AND was dealt with by vaccination. was dealt with by vaccination. has been eliminated as a naturally occurring infection in human beings. still occasionally occurs in third world countries.

has been eliminated as a naturally occurring infection in human beings, AND was dealt with by vaccination.

Smallpox very seldom kills people, but does scar them. has occurred in a few countries since 1977. has not occurred anywhere in the word since 1977. has little potential as a weapon of bioterrorism.

has not occurred anywhere in the word since 1977.

Primary reservoir for Diphtheria is:

humans - Spread by AIR, acquired via inhalation or from fomites. Cutaneous diphtheria with chronic ulcers - may be a source is a person comes into contact with them. - treat with injection of anti-serum - give immediately is diphtheria is suspected because the delay to culture it could be fatal. - antibodies can clear the bacterium but too much absorbed toxin can be deadly. - even with treatment, mortality is ~10%

the 2 strands of dna are joined to each other or held together by

hydrogen bonding

Chemical mutagens often act by altering the alkyl groups of the nucleobase. nucleobase sequence. number of binding sites on the nucleobase. hydrogen bonding properties of the nucleobase.

hydrogen bonding properties of the nucleobase.

Molecular Koch's Postulates were developed to:

identify virulence factors associated with pathogenic strains of bacteria

All of the statements about specialized transduction are correct EXCEPT: - it involves temperate phages. - it involves the random transmission of any gene. - it involves the transfer of a few specific genes. - it involves a defective virus. - it only involves genes near the viral DNA integration site.

it involves the random transmission of any gene. - that is with generalized transduction

When bacterium is grown on glucose only,

it must synthesize all the amino acids it needs

In an inducible operon, when a substrate or inducer is present,

it reacts with the pressor and inactivates it

What role does the sigma factor of RNA polymerase have in transcription?

it recognizes and binds to the promoter region of the template RNA

mycoplasma

lack peptidoglycan, are the smallest free-living organisms AND have sterols in their membranes - mycoplasma has NO CELL WALL

One group of animal viruses that are able to agglutinate red blood cells are the

orthomyxoviruses.

−Not all coliforms are harmless and symbiotic with human beings. Some may carry genes/proteins that can make them dangerous to humans. It's best to keep coliforms OUT of our drinking water, since it's difficult to identify which ones might be harmless and which ones might be harmful.

microscopic morphology

- fresh or stained microorganisms from specimen; shape, size, stain reaction, cell structures; quick

AIDS associated illnesses

1. Mycobacterium spp. 2. Pneumocystis pneumonia 3. Cytomegalovirus 4. Toxoplasmosis 5. Esophageal Candidiasis 6. Cryptococcosis

Nervous system, meningioencephalitis, and more encephalopathies

1. Naegleria 2. Arboviruses 3. Rabies 4. Tetanus 5. Transmissible Spongiform encephalopathies 6. Polio

The common cold - Causative Agent:

- 30-50% caused by the 100+ types of human RHINOVIRUSES - family Picornaviridae - group of naked ssRNA viruses - can be grown in culture - in live cells at 33C and slightly acidic pH (conditions mimic upper respiratory tract) - inactivated if pH drops below 5.3 (too acidic) - so destroyed in the stomach - many other viruses (like some adenoviruses and coronaviruses) can produce signs/symptoms of the common cold

Why do some otitis media cases not respond to antibiotic treatment? - Most cases are caused by bacteria that are resistant to commonly prescribed antibiotics. - About 30% of cases are caused by respiratory viruses—antibiotics do not help these cases. - Otitis media is caused by viruses that constantly undergo antigenic shift and/or antigenic drift. - The bacterial causative organisms mutate frequently, changing their antibiotic target sites. - Unless the exact causative organism is identified, it is impossible to prescribe the correct antibiotic.

- About 30% of cases are caused by respiratory viruses—antibiotics do not help these cases. p.535 "about 1/3 of cases are caused by RESPIRATORY VIRUSES, explaining why sonme infections do not respond to antibiotics, which have no effect on viruses."

Which of the following statements about helminths is FALSE? - Some have male and female reproductive organs in one animal. - They are heterotrophic. - They have eukaryotic cells. - They are multicellular animals. - All are parasites.

- All are parasites. Some are parasites. Helminths are worms, a type of animal.

The exotoxin produced by Corynebacterium diphtheriae: - causes an inflammatory response. - causes the formation of a pseudomembrane on the respiratory mucosa. - may destroy cardiac and kidney tissue. - All of the choices are correct.

- All of the choices are correct.

Which of the following drug(s) is(are) used to treat tuberculosis? - Isoniazid - Ethambutol - Pyrazinamide - All of the choices are correct.

- All of the choices are correct.

Which of the following may be associated with nosocomial disease? - Enterococcus species. - Escherichia coli. - Pseudomonas species. - Staphylococcus aureus. - All of the choices are correct.

- All of the choices are correct.

Which of the following is prevented by the DTaP vaccine? - Diphtheria - Whooping cough - Tetanus - All of the choices are correct.

- All of the choices are correct. D- diphtheria - toxoid T - Tetnus - toxoid aP - acellular (subunit) Pertussis

All of the following are examples of fixed macrophages EXCEPT: - Kupffer cells. - alveolar macrophages. - microglia. - All of these are examples of fixed macrophages

- All of these are examples of fixed macrophages Ch 14 again. - liver - lungs - brain

Which of the following statements regarding protozoa is FALSE? - Some protozoa are parasitic. - All protozoa lack mitochondria. - Protozoa are unicellular organisms. - Some protozoa are photosynthetic. - Trichomoniasis is caused by a protozoan.

- All protozoa lack mitochondria.

Adenoviruses - Prevention/Tx:

- As with colds, no specific tx for adenoviruses, most patients recover on their own - if secondary bacterial infections occur ->antibiotics - available is an orally given attenuated vaccine against 2 serotypes most likely to cause severe disease but only given to Military recruits

How can Streptococcus pyogenes initially be differentiated from other Streptococcus species that form part of the throat normal microbiotia? - By Gram staining—it is a Gram-positive organism. - By culturing the bacteria on nutrient agar and checking for hemolysis. - By morphology—the bacteria are spherical and grow in long chains. - By detection of the "A" carbohydrate in its cell wall using antibodies. - By specific disease signs and symptoms, including sore throat and fever.

- By detection of the "A" carbohydrate in its cell wall using antibodies. p.537. The organism can be differentiated from other streptococci that normally inhabit the throat by its colony morphology on blood agar - S. pyogenes colonies are surrounded by a characteristic clear zone ob beta-hemolysis. Mos species of Streptococcus that are typically part of the normal throat microbiota are either alpha-hemolytic or non-hemolytic. A few other streptococci are beta-hemolytic too though so what else? S. pyogenes is commonly referred to as GAS - Lancefield grouping uses antibodies to distinguish the cell wall carbs in streptococcal species and S. pyogenes is characterized by the "A" carb in its cell walls. That's why this answer and not the second one.

What is the most likely reason why smokers are more at risk for respiratory system infections? - Cigarette smoke is carcinogenic (cancer-causing), leading to a much higher incidence of lung cancer. - They aren't; this is just a rumor used to get people to stop smoking. - Smokers take in microbes from their hands into their lungs as they handle cigarettes and inhale the smoke. - Tobacco contains viruses that are inhaled when a person smokes; these cause respiratory infections. - Chemicals in cigarette smoke can impair the mucociliary escalator, preventing natural cleansing of the respiratory tract.

- Chemicals in cigarette smoke can impair the mucociliary escalator, preventing natural cleansing of the respiratory tract. slide 9 - ciliary movement is impaired by: smoking, alcohol/narcotic abuse, viral infections. Increased the chance of infection if you can't move the mucus up and out of the lungs.

Which is the causative agent of the upper respiratory tract infection characterized by the formation of a pseudomembrane on the tonsils or in the throat? - Streptococcus pneumoniae - Mycobacterium tuberculosis - Corynebacterium diphtheriae - Mycoplasma pneumoniae - Bordetella pertussis

- Corynebacterium diphtheriae

A bacteriophage is necessary for toxin production in: - E. coli. - Staphylococcus aureus. - Corynebacterium diphtheriae. - Streptococcus pyogenes. - All of the answer choices are correct.

- Corynebacterium diphtheriae. - a lysogenic bateriophage - lysogenic converstion - it makes diphtheria toxin - an A-B exotoxin. Not a good question because the strains of S. pyogenes that make SPEs do so because of lysogenic converstion too. - superantigen - erythrogenic toxin -> scarlet fever.

Which of the following is a virulence factor of Streptococcus pyogenes? - M protein - Capsule - Endotoxin AND pili - M protein AND pili - M protein AND capsule

- M protein AND capsule M protein - adhesin. Inactivates C3b of compliment - INTERFERES WITH PHAGOCYTOSIS Capsule - hyaluronic acid - mimics host cell structure and INHIBITS PHAGOCYTOSIS

Which of the following is/are not associated with strep throat? - Sore throat and fever. - Patches of pus in the throat. - Enlarged lymph nodes in the neck. - Cough and nasal discharge. - Abdominal pain and headache.

- Cough and nasal discharge. Strep throat is characterized by sore throat, difficulty swallowing, fever after an incubation period of 2-5 days. Throat red with patches of pus and scattered tiny hemorrhages. Lymph nodes in neck enlarged/tender. In older kids and young adults - abdominal pain or headache. Pts do not usually have a cough, weepy yes or runny nose. Spontaneously recover in 1 wk Many have mild or no symptoms at all.

Which is used in the vaccination for C. diphtheriae? - Protein A - M protein - Lipopolysaccharide - Intact bacteria - Exotoxin

- Exotoxin It is an inactivated toxoid vaccine - doesn't replicate in the host, is exotoxin treated with formalin - Toxoid vaccines use a toxin (harmful product) made by the germ that causes a disease. They create immunity to the parts of the germ that cause a disease instead of the germ itself. That means the immune response is targeted to the toxin instead of the whole germ. DTap - diphtheria, tetnus, pertussis - need a booster every 10 years as immunity decreases after childhood.

Your son comes home from school complaining that he is ill. He tells you he thinks he has the flu—he has a sore throat, runny nose, and a cough, and his eyes are very red. Everyone in your family received a influenza vaccine about a month ago, and as the CDC reports that this year's vaccine is approximately 70% effective, you think it is unlikely that your son does in fact have this disease. In addition, your son does not seem to have muscle aches or a headache, which generally occur with flu. Nonetheless, he does look ill and when you take his temperature, you find that he has a fever of 38.9oC. You take him to see his doctor, because you suspect that while your son likely does not have influenza, he also does not have a common cold. The doctor knows that your son is unlikely to have a common cold, based on which sign/symptom? A) Sore throat B) Fever C) Cough D) Runny nose E) Fatigue The doctor checks your son's throat and notes that he has has gray-white pus on the pharynx and tonsils. He also has enlarged lymph nodes in his neck. This suggests to the doctor that your son has the bacterial infection ________, which he attempts to confirm by ________. A) strep throat; doing a rapid antigen detection test (RADT) and throat culture. B) pneumococcal pneumonia; doing a rapid antigen detection test (RADT) and throat culture. C) mycoplasmal pneumonia; performing a mantoux skin test and doing a throat culture. D) legionellosis; performing a mantoux skin test and a chest x-ray. E) tuberculosis; doing a throat culture and rapid TB skin test.

- Fever (no fever with common cold) - strep throat; doing a rapid antigen detection test (RADT) and throat culture.

Which statement regarding common colds and adenoviral respiratory tract infections is TRUE? A) Fever is a sign of adenoviral respiratory tract infections, but is not a sign for the common cold. B) The incubation period for adenoviral respiratory tract infections is 1-2 days, while that for common colds is 5-10 days. C) Cold viruses are non-enveloped, double-stranded DNA viruses while adenoviruses are non-enveloped single-stranded RNA viruses. D) Cold viruses may cause infections other than respiratory infections while adenoviruses only cause upper respiratory tract infections. E) Adenoviral respiratory tract infections may also be caused by bacteria while the common cold is always caused by a virus of some kind.

- Fever is a sign of adenoviral respiratory tract infections, but is not a sign for the common cold.

- Freshwater streams AND cooling towers.

You are an RN working in the emergency department (ED) at a major hospital in New York City. During one shift, you see two patients who are exhibiting coughing with blood-containing sputum, and shortness of breath. Both patients report that they have experienced headaches, muscle aches, high fever, confusion, and shaking chills in the days preceding their ED visit. One of the patients also has some digestive tract symptoms including diarrhea, abdominal pain, and vomiting. You discover that the patients live in the same apartment building, although they do not know each other. You suspect that they have a type of pneumonia, and given the circumstances, think it may be legionellosis. You read up on this disease to refresh your memory about it. What is the likely source of the L. pneumophila in this case? A) The cooling water tower providing feeding air conditioners in the patient's offices. B) The showers or faucets at the local gym where both patients regularly worked out. C) The produce section at the grocery store where vegetables are sprayed with water for freshness. D) The water tank in the patient's building that provides hot water to apartments. E) Further investigation by an agency such as the CDC would be needed to determine this.

- Further investigation by an agency such as the CDC would be needed to determine this. - why this instead of the water at their apartment - I realized that if it was any of these sources then it wouldn't just be the two of them. There are a lot of places they could have been exposed and the CDC should investigate.

Which of the following contribute to antibody diversity? - Positive selection, negative selection AND gene rearrangement - Imprecise joining AND combinatorial associations - Imprecise joining AND negative selection - Gene rearrangement, imprecise joining AND combinatorial associations - Gene rearrangement AND imprecise joining

- Gene rearrangement, imprecise joining AND combinatorial associations

Transduction resulting from a packaging error: Transduction resulting from an error in excision of a prophage:

- Generalized Transduction - Specialized Transduction

In tuberculosis, when a caseous lesion calcifies, it is called a _________. - tubercle - Ghon complex - tuberculous cavity - All of the choices are correct.

- Ghon complex

Which of the following does NOT form a memory population after activation and differentiation? - T cytotoxic cells. - T helper cells. - Macrophages. - B cells. - These all form memory cells.

- Macrophages.

The most common bacterial pathogen(s) involved with sinusitis, otitis media, and conjunctivitis is/are: - S. aureus AND H. influenzae. - H. influenzae AND S. pneumoniae. - H. influenzae AND S. epidermidis. - S. pneumoniae AND S. aureus. - S. epidermidis AND S. pneumoniae.

- H. influenzae AND S. pneumoniae. Many people carry strains w/o effect. Haemophilus influenzae is a tiny, G- rod. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a G+ diplococcus with a capsule (virulence factor) and is just called pneumoccocus. Strains that infect the conjunctiva have ADHESINS to attach firmly to the conjunctiva.

The common cold - Epidemiology:

- Humans = only source of cold viruses - spread = virus-containing droplets we inhale or infected secretions we rub in w/ contaminated hands. - first 2-3 days - high [virus] in snot/on hands - most likely to transmit virus then - day 4/5 - virus levels undetectable - low levels can be present for 2 wks - infective dose - a few virions - colds NOT highly contagious with preventions like washing hands

Which of the following is associated with the upper respiratory system? - Humidifying inhaled air. - Warming inhaled air AND drying inhaled air. - Cooling inhaled air AND drying inhaled air. - Cooling inhaled air AND humidifying inhaled air. - Humidifying inhaled air AND warming inhaled air

- Humidifying inhaled air AND warming inhaled air Incoming cold air initiates a nervous response that brings more blood flow to warm incoming air and contact with the mucus membranes humidify incoming air.

Which of the following best defines an endemic disease? - It is a disease that is always present at some level in a population. - It is a disease that has a much higher incidence than usual. - It is a disease that is transmitted by an arthropod vector. - It is a disease that used to be common but is eradicated through vaccination programs. - It is a disease that occurs naturally in animals but may spread to people.

- It is a disease that is always present at some level in a population

Which of the statements regarding Naegleria fowleri is FALSE? - Once in a human host, it assumes an amoeboid form. - It is swims though water as a flagellated form. - It causes primary amebic meningoencephalitis (brain eating disease). - It is a small, Gram-negative, flagellated diplococcus. - It forms a cyst under adverse environmental conditions.

- It is a small, Gram-negative, flagellated diplococcus. - an amoeboid Protozoa Naegleria fowleri infects people when water containing the AMOEBA enters the body through the nose. This typically occurs when people go swimming or diving in warm freshwater places, like lakes and rivers. The Naegleria fowleri ameba then travels up the nose to the brain where it destroys the brain tissue. - can't live in salt or treated water.

Mycoplasmal Pneumonia = Walking Pneumonia

- Leading pneumonia of college students, common among military recruits, children and young adults; generally mild - does not show the severe signs/symptoms of most other pneumonias so is called Atypical Pneumonia Signs/Symptoms: - 2-3 wk incubation (all others were just a couple of days) - onset is gradual; initial symptoms are fever, headache, muscle pain, fatigue. Dry cough after several days; mucoid sputum may be produced later - otitis media in ~15% of cases Causative Agent: - Mycoplasma pneumonia - small bacterium with no cell walls that makes 'fried egg' colonies - grows slowly and is aerobic Pathogenesis: - only a few inhaled cells can start infection - cells use adhesion proteins to attach to respiratory epithelium - Interfere with ciliary action, cause cells to slough off - Inflammatory response with accumulation of lymphocytes and macrophages thickens walls of bronchial tubes and alveoli - damage to mucociliary escalator means more vulnerable to secondary bacterial infections Epidemiology: - s spread by aerosolized droplets shed from about 1 week before symptoms begin to many weeks afterward • Accounts for ~1/5 of bacterial pneumonias • Immunity following recovery not permanent; repeat attacks have occurred within 5 years Tx/Prevention: - Mycoplasma pneumoniae lacks cell walls so antibiotics like beta lactams aren't going to work. - • Tetracycline, erythromycin shorten illness if given early, but they are only bacteriostatic • No preventative measures exist except avoiding overcrowding in schools, military facilities

Which of the following bacterial pathogens is found in aquatic environments and is commonly present in air conditioning systems and cooling towers? - Klebsiella pneumoniae - Enterobacter aerogenes - Vibrio cholera - Legionella pneumophila

- Legionella pneumophila - found in natural waters, water system - L. pneumophila is protected from chlorine inside amoebas. (freshwater ones)

You are an RN working in the emergency department (ED) at a major hospital in New York City. During one shift, you see two patients who are exhibiting coughing with blood-containing sputum, and shortness of breath. Both patients report that they have experienced headaches, muscle aches, high fever, confusion, and shaking chills in the days preceding their ED visit. One of the patients also has some digestive tract symptoms including diarrhea, abdominal pain, and vomiting. You discover that the patients live in the same apartment building, although they do not know each other. You suspect that they have a type of pneumonia, and given the circumstances, think it may be legionellosis. You read up on this disease to refresh your memory about it. Select the FALSE statement regarding legionellosis and its causative agent. A) The causative organism survives well in the water systems of buildings, particularly in hot water systems, where chlorine levels are generally low. B) People become infected with L. pneumophila when they inhale aerosol droplets contaminated with the organism. It is not acquired from other infected individuals. C) L. pneumophila produces a β-lactamase, which makes it resistant to many penicillins and some cephalosporins, so is typically treated with a macrolide or a fluoroquinolone. D) Legionella pneumophila is an obligate intracellular parasite that survives in ameba in the environment and in kupffer cells in infected people. E) L. pneumophila prevents phagosome-lysosome fusion in phagocytes, thus avoiding destruction; the bacteria manipulate conditions to multiply within these cells.

- Legionella pneumophila is an obligate intracellular parasite that survives in ameba in the environment and in kupffer cells in infected people. Kupffer cells are macrophges in the liver. L. pneumophila lives in alveolar macrophages.

Which of the following proteins produced by B. anthracis function together to kill phagocytes? A) Local factor, protective antigen, AND edema factor. B) Lethal factor, protective antigen, AND edema factor. C) Local factor, protective antibody, AND edema factor. D) Lethal factor, protective antigen, AND endotoxin. E) Lethal factor, protective antibody, AND endotoxin.

- Lethal factor, protective antigen, AND edema factor.

Mycobacterial infections in AIDS patients are mostly likely to be caused by ________. - Mycobacterium avium complex - Mycobacterium tuberculosis - Mycobacterium bovis - Mycobacterium africanum

- Mycobacterium avium complex

If you are a 20-year-old healthy young adult and you have to CHOOSE a type of pneumonia to become infected with (and you will NOT get treatment for it), which would be the 'best,' and why? - Pneumococcal pneumonia-it doesn't destroy lung tissue and can be completely recovered from. - Klebsiella pneumonia-it has the shortest recovery time. - Mycoplasmal pneumonia-it has the mildest symptoms and is generally easily cleared out. - Viral pneumonia-there are many antiviral medications you can take for this version with very few side effects.

- Mycoplasmal pneumonia-it has the mildest symptoms and is generally easily cleared out.

The best way to speed up recovery from a common cold is to: - dose the patient with ibuprofen to keep the fever down. - to take decongestants as a means of alleviating the symptoms of the cold. - to take 1,000 mg of vitamin C every day during the illness. - None of the above-in fact, the only way to clear out a cold is to let your immune system do its job. Several of the treatments above may actually INCREASE the time needed to get over the illness.

- None of the above-in fact, the only way to clear out a cold is to let your immune system do its job. Several of the treatments above may actually INCREASE the time needed to get over the illness. • No proven treatments • Viruses not affected by antibiotics, antibacterial medications **• Analgesics, antipyretics can reduce symptoms but may prolong symptoms and duration**

You have isolated a bacterium from a contaminated river but you are unable to culture it in the laboratory. Which method could you use to identify the organism? - Gram staining - Biochemical testing - MALDI-TOF mass spectrometry - Nucleic acid amplification tests - Antibiograms

- Nucleic acid amplification tests

It would be useful if antigens were delivered directly to: - red blood cells. - Peyer's patches. - Peyer's patches AND M cells. - W Cells. - M cells.

- Peyer's patches AND M cells. Talking MALT here.

Select the best description of the causative agent of diphtheria. - Pleomorphic, Gram-negative lysogen. - Gram-positive, spore-forming rod. - Gram-positive, encapsulated, spore-former. - Pleomorphic, Gram-positive lysogen. - Pleomorphic, Gram-positive, flagellated lysogen.

- Pleomorphic, Gram-positive lysogen. Corynebacterium diphtheriae is a pleomorphic, non-motile, non-spore forming G+ rod that is a lysogen because it is a lysogenic bacteriophage that inserts its DNA into the bacteria's genome that causes it to make the diphtheria exotoxin (lysogenic conversion). - club-shaped and often arranged side-by-side in pallisades (like a wooden fence).

How are pleurisy and pneumonia are different? - Pleurisy is inflammation of the lungs (not necessarily due to a microbe), while pneumonia is microbial infection of the linings that surround the lungs. - Pneumonia is active microbial infection of the lungs, while pleurisy is inflammation of the linings that surround the lungs (not necessarily due to a microbe). - Pleurisy is caused by viruses (single-stranded or double-stranded RNA), while pneumonia is caused by bacteria (Gram-positive only). - Pneumonia is caused by viruses (single-stranded or double-stranded DNA), while pleurisy is caused by bacteria (Gram-negative or Gram-positive). - Pneumonia is always a fatal infection and cannot be easily treated while pleurisy is not—treatment of this condition is by antiviral medications.

- Pneumonia is active microbial infection of the lungs, while pleurisy is inflammation of the linings that surround the lungs (not necessarily due to a microbe). slide 13. Pneumonitis = inflammation of lungs, often viral. Pneumonitis that causes the alveoli to fill with pus/fluid = pneumonia.

Which of the following is specifically associated with diphtheria? - Pseudomembrane in throat - General malaise - Fever and sore throat - Microhemorrhages - Widespread rash

- Pseudomembrane in throat Signs and symptoms: 2-6 days after infection, mild sore throat, slight fever, extreme fatigue and malaise (general discomfort). Neck swells dramatically, pseudomembrane on tonsils/throat or in nasal cavity, heart/kidney failure and paralysis can happen later. - pseudomembrane - dead epithelial cells, clotted blood, fibrin and WBCs from inflammatory response to bacteria. Can become loose, obstruct airway - pt can suffocate.

Which step(s) of phagocytosis are avoided by Streptococcus pyogenes? - Recruitment of phagocytes AND phagolysosome formation - Phototaxis AND recognition and attachment - Recruitment of phagocytes AND recognition and attachment - Phagolysosome formation - Phagolysosome formation AND lysis

- Recruitment of phagocytes AND recognition and attachment Recruitment of phagocytes - makes C5a peptidase Recognition and attachment - capsules, M protein, Protein G = Fc receptors

Pneumococcal pneumona - causative agent:

- Steptococcus pneumoniae - a G+ diplococcus with a thick polysaccharide capsule (remember of sinusitis, otitis media and conjuntivitis slides) - virulence factor - cells are elongated with tapered end = lancet-shaped - strains with no capsule do not cause invasive disease

Which of the following statements regarding resistance in Klebsiella species is FALSE? A) β-lactamase confers resistance to β-lactam antibiotics such as penicillin. B) Extended-spectrum β-lactamase (ESBL) confers resistance to many of the cephalosporins. C) Carbapenemase confers resistance to carbapenems as well as other β-lactam drugs. D) There are few effective treatments available for carbapenem-resistant K. pneumoniae infections. E) Strains of Klebsiella that produce β-lactamase are resistant to penicillin but will respond to all cephalosporins.

- Strains of Klebsiella that produce β-lactamase are resistant to penicillin but will respond to all cephalosporins.

Which statement about S. pyogenes and strep throat pathogenesis is FALSE? - S. pyogenes strains that produce streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins are lysogens. - Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins are A-B toxins that bind to host cells using the B portion. - Streptolysins O and S produced by S. pyogenes destroy blood cells by making holes in their cell membranes. - Spread of S. pyogenes is aided by streptokinase, an enzyme that breaks down blot clots. - The hyaluronic acid capsule of S. pyogenes helps it avoid the innate immune defenses.

- Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins are A-B toxins that bind to host cells using the B portion. SPEs are superantigens that causes a massive activation of T helper cells, cause them to release anti-inflammatory cytokines = Cytokine Storm -> seriousness of these infections.

The cause of strep throat is: - Staphylococcus aureus. - Streptococcus pyogenes—beta-hemolytic, group A. - Staphylococcus pyogenes—alpha-hemolytic, group B. - Streptococcus pneumoniae. - Staphylococcus aureus—beta-hemolytic, group A.

- Streptococcus pyogenes—beta-hemolytic, group A. Streptococcal pharyngitis (Strep Throat) G+ chains of beta-hemolytic GAS

Which of the following indicates bacterial conjunctivitis rather than viral conjunctivitis? - Increased tear production - Redness of conjunctiva - Swelling and pus - Sensitivity to light - All of the answer choices are correct.

- Swelling and pus Acute bacterial conjunctivitis - organisms probably inoculated directly onto conjuntiva from airborne respiratory droplets or from transfer from contaminated hands. - resist destruction by lysosyme - attachment aided by degradation of MUCIN, a protective component of surface membrane - attachment, then release tissue-damaging enzymes, sometimes combined with toxins, to harm eye tissue

Delayed-type cell-mediated hypersensitivity primarily involves: A) erythrocytes. B) B cells. C) T cells. D) mast cells. E) T cells and platelets.

- T cells It's the only 1 of the 4 types whose effector isn't a B cell.

How is a T-cell receptor different from a B-cell receptor? - T-cell receptors must have antigen broken down inside a cell and presented to them by a major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecule. - B-cell receptors are composed of chains of amino acids, while T-cell receptors are composed of chains of carbohydrates. - T-cell receptors are composed of four protein chains (pieces), while B-cell receptors are composed of only two chains. - T-cell receptors are eventually secreted into the bloodstream by activated T-cells, whereas B-cell receptors are not; they always stay with the B-cell. - B-cell receptors must have antigen broken down inside a cell and presented to them by a major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecule.

- T-cell receptors must have antigen broken down inside a cell and presented to them by a major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecule.

Why would it be reasonable to treat strep throat but not diphtheria with antibacterial antibiotics? - The signs and symptoms of diphtheria are mostly caused by the exotoxin produced by the causative agent. An antibiotic won't affect the exotoxin. - The signs and symptoms of strep throat are mostly from the exotoxin produced by the causative agent. An antibiotic effectively eliminates these exotoxins. - The causative agent of diphtheria is a virus, not a bacterium. The drug would have no effect against this infectious agent. - There are no antibiotics that have proven effective against the bacterium that causes diphtheria. - The causative agent of diphtheria is pleomorphic and does not have a cell wall. There are thus no antibiotics that would be effective against this organism.

- The signs and symptoms of diphtheria are mostly caused by the exotoxin produced by the causative agent. An antibiotic won't affect the exotoxin. - strep throat - signs/symptoms due to virulence factors of S. pyogenes. - causative agent of diphtheria is Corynebacterium diphtheriae - a pleamorphic, non-motile, non-spore forming, G+ rod with irregularly staining metachormatic granules towards the ends. - both penicillin and erythromycin are effective against C. diphtheriae but can't do anything against absorbed toxin - penicillin is beta-lactam, erythromycin is macrolide - primarily bacteriostatic and works against protein synthesis

Why are there currently no vaccines against Streptococcus pyogenes? - There are many antigenic types in the M protein of this organism. A vaccine against one type might not protect against another. - There is great variation in the polysaccharide capsule of this organism. A vaccine against one type might not protect against another. - Antibodies to streptococcal M protein may also recognize and bind to myosin in the heart, causing autoimmunity and leading to rheumatic fever. - There is great variation in the M protein of this organism. A vaccine against one M type might not protect against another AND antibodies to streptococcal M protein may also recognize and bind to myosin in the heart, causing autoimmunity and leading to rheumatic fever. - There is great variation in the polysaccharide capsule of this organism. A vaccine against one type might not protect against another AND antibodies to streptococcal M protein may also recognize and bind to myosin in the heart, causing autoimmunity and leading to rheumatic fever.

- There is great variation in the M protein of this organism. A vaccine against one M type might not protect against another AND antibodies to streptococcal M protein may also recognize and bind to myosin in the heart, causing autoimmunity and leading to rheumatic fever. First part true - almost picked just that but the second part is true too and we don't want this post-streptococcal sequalae to occur. - an appropriate vaccine would have to protect against many different strains of S. pyogenes without causing an autoimmune resoonse (causing the immune system to act against "self")

How do adenoviruses avoid the adaptive immune system? A) They cloak themselves with a hyaluronic acid capsule. B) They interfere with antigen presentation on MHC class I molecules. C) They synthesize C5a peptidase. D) They block interferon and antiviral protein production. E) They interfere with antigen presentation on MHC class II molecules.

- They interfere with antigen presentation on MHC class I molecules.

Using genotypic characteristics to identify prokaryotes - detecting specific nucleotide sequences (Nucleic acid probes and nucleic acid amplification tests (NAATs) - sequencing Ribosomal RNA genes

- Think DNA probes from Ch9 - PCR is a NAAT

Which of the following are considered diseases of the lower respiratory tract? A) Diphtheria and pneumonia B) Influenza and diphtheria C) Tuberculosis and pneumonia D) Common cold and tuberculosis E) Influenza and tuberculosis

- Tuberculosis and pneumonia TB is in lungs and so is pneumonia. Upper is head and neck, lower is chest.

What happens when a helper T cell is activated? - Activated TH cells produce cytokines that stimulate dendritic cells, converting them into antigen-presenting cells. - Two populations of cells are formed: memory TH cells and effector TH cells; the effector TH cells produce a variety of antibodies. - Two populations of cells are formed: memory TH cells and effector TH cells; the effector TH cells play a role in activating B cells. - Two populations of cells are formed: effector TH cells and effector TC cells; these work together to activate B cells and macrophages. - Two populations of cells are formed: helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells; the TH cells activate B cells and the TC cells target virus-infected cells.

- Two populations of cells are formed: memory TH cells and effector TH cells; the effector TH cells play a role in activating B cells.

Which of the following statements about otitis media is FALSE? - The causative organisms may form a biofilm, leading to chronic infections. - It is usually preceded by infections of the nasal cavity and upper pharynx. - It may sometimes spread to the membranes covering the brain, causing meningitis. - Using decongestants and antihistamines to treat otitis media is generally very effective. - Otitis media during the "flu" season can be decreased by giving the flu vaccine to infants in day-care facilities

- Using decongestants and antihistamines to treat otitis media is generally very effective.

Phage that lyses the bacterial host when completing its life cycle: Phage that is able to incorporate its genome into the host chromosome:

- Virulent Phage -Temperate Phage

Why are viruses more susceptible to nucleotide analogs than their host cells? - Viral DNA polymerases break down nucleotide analogs into toxic by-products, leading to the inactivation of the virus. - The coverings of most viruses are more permeable to nucleotide analogs than are the cytoplasmic membranes of host cells. - Viral DNA is distorted by the presence of nucleotide analogs, whereas the host DNA is not. - Viruses replicate their nucleic acid more rapidly than host cells do.

- Viruses replicate their nucleic acid more rapidly than host cells do.

What kind of media do we culture Corynebacterium diphtheriae on?

- a selective media with potassium tellerite - inhibits growth of normal throat microbiota and C. diphtheriae colonies will grow black or brown. - can also grow on Leoffler's medium - enhances the formation of metachromatic granules.

Pneumococcal Pneumonia Signs/Symptoms

- accounts for ~60% of adult pneumonia patients requiring hospitalization - pneumococci are an important cause of community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) - 1-3 days incubation. - preceded by 1-2 days of runny nose, upper respiratory congestion, then sudden fever and shaking chills. - cough, fever, chest pain, sputum production (pus, other material coughed up from lungs) - Sputum becomes pinkish or rust colored from blood, Severe chest pain aggravated by each breath or cough - Causes shallow rapid breathing - Patient develops dusky color from poor oxygenation - w/o tx survivors show profuse sweating and rapid return to normal temp after 7-10 days

The lactobacilli, in their role as normal microbiota of the vagina, help the vagina resist infection by contributing to: - a high vaginal pH. - the neutrality of the vaginal mucus. - food for the resident vaginal microbiota. - fertility of the host. - acidity of the vagina.

- acidity of the vagina

The disease that closely resembles "strep throat" but is of viral origin is: A) adenoviral pharyngitis. B) otitis media. C) the common cold. D) tonsilitis. E) bronchitis.

- adenoviral pharyngitis. It's the gray-white pus seen on pharynx and tonsils.

M protein, a virulence factor of Streptococcus pyogenes, directly interferes with which of the following steps of phagocytosis? - elimination - adherence - digestion - chemotaxis

- adherence M protein - adhesin - lets cell attach to host cell. - it inactivates Cb3 - an opsonin - opsonins bind to antigen and make it more attractive to and easier for phagocytes to bind to and engulf. It says Evasion on the pic on slide 17...

Each class of antibody is specifically defined by its: - amino acid sequence of the variable region of the light chain. - ability to bind a range of antigens. - amino acid sequence of the constant region of the heavy chain. - presence of disulfide bonds. - ability to cross the placenta.

- amino acid sequence of the constant region of the heavy chain.

If you had three tubes of flu viruses and you exposed tube 1 to protease, tube 2 to protease and RNase, and tube 3 to protease and DNase, and the contents of tube 2 were be degraded, you would be able to conclude that:

- an RNA virus RNases cleave RNA molecules

Macrophages and dendritic cells are: - antibody-producing cells. - B cells. - antigen-presenting cells. - lymphocytes. - T cells.

- antigen-presenting cells APCs!

The encysted larva of the beef tapeworm is called a: - metacercaria. - redia. - proglottid. - cercaria. - cysticercus.

- cysticercus.

During a Type I hypersensitivity reaction, the mast cells: - become phagocytic AND release IgG. - degranulate AND release IgE antibodies. - degranulate AND immediately release histamine. - take up histamine AND immediately degranulate. - become phagocytic AND immediately release histamine.

- degranulate AND immediately release histamine.

According to the clonal selection theory: - antibodies are modified, at the time of antigen exposure, to specifically react with the antigen. - B cells producing autoantibodies are eliminated in the thymus. - self-reactive T cells are killed in the thymus AND B cells producing autoantibodies are eliminated in the thymus. - self-reactive T cells are killed in the thymus. - each B cell is already programmed to produce a specific antibody.

- each B cell is already programmed to produce a specific antibody.

Pneumococcal pneumonia - Tx/Prevention:

- early in illness? Penicillin, erythromycin (G+ diplococci with capsule, remember?) - strains resistant to antibiotics more common - PCV13 vaccine - Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine, 13 serotypes - for under 2, over 65 and people at high risk due to health conditions - contains capsular polysaccharides from 13 serotypes attached to bacterial proteins to create T-dependent antigens - polysaccharides are T-independent antigens and w/o the protein added wouldn't be enough alone to cause a large enough immune response in a child under 2. - PPSV23 vaccine - pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine, 23 serotypes - dive at least 1 yr after getting the PCV13 - contains capsule polysaccharides from the 23 most common serotypes - recommended for all adults over 65 plus some high risk people.

Diphtheria toxin works on: - lysosomes. - mitochondria. - chloroplasts. - elongation factor 2. - messenger RNA.

- elongation factor 2. - the bacteria (C. diphteriae) grow in the throat but the toxin gets into the bloodstream (toxemia). An A-B toxin, the B subunit attached to host cell receptors -> endocytosis -> A subunit detaches and is activated to a functional enzyme that inactivated EF-2 that the host eukaryotic cell needs for its 80s ribosomes to move along mRNA - translation stops, cell dies. Enzyme is not used up, keeps inactivating EF-2 in that cell.

Secondary lymphoid organs: - are the site of B cell maturation. - facilitate interactions between cells. - are hematopoietic. - are the site of T cell maturation. - include the bone marrow and thymus.

- facilitate interactions between cells.

5. When in the human body, Legionella pneumophila resides: - in alveolar macrophages. - in alveoli. - in the lower intestinal tract. - in the meninges.

- in alveolar macrophages. - inhaled in aersolized water, they lodge in lungs and promote their uptake by alveolar macrophages. - surface protein called macrophage invasion potentiator (Mip) aids entry into macrophages - the cells also bind C3b as an opsonin

Rhinoviruses need to be grown: A) in living cells AND at 39°C. B) in synthetic media AND at 39°C. C) on blood agar AND at 33°C. D) in live animals or plants. E) in living cells AND at 33°C.

- in living cells AND at 33°C.

Helicobacter pylori: - causes crown gall in plants. - inhabits the stomach. - has axonemes. - produces luminescence. - inhabits squid ink sacs.

- inhabits the stomach

Apoptosis: - refers to the transformation of B cells into plasma cells. - is a form of programmed cell death AND results specifically in T cell death. - results specifically in T cell death AND refers to the transformation of B cells into plasma cells. - is a form of programmed cell death AND is induced in target cells by effector T cytotoxic cells. - is induced in target cells by effector T cytotoxic cells AND results specifically in T cell death.

- is a form of programmed cell death AND is induced in target cells by effector T cytotoxic cells. (doesn't cause an inflammatory reaction - ch14)

Pertussis "Whooping Cough"

- is preventable by vaccine - causes up to 1/2 million deaths every year and is endemic in the US Signs/Symptoms - 1-2 wks incubation stage - 3 stages - catarrhal, peroxysmal and convalescent stage - Catarrhal = inflammation of mucus membranes. lasts 1-2 wks, signs/symptoms resembling an upper respiratory tract infection (snot, sneeze, low fever, mild cough) - Paroxysmal = repeated sudden attacks, lasts 2-4 weeks or longer, frequent bursts of violent uncontrollable coughing. Dry cough, severe enough to burst small b.vessels in eyes. Tongue protrudes and neck veins stand out. Coughing spasm followed by 'whoops' as forceful attempts to inhale. Vomiting and seizures can occur/pt may become cyanotic ( blue from lack of oxygen) - Convalescent = recovery Not contagious, coughing decreases. Slow recovery over some weeks. Caustive Agent: - Bordatella pertussis = tiny G- rod, with capsule, aerobic. Cells sensitive to drying and sunlight, die quickly outside the host. Pathogenesis: - inhaled, attaches to ciliated cells of respiratory epithelium Attachment aided by 2 COLONIZATION FACTORS: - FHA - filamentous hemagglutinin - pilus from bacterial surface - fimbriae Colonizes upper throat, trachea, bronchi and bronchioles. grow in dense masses on epithelial surface but don't invade tissue. - release 3 TOXINS: - Pertussis toxin (PT) = A-B toxin - Adenylate cyclase toxin - Tracheal cytocoxin

Which of the following about Bacillus anthracis is TRUE? A) It contains lipopolysaccharide. B) It is flagellated. C) It is rod-shaped. D) It stains pink in the Gram stain. E) It causes hemolysis on blood agar.

- it is rod-shaped. Anthrax is a disease primarily of livestock but people get it too. Bacillus anthracis is G+, makes endospores, non-hemolytic, non-motile, rod shaped bacterium whose spores can remain in the environment indefinately and whose vegetative cells have a capsule made of an amino-acid polymer instead of polysaccharide.

Legionnaires' disease is so named because: - it caused a large epidemic among members of the French Foreign Legion. - it was first identified at a convention of the American Legion. - it was a common infection among foot soldiers. - None of the choices are correct.

- it was first identified at a convention of the American Legion. Legionnaires' Disease unknown until 1976 • Attendees of American Legion Convention in Philadelphia developed mysterious pneumonia

Bacterial infections of the lower respiratory system:

- less common than in the upper respiratory system but are much more serious. Pneumonia - disease of lower tract, alveoli fills with fluids like pus and blood. Typically results from an inflammatory response to micrboial infection of lungs and is the LEADING CAUSE OF DEATH due to infectious disease in the US.

Adenovirus Respiratory Tract infections - Causative Agent

- more than 50 antigenic types of adenoviruses infect humans - naked, dsDNA - can remain infectious in the environment for long period of time, are resistant to destruction by detergents and alcohol solns BUT are easily inactivated by heat (56C), enough chlorine and various other disinfectants.

The preferred habitat of S. aureus is the: - throat. - urethra. - bladder. - nasal chamber.

- nasal chamber. slide 10 - 20% of healthy people carry Staphylococcus aureus - potential pathogen that is common in the nostrils

The eyes connect directly to the nasal passage through the: - frontal sinuses. - nasolacrimal ducts. - middle ear. - tonsils.

- nasolacrimal ducts. slide 11 - tear ducts connect to nasal chamber. Infection is dacryocystitis.

Which of the following types of cell is able to create webs of extracellular fibers that help kill a variety of microbes? - platelets - NK cells - neutrophils - eosinophils

- neutrophils Ch 14.

Adenoviruses - Epidemiology:

- only reservoir = humans - can persist in the environment - Naked, ssDNA - spread by respiratory droplets - crowded areas :( - asymptomatic infections common - virus shed from respiratory tract during acute illness and from feces for months afterwards

The human body only contains bacteria during illness. True or Flase False Viruses, viroids and prions all: - operate intracellularly. - may be considered acellular agents of disease. - contain DNA. - infect only animals. - operate intracellularly AND may be considered acellular agents of disease.

- operate intracellularly AND may be considered acellular agents of disease.

Influenza is caused by: A) orthomyxovirus. B) H. influenzae. C) cytomegalovirus. D) adenovirus. E) coronavirus.

- orthomyxovirus. Causative agent of Influenza A is virus in the orthomyxovirus family. Has an envelope, ssRNA in 8 segments.

Effective preventive methods for avoiding the common cold include all of the following EXCEPT: A) hand washing. B) avoiding crowds. C) not touching one's face. D) avoiding close contact with people with colds. E) prophylactic antibiotics.

- prophylactic antibiotics.

The common cold - Pathogenesis:

- rhinoviruses infect EPITHELIAL CELLS that line the upper respiratory tract - ciliary motions stops, cells die and slough off. - damage -> release of pro-inflammatory cytokines, stimulates nerve reflexes = increased snot, tissue swelling and sneezing (so congested, can't breathe!) - can spread to ears, sinuses or lower respiratory tract before the immune system stops the infection. - cause of pneumonia in immunocompromised.

Fungi that are important for fermentation of fruits: - grow well at neutral pH. - are mushrooms. - are obligate aerobes. - secrete degradative enzymes. - All of the choices are correct.

- secrete degradative enzymes.

Which is used in the vaccination for C. diphtheriae? - protein A - M protein - toxoid - red blood cells

- toxoid Inactivated toxoid booster - diphtheriae, tetanus.

Which of the following occurs in both prokaryotes as well as eukaryotes

- transcription - translation - DNA replication

Which of the following are considered diseases of the lower respiratory tract? - diphtheria and pneumonia - influenza and diphtheria - tuberculosis and pneumonia - common cold and tuberculosis

- tuberculosis and pneumonia slide 5 - lower respiratory tract = chest. Often serious, may be fatal. Upper respiratory tract - head and neck, Colds & sinus infections - uncomfortable but not life-threatening - clear w/o tx in ~1 week.

gene regulation may entail

- turning on genes only when needed - turning off genes when not needed - turning on or off entire groups of genes

Antigenic shifts may be the result of: A) two different viruses infecting a cell at the same time. B) the lysogenic conversion of two viruses. C) conjugation of two viruses. D) blending of a bacterial and a viral genome. E) the lysogenic conversion of two viruses AND blending of a bacterial and viral genome.

- two different viruses infecting a cell at the same time. How flu changes: - Antigenic DRIFT: minor mutations in HA and NA genes, often of a single amino acid; responsible for seasonal influenza - Immunity developed from previous year less effective - Antigenic SHIFT: uncommon; concurrent infection allows mixture of 8 RNA segments; causes pandemic influenza - Human strain can gain novel HA and/or NA antigens - Animal strain can gain ability to infect humans

Avirulent organisms are: - more likely to cause disease. - more likely to cause severe disease. - unable to cause disease. - pathogenic.

- unable to cause disease.

Pneumococcal Pneumonia - Epidemiology:

- up to 30% of healthy people carry encapsulated pneumococci in throat - bacteria seldom reach lungs because mucociliary escalator removes them - impair the escalator, risk of this pneumonia rises dramatically. - alcohol, narcotic use, viral respiratory infections - increased risk in people over 50, heart or lung disease, diabetes cancer.

Otitis media probably develops from an infection that spread: - from the outer ear to the middle ear. - from the sensory neurons of the middle ear. - upward through the Eustachian tube. - through the tympanic membrane. - via the meninges.

- upward through the Eustachian tube.

- upward through the Eustachian tube. Middle ear connects to nasopharynx by the Eustachian tube - equalized the pressue and drain any fluid away.

Regarding a mismatch of either the Rh antigen or the AB antigen, both: - result in destruction of red blood cells by the foreign antigen. - use complement to destroy red blood cells. - use antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity to destroy the red blood cells. - result in destruction of only leukocytes. - use either complement or ADCC to destroy red blood cells.

- use either complement or ADCC to destroy red blood cells. Type II Hypersensitivity - Cytotoxic

Protozoa

-Most protozoa are motile via pseudopods, flagella, cilia, or undulating membranes. -Cysts enable parasites to survive during passage from one host to the next. -While living in the gut of their host, intestinal parasites are usually in the trophozoite form. -As a group exhibit both asexual and sexual reproduction.

Helminths

-The major organ system apparent in tapeworm proglottids is the reproductive system. -Some helminth infections involve more than one intermediate host. -Either eggs or larval stages may be infectious, depending on the species. -Parasitic lack a complete digestive system and they absorb nutrients directly through their cuticles. -Humans can serve as either definitive or intermediate hosts of flatworms.

Some fungi reproduce sexually by forming----- which are sexual spores contained within a sac structure.

-ascospores

The properties of a cell that are determined by its DNA composition are its: - nucleoid. - phenotype. - metabolism. - plasmids. - genotype.

-phenotype

Viruses: - probably keep the numbers of bacteria in check. - have no effect on the number of bacteria. - increase the number of bacteria. - are active in passing DNA from one bacterium to another. -probably keep the numbers of bacteria in check AND are active in passing DNA from one bacterium to another

-probably keep the numbers of bacteria in check AND are active in passing DNA from one bacterium to another

Rhizopus stolonifer, the common black bread mold, forms asexual spores called----- which are contained in a sac at the end of aerial hyphae.

-sporangiospores

Antimicrobials that inhibit the growth of microorganisms have the suffix: -cidal. -static. -anti. -genic.

-static

You are a volunteer for Nurses Without Borders and are being sent to a country in Africa. You are excited, because you will have opportunities to go on safari, but you are also somewhat concerned because you have learned from the CDC website that there is currently cholera in the country to which you are going. Patients with cholera experience vomiting and severe diarrhea, producing several liters of liquid stool in a day. This results in signs of dehydration, including sunken eyes, muscle cramps, and in a few cases, convulsions and death. Cholera is caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae. You make a list of questions about V. cholerae that you answer with the help of your nursing school study group. All bacteriophages must be able to: 1. inject their DNA into the host cell 2. cause a genetic change in the host cell 3. kill the host cell 4. replicate in the absence of a host 5. exit a host cell by extrusion 1, 4, and 5 1 only 2 only 1, 2, and 4 1, 2 and 3

1 only

Respiratory system infections

1. Otitis media 2. Adenoviral pharyngitis 3. Tuberculosis 4. Inhalation anthrax 5. Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome 6. MERS - CoV

Neonate/Pediatric diseases

1. Measles 2. Mumps 3. Group B Streptococcus 4. Rubella 5. Parvovirus B19

Common causes of pneumonia

1. Staphylococcus 2. Streptococcus 3. Legionella 4. Klebsiella 5. Mycoplasma 6. Pneumocystis

Common causes of skin infections

1. Tinea corporis, tinea pedis, tinea cruris 2. Pityriasis versicolor 3. Candidiasis 4. Scabies 5. Necrotizing fasciitis 6. Impetigo

B) The two organisms are unrelated

25) Organism A has 70 moles % G+C, and organism B has 40 moles % G+C. Which of the following can be concluded from these data? A) The two organisms are related. B) The two organisms are unrelated. C) The organisms make entirely different enzymes. D) Their nucleic acids will completely hybridize. E) None of the answers is correct.

E) the similarities between nucleotide sequences

D) it allows one to obtain pure cultures of microbes

28) All of the following statements are reasons why fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) has become a valuable tool for environmental microbiologists EXCEPT A) it allows for detection of uncultured microbes. B) it demonstrates the diversity of microbes in an environment. C) it allows observation of microbes in their natural environment in association with other microbes. D) it allows one to obtain pure cultures of microbes. E) All of the answers are correct.

B) Both are gram-positive.

29) Which of the following criteria is most useful in determining whether two organisms are related? A) Both ferment lactose. B) Both are gram-positive. C) Both are motile. D) Both are aerobic. E) Each answer is equally important.

B) evolved from a common ancestor.

3) If two organisms have similar rRNA sequences, you can conclude that they A) live in the same place. B) evolved from a common ancestor. C) will have different G-C ratios. D) will both ferment lactose. E) mated with each other.

Protozoans are an important part of the food chain, ingesting large numbers of: 1. other protozoans. 2. bacteria and fungi. 3. bacteria and algae. 4. fish and crabs. 5. shellfish and algae.

3. bacteria and algae.

Sarcodina move by means of: 1. microvilli. 2. apicomplexans. 3. pseudopodia. 4. flagella. 5. cilia.

3. pseudopodia.

The time from absorption to release for T-even phage is about - 1 minute. - 10 minutes. - 30 minutes. - 45 seconds. - 1 day.

30 minutes.

A) genetically identical cells derived from a single cell.

30) A clone is A) genetically identical cells derived from a single cell. B) a genetically engineered cell. C) a taxon composed of species. D) a mound of cells on an agar medium. E) None of the answers is correct.

B) b

31) In Figure 10.2, which figure shows the most closely related organisms? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e

A) 2, 3, 5

32) In Table 10.1, which features are found in nearly all eukarya? A) 2, 3, 5 B) 1, 4, 6 C) 3, 5 D) 2, 3 E) 1, 2, 5

B) Bacteria

38) Into which group would you place a unicellular organism that has 70S ribosomes and a peptidoglycan cell wall? A) Animalia B) Bacteria C) Fungi D) Plantae E) Protist

C) Their DNA can hybridize together

44) Which of the following characteristics indicates that two organisms are closely related? A) Both are cocci. B) Both ferment lactose. C) Their DNA can hybridize together. D) Both normally live in clams. E) Both are motile.

E) None of the answers is correct.

45) Data collected to date indicate that A) humans and marine mammals cannot be infected by the same pathogens. B) marine mammals do not get infectious diseases. C) new species of bacteria will not be discovered in wild animals. D) marine mammals don't have an immune system. E) None of the answers is correct.

C) antiserum containing antibodies that will bind to the bacterium to be identified

46) For a serological bacterial identification test to be performed, you must have ________ in your possession. A) DNA that will hybridize to the DNA of the bacterium to be identified B) RNA that will hybridize to the RNA of the bacterium to be identified C) antiserum containing antibodies that will bind to the bacterium to be identified D) fluorescent molecules that will light up when bound to the DNA of the bacterium E) viruses that will specifically infect the bacterium you're trying to identify

E) viruses that will specifically infect the bacterium you're trying to identify

47) When performing phage typing to identify an unknown bacterium, you must have ________ in your possession. A) DNA that will hybridize to the DNA of the bacterium to be identified B) RNA that will hybridize to the RNA of the bacterium to be identified C) antiserum containing antibodies that will bind to the bacterium to be identified D) fluorescent molecules that will light up when bound to the DNA of the bacterium E) viruses that will specifically infect the bacterium you're trying to identify

B) an antigen from a particular pathogen

48) In a direct ELISA test, the method is determining if ________ is/are present in the patient's sample by attempting to bind a labeled antibody to it. A) antibodies against a pathogen found in a patient's blood B) an antigen from a particular pathogen C) a bacteriophage that can infect a particular bacterial strain D) a known sequence of DNA from a pathogen

The sugars found in nucleic acids consist of

5 carbon (pentose)

Eukaryotic Translation

5' guanine cap on mRNA binds to the small ribosomal subunit in initiation. In the cytoplasm. First amino acid is Met.

TRUE

5) Pure cultures of the same species are not always identical in all ways.

D) They use organic carbon sources.

5) Which of the following statements about members of the Kingdom Plantae is FALSE? A) They are multicellular. B) They are composed of eukaryotic cells. C) They undergo photosynthesis. D) They use organic carbon sources. E) They synthesize organic molecules.

B) a taxon composed of one or more species and a classification level lying below family.

7) A genus can best be defined as A) a taxon composed of families. B) a taxon composed of one or more species and a classification level lying below family. C) a taxon belonging to a species. D) a taxon comprised of classes. E) the most specific taxon.

TRUE

8) Serological testing is used for screening bacterial isolates for similarities.

TRUE

9) Western blotting is an immunological test used to identify the antibodies in the serum of an individual suspected of having Lyme disease.

A) Nucleotide sequences in ribosomal RNA vary between all three domains

Anaerobic cellular respiration: A. is also called fermentation B. only involves glycolysis C. does not generate ATP D. utilizes an electron transport system E. uses the same final electron acceptors as aerobic respiration

During which of the phases of cellular respiration is the majority of ATP formed? A. electron transport B. TCA cycle C. glycolysis D. processing of pyruvic acid for the TCA cycle E. all phases produce the same number of ATP molecules

Important components of coenzymes are: A. vitamins B. metallic ions C. active sites D. substrates E. ribozymes

In bacterial cells, the electron transport system is located in the: A. cell membrane B. mitochondria C. chloroplasts D. ribosomes E. cytoplasm

Most electron carriers are: A. coenzymes B. enzymes C. hydrogens D. inorganic phosphate E. all of the choices are correct

Negative control means that a regulator molecule is A. bound and transcription is inhibited AND removed and transcription begins. B. bound and transcription is inhibited. C. bound and transcription begins. D. removed and transcription begins. E. removed and transcription begins.

Organisms that grow very slowly, are non-culturable, are present in very small numbers, or are mixed with a number of bacteria may still be identified using: A. PCR. B. Southern blotting. C. colony blotting. D. replica plating. E. gas chromatography of fatty acids.

Propionibacterium A. produces propionic acid. B. produces lactic acid. C. is responsible for the blue color of Stilton cheese. D. requires aerobic environments. E. produces propionic acid and is responsible for peptic ulcers.

The chains of an antibody molecule are bonded to one another by: A) disulfide bonds. B) hydrogen bonds. C) ionic bonds. D) oxygen bonds. E) ligases.

The placement of the amino acid during translation is determined by the: A. complementarity of the codon-anticodon. B. DNAse which transcribes both molecules. C. sequence of nucleotides at the 5' end of the tRNA. D. 16S rRNA sequence. E. secondary structure of the newly forming protein.

The size of the amplified DNA fragment generated during PCR is determined by A. the locations to which the primers anneal. B. how many cycles are performed. C. the size of the template DNA. D. how much Taq polymerase is used.

What would be an appropriate response if an antigen is presented on MHC class II molecules? A) An effector CD4 cell activates the presenting cell. B) An effector CD8 cell activates the presenting cell. C) An effector CD4 cell kills the presenting cell. D) An effector CD8 cell kills the presenting cell. E) An effector CD8 cell activates a naive CD4 cell.

Your friend Ellie is pregnant. She tells you that her mother, a microbiologist, has warned her not to clean out the cat's litter box while she is pregnant in case she contracts a disease called toxoplasmosis, which can affect her fetus. She says her mom told her toxoplasmosis is caused by a parasite called Toxoplasma gondii, that may be found in the feces of infected cats and also in raw meat. Your friend's mom tells her that when a person has not had a particular disease, they are not immune to the pathogen that causes the disease, and lack antibodies against that microbe. Your friend has never had toxoplasmosis but she doesn't quite understand why this, and the fact that she doesn't have antibodies to T. gondii, is important. You help her understand some facts about her adaptive immune system. Your friend asks you how her B cells "know" when to make antibodies. You tell her that B cells must become activated, and that she has another type of cell that assists in this. These are the: A) TH cells that bind to the B cell and release cytokines that activate that B cell. B) TC cells that bind to the B cell and release cytokines that activate that B cell. C) TH cells that bind to the B cell and release cytokines that activate that T cell. D) TC cells that bind to the B cell and release cytokines that activate that T cell. E) TH cells that present the antigen to the B cell, leading to activation of that B cell.

Your patient has recently been diagnosed with an immunodeficiency disorder. Your supervisor asks you to help the patient understand what this means and the impact it will have on her. You explain to your patient the role of the lymphocytes in her adaptive immune response. In the middle of your explanation, you are distracted and you tell her something that is NOT correct. Identify that statement. A) After activation, T lymphocytes divide and proliferate to form a population of helper T cells and a population of cytotoxic T cells; activated T cells secrete cytokines that exert an effect on other cells. B) After activation, B lymphocytes divide and proliferate to form a population of plasma cells and a population of memory cells; plasma cells produce antibodies that tag microbial invaders for elimination by phagocytes. C) Once activated, helper T cells form a population of TH effector cells and a population of TH memory cells; TH effector cells produce cytokines that activate B cells and macrophages. D) Once activated, cytotoxic T cells form a population of TC effector cells and a population of TC memory cells; TC effector cells produce cytokines that induce apoptosis in virally infected self cells. E) Effector B cells and T cells express traits that help eliminate invaders in a primary response. Memory B cells and T cells are responsible for the effectiveness of the secondary response.

A student complains that it makes no sense to worry about coliform bacteria in water, since we naturally possess harmless coliforms in our intestines anyway. Why do regulatory agencies worry about coliform bacteria in water supplies, then? A. Not all coliforms are harmless and symbiotic with human beings and some may carry genes/proteins that can make them dangerous to humans; it is best to keep coliforms OUT of our drinking water, since it is difficult to identify which ones might be harmless and which ones might be harmful. B. Regulatory agencies simply need something to do to justify their existence; there is no real danger from coliforms in water supplies. C. The coliforms in our intestines can sometimes turn harmful, causing intestinal infections; we need to constantly be on guard against this happening; coliforms in water might add to this potential problem. D. Regulatory agencies are worried that multiple types of coliforms in water might lead to greater antibiotic resistance in the bacterial populations; they try to keep them out of water to keep antibiotic resistance levels down.

A - B and D are just silly, and 'constantly on guard' in C = nope. coliforms refers to enterics - are an indicator that the water could be contaminated with fecal matter.

Single-celled eukaryotic organisms that lack chlorophyll are called A. protozoa. B. saprophytes. C. algae. D. Chlorophyta. E. Salmonella.

A - Eurkaryotes we talked about - fungi, algae, protozoa, slime mold, water mold - Single celled and no chlorophyll adds up to protozoa.

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) can be used to perform DNA sequencing reactions. In this case, are 2 primers (a forward and a reverse) necessary? A. No; dideoxynucleotide sequencing depends on different length fragments being formed and then separated based on size and this can take place with only a specific forward primer OR a specific reverse primer. B. No; you actually need a primer pair for each round of DNA amplification and so you will need many, many primer pairs. C. Yes; it will be important to make sure that the primer pairs are made with dideoxynucleotides that are labeled with fluorescent dyes otherwise you will not be able to detect the fragments that are made in the PCR process. D. Yes; PCR cannot be performed without 2 specific primers to amplify the region in question in the DNA

A - I got this one wrong once before. Still not sure I understand this one but it is A.

In E. coli 0157:H7 the 0157:H7 refers to the A. specific LPS and flagella type present. B. specific biotype. C. specific type of DNA present. D. general family. E. specific genus.

A - O antigen is on LPS in out membrane of G- bacteria - H refers to the flagella type - K refers to the capsule

The agarose used in electrophoresis: A. acts as a sieve. B. interacts electrically with the DNA. C. chemically binds to the DNA. D. selectively sorts recombinant DNA from host DNA.

A - does not change the DNA at all, just lets the fragments move through it.

The lactobacilli, in their role as normal flora of the vagina, help it resist infection by contributing to: A. the acidity of the vagina. B. fertility of the host. C. food for the resident vaginal flora. D. urease production. E. the neutrality of the vaginal muscles.

A - lactic acid bateria. Breaks down glycogen deposited in vaginal walls due to estrogen and lowers the pH to prevent bacterial overgrowth.

Viruses acquire envelopes around their nucleocapsids during: A. release. B. assembly. C. penetration. D. adsorption. E. replication.

A - lipid bilayer with virus and host proteins

To maximize the number of thymine dimer mutations following UV exposure, should you keep a plate of fungal cells in the dark, in the light, or does it matter at all? A. It does not matter; fungal cells do not possess the enzymes needed for photorepair of thymine dimers because these enzymes are only found in prokaryotes. B. It is best to alternate light and dark every hour to increase the chances that thymine dimers will form in the fungal cells, but still keep the photorepair systems from correcting them as they are formed. C. Keep then in the dark; light will activate the photorepair systems that can break the thymine dimers induced by UV light. D. Keep them in the light; it is important to keep on producing thymine dimers by keeping the plate exposed to light as much as possible.

A - options for repair are light repair (photorepair - in PROKARYOTES only), dark repair {excision repair), SOS repair when the damage is terrible - means C would be true IF it was PROKARYOTES

Post-translational modification may include: A. the folding of the protein, often with the aid of chaperones AND the removal of the signal sequence B. removal of the signal sequence. C. the folding of the protein often with the aid of chaperones. D. the formation of exons and introns. E. the addition of glycine tags.

A - proteins don't stay in long strings, they have to fold up. Signal sequence is on proteins destined to outside the cell and the sequence is taken off as it moves through the cytoplasmic membrane.

The lagging strand: A. is necessary due to the properties of the enzymes and the antiparallel nature of DNA. B. is always the bottom strand. C. is found during RNA replication. D. is the third type of RNA. E. iIs the strand always associated with the primer.

A -Also, is still replicated along the 3 to 5 direction since DNA polymerase works in 5 to 3 direction. Results in Okazaki fragments - another polymerase will replace the RNA primer with DNA and DNA ligase will covalently bond the nucleotides together.

There are fewer antifungal, anti-protozoan and anti-helminth drugs compared to antibacterial drugs because fungi, protozoa, and helminths A. are so similar to human cells that drug selective toxicity is difficult. B. are parasites found inside human cells. C. are not affected by antimicrobials. D. do not cause many human infections. E. Because their cells have fewer target sites compared to bacteria

A Got this right

Virulence factors include all the following except A. ribosomes. B. flagella. C. exotoxins. D. capsules. E. exoenzymes.

A Got this right

Which is mismatched? A. Secondary infection - infection spreads to several tissue sites B. Toxemia - pathogen's toxins carried by the blood to target tissues C. Mixed infection - several agents established at infection site D. Acute infection - rapid onset of severe, short-lived symptoms E. Local infection - pathogen remains at or near entry site

A - I think that is the definition for metastasis Got this right

Missense Mutation

A base-pair substitution that results in a codon that codes for a different amino acid.

Explain the difference between a biotype and a serotype.

A biotype is the biochemical profile of a particular microorganism, while the serotype is the difference in its surface structures/antigens that will lead to separate immune responses from an organism (characterized by presence of different antibodies in the individual's serum).

When using metabolic capabilities to phenotypically identify the unknown microorganism, the results of tests follow a type of decision tree to reach an answer. What is this decision tree called?

A dichotamous key

What is a naive lymphocyte? A) A lymphocyte that has an antigen receptor but has not yet encountered the antigen recognized by the receptor. B) A lymphocyte that has encountered the antigen recognized by its receptor but has not yet made antibodies. C) A lymphocyte that has encountered the antigen recognized by its receptor but has not yet made antibodies and cytokines. D) A lymphocyte that has encountered the antigen recognized by its receptor but has not yet undergone apoptosis. E) A lymphocyte that has not yet encountered the antigen recognized by its receptor but is making antibodies.

A) A lymphocyte that has an antigen receptor but has not yet encountered the antigen recognized by the receptor.

What is the difference between a primary pathogen and an opportunistic pathogen? A) A primary pathogen is a microbe that is able to cause disease in an otherwise healthy individual, while an opportunistic pathogen is a microbe that causes disease only when introduced into an unusual location or into an immunocompromised host. B) An opportunistic pathogen is a microbe that is able to cause disease in an otherwise healthy individual, while a primary pathogen is a microbe that causes disease only when introduced into an unusual location or into an immunocompromised host. C) A primary pathogen is an environmental microbe that is able to cause disease in an otherwise healthy individual, while an opportunistic pathogen is always a member of the normal microbiota and causes disease only when introduced into an unusual location. D) A primary pathogen is an environmental microbe that is able to cause disease in an otherwise healthy individual, while an opportunistic pathogen is always a member of the normal microbiota and only causes disease in an immunocompromised host. E) A primary pathogen is a microbe that is able to cause disease in an otherwise healthy individual, while opportunistic pathogens are the microorganisms routinely found growing in and on the body of a healthy individual.

A) A primary pathogen is a microbe that is able to cause disease in an otherwise healthy individual, while an opportunistic pathogen is a microbe that causes disease only when introduced into an unusual location or into an immunocompromised host.

As a school RN, you sometimes see students who came to school feeling well but start to feel ill during the course of the school day. Jay comes to you complaining of abdominal pain and chills. You take his temperature and find that it is 38.2oC. While you are examining him, he confides that directly before he came to see you, he went to the bathroom and had diarrhea. He tells you that he and his family went out for dinner the night before and that he had been feeling completely fine until a couple of hours ago. You describe to Jay the initial events that must have occurred in order for him to become ill. Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) All pathogens must inject molecules into the host cell that induce a specific change in those cells; this is performed via structures called injectisomes. B) Following adhesion, the pathogen must colonize the host, growing on the host cell surface. C) Pathogens must adhere to host cells to initiate infection; bacteria use adhesins to attach to receptors on host cells. D) In order to colonize, a pathogen must often compete with the normal microbiota, prevent binding of secretory IgA, and obtain iron. E) All of these statements are correct.

A) All pathogens must inject molecules into the host cell that induce a specific change in those cells; this is performed via structures called injectisomes. - Gram negative bacteria have these structures. Type III secretory structure, like a hypodermic needle.

What would be a primary advantage of using an attenuated agent rather than just a subunit of that agent for a vaccine? A) An attenuated agent strongly stimulates both the humoral AND cell-mediated adaptive immune response, giving the best comprehensive long-term protection available. B) There is no advantage. It's much more dangerous to use an attenuated agent over a subunit vaccine due to the possibility of reversion of the microbe to a pathogenic state. C) An attenuated agent strongly stimulates ONLY the antibody production (humoral response) of the adaptive immune system. This provides the best and strongest long-term protection. D) An attenuated agent strongly stimulates ONLY the cytotoxic T cell (CTL, cell-mediated) side of the adaptive immune system. This provides the best and strongest long-term protection. E) There is no advantage. If a subunit is used from that agent, all the T cells that are activated will make antibodies against that single antigen, causing a very strong response.

A) An attenuated agent strongly stimulates both the humoral AND cell-mediated adaptive immune response, giving the best comprehensive long-term protection available.

Which is more likely to happen—antigenic DRIFT, or antigenic SHIFT—and why? A) Antigenic DRIFT, since infection with only a single virus strain is required, and the random mutations happen as the virus replicates in the infected person's cells. B) Antigenic SHIFT, since infection with only a single virus strain is required, and the random mutations happen as the virus replicates in the infected person's cells. C) Antigenic DRIFT, since infection with only a single virus strain is required and random mutations occur more readily in this situation than if two virus strains are present. D) Antigenic SHIFT, since multiple viruses in a cell at once means more RNA polymerase to copy the RNA, and therefore more possibilities for mistakes to be made (leading to mutations). E) Antigenic drift and antigenic shift occur at the same frequency. Genetic change is just as likely to occur if one viral strain or more than one strain is/are present.

A) Antigenic DRIFT, since infection with only a single virus strain is required, and the random mutations happen as the virus replicates in the infected person's cells.

A commercial modification of the disk diffusion test is called the: A) E test. B) D test. C) C test. D) B test. E) A test.

A) E test.

Which of the following findings was essential for Edward Jenner's vaccination process? A) Exposure to a milder disease form may produce immunity. B) Disease is caused by viruses. C) Someone who recovers from a disease will not acquire that disease again. D) Pathogenic microorganisms infect all humans and animals in the same manner. E) A weakened microorganism will not cause disease.

A) Exposure to a milder disease form may produce immunity. Milder coxpox protected milk maids from smallpox.

Which of the following is not a vector? A) Fomite B) Human C) Fly D) Flea E) Fomite AND human

A) Fomite A vector is any living organism that can carry a disease-causing organism. Usually applied to arthropods (insects and arachnids).

Which of the following is not a mechanical vector? A) Fomite B) Human C) Fly D) Flea E) Fomite AND human

A) Fomite Keyword: VECTOR - fomite is not a living organism.

In opsonization with IgG, why would it be important that IgG react with the antigen BEFORE a phagocytic cell recognizes the antibody molecule? A) If the IgG is bound to the phagocyte BEFORE opsonization, it would most likely be ingested by the phagocyte before it could bind to a pathogen (it would be "naked," so to speak). B) Binding of IgG by phagocytes would block the antigen binding sites on the IgG molecules, preventing them from binding to the microbes. C) Binding of IgG by phagocytes changes their conformation—and by changing their protein conformation, their antigen binding sites are changed and they can no longer recognize their specific antigenic epitopes. D) Binding of antibody by phagocytes results in immediate release of protein-destroying enzymes to the outside of the cell. Since antibodies are proteins, they would be destroyed by these enzymes (and would then be unable to bind to their specific antigenic epitopes).

A) If the IgG is bound to the phagocyte BEFORE opsonization, it would most likely be ingested by the phagocyte before it could bind to a pathogen (it would be "naked," so to speak).

Why would it be important for the Kirby-Bauer disc diffusion test to use a standard concentration (number of cells in the sample) of each of the bacterial strains being tested? A) If you were to use one strain that was stationary phase (high concentration, replicating very slowly or not at all), and another strain that was just beginning log phase (low concentration but replicating quickly), you could see different results in the test, affecting your interpretation. B) Growth on the Mueller-Hinton agar plates utilized is very sensitive to the phase of the growth curve the bacteria are in when they are placed on the plate. If they are not in the log phase when they are placed on the plate, they will not grow and the test will be worthless. C) Antibiotic resistance is usually only manifested by bacteria that have achieved a very high concentration. It's important to use bacteria specifically at this particular point for disc diffusion testing. D) Antibiotics only work within a narrow range of cell concentrations. If you use a concentration that is too low or too high, you will get inaccurate measurements of the zone of inhibition. E) Bacteria only develop resistance when there are more than 1012 cells/ mL. If resistance is to be detected, the test must use at least this concentration of cells. If fewer cells are used, no zone of inhibition will develop.

A) If you were to use one strain that was stationary phase (high concentration, replicating very slowly or not at all), and another strain that was just beginning log phase (low concentration but replicating quickly), you could see different results in the test, affecting your interpretation.

Why does passive immunity not give lifetime protection, while active immunity may? A) In active immunity, the body's own lymphocytes respond, producing a memory cell population that can respond to a subsequent exposure to the same antigen. Passive immunity only lasts as long as the injected antibodies remain in the body. B) In passive immunity, the body's own lymphocytes respond, producing a memory cell population that can respond to a subsequent exposure to the same antigen. Active immunity only lasts as long as the injected antibodies remain in the body. C) In active immunity, the body's own lymphocytes respond, producing an effector cell population that continually produces antibodies for the duration of the person's lifetime. Passive immunity only lasts as long as the injected antibodies remain in the body. D) In active immunity, the body's own lymphocytes respond, producing an effector cell population that continually produces antibodies for the duration of the person's lifetime. Passive immunity results in the production of antibodies only when an antigen is present. E) This question is misleading. Both passive immunity and active immunity provide lifetime protection.

A) In active immunity, the body's own lymphocytes respond, producing a memory cell population that can respond to a subsequent exposure to the same antigen. Passive immunity only lasts as long as the injected antibodies remain in the body.

What is NOT a reason that the kidneys are particularly prone to damage caused by immune complexes? A) Kidney blood vessel wall cells have receptors for antibodies on them, which makes them take up antibodies or immune complexes from the bloodstream. This blocks the kidneys up and causes them to malfunction and become damaged. B) Blood is pushed through the kidneys at a very high pressure. Any blockage of the vessels, such as what might be caused by immune complex deposits, can lead to ruptures/inflammation and damage of these organs. C) While blood vessel walls do NOT have receptors for antibodies, large immune complexes forced through small diameter vessels can become embedded within them. This can trigger complement system inflammation and cell destruction. D) Trapped immune complexes that initiate inflammation can attract neutrophils. The neutrophils degranulate in the area of the immune complexes, leading to cell/tissue destruction. E) These are all reasons that the kidneys are very susceptible to damage caused by immune complexes.

A) Kidney blood vessel wall cells have receptors for antibodies on them, which makes them take up antibodies or immune complexes from the bloodstream. This blocks the kidneys up and causes them to malfunction and become damaged.

The series of steps used to connect an organism to a disease are known as: A) Pasteur's postulates. B) Lister's aseptics. C) Linnaeus' taxonomics. D) Koch's postulates. E) Bergey's manual

A) Koch's postulates. - not every microorganism fits each of the steps Ex) some can't be grown in pure culture - like if a disease is caused by several working in concert.

You are an RN working in the emergency department (ED) at a major hospital in New York City. During one shift, you see two patients who are exhibiting coughing with blood-containing sputum, and shortness of breath. Both patients report that they have experienced headaches, muscle aches, high fever, confusion, and shaking chills in the days preceding their ED visit. One of the patients also has some digestive tract symptoms including diarrhea, abdominal pain, and vomiting. You discover that the patients live in the same apartment building, although they do not know each other. You suspect that they have a type of pneumonia, and given the circumstances, think it may be legionellosis. You read up on this disease to refresh your memory about it. L. pneumophila was unrecognized as the causative agent of legionellosis for a long time. Why is this? A) L. pneumophila both stains poorly with common methods, and is difficult to culture in the laboratory. B) The organism is fastidious and is difficult to culture in the laboratory. C) L. pneumophila stains poorly with common methods, so is difficult to detect. D) L. pneumophila has no surface antigens and thus cannot be stained with fluorescence. E) There is no way to grow L. pneumophila in vitro; this organism can only be cultivated in cell cultures or viruses.

A) L. pneumophila both stains poorly with common methods, and is difficult to culture in the laboratory.

Which of the following is/are true about endotoxins? A) Lipid A is the toxic portion of the molecule. B) The toxic effects depend on the bacteria from which it came. C) The lipid A portion is heat sensitive. D) They are proteins. E) The toxic effects depend on the bacteria from which it came AND they are proteins.

A) Lipid A is the toxic portion of the molecule.

The publication of the CDC that reports new cases of reportable infectious diseases is titled: A) Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report (MMWR). B) State Health News Letter (SHNL). C) Federal Report of Infectious Disease (FRID). D) National Morbidity Weekly (NMW). E) Monthly Death and Disease Report (MDDR).

A) Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report (MMWR).

Use the dichotomous key in Table 10.2 to identify a gram-negative coccus. A) Neisseria B) Pseudomonas C) Staphylococcus D) Streptococcus E) Micrococcus

A) Neisseria

A) Peptidoglycan synthesis I admit that I don't understand the wording of this question.

Select the statement that best explains how RhoGAM works. A) RhoGAM contains anti-Rh antibodies; these bind to any Rh+ erythrocytes that may have entered the mother's circulation from an Rh+ baby, preventing these RBCs from stimulating a primary immune response in the mother. B) RhoGAM contains anti-Rh antibodies; these bind to any Rh- erythrocytes that may have entered the mother's circulation from an Rh- baby, preventing these RBCs from stimulating a primary immune response in the mother. C) RhoGAM contains anti-Rh antibodies; these bind to any Rh+ leukocytes that may have entered the mother's circulation from an Rh+ baby, preventing these WBCs from stimulating a primary immune response in the mother. D) RhoGAM contains anti-Rh antibodies; these bind to any Rh+ erythrocytes that may have entered the mother's circulation from an Rh+ baby, preventing these RBCs from stimulating a secondary immune response in the mother. E) RhoGAM contains anti-ABO antibodies; these bind to any ABO+ erythrocytes that may have entered the mother's circulation from a ABO+ baby, preventing these RBCs from stimulating a primary immune response in the mother.

A) RhoGAM contains anti-Rh antibodies; these bind to any Rh+ erythrocytes that may have entered the mother's circulation from an Rh+ baby, preventing these RBCs from stimulating a primary immune response in the mother.

Your class decides to celebrate the last day of spring break by having a picnic. You arrange to meet at your local park and everyone agrees to bring a dish of food to the event. On the day, there is a wide variety of things to eat, but the snack that everyone agreed was the best was the hot chicken wings made by Paul. Almost everyone ate at least two to three wings. The picnic was a huge success. The next morning you wake up feeling awful. You have a low grade fever and you have both vomiting and diarrhea. You call your friend Susan to tell her you won't make it to class that day and to please take good notes, which she promises to do. About 20 minutes later, Susan calls you back and tells you that three other people have also called her and are experiencing the same symptoms as you. You realize that you must have all eaten something at the picnic that is causing your illness. After finding out that none of the vegetarians or vegans in the class are ill, you figure out that it was likely a meat product. There were 27 students at the picnic, of which 18 developed illness. The attack rate was thus nearly 67%. What does this mean? A) The attack rate describes the number of susceptible people who become ill in a population after exposure to an infectious agent, in this case 67%. B) The attack rate is the number of new cases in a specific time period in a given population, in this case 27. C) This describes the number of people in a defined population who die during a given period, in this case nearly 18%. D) The attack rate is the total number of cases at any time or for a specific period in a given population, in this case 27. E) It describes the situation in which a particular disease arises from several genera of a person's own normal microbiota, in this case 18.

A) The attack rate describes the number of susceptible people who become ill in a population after exposure to an infectious agent, in this case 67%.

tRNA

About 75 nucleotides long. Delivers the correct amino acid to the ribosome bases on the sequence of nucleotides in mRNA.

What allows for selective toxicity in a medication? A) The medication acts against an essential component or biochemical process of microorganisms that does not exist in human cells. B) The medication is converted into a non-toxic form by the liver in people, but remains highly toxic in bacteria which cannot process the drug. C) The medication acts against an essential component or biochemical process of human cells that does not exist in microorganisms. D) Only some medications cross from the blood into the cerebrospinal fluid of humans. E) Some medications have a very extended half-life AND only some medications cross from the blood into the cerebrospinal fluid of humans.

A) The medication acts against an essential component or biochemical process of microorganisms that does not exist in human cells.

Why do Rh-negative but not Rh-positive mothers sometimes have babies with hemolytic disease of the newborn? A) This disease results when an Rh-negative mother's immune system is primed to produce anti-Rh IgG antibodies that can cross the placenta. If the mother is Rh-positive, she won't produce any anti-Rh antibodies at all. B) Rh-positive mothers produce IgM antibody, not IgG. Even although they make anti-Rh antibody, IgM antibody can't cross the placenta, so it can't cause hemolytic disease of the newborn. C) Rh-positive mothers will receive a preventative shot from their physician prior to conception. This will provide the protection the fetus needs AFTER conception to avoid the disease. D) Rh-negativity is also associated with hyperproduction of antibodies. As such, Rh-negative mothers are more likely than Rh-positive mothers to produce the antibodies needed to produce this disease. E) This disease results when an Rh-positive mother's immune system is primed to produce anti-Rh IgG antibodies that can cross the placenta. If the mother is Rh-negative, she won't produce any anti-Rh antibodies at all.

A) This disease results when an Rh-negative mother's immune system is primed to produce anti-Rh IgG antibodies that can cross the placenta. If the mother is Rh-positive, she won't produce any anti-Rh antibodies at all.

What would be a primary advantage of passive immunity with diseases such as tetanus or botulism? A) Time. You can quickly neutralize the toxin with a passive administration of antibodies to save the patient's life during the period it takes for their own active immune response to occur. B) Cost. It's much cheaper to administer a dose of antibodies harvested from the serum of an actively immunized animal or human than it is to administer a vaccine. C) Safety of delivery. It's far safer to administer a dose of antibodies harvested from the serum of an actively immunized animal or human than it is to administer a vaccine. D) Handling of treatment. It's difficult to keep vaccines stored properly to keep their potency, especially in countries without adequate refrigeration facilities. It's much easier to keep antibodies stable, even in extremes of heat and humidity. E) Recovery time. Even if the person actually develops the disease, the antibodies that are delivered in passive immunity will actively seek out and destroy the pathogen, facilitating a quicker recovery.

A) Time. You can quickly neutralize the toxin with a passive administration of antibodies to save the patient's life during the period it takes for their own active immune response to occur. - give antibodies directly when the person is infected with something really bad or when a person is severely immunocompromised and has really low antibody counts of their own.

Why must vancomycin be administered intravenously except when used to treat intestinal infections? A) Vancomycin is poorly absorbed from the intestinal tract. B) Vancomycin is toxic but less so if injected intravenously. C) Injected vancomycin is easier to target to the site of infection. D) Vancomycin is effective against only Gram-positive bacteria. E) Vancomycin has a high therapeutic index.

A) Vancomycin is poorly absorbed from the intestinal tract. p.507. Vancomycin is a glycopeptide antibiotic - most widely used one in the US. "Vancomycin in poorly absorbed from the intestinal tract, so it must be administered intravenously except when used to treat intestinal infections."

Why would antimicrobials that have toxic side effects be used at all? (select the BEST reason) A) We want the largest possible number of choices of drugs in case a microbe shows resistance. With more possible weapons (even toxic ones), we have greater ability to eliminate infections. B) Every person is different. What is toxic to one person may not be toxic to another person. To eliminate a useful drug because it's toxic to 1% of people treated is a waste. C) Depending on the location of the infection, we may have no choice but to utilize a drug that has some toxic side effects to the patient. D) They shouldn't be used. We have enough of a selection of drugs that we can always select a drug with no toxicity. Drugs with toxicity are simply leftovers from a time when we didn't have as many drug options. E) These are all reasons to use antimicrobials that have a low therapeutic index.

A) We want the largest possible number of choices of drugs in case a microbe shows resistance. With more possible weapons (even toxic ones), we have greater ability to eliminate infections.

Would an antibody response against the B subunit of an A-B toxin protect against the effects of the toxin? A) Yes. If antibodies bind to the B portion, the toxin can no longer bind to target cells and will thus not affect those cells. B) No. Even if antibodies bind to the B portion of the toxin, it is the A portion that actually causes damage to the cell. C) Yes. If antibodies bind to the B portion, that portion of the toxin does not become activated, and thus does not damage the host cell. D) No. Even if antibodies bind to the B portion of the toxin, the toxin is still taken into the host cell by phagocytosis, damaging that cell. E) This question cannot be answered. The immune system does not mount a strong response against proteins, so this situation is unlikely to occur.

A) Yes. If antibodies bind to the B portion, the toxin can no longer bind to target cells and will thus not affect those cells.

Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by the diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae, commonly called gonococcus (GC). This organism developed resistance to penicillin and tetracycline in the 1980s, after which fluoroquinolones were the recommended drugs for treating GC. Subsequent resistance to the fluoroquinolones has led to the current recommended treatment of injected ceftriaxone in combination with oral azithromycin. Although this approach continues to be effective, recent data from the CDC indicates that resistance to azithromycin is emerging. Fluoroquinolones act by inhibiting DNA gyrase, an enzyme involved in DNA replication. Resistance to this antibiotic is most commonly by: A) a change in the DNA gyrase target, an example of acquired resistance. B) enzymatic modification of the ribosomal target, an example of innate resistance. C) a change in the DNA gyrase target, an example of innate resistance. D) due to a mutation in the gene that encodes RNA polymerase, an example of adaptive resistance. E) increased efflux of the drug from the target cell, an example of innate resistance.

A) a change in the DNA gyrase target, an example of acquired resistance.

You are about to graduate as a RN. Your final term project is to prepare a presentation on HIV/AIDS. HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) is a retrovirus—it is an enveloped single-stranded virus that has duplicate copies of a single-stranded RNA genome. All retroviruses encode reverse transcriptase, an enzyme that uses an RNA genome as a template to make a complementary DNA strand. HIV can infect a variety of human cell types, but the most important are the helper T cells (also called CD4 cells)—the virus infects these cells and causes their death; their numbers slowly decline until the immune system can no longer resist infections or tumor development. You give your presentation to the class and are asked by your professor at the end of the session to answer some questions that your peers have on diagnosing HIV. The initial test used to diagnose HIV is the ELISA test. This test is: A) a colorimetric assay that is used to locate enzyme-labeled antibodies bound to antigens, often in a microtiter plate. B) a piece of equipment that separates and determines the relative concentrations and certain characteristics of fluorescent-antibody-labeled cells. C) the use of fluorescence microscopy to locate fluorescently labeled antibodies bound to antigens fixed to a microscope slide. D) a "sandwich method" in which a known antigen is trapped between two radioactively labeled microscope slides for viewing. E) None of the answer choices is correct.

A) a colorimetric assay that is used to locate enzyme-labeled antibodies bound to antigens, often in a microtiter plate.

Monoclonal antibodies obtained from a hybridoma provide: A) a large amount of an antibody that is specific for a particular epitope. B) a single antibody that recognizes many epitopes. C) many epitopes that recognize a specific antibody. D) a large number of B cells. E) a large amount of an antibody that reacts with a wide range of epitopes.

A) a large amount of an antibody that is specific for a particular epitope. Same if it says 'antigen' instead of 'epitope'. - drugs end in 'mab' - animal B cell (short lived) + myeloma cell (cancerous plasma cell that divides forever, doesn't make antibodies and dies with drug aminopterin) = fusion -> HYBRIDOMA cells that aren't susceptible to aminopterin, live forever and make antibodies that are identical.

Recombinant human monoclonal antibody (rhuMAb): A) appears promising as a treatment for asthma AND uses an engineered form of an IgG molecule. B) promotes crosslinking between IgE molecules on the mast cells AND appears promising as a treatment for asthma. C) appears promising as a treatment for asthma AND decreases the levels of IgG. D) uses an engineered form of an IgG molecule AND promotes crosslinking between IgE molecules on the mast cells. E) appears promising as a treatment for asthma AND uses an engineered form of an IgM molecule.

A) appears promising as a treatment for asthma AND uses an engineered form of an IgG molecule. p.443 -immunotherapy used in fighting severe ASTHMA that doesn't respond to inhaled corticosteroids or long-term bronchodilators uses recombinant humanized monoclonal antibodies - rhuMAbs are animal derived. ex)omalizumab (Xolair) used genetically engineered IgG that binds to the Fc part of IgE so that it can't bind to mast cells.

People who carry and may spread pathogenic organisms without any apparent signs or symptoms of illness are called: A) carriers. B) primary infectors. C) secondary infectors. D) mutualists. E) opportunists.

A) carriers.

Your father has just been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. He has pain and the sensation of "pins and needles" in some if his finger joints and also in his wrists. He knows you covered autoimmune diseases in your microbiology class, so asks you to help him understand his condition. You explain to your Dad that the causes of RA are not clear, but may involve all of the following EXCEPT A) insufficient production of B cells, helper T cells, and cytotoxic T cells, so that the adaptive immune response is unable to differentiate "self" from "foreign." B) infections—an immune response against a pathogen engaged in molecular mimicry may inappropriately attack healthy tissues as well. C) regulatory T cell problems—sometimes these cells are deficient or do not function properly; these cells play a role in regulating inappropriately activated lymphocytes. D) genetics—RA is often seen in related people who share genes for major histocompatibility molecules. E) These are all factors involved in developing RA.

A) insufficient production of B cells, helper T cells, and cytotoxic T cells, so that the adaptive immune response is unable to differentiate "self" from "foreign."

A) it is a disease that can be easily transmitted from one host to another.

The "hygiene hypothesis" proposes that: A) lack of exposure to microbes can lead to development of allergies. B) good hygiene always prevents development of disease. C) hand washing is the best preventative measure against infection. D) the immune system develops best in a clean environment. E) adaptive immunity only develops in a sterile environment.

A) lack of exposure to microbes can lead to development of allergies. slide 13 - to allergies and autoimmune diseases

What would be the effect of using a medication combination where one medication is bacteriostatic and the other is bactericidal for actively dividing cells only? A. The medications would interfere with each other and become less effective. B. The medications would enhance each others activity by killing microbes that are both slow growing and fast growing. C. The medications would have no effect on each other since they target two different things.

A. The medications would interfere with each other and become less effective.

Hemolytic disease of the newborn: A) may not manifest itself fully until after birth. B) is due to the action of IgM. C) is due to the action of IgE. D) is a type I hypersensitivity reaction. E) may not manifest itself fully until after birth AND is due to the action of IgE.

A) may not manifest itself fully until after birth. - mom's enzymes protect fetus but degrade after birth w/o being renewed and baby's RBCs get lysed. - at first exposure Mom's antibodies are IgM (don't cross the placenta) but the second time an Rh- mom carries an Rh+ fetus, Mom's anti-Rh IgG antibodies an cross over. p.444 Type II Hypersensitivity: Cytotoxic

A fly that walks on feces and picks up E. coli O157:H7 then lands on food and transfers the microorganisms, is considered a: A) mechanical vector. B) biological vector. C) mechanical OR biological vector. D) fomite. E) cross-contaminator.

A) mechanical vector.

The number of people in a defined population who die during a given period is called the: A) mortality rate. B) morbidity rate. C) attack rate. D) incidence rate. E) case rate.

A) mortality rate. morbidity is number of illnesses, mortality of number of deaths. - number of cases of a specific disease per on hundred people exposed is called the Morbidity Rate. - fraction of the population who die from a specific disease is called the Mortality Rate.

An elderly patient comes to see you complaining of a very painful rash. When he lifts his shirt, you see that he has a rash of small blisters (vesicles) on one side of his back. You think he likely has shingles, caused by varicella-zoster virus (VZV), a double-stranded DNA virus that belongs to the Herpesviridae family. You explain this to your patient, who asks you to please give him an antibiotic for his infection. You tell him an antibiotic will not help him, and give him information on virus infections and their treatment. Acyclovir is selective and low in toxicity, causing little harm to uninfected cells, because: A) only a virally encoded enzyme can convert the medication into its active form (from nucleoside analog to nucleotide analog). B) only a virally encoded enzyme can convert the medication into its active form (from nucleotide analog to nucleoside analog). C) viral DNA is structurally very different from cellular DNA. D) host cells have the ability to repair the damage caused by nucleotide analogs. E) host cells have an enzyme that prevents the conversion of the medication into its active form.

A) only a virally encoded enzyme can convert the medication into its active form (from nucleoside analog to nucleotide analog).

A) people acquire while receiving treatment in a healthcare setting such as a hospital, therapy center, urgent care facility, or long-term care residence.

If the number of people who become ill during an epidemic rises gradually, this is called a(n): A) propagated epidemic. B) promulgated epidemic. C) common source epidemic. D) index epidemic. E) confluent epidemic.

A) propagated epidemic. First case is the index case. First person is infected, infects a few more and they go out and infect more...break in infection numbers are incubation periods (get shorter as more people get infected - the gaps, not the incubation period.).

The chemical nature of exotoxins is that of a: A) protein. B) carbohydrate. C) lipid. D) lipopolysaccharide. E) carbohydrate.

A) protein. -heat destroys exotoxins

The redness and induration found after a tuberculin skin test involve the action of: A) sensitized T cells. B) IgE. C) complement proteins. D) basophil cells. E) activated dendritic cells.

A) sensitized T cells. induration. 1 : an increase in the fibrous elements in tissue commonly associated with inflammation and marked by loss of elasticity and pliability : sclerosis. 2 : a hardened mass or formation.

Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by the diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae, commonly called gonococcus (GC). This organism developed resistance to penicillin and tetracycline in the 1980s, after which fluoroquinolones were the recommended drugs for treating GC. Subsequent resistance to the fluoroquinolones has led to the current recommended treatment of injected ceftriaxone in combination with oral azithromycin. Although this approach continues to be effective, recent data from the CDC indicates that resistance to azithromycin is emerging. The situation in which the effect of two antimcrobials given together is more effective than the effect of either medication given individually is referred to as: A) synergism. B) antagonism. C) nihilism. D) symbiosis. E) dysbiosis. Correct answer: A

A) synergism.

The function of the secretory component of the IgA molecule is: A) to protect IgA from being destroyed by proteolytic enzymes. B) to coat the antigen. C) to facilitate opsonization. D) to protect breast-fed infants against intestinal pathogens. E) to protect IgA from being destroyed by lipases.

A) to protect IgA from being destroyed by proteolytic enzymes.

Your father has just been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. He has pain and the sensation of "pins and needles" in some if his finger joints and also in his wrists. He knows you covered autoimmune diseases in your microbiology class, so asks you to help him understand his condition. Your father wonders how viruses or bacteria can potentially initiate an autoimmune disease. You tell him that A) viruses or bacteria could contain antigens that are similar to host tissue. Antibodies made in response to these agents may cross react with autoantigens. B) viruses and bacteria frequently over-stimulate cytotoxic T cells so that inappropriate antibodies are made against self antigens. C) autoimmunity usually develops when hematopoietic stem cells in the bone marrow fail to produce functional lymphocytes, as frequently happens during an infection. D) viruses or bacteria could contain antibodies that are similar to those of host tissue. Antigens made in response to these agents may cross react with self antibodies. E) autoimmunity often occurs when T cells do not differentiate and are absent in circulation; many pathogens suppress T cell maturation.

A) viruses or bacteria could contain antigens that are similar to host tissue. Antibodies made in response to these agents may cross react with autoantigens.

Please choose the class of antimicrobials that would have the most selective toxicity. A. Antimicrobials that inhibit cell wall synthesis B. Antimicrobials that interfere with nucleic acid structure and function C. Antimicrobials that interfere with cell membrane structure and function D. Antimicrobials that inhibit protein synthesis

A. Antimicrobials that inhibit cell wall synthesis

The three domain classification scheme uses A. Archaea, Bacteria, Eukarya. B. Protista, Prokaryotae, Fungi. C. Plants, Animals, Bacteria. D. order, phylum, class. E. Bacteria, Archaea, Animalia

A. Archaea, Bacteria, Eukarya.

You suspect that she may have Helicobacter pylori gastritis, and send her for a urea breath test. The breath test is positive; based on this, you get the patient's stool tested for blood, and you send her for an endoscopy, during which a biopsy is taken. Your diagnosis is confirmed by the results of these tests and that she does indeed have H. pylori. Your patient asks you how a bacterium can survive in her stomach, which she knows is very acidic. You explain that: A. H. pylori produces urease that converts urea into carbon dioxide and ammonia; the ammonia neutralizes the pH of the stomach, allowing the bacteria to survive. B. H. pylori is an acidophile, and as such prefers acidic pH levels of 1-3; gastric juices contain hydrochloric acid which has a very low pH. C. H. pylori is encased in the very thick polysaccharide capsule that protects it from the degradative effects of the HCl found in the stomach. D. H. pylori forms a biofilm with the other normal microbiota of the stomach. The structure of the biofilm covers and protects the bacteria within it. E H. pylori has the ability to form endospores in hostile environmental conditions. It does this in the acidic stomach, only germinating once they reach the small intestine.

A. H. pylori produces urease that converts urea into carbon dioxide and ammonia; the ammonia neutralizes the pH of the stomach, allowing the bacteria to survive.

A. Urticaria; an allergic skin reaction characterized by the formation of itchy red swellings B. The antibody molecules with a single specificity produced in vitro by lymphocytes fused with a type of malignant myeloma cell C. The fluid portion of blood remaining after blood clots D. Latex beads, to which specific antibodies have been attached, produce visible clumps of aggregates in the presence of the specific antigen E. An autoimmune disease characterized by muscle weakness caused by autoantibodies

A. Hives B. monoclonal antibodies C. serum plasma D. latex agglutination E. myasthenia gravis

A. The lowest concentration of a specific antimicrobial medication that prevents growth of a given microbial strain in vitro B. An antimicrobial medication that inhibits or kills a limited range of bacteria C. The procedure used to determine bacterial susceptibility to concentrations of an antimicrobial medication usually present in the bloodstream of an individual receiving the drug D. The target of β-lactam antimicrobial medications and heavy metals E. Strains of Staphylococcus aureus that are resistant to methicillin

A. Minimum Inhibitory Concentration, MIC B. Narrow-spectrum antimicrobial C. Kirby-Bauer disc diffusion assay D. Penicillin-binding proteins, PBP E. MRSA S. aureus

Which of the following microbes is of growing concern due to increasing resistance to "first-line medications," including isoniazid and rifampin.: A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Enterobacteriaceae C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Streptococcus pneumoniae

A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Wisconsin state health authorities alerted the CDC about an E. coli O157:H7 outbreak. Soon thereafter, officials from two other states reported that they also had cases of illness associated with this pathogen. Within days, the CDC determined that the E. coli strains from all three states were the same, and the likely source of the outbreak was a particular brand of pre-packaged fresh spinach. The CDC then issued a press release advising people not to eat bagged fresh spinach. Please select the FALSE definition regarding microbial identification: A. RFLPs are patterns of fragment sizes obtained by digesting polypeptides with one or more proteases. B. A signature sequence is a nucleotide sequence in rRNA that characterizes a certain species or a group of related organisms. C. A biotype is a group of strains that have a characteristic biochemical pattern different from other strains. D. A species is a group of closely related strains; it is the basic unit of taxonomy. E. A serovar is a group of strains that have a characteristic antigenic structure that differs from other strains.

A. RFLPs are patterns of fragment sizes obtained by digesting polypeptides with one or more proteases.

A. In virology, the separation of the protein coat from the nucleic acid of the virion B. The structures on the outside of the virion that bind to host cell receptors C. The group of viruses possessed of a single-stranded RNA genome; their enzyme, reverse transcriptase, synthesizes a DNA copy that is then integrated into the host cell chromosome D. The group of fatal neurodegenerative diseases in which brain tissue develops sponge-like holes E. The viral particle in its inert, extracellular form

A. Uncoating B. Spikes (attachment proteins) C. Retroviruses D. Transmissible Spongiform Encephalopathies (TSE's) E. Virion

A.In molecular biology, a piece of DNA acting as a carrier of a cloned fragment of DNA; in epidemiology, any living organism that can carry a disease-causing microbe, most commonly arthropods such as mosquitoes and ticks B. Organism utilizing nutrients from dead and decaying matter C. Isolated from Agrobacterium tumefaciens, it allows those organisms to cause tumors in plants; a derivative is used as a vector to introduce DNA into plants by genetic engineering D. Pattern of fragment sizes obtained by digesting DNA with one or more restriction enzymes E. Evolutionary relatedness of organisms

A. Vector B. Saprophyte C. Tumor-inducing (Ti) plasmid D. Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP) E. Phylogeny

How do all viruses differ from bacteria? A)Viruses are not composed of cells. B)Viruses do not have any nucleic acid. C)Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites. D)Viruses do not reproduce. E)Viruses are filterable.

A. Viruses are not composed of cells. - viruses are not cells, are not alive, are acellular infectious agents.

Purple sulfur bacteria and filamentous sulfur-oxidizers both: A. accumulate sulfur as intracellular granules. B. fix nitrogen. C. produce oxygen from carbon dioxide. D. use gliding motility

A. accumulate sulfur as intracellular granules.

A. A poisonous substance made by Aspergillus flavus B. Lacking O2 C. Microbiological group of strains having a characteristic biochemical pattern different from other strains; also called a biovar D. Biological production of light E. Organism that obtains energy by oxidizing organic compounds such as glucose

A. aflatoxin B. anoxic C. biotype D. bioluminescense E. chemoorganotroph

41. HEPA filters are used to remove microbes from A. air. B. liquids. C. human tissues. D. medical instruments. E. All of the choices are correct.

A. air

10. The method of removing vegetative life forms from living surfaces is termed A. antisepsis. B. disinfection. C. sterilization. D. decontamination. E. fegerming.

A. antisepsis

12. The betadine swab before blood donation is an example of A. antisepsis. B. disinfection. C. sterilization. D. decontamination. E. sanitation.

A. antisepsis

13. The alcohol wipe before an injection is an example of A. antisepsis. B. disinfection. C. sterilization. D. decontamination. E. virilization.

A. antisepsis

A. A preparation of serum containing protective antibodies B. The immunity acquired through artificial means such as vaccination or administration of immune globulin C. A hypersensitivity reaction cause by immune complexes and neutrophils D. An antigen causing an allergy E. An organ or tissue transplanted between genetically nonidentical members of the same species

A. antiserum B. Artificially Acquired Immunity C. Arthus reaction D. allergen E. allograft

The point at which two organisms diverged from a common ancestor: A. can be determined by comparing the nucleic acid sequences. B. is determined on MacConkey's media. C. depends on transcriptional and translational control. D. depends on metabolic activity and antibiotic resistance. E. is impossible to determine.

A. can be determined by comparing the nucleic acid sequences.

A. Protein coat surrounding the nucleic acid of a virus B. Major change in a viral surface antigen that render antibodies made against the previous version ineffective C. Illness characterized by signs and symptoms that develop quickly but last a relatively short time D. Arthropod-borne virus; one of a large group of RNA viruses carried by insects and mites that act as biological vectors E. A virus that infects bacteria; often abbreviated to phage

A. capsid B. Antigenic shift - shift is a MAJOR change whereas drift is a minor change. C. Acute Infection D. Arbovirus E. Bacteriophage

APITM, EnterotubeTM, and VitekTM are all: A. commercially available methods used to identify bacteria. B. methods for extracting protein from bacteria. C. used to show the presence of bacteria in a sample. D. methods for extracting DNA from bacteria. E. used to measure gas production.

A. commercially available methods used to identify bacteria. (kits or computerized analysis designed to make metabolic capability testing quick and easy.)

A. A vaccine composed of a polysaccharide antigen covalently attached to a large protein molecule, thereby converting what would be a T-independent antigen into a T-dependent antigen B. The phenomenon occuring when a critical concentration of immune hosts prevents the spread of an infectious agent C. A disease of the fetus or newborn cause by transplacental passage of maternal antibodies against the baby's red blood cells, resulting in red cell destruction; usually anti-Rhesus (Rh) antibodies are involved and the disease is called Rh disease; also called erythroblastosis fetalis D. A disease produced as a result of an immune reaction against one's own tissues E. The release of mediators from a cell's granules such as histamine released from mast cells

A. conjugate vaccine B. herd immunity C. Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn D. autoimmune disease E. degranulation

Agrobacterium : A. contain the Ti plasmid which modifies the growth of plant tissue. B. produce antibiotics. C. infect animal cells. D. resemble fungus.

A. contain the Ti plasmid which modifies the growth of plant tissue.

A. The small regulatory protein produced by cells to affect the behavior of other cells B. The molecule that reacts specifically with an antibody or lymphocyte C. The portion of an antibody molecule that does not vary in amino acid sequences among molecules of the same immunoglobulin class D. The region of an antigen recognized by antibodies and antigen receptors on lymphocytes E. The process allowing a B cell to change the antibody class it is programmed to make

A. cytokine B. antigen C. constant region D. epitope E. class switch

he most significant cells in graft rejection are: A. Cytotoxic T cells B. Helper T cells C. Suppressor T cells D. Natural killer (NK) cells E. Both cytotoxic T cells AND natural killer (NK) cells

A. cytotoxic T cells Got this WRONG. Think it might be E

20. Some microbial control agents are able to _____ cell proteins by breaking bonds that maintain the native state (three-dimensional configuration) of the proteins. A. denature B. bind C. dissolve D. activate E. All of the choices are correct.

A. denature

Class switching: A. describes a B cell which expresses a novel antibody class B. is a direct result of affinity maturation C. is the T cell decision to interact with a different antigen D. is T cell differentiation into a helper, natural killer, cytotoxic, or effector cell E. All of the choices are correct

A. describes a B cell which expresses a novel antibody class Got this right

A. The increase in internal body temperature to 37.8ºC or higher B. The substance to which antibodies may bind but unable to ellicit the production of those antibodies unless attached to a large carrier molecule C. The lymphocyte type programmed to activate B cells and macrophages as well as assist other components of adaptive immunity D. The bone marrow cell able to give rise to all blood cell types E. Collection of lymphocytes and macrophages accumulating in certain chronic infections; an attempt by the body to wall off and contain persistent organisms and antigens

A. fever B. hapten C. helper T cell D. hemopoietic stem cell E. granuloma

Swarmer cells are: A. formed by sheathed bacteria. B. also known as coliforms. C. part of the green non-sulfur bacteria. D. formed by Myxobacteria. E. used in sewage treatment.

A. formed by sheathed bacteria

Disagreements between conclusions obtained from rRNA/rDNA data and other techniques may be explained by: A. horizontal DNA transfer. B. vertical DNA transfer. C. differences in post-replication modification. D. the difference in translation machinery. E. vertical RNA transfer.

A. horizontal DNA transfer.

A. The number of microorganisms or viruses sufficient to establish and infection; often expressed as ID50 in which 50% of the hosts are infected B. The transfer of a pathogen from on person to another through contact, ingestion of food or water or via a living agent such as an insect C. The first identified case of a disease in an epidemic D. An infection acquired during hospitalization E. The protein in the cell walls of Group A streptococci that is associated with virulence

A. infectious dose B. horizontal transmission C. index case D. noscomial E. M protein

A. A cytokine capable of inducing cells to resist viral replication B. The first class of antibodies produced during the primary response to an antigen C. A clear yellow liquid that containing leukocytes and flows within lymphatic vessels D. The immunity due to B cells and an antibody response E. A molecule that specifically binds to a given receptor

A. interferon B. IgM C. lymph D. humoral immunity E. ligand

25. Dry heat A. is less efficient than moist heat. B. cannot sterilize. C. includes tyndallization. D. is used in devices called autoclaves. E. will sterilize at 121C for 15 minutes.

A. is less efficient than moist heat

Penicillin is most effective against: A. log phase Gram (+) bacteria. B. stationary phase Gram (-) bacteria. C. spores. D. stationary phase Gram (+) bacteria. E. log phase Gram (-) bacteria.

A. log phase Gram (+) bacteria. Got this right

22. Which of the following does not affect microbial nucleic acids? A. moist heat B. ultraviolet light C. X rays D. ethylene dioxide E. formaldehyde

A. moist heat

A. An infection acquired during hospitalization B. The membrane-damaging toxin that enzymatically removes the polar head group on phospholipids C. The transmission of organisms colonizing the intestine by ingestion of fecally contaminated material D. The stage consisting of early, vague symptoms indicating the onset of disease E. The source of a pathogen

A. nosocomial/Hospital Acquired Infection B. phopholipidase C. oral-fecal transmission D. prodromal stage E. reservoir of infection

You tell the patient that his sample contains white blood cells in which Gram-negative diplococci can be detected. Your patient asks how you obtained this result and you tell him you: A. performed a Gram stain. B. cultured his discharge on Gram-negative medium. C. cultured his discharge on Gram-positive medium. D. performed an antibiogram. E. performed an acid-fast stain.

A. performed a Gram stain.

A. Found in neutrophil granules, saliva, and milk that together with hydrogen peroxide and halide ions make up an effective antimicrobial system B. An effector B cell, fully differentiated to produce and secrete large amounts of antibody C. A mononuclear phagocyte of the blood; part of the mononuclear phagocyte system of so-called professional phagocytes D. The group of pattern recognition receptors located on the surface of cells and within endosomes E. The receptors which bind lipopolysaccharide, peptidoglycan, and other molecular patterns associated with microbes

A. peroxidase enzyme B. plasma cell C. monocyte D. Toll-like receptors, TLR E. Pattern recognition receptors, PRR

A. The clear area in a monolayer of cells B. The protein that when bound to the operator site prevents transcription C. The latent form of a temperate phage whose DNA has been inserted into the host DNA D. Infectious protein causing a neurodegenerative disease E. A viral infection causing the host cell to lyse

A. plaque B. Repressor C. Prophage D. prion E. Lytic infection

A. Occurring irregularly B. The subjective effect of a disease experience by the patient such as pain and nausea C. The array of effects including fever, drop in blood pressure, and disseminated intravascular coagulation, resulting from infection of the bloodstream or circulating endotoxin D. The prolonged association of two dissimilar organisms or symbionts E. Virus particles circulating in the bloodstream

A. sporadic B. symptom C. septic shock D. symbiosis E. viremia

54. Ethylene oxide is A. sporicidal. B. only effective with high heat. C. the active agent in household bleach. D. used as an antiseptic against anaerobes. E. a halogen.

A. sporicidal

A DNA similarity of 75% between two organisms: A. suggests the organisms are closely related at the species level. B. suggests the organisms may or may not be related. C. suggests the organisms are not closely related at all. D. means the GC content in both organisms is 45%. E. means the GC content in one organism is 75% and 25% in the other.

A. suggests the organisms are closely related at the species level.

28. The lowest temperature needed to kill all microbes in 10 minutes is the A. thermal death point (TDP). B. thermal death time (TDT). C. sporicidal time. D. death phase point. E. None of the choices is correct.

A. thermal death point (TDP)

39. Which control method would not be a suitable choice for killing Mycobacterium in a capped culture tube? A. ultraviolet (germicidal) light B. gamma rays C. 121C at 15 psi for 15 minutes D. 160C for 2 hours E. All of the choices are correct.

A. ultraviolet (germicidal) light

Nucleic acid techniques have great power as diagnostic tools because they may be A. very specific. B. quick and easy to perform. C. used to enhance the growth of bacteria. D. used to selectively inhibit the growth of certain bacteria.

A. very specific.

A. Phototrophic organism producing O2 B. A common name for members of the family Enterobacteriaceae C. Roundworms D. The group of Gram-positive bacteria generating lactic acid as the major end product of their fermentive metabolism E. A method of distinguishing strains that relies on determining the nucleotide sequence of select DNA regions

A.Oxygenic phototroph B. Enterics C. Nematodes D. Lactic Acid Bacteria E. Multilocus Sequence Typing

Virulence factors used by S. pyogenes may be: - Protein F. - M Protein. - a capsule. - Protein G. - All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct - Protein F attaches to surface protein on epithelial cells called fibrin. M protein is an adhesin and inactivates opsonin C3b and avoids activating complement inflammatory response. Capsule mimics host cell hyaluronic acid and hides cell from phagocytes, Protein G is an Fc receptor that binds Fc part of opsonizing IgG.

Disease(s) in which the causative agent becomes latent is/are: - cold sores. - genital herpes. - typhus. - shingles. - All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

Fungi are important in: - food production. - disease of plants. - food spoilage. - production of antibiotics. - All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

Memory cells may take the form of: - B cells. - T cytotoxic cells. - T helper cells. - All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

Microorganisms are involved in

All of the choices are correct.

The opposite results obtained by scientists apparently doing the same experiments in investigating spontaneous generation

All of the choices are correct.

Transposons are informally known as jumping genes. may cause insertion mutations. may cause knockout mutations. were first recognized in plants. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

Which is usually true of bacteria? They are found as rods, spheres, or spirals. They reproduce by binary fission. They contain rigid cell walls made of peptidoglycan. They are found as single cells. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

Which is(are) true of lipids?

All of the choices are correct.

The components of fats are fatty acids and

All of the choices are correct. (this answer was graded wrong on my assignment)

The -OH group in a carbohydrate

All of the choices are true

Which is not true about a crown gall tumor? It is a bacterial infection of plants. It requires a plasmid. It produces a large amount of opines that neither the plant nor bacteria synthesizes. It is due to the incorporation of bacterial plasmid DNA into the plant chromosome. All of the choices are true.

All of the choices are true

Which of the following is true about the role normal flora plays in maintaining host health? - They provide a surface that is incompatible for attachment of an invader. - They establish competition for nutrients and vitamins. - They produce antimicrobial substances. - They stimulate the immune system. - All of the choices are true.

All of the choices are true.

Plant viruses may be transmitted by: - humans. - worms. - insects. - contaminated seeds. - All of the choices are correct.

All the choices are correct

Coliforms: - are an informal grouping of enterics. - ferment lactose. - include E. coli. - are used as indicators of fecal contamination. - All of the choices are correct.

All the choices are correct - enteric = fecal coliform

A quick microbiological test for potential carcinogens was developed by Fleming. Lederberg. Ames. Crick.

Ames

What is a definitive host in the life cycle of a parasite? 1. An organism in which the parasite multiplies asexually, without causing any damage to the host. 2. An organism in which either sexual reproduction or asexual reproduction of the parasite occurs. 3. An organism in which sexual reproduction or the adult form of a parasite occurs. 4. An organism from which a parasite typically is not passed to another host, so that the parasite cannot complete its life cycle. 5.An organism in which asexual reproduction or an immature form of a parasite occurs.

An organism in which sexual reproduction or the adult form of a parasite occurs.

Which of the following genera fix nitrogen?

Anabaena, Azotobacter, and Rhizobium

7) Once a culture is purified, the next step in the process of identifying bacteria is biochemical testing.

Answer: FALSE

9) Western blotting is an immunological test used to identify the antigens in an individual suspected of having Lyme disease.

Answer: FALSE

10) When building a cladogram, the length of the horizontal branch is based on the calculated percent similarity between organisms.

Answer: TRUE

2) Chloroplasts possess circular DNA and reproduce by binary fission

Answer: TRUE

3) As molecular techniques improve, scientists are finding it necessary to reclassify some genera.

Answer: TRUE

5) Pure cultures of the same species are not always identical in all ways.

Answer: TRUE

8) Serological testing is used for screening bacterial isolates for similarities.

Answer: TRUE

In which of the following categories of antimicrobial drugs are the fewest drugs available? Antibacterial Antifungal Antiviral Antiprotozoan

Antiviral

Please select the FALSE statement regarding arthropod vectors. - Mechanical vectors simply transfer a pathogen from one surface to another. - The incidence of vector-borne diseases can be decreased by controlling the vector or the infected hosts. - Biological vectors play an essential role in the life cycle of the pathogen. - Arthropods are very specific and always bite only one type of host. - Some arthropods cause disease even when they do not act as a vector.

Arthropods are very specific and always bite only one type of host.

Approximately what percentage of hospitalized patients may develop a nosocomial infection? A) 0% B) 5% C) 15% D) 20% E) 70%

B) 5%

DNA transfer by conjugation is more efficient in a liquid medium setting, subjected to very mild agitation (stirring), rather than on an agar plate format. Why? A. Trick question; it can take place with the same degree of efficiency on either format and it does not matter. B. Direct cell-to-cell contact is required for this process, and this more likely to be achieved in the fluid liquid format than on an agar plate (especially for relatively non-motile types of bacteria) C. Direct cell-to-cell contact is required for this process, and this is more likely to be achieved in the plate format than in the fluid format (especially for relatively non-motile types of bacteria) D. Direct cell-to-cell contact isn't required for this process, so the ability to secrete the DNA into a surrounding fluid medium makes the process more efficient than the dry surface of an agar plate

B - Conjugation, plasmids, DNA transfer - it does require cell-to-cell contact.

Comparatively greater energy is released when: A. carbon dioxide is the final electron acceptor. B. oxygen is the final electron acceptor. C. sulfur is the final electron acceptor. D. hydrogen is the final electron acceptor. E. nitrate is the final electron acceptor.

B - there is a chart in Ch3 that shows how the differences in electronegativity between electron donors and terminal electron receptors determine how much energy is released. Oxygen is way at the bottom, MAX energy released what it is the final electron acceptor.

Urticaria are characterized by: A) diarrhea. B) wheal and flare. C) asthma. D) inflammation. E) weeping edema.

B - Hives - Type I Hypersensitivity: Immediate IgE-mediated - systemic reaction The wheal is the bump, the flare is the red around it. "Hives (urticaria) are red, itchy welts that result from a skin reaction."

Operon(s) in bacteria: A. are also known as Wagnerons. B. refers to a group of genes that are coordinately controlled AND involve polycistronic mRNA. C. involve monocistronic mRNA. D. involve polycistronic mRNA. E. refers to a group of genes that are coordinately controlled.

B - remember that eukaryotes have monocistronic mRNA - codes for 1 gene.

Your father has just been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. He has pain and the sensation of "pins and needles" in some if his finger joints and also in his wrists. He knows you covered autoimmune diseases in your microbiology class, so asks you to help him understand his condition. You explain to your father that usually, the immune system routinely eliminates or silences any lymphocytes that recognize autoantigens, which are the "self" antigens found in cells and on body tissues. This process is called self-tolerance. In autoimmune disease, self-tolerance is faulty. There are at least two mechanisms that lead to self-tolerance. Which are they? 1. Negative selection of developing lymphocytes that recognize autoantigens, resulting in apoptosis of those cells. 2. Introduction of antigen by the oral route, so that the immune system "learns" to tolerate it, just as it does the many antigens ingested in food. 3. Failure of naive lymphocytes that recognize antigen but do not receive the necessary second signals (MHC) to become responsive. A) 1 and 2 B) 1 and 3 C) 2 and 3 D) 1, 2, and 3 E) 1 only

B) 1 and 3

Please select the correct sequence of events that occur during an immune-complex hypersensitivity reaction. 1. When antigen is in slight excess, immune complexes form. 2. Immune-complexes activate complement, resulting in increased vascular permeability. 3. Neutrophils are attracted, and release enzymes that cause tissue damage. 4. Circulating immune complexes are trapped in the blood vessels, initiating inflammation. A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 1, 2, 4, 3 C) 4, 3, 1, 2 D) 1, 3, 2, 4 E) 4, 3, 2, 1

B) 1, 2, 4, 3

If a disease affects only a human and not an animal, then it would be difficult to fulfill Koch's postulate number ________. A) 4 B) 3 C) 2 D) 1 E) 8

B) 3 1- find organism causing diease 2- isolate and grow in pure culture 3- use to infect animal host, watch disease develop as with first 4- isolate same organism

Which of the following pathogens/diseases would be the easiest to eradicate? A) A pathogen that only infects humans and rarely causes signs and symptoms. B) A pathogen that only infects humans and causes obvious signs and symptoms. C) A pathogen that causes disease in both animals and humans. D) A pathogen that mostly infects animals but also sometimes causes disease in humans. E) A disease that is asymptomatic and is carried by a large number of people in a population.

B) A pathogen that only infects humans and causes obvious signs and symptoms.

Why is it important to include a placebo in a scientific study to assess the effectiveness of a drug? A) It's actually unethical to include a placebo and it is usually not done. If you have a drug that you know to be effective, it's unethical to withhold that treatment from an ill patient. B) A placebo-treated group will determine if the changes observed in the drug-treated illness group are due to a psychological effect rather than a physiologic/pharmacologic one. C) It isn't scientifically important to include a placebo. A placebo simply helps investigators satisfy the legal requirements of the Food and Drug Administration in their testing process. D) A placebo-treated group will determine if the changes observed in the illness in this non-treated group are due to a physiologic/pharmacologic effect rather than a psychological one. E) Both groups of people are actually given the drug and a placebo. This is a way to ensure patient compliance, without which the study would not yield any useable information.

B) A placebo-treated group will determine if the changes observed in the drug-treated illness group are due to a psychological effect rather than a physiologic/pharmacologic one

A genus can best be defined as A) A taxon composed of families. B) A taxon composed of one or more species and below family. C) A taxon belonging to a species. D) A taxon comprised of classes. E) The most specific taxon.

B) A taxon composed of one or more species and below family.

Identify the role(s) of natural killer cells: A) Phagocytosis of virus infected cells AND production of cytokines that help regulate and direct certain immune responses. B) Antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity AND negative selection of lymphocytes that recognize normal "self" molecules AND regulation and direction of certain immune responses. C) Destruction of stressed host cells such as those infected with viruses AND negative selection of lymphocytes that fail to recognize normal "self" molecules. D) Antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity OR destruction of stressed host cells such as those infected with viruses. E) Regulation and direction of certain immune responses AND phagocytosis of virus infected cells AND stimulation of MHC class I molecules.

B) Antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity AND negative selection of lymphocytes that recognize normal "self" molecules AND regulation and direction of certain immune responses.

Which is more dangerous to human beings: antigenic DRIFT or antigenic SHIFT? A) Antigenic DRIFT, since this produces the quickest and largest degree of changes in the virus structure and we may not have immunity against it. B) Antigenic SHIFT, since this produces the quickest and largest degree of changes in the virus structure and we may not have immunity against it. C) Antigenic DRIFT; the small changes make the virus look like something we already have an immune response in place for, but we actually don't, letting the virus hide from the immune responses for a longer period of time. D) Antigenic SHIFT; the process completely changes the virus, allowing it to jump from one species to another (such as from birds into humans). As such, we have no responses in place for the new virus. E) These are equally dangerous. In both cases, major genetic and phenotypic changes occur in the virus, which means that people have absolutely no immune responses in place for dealing with the infection.

B) Antigenic SHIFT, since this produces the quickest and largest degree of changes in the virus structure and we may not have immunity against it.

You discovered a unicellular organism that lacks a nucleus and peptidoglycan. You suspect the organism is in the group A) Animalia. B) Archaea. C) Bacteria. D) Fungi. E) Plantae. Answer: B

B) Archaea.

Which of the following is/are caused by immune-complex mediated hypersensitivities? A) Arthus reaction AND hemolytic disease of the newborn B) Arthus reaction, glomerulonephritis, AND disseminated intravascular coagulation C) Hemolytic disease of the newborn AND transplanted organ rejection D) Serum sickness, glomerulonephritis, AND allergic contact dermatitis E) Only disseminated intravascular coagulation

B) Arthus reaction, glomerulonephritis, AND disseminated intravascular coagulation

B) Attenuated vaccines are very stable in all temperatures, so are easily transported to remote areas and do not require special storage. - they aren't heat stable and need to be kept cool, difficult in remove/underdeveloped areas

Into which group would you place a photosynthetic cell that lacks a nucleus? A) Animalia B) Bacteria C) Fungi D) Plantae E) Protista

B) Bacteria

Into which group would you place a unicellular organism that has 70S ribosomes and a peptidoglycan cell wall? A) Animalia B) Bacteria C) Fungi D) Plantae E) Protist

B) Bacteria

The normal microbiota provides protection against potentially harmful organisms and stimulates the immune system. Why would the immune responses to members of the normal microbiota cross-react with pathogens? A) Because one person's normal microbiota is another person's pathogen—when we pick up "normal" microbes from a different person, they will always cause infection within us. B) Because pathogens are often more virulent strains of our own normal microbiota, so they will appear similar to those cells to our immune system, and may be acted upon by our immune responses. C) Because the normal microbiota keeps the adaptive immune responses tuned up, active, and ready to respond to broad, general categories of microbes such as Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria and viruses. D) Because if the immune system isn't used on a regular basis, it loses the ability to respond to pathogens. The normal microbiota keeps the system going so that it can be ready to respond to pathogens when we're exposed to them. E) Because normal microbiota are often more virulent strains of our pathogens, so they will appear similar to those cells to our immune system, and may be acted upon by our immune responses.

B) Because pathogens are often more virulent strains of our own normal microbiota, so they will appear similar to those cells to our immune system, and may be acted upon by our immune responses.

Which of the following criteria is most useful in determining whether two organisms are related? A) Both ferment lactose. B) Both are gram-positive. C) Both are motile. D) Both are aerobic. E) All are equally important.

B) Both are gram-positive.

How is the central portion of a T cell receptor complex functionally analogous to the center of the B cell receptor complex? A) It has two protein chains, just like a B-cell receptor. B) Both receptors bind epitopes (small amino acid sections of antigen molecules). C) Both bind structures directly on the surface of microbes. D) Both can be secreted from lymphocytes to bind to pathogens under certain situations. E) Both have two heavy chains and two light chains.

B) Both receptors bind epitopes (small amino acid sections of antigen molecules).

Which of the following does S. pneumoniae use to survive in the host? A) Plasmids B) Capsule C) Pili D) Flagella E) Spikes

B) Capsule slide 40 - using a capsule to avoid recognition and attachment by/to phagocytes like macrophages and neutrophils

A poorly understood, yet promising type of vaccine that causes the host to produce microbial antigens for a short time involves the use of: A) subunits. B) DNA. C) alum. D) toxoids. E) glycoproteins.

B) DNA - slide says, "DNA-based vaccines - inject into muscle tissue, which expresses for a short time"

Explain how the incubation period can influence the spread of an infectious agent. A) Incubation period does not affect the spread of an infectious agent. An infectious carrier will only spread the illness when they are showing acute symptoms. As such, the length of incubation period is not important for spreading the illness. B) Depending on the microbe and the illness, an asymptomatic carrier in the incubation period might be shedding infectious microbes to his/her surroundings. In such a case, a longer incubation period would lead to a greater spread of the disease as the carrier comes into contact with more individuals while he/she is generally appearing to be healthy. C) A very short incubation period will place a patient into the highly infectious active disease state sooner. Since people avoid contact with actively ill individuals, a very short incubation period will always lead to a decrease in the spread of an infectious disease. D) A very long incubation period will place a patient into the highly infectious active disease state later. Since people generally avoid contact with actively ill individuals, a very long incubation period will always lead to a decrease in the spread of an infectious disease. E) A short incubation period leads to an increase in the spread of an infectious agent. This is because diseases with a short incubation period are always far more severe than those with a long incubation period, so the infectious agent is spread more vigorously.

B) Depending on the microbe and the illness, an asymptomatic carrier in the incubation period might be shedding infectious microbes to his/her surroundings. In such a case, a longer incubation period would lead to a greater spread of the disease as the carrier comes into contact with more individuals while he/she is generally appearing to be healthy.

Which of the following is NOT true of naturally acquired immunity? A) It is the gain of adaptive immunity through normal events, such as exposure to an infectious agent. B) It involves injecting a person with antibodies produced by other people or animals. C) It occurs as a result of breast feeding; the secretory IgA in breast milk protects the digestive tract of the child. D) It occurs during pregnancy when the mother's IgG antibodies cross the placenta and protect the fetus. E) These all characterize naturally acquired immunity.

B) It involves injecting a person with antibodies produced by other people or animals. - injections are artifically acquring immunity - injecting antibodies is artificial passive immunity

Explain how using a combination of two antimicrobial drugs helps prevent the development of spontaneously resistant mutants. A) All drugs work synergistically with each other. Their combined effects are far greater than either could achieve individually. Two drugs together helps to eliminate microbes, even if they have developed spontaneous mutations that would make them resistant to the drugs. B) It is highly unlikely that the microbe might spontaneously develop two specific mutations to resist the effects of a pair of drugs. As such, even if one drug is resisted by the microbe, the second drug will eliminate the mutated microbe, thus preventing the development of spontaneously resistant mutants overall. C) All drugs work antagonistically with each other. Their combined effects are far greater than either could achieve individually. Two drugs together helps to eliminate microbes, even if they have developed spontaneous mutations that would make them resistant to the drugs. D) Drugs can also select for mutations that will enhance the activity of another drug. Therefore, each of the paired drugs will help to select for spontaneous mutations that enhance the activity of the other drug in the pair. E) Bacteria can only ever develop resistance to a single antibiotic. If more than one drug is used, the organisms will definitely become resistant to one of them but it will not become resistant to both of them. The second antibiotic will kill the organism.

B) It is highly unlikely that the microbe might spontaneously develop two specific mutations to resist the effects of a pair of drugs. As such, even if one drug is resisted by the microbe, the second drug will eliminate the mutated microbe, thus preventing the development of spontaneously resistant mutants overall.

Which of the following members of the normal microbiota inhibit the growth of Candida albicans? A) E. coli B) Lactobacillus species C) Staphylococci species D) Propionibacterium species E) All of the answer choices are correct.

B) Lactobacillus species slide 12 - The protective role of normal microbiota = Lactobacillus is predominate in the female vagina and suppresses the growth of Candida albicans. Some antibiotics suppress Lactobacillus, the Candida grows and she gets vulvovaginal candidiasis.

What is the outstanding characteristic of the Kingdom Fungi? A) All members are photosynthetic. B) Members absorb dissolved organic matter. C) Members absorb dissolved inorganic matter. D) All members are microscopic. E) All members are macroscopic.

B) Members absorb dissolved organic matter

In the cladogram shown in Figure 10.4, which two organisms are most closely related? A) Streptomyces and Micrococcus B) Micrococcus and Mycobacterium C) Mycobacterium and Lactobacillus D) Streptomyces and Lactobacillus E) Streptomyces and Mycobacterium

B) Micrococcus and Mycobacterium

Is antigenic shift alone likely to lead to influenza pandemics? A) Yes. ONLY antigenic shift can lead to the large-scale mixing of gene elements required to produce a pandemic flu strain. B) Perhaps, but it would most likely be a mixture of antigenic shift AND drift that would result in a pandemic strain. C) No. ONLY antigenic DRIFT can lead to the large-scale mixing of gene elements required to produce a pandemic flu strain. D) No. Antigenic SHIFT is responsible for changes in the hemagglutinin protein, while antigenic DRIFT is responsible for changes in the neuraminidase protein. You need both to lead to a pandemic strain. E) No. Antigenic SHIFT is responsible for changes in the neuraminidase protein, while antigenic DRIFT is responsible for changes in the hemagglutinin protein. You need both to lead to a pandemic strain.

B) Perhaps, but it would most likely be a mixture of antigenic shift AND drift that would result in a pandemic strain. The other options don't actually make sense at all, and the use of ONLY = no.

B) Respiratory hygiene includes instructing symptomatic healthcare personnel to stay home from work for at least two weeks.

Which of the following primary immunodeficiencies is/are the most common? A) Severe combined immunodeficiency B) Selective IgA deficiency C) Agammaglobulinemia D) Di George's syndrome E) Agammaglobulinemia AND Di George's syndrome

B) Selective IgA deficiency

Would antibodies produced by a patient in response to infection be monoclonal, or polyclonal? A) Since the infection is from only a single agent/microbe, the antibodies would be monoclonal. B) Since a single pathogen has multiple epitopes, the responding antibodies to a whole pathogen would be polyclonal. C) Since the pathogen would most likely mutate slightly during the infection (producing different epitopes), the responding antibodies would be polyclonal. D) Since the pathogen would acquire and modify self-antigens during the infectious process, the antibodies produced during the response would be polyclonal. E) Since only one B cell is ever activated in response to a pathogen, the antibodies that are produced would be monoclonal.

B) Since a single pathogen has multiple epitopes, the responding antibodies to a whole pathogen would be polyclonal.

Please select the FALSE statement regarding viral avoidance of the immune response. A) Some viruses interfere with antigen presentation by MHC class I molecules. B) Some viruses produce enzymes that, when activated, make holes in the phagocyte membrane, killing the cell. C) Some viruses move directly from one cell to its immediate neighbors, thus avoiding antibodies. D) Some viruses encode proteins that shut down expression of host genes such as those encoding IFNs and AVPs. E) Some viruses display "fake" MHC class I molecules, tricking the immune system into believing that the cell is uninfected.

B) Some viruses produce enzymes that, when activated, make holes in the phagocyte membrane, killing the cell. Viruses want to replicate their DNA not lyse the cell and lose the machinery. (I know lytic viruses do kill the host but that is to release completed virions, not about avoiding the immune response.).

Which statement concerning viral structure is true? A) The proteins in the envelope are capsomeres. B) Spikes are found on some viruses. They are very consistent in structure and can be used for identification. C) Animal viruses usually contain tail sheaths and spikes. D) All viruses contain an envelope, which is made of lipid, carbohydrate, and protein.

B) Spikes are found on some viruses. They are very consistent in structure and can be used for identification.

Which of the following is/are secondary lymphoid organ(s)? A) Thymus AND spleen B) Spleen AND lymph nodes C) Lymph nodes AND bone marrow D) Spleen AND bone marrow E) Thymus AND bone marrow

B) Spleen AND lymph nodes Primary: Thymus, bone marrow Secondary: spleen, lymph nodes, tonsils, SALT, MALT

Why is it not possible to use Koch's postulates to show that Treponema pallidum causes syphilis? A) T. pallidum is a Gram-negative organism. B) T. pallidum cannot be grown in pure culture. C) T. pallidum causes different diseases in different hosts. D) Syphilis is a polymicrobial disease; T. pallidum is only one of the causative agents involved in the disease. E) T. pallidum does not contain a genome.

B) T. pallidum cannot be grown in pure culture.

In the tuberculin skin test, what would be the most likely reason why a positive test would NOT necessarily indicate an infection in progress in a patient who was born and grew up in the United States? A) False-positives occur all the time. This might simply be an example of that. B) The TB skin test is a measure of reactivation of memory T cells. The memory T cells would be formed during an active infection and would remain after the infection cleared. This would result in the test still showing positive, even though the patient is cleared of actual infection. C) Each person in the United States receives the BCG tuberculosis vaccine. This is an attenuated mycobacterium vaccine. The response to this vaccine makes us positive for the TB skin test, even though we may not have actually had a TB infection at any point in our lives. D) A positive TB skin test ALWAYS indicates a current, active infection.

B) The TB skin test is a measure of reactivation of memory T cells. The memory T cells would be formed during an active infection and would remain after the infection cleared. This would result in the test still showing positive, even though the patient is cleared of actual infection.

Please select the FALSE statement regarding tissue distribution, metabolism, and excretion of medications. A) Patients who have liver dysfunction often metabolize medications more slowly, so their doses must be adjusted to avoid toxic levels. B) The half-life of a medication is the time it takes for the serum concentration of that chemical to decrease by 100%. C) Medications that are unstable at low pH are typically given by intravenous or intramuscular injection. D) A medication with a half-life of over 24 hours is taken only once a day or less. E) A medication that has a very short half-life usually needs to be taken several times a day.

B) The half-life of a medication is the time it takes for the serum concentration of that chemical to decrease by 100%. - it's by 50%

A number of viruses often include a similar set of symptoms when they cause an infectious disease state (fever, headache, fatigue, runny nose). Why would they all cause the same symptoms if they're different viruses? A) They all possess the same basic virulence genes and molecules, so they all trigger the same responses. B) The symptoms are associated with the immune system's response, NOT the molecules from the pathogens themselves. Our responses against viruses are fairly similar, regardless of virus type, so the symptoms are similar. C) Most viruses infect the upper respiratory tract. This leads to the common set of symptoms listed above. Only a few viruses infect areas away from this region. D) Viruses specifically infect mainly epithelial membranes. As such, the virally induced reaction is similar in different areas of the body due to the same basic cell types (epithelial cells) being infected in each area. E) All animal viruses must attach to and enter host cells. Since this step in the life cycle is identical in all viruses, the signs and symptoms that follow will also be identical.

B) The symptoms are associated with the immune system's response, NOT the molecules from the pathogens themselves. Our responses against viruses are fairly similar, regardless of virus type, so the symptoms are similar.

Organism A has 70 moles % G+C, and organism B has 40 moles % G+C. Which of the following can be concluded from these data? A) The two organisms are related. B) The two organisms are unrelated. C) The organisms make entirely different enzymes. D) Their nucleic acids will not hybridize. E) None of the above.

B) The two organisms are unrelated.

Which is/are TRUE of viruses? A) They may suppress the production of MHC class II molecules. B) They may prevent induction of host cell apoptosis. C) They may bind to MHC class II antigens. D) They may produce an MHC class III mimic molecules. E) They are facultative intracellular parasites.

B) They may prevent induction of host cell apoptosis. slide 58 - they may suppress the production of MHC class I molecules - intracellular antigens, avoiding Tc cells.

Is it a good strategy for a microbe to adhere to a receptor that plays a critical function for a host cell? A) No, it ISN'T a good strategy. Host cells could use an alternative receptor and shut down production of the main receptor. The microbe would not have anything to attach to and the cell would thus prevent infection. B) Yes, it IS a good strategy. If it's a receptor the cell MUST use, it doesn't have an alternative receptor to switch to, so even though that receptor makes the cell susceptible to infection, it HAS to put that target out there. This benefits the microbe. C) No, it ISN'T a good strategy. Microbes need to evade detection and elimination by the immune system. If they adhere to a receptor that plays a critical function, they are less likely to trigger destructive immune responses. This would be similar to using a hostage as a shield in a police-standoff situation. D) No, it ISN'T a good strategy. By binding to receptors, the microbes will be phagocytosed by cells and destroyed within them, thus failing to infect the host cell. E) Yes, it IS a good strategy. If the microbe attaches to a critical receptor, the host cell will be forced to try to rid itself of the pathogen. One way it can do this is to phagocytose the pathogen, thereby taking it into its own nucleus, which benefits the pathogen.

B) Yes, it IS a good strategy. If it's a receptor the cell MUST use, it doesn't have an alternative receptor to switch to, so even though that receptor makes the cell susceptible to infection, it HAS to put that target out there. This benefits the microbe.

B) adhesins; receptors

If drugs are less effective when taken together than when each is taken separately, they are: A) energetic. B) antagonistic. C) additive. D) synergistic. E) commensal.

B) antagonistic. Not synergistic and not antagonistic then it's additive. You get the effects of both just added, not more like in synergistic or less like in antagonistic. slide 15

The methanogens, produces of methane gas, require environments that A) have abundant oxygen and CO2 B) are anaerobic with hydrogen gas and CO2 C) are extremely cold D) have sunlight E) are very acidic

B) are anaerobic with hydrogen gas and CO2

The first step in the establishment of infection is that the organism must: A) invade host tissues. B) attach to host cells. C) evade phagocytes. D) produce toxins. E) cause apoptosis.

B) attach to host cells.

Your patient has brought her 2-year old in to see you because he has a bad cold. The child has leukemia and is receiving chemotherapy, and until relatively recently has been immunocompromised, although he is currently stable. You give the mother advice on what to do for her child's illness, and they leave your office. The next child you see also has the signs and symptoms of what appears to be a cold, but on further examination you discover that she has a fever of 39.8oC. She also has a rash and when you look at her throat, you notice small white spots called Koplik's spot. These are diagnostic for measles, caused by measles virus. You question the child's parent and discover that the child has not received her MMRV vaccine. You are very concerned about the child with leukemia who was in your office before you saw the measles patient. You know that the two children had been in the same waiting room for at least 20 minutes and that measles is a highly contagious disease. You also know that the patient with cancer has not received his MMRV vaccine because: A) attenuated vaccines that contain fully virulent pathogens, and thus poses a significant risk to immunocompromised people who cannot fight off any microbial infection. B) attenuated vaccines contain live but weakened disease agents; these may occasionally mutate to become pathogenic again, so there is some risk in giving these vaccines to immunocompromised people. C) all vaccines are dangerous because of the adjuvants and additives in them, and should only be given to people who are at significant risk of life-threatening diseases such as rabies. D) measles, mumps, rubella, and varicella are very mild childhood diseases that pose no risk; the leukemia child's immune system is already overwhelmed by fighting that cancer. E) the child with leukemia is only two, which is way too young to receive too many vaccines; he should probably only get the MMR vaccine before he goes away to college.

B) attenuated vaccines contain live but weakened disease agents; these may occasionally mutate to become pathogenic again, so there is some risk in giving these vaccines to immunocompromised people.

Figure 10.2 A nucleic acid hybridization experiment produced the following results. 31) In Figure 10.2, which figure shows the most closely related organisms? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e

B) b

Apparently healthy people who may transmit a pathogen they harbor are called: A) vectors. B) carriers. C) fomites. D) vehicles. E) arthropods.

B) carriers. Asymptomatic carriers can shed pathogenic particles in the incubation period or when they aren't experiencing any signs/symptoms of illness. One way nosocomial infections can be spread by healthcare workers.

Your class decides to celebrate the last day of spring break by having a picnic. You arrange to meet at your local park and everyone agrees to bring a dish of food to the event. On the day, there is a wide variety of things to eat, but the snack that everyone agreed was the best was the hot chicken wings made by Paul. Almost everyone ate at least two to three wings. The picnic was a huge success. The next morning you wake up feeling awful. You have a low grade fever and you have both vomiting and diarrhea. You call your friend Susan to tell her you won't make it to class that day and to please take good notes, which she promises to do. About 20 minutes later, Susan calls you back and tells you that three other people have also called her and are experiencing the same symptoms as you. You realize that you must have all eaten something at the picnic that is causing your illness. After finding out that none of the vegetarians or vegans in the class are ill, you figure out that it was likely a meat product. The situation described in this case study is an example of a(n): A) propagated epidemic, because one student became ill, followed by others over several days. B) common-source epidemic, because several students became ill in the same time frame. C) propagated epidemic, because several students became ill in the same time frame. D) epidemic, because one student became ill and then spread the causative organism to many others. E) cohort study, because there was a group of students all affected by the same pathogen.

B) common-source epidemic, because several students became ill in the same time frame.

The Salk vaccine: A) contains live attenuated virus. B) contains inactivated virus. C) contains a portion of the polio virus. D) occasionally causes disease. E) is a DNA-based vaccine.

B) contains inactivated virus. - inactivated whole agent vaccines include influenza, rabies and the Salk polio vaccine (text says HepA too).

Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus is an example of an autoimmune disease that involves: A) sensitized T cells. B) cytotoxic T cells. C) antibodies. D) IgD. E) phagocytosis.

B) cytotoxic T cells. - they destroy beta cells in the pancreas that make insulin.

Important sources of contamination in crowded locations are: A) droplets of blood. B) droplets of saliva or mucus. C) restrooms. D) kitchen surfaces. E) All of the answer choices are correct.

B) droplets of saliva or mucus. Think about it: a lot of people, everyone breathes, some sneeze, cough, spit, etc and in a crowded place? Contamination waiting to happen.

B) evolved from a common ancestor.

The peptides presented by MHC class II peptide molecules are: A) from plasma cells. B) exogenous antigens. C) endogenous antigens. D) from T helper cells. E) antibodies.

B) exogenous antigens. MHC class I present endogenous antigens.

The serology test that may show the antigen-antibody complex as yellow-green under the microscope while using an ultraviolet light is known as the: A) Western blot. B) fluorescent antibody test. C) ELISA test. D) agglutination test. E) the Ouchterlony test.

B) fluorescent antibody test.

A young couple brings their 3-month old baby to the emergency department where you work as a triage nurse. The parents tell you that the baby had a runny nose, low grade fever, and mild cough two days earlier, which they assumed was a cold. However, the cough has become significantly worse and they are really worried about the gasping sound the child makes when breathing in after a coughing spell. The baby's cough is so bad that she has been vomiting and is refusing to feed. You are concerned that the baby has pertussis, commonly known as whooping cough. You give the parents some information while they are waiting for a physician to examine their child. The parents tell you that their baby has already had a DTaP vaccine and that they thought this would protect the child from pertussis. You explain that this vaccine is given in a series and that with each shot in the series, the child's immunity will increase. You explain that while their baby was born with ________ immunity, she only started to develop ________ immunity after birth, so is still vulnerable to certain infections such as pertussis. A) adaptive; innate B) innate; adaptive C) cell-mediated; humoral D) humoral; cell-mediated E) cell-mediated; B-cell

B) innate; adaptive

Adhesins are: A) involved in the first step of the infectious process AND are endotoxins. B) involved in the first step of the infectious process AND are often found at the tip of pili. C) often found at the tip of pili AND are endotoxins. D) exotoxins AND are involved in the first step of the infectious process. E) are exotoxins OR are endotoxins.

B) involved in the first step of the infectious process AND are often found at the tip of pili.

You are about to graduate as a RN. Your final term project is to prepare a presentation on HIV/AIDS. HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) is a retrovirus—it is an enveloped single-stranded virus that has duplicate copies of a single-stranded RNA genome. All retroviruses encode reverse transcriptase, an enzyme that uses an RNA genome as a template to make a complementary DNA strand. HIV can infect a variety of human cell types, but the most important are the helper T cells (also called CD4 cells)—the virus infects these cells and causes their death; their numbers slowly decline until the immune system can no longer resist infections or tumor development. You give your presentation to the class and are asked by your professor at the end of the session to answer some questions that your peers have on diagnosing HIV. One of your peers asks you to explain the term immunoassay. You tell him that it: A) is an in vivo test in which known antibodies or antigens are used to detect or quantify given antibodies or antigens. B) is an in vitro test in which known antibodies or antigens are used to detect or quantify given antibodies or antigens. C) is the study of in vitro antibody-antigen reactions, particularly those that detect antibodies in serum. D) is an in vitro test that uses unlabeled antibodies to detect a very common antigen in a sample. E) is an in vitro test in which unknown antigens are used to detect unknown antibodies.

B) is an in vitro test in which known antibodies or antigens are used to detect or quantify given antibodies or antigens. in vitro = (of a process) performed or taking place in a test tube, culture dish, or elsewhere outside a living organism.

The threat of bioterrorism: A) is due largely to the ease of spread and severity of diseases AND has prompted WHO to prepare a readiness plan. B) is due largely to the ease of spread and severity of diseases AND may include rarely seen infectious agents. C) is exaggerated in light of the efficiency of our healthcare system AND has prompted WHO to prepare a readiness plan. D) has prompted the CDC to prepare a readiness plan AND is due largely to the ease of spread and severity of diseases. E) has prompted the WHO to prepare a readiness plan, may include rarely seen infectious agents, AND is due largely to the ease of spread and severity of diseases.

B) is due largely to the ease of spread and severity of diseases AND may include rarely seen infectious agents.

The chemical nature of endotoxins is that of a: A) protein. B) lipopolysaccharide. C) nucleic acid. D) lipid. E) carbohydrate.

B) lipopolysaccharide. Lipopolysaccharide in the outer layer of gram negative microorganisms = endotoxin

2) A feature that may be found in viruses but never in bacteria is A) the ability to pass through 0.22 micrometer pore filters. B) may contain an RNA genome. C) they cannot reproduce themselves outside a host. D) a sensitivity to antibiotics. E) an ability to infect more than one type of host.

B) may contain an RNA genome.

The lowest concentration of a drug that prevents growth of a microorganism is the: A) infectious effective dose. B) minimum inhibitory concentration. C) lethal dose. D) most effective concentration. E) minimal death dose.

B) minimum inhibitory concentration. MIC. Find via serial dilutions, use to create pate counts to find the minimum bactericidal concentration (MBC).

Virulent pathogens are: A) more likely to cause disease. B) more likely to cause severe disease. C) unable to cause disease. D) more likely to be opportunists. E) most likely normal microbiota.

B) more likely to cause severe disease - if pathogens cause disease then virulent pathogens -> severe disease

The microorganisms that are regularly found in or on the body, yet do no apparent harm are called: A) abnormal microbiota. B) normal microbiota. C) transient microbiota. D) variant microbiota. E) random biota.

B) normal microbiota. Can be Resident, Transient, Opportunistic...

Herd immunity: A) only occurs in a population in which all individuals are immune. B) occurs in a population in which a large percentage of the population is immune. C) only provides protection to those that are already immune. D) is responsible for dramatic increases in childhood diseases. E) occurs in a population in which a large percentage of the population is immune AND is responsible for dramatic increases in childhood diseases.

B) occurs in a population in which a large percentage of the population is immune. - develops when a critical portion of the population is immune to the disease; infectious agent unable to spread due to insufficient susceptible hosts.

In 1918-1919, an influenza virus infected about 500 million people worldwide, killing at least 50 million of them. This disease is best described as a(n) ________. A) epidemic B) pandemic C) outbreak D) sporadic outbreak E) endemic disease.

B) pandemic Did you see the WORLDWIDE part?

The vaccine that is stable to heat, has little unwanted material and causes minimal side effects is called a(n): A) inactive vaccine. B) peptide vaccine. C) active vaccine. D) toxoid. E) lipid vaccine.

B) peptide vaccine - my chapter slides just say 'key antigenic peptides from pathogens' A peptide vaccine is any peptide which serves to immunize an organism against a pathogen. Peptide vaccine are often synthetic and mimic naturally occurring proteins from pathogens.

Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by the diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae, commonly called gonococcus (GC). This organism developed resistance to penicillin and tetracycline in the 1980s, after which fluoroquinolones were the recommended drugs for treating GC. Subsequent resistance to the fluoroquinolones has led to the current recommended treatment of injected ceftriaxone in combination with oral azithromycin. Although this approach continues to be effective, recent data from the CDC indicates that resistance to azithromycin is emerging. Initially, GC was treated with penicillin, which targets ________, and tetracycline which targets ________. A) protein synthesis; peptidoglycan synthesis B) peptidoglycan synthesis; protein synthesis C) protein synthesis; capsule formation D) capsule formation; ergesterol formation E) cell membrane integrity; folic acid synthesis

B) peptidoglycan synthesis; protein synthesis

The natural habitat of a pathogen is referred to as its: A) home. B) reservoir. C) primary inhabitance. D) infectious site. E) place.

B) reservoir. Possible reservoirs = people, animals and the environment.

Bacteria that resist killing by complement proteins are termed: A) serum strong. B) serum resistant. C) balanced pathogens. D) mutualistic. E) mutualistic AND serum resistant.

B) serum resistant.

So far, the only disease that has been globally eradicated is: A) polio. B) smallpox. C) measles. D) diphtheria.

B) smallpox. Vaccination program. Last reported case of small pox was in Somalia, Africa in 1977.

The reservoir of infection for botulism and tetanus is: A) humans. B) soil. C) water. D) animals. E) soil AND water.

B) soil. Soil can act as an environmental reservoir. Hard to eliminate when in the soil...

Prontosil effectively acted on streptococci when the drug was split by enzymes to produce: A) penicillin. B) sulfanilamide. C) erythromycin. D) Salvarsan. E) Salvarsan AND penicillin.

B) sulfanilamide. Penicillin was an incidental observation of mold, not synthesized in a lab. Domagk discovered that a red dye called Prontosil could be used to treat streptococcal infections in animals. The Prontosil had no effect ion streptococci in test tubes. Why? Enzymes in blood split the Prontosil molecules producing a smaller molecule = sulfanilamide, which acts against the infecting streptococci. The discery of sulfanilamide -> first of the class of sulfa drugs was luck + science.

The damage caused by parasites may be due to all of the following EXCEPT: A) competition for nutrients. B) the parasite's immune response. C) the physical blocking of organs. D) the direct digestion of host tissue. E) the host's immune response.

B) the parasite's immune response.

In order to prevent spread of microorganisms from the microbiology laboratory, the room air should be: A) under positive pressure AND filtered. B) under negative pressure AND filtered. C) under negative pressure, chilled, AND filtered. D) under positive pressure, chilled, AND filtered. E) under neutral pressure, chilled, AND filtered.

B) under negative pressure AND filtered. Negative pressure pulls air into the lab so that particulate doesn't get out. Filtered to remove things workers could breath in and wouldn't want to.

The practice of deliberately stimulating the immune system is called: A) acquired immunity. B) vaccination. C) hypersensitivity. D) memory immunity. E) autoimmunity.

B) vaccination. L. Pasteur used the word VACCINATION to describe any type of protective innoculation. 'Vacca' is latin for cow.

B) viral nucleic acid synthesis.

Antiviral drugs may target all of the following EXCEPT: A) viral uncoating. B) viral ribosomes. C) nucleic acid synthesis. D) viral assembly. E) viral entry.

B) viral ribosomes.

Diseases that primarily exist in animals, but may be transmitted to humans are called: A) parasitic. B) zoonotic. C) symbiotic. D) epidemic. E) commensal.

B) zoonotic. = zoonoses

Trichomonas vaginalis can be distinguished from other parasitic protozoa by which of the characteristics listed below? A-It is usually found in drinking water and is associated with fecal contamination. B-It has an undulating membrane, infects the vagina, and is frequently transmitted by sexual contact. C-It is a photosynthetic organism that lives in fresh water. D-It infects Anopheles mosquitoes and can be transmitted by a bite.

B-It has an undulating membrane, infects the vagina, and is frequently transmitted by sexual contact.

Toxoids are used in vaccines against: A) Haemophilus influenza type b. B) diphtheria. C) herpes simplex type I. D) polio. E) diphtheria AND herpes simplex type I.

B. - inactivated, Toxoid vaccines - takes off toxin part, leaves epitomes alone, diphtheria and tetnus

To study the phylogeny of eukaryotes, A. 80S rRNA is used. B. 18S rRNA is used. C. 40S rRNA is used. D. 16S rRNA is used. E. 70S rRNA is used.

B. 18S rRNA is used.

The process by which infectious agents are ingested by host cells is: A) exocytosis. B) pinocytosis. C) endocytosis. D) phagosome fusion. E) endofusion.

C) endocytosis.

Drug susceptibility testing: A. Determines the patient's response to various antimicrobials B. Determines the pathogen's response to various antimicrobials C. Determines if normal flora will be affected by antimicrobials D. Determines if the drug is increasing to toxic levels in a patient E. None of the choices is correct.B

B. Determines the pathogen's response to various antimicrobials Got this right.

67. Relatively little is known about many obligate anaerobes. Why might this be so? A. The obligate aerobes are far more numerous, and also ...cont B. It's much harder to provide the right atmospheric ...cont C. Only obligate aerobes cause disease, so we've had ...cont D. The majority of obligate anaerobes are very ...cont

B. It's much harder to provide the right atmospheric ...cont

Which of the following statements about members of the family Enterobacteriaceae is NOT true? A. It includes many medically relevant bacteria. B. Members only reside in the intestinal tract of humans. C. It includes E. coli, Enterobacter, Salmonella, and Shigella. D. Members are facultative anaerobes. E. All of the choices are correct.

B. Members only reside in the intestinal tract of humans. -members also reside in the intestinal tract of animals and in the soil

Intracellular Gram-negative diplococci found in a urethral sample from a male is indicative of: A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae. C. Streptococcus pneumoniae. D. Staphylococcus epidermidis.

B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae. (used a microscope to see this - sometimes microscopic morphology is enough to diagnose eukaryotic infections)

Which of the following microbes, a leading cause of pneumonia in the United States, is of growing concern due to increased resistance to penicillin? A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Enterobacteriaceae D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis E. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

B. Streptococcus pneumoniae

A dramatic increase in the incidence of a specific disease in a given population is referred to as a(n): A) pandemic. B) endemic. C) epidemic. D) mortality. E) outburst.

C) epidemic.

Photoautotroph (energy source + carbon source)

B. Uses light energy and uses carbon dioxide

One notable side effect of rifampin therapy is: A. tinitis (ringing of the ears). B. an orange-red color in urine, tears, and other body secretions. C. whole body allergic reactions called anaphylaxis. D. interruption of the auditory response. E. pseudomembranous colitis.

B. an orange-red color in urine, tears, and other body secretions Rifampin - inhibits nucleic acid sysnthesis - antibiotic that blocks bacterial RNA polymerase from starting transcription = no RNAs. - treats leprosy (Hansen's disease), TB and prevents meningitis after exposure to Neisseria meningitidis - bacteria get resistant quick - mutation in the gene that codes for RNA polymerase.

Serological methods: A. can rarely be used to identify bacteria. B. are useful in identifying bacteria. C. rely on the specificity of an antibody-antibody interaction. D. may be simple but are always time consuming. E. All of the answer choices are correct.

B. are useful in identifying bacteria.

34. What instrument is most effective for pressure-temperature sterilization? A. oven B. autoclave C. water bath D. Bunsen burner E. incubator

B. autoclave

30. Placing organisms at 4 C is A. bacteriocidal. B. bacteriostatic. C. decontamination. D. sterilization. E. None of the choices is correct.

B. bacteriostatic

Opportunistic pathogens: A. cause disease in every individual. B. cause disease in compromised individuals. C. are always pathogens. D. have well developed virulence factors. E. none of the choices is correct.

B. cause disease in compromised individuals. Got this right

47. The compound that is an organic base containing chlorine and two phenolic rings, and is used increasingly for mucous membrane irrigation, obstetrical washes, hand scrubbing, and prepping surgical skin sites is A. carbolic acid. B. chlorhexidine. C. triclosan. D. formalin. E. quarternary ammonium compounds.

B. chlorhexidine

9. The method of removing vegetative microbial life forms from inanimate objects is termed A. antisepsis. B. disinfection. C. sterilization. D. decontamination. E. degerming.

B. disinfection

40. Which of the following forms of radiation is in order from the most penetrating to the least penetrating? A. gamma, cathode, X rays B. gamma, X rays, cathode C. cathode, gamma, X ray D. cathode, X ray, gamma E. X ray, gamma, cathode

B. gamma, X rays, cathode

DNA probes have been very useful in A. coding the DNA of organisms grown in vivo. B. identifying organisms in pure culture. C. detecting toxins. D. diagnosing diseases of protozoa.

B. identifying organisms in pure culture.

52. Heavy metals work by A. rupturing the cell membrane. B. inactivating proteins. C. binding to DNA. D. dissolving the cell wall. E. mutating DNA.

B. inactivating proteins

Diapedesis is the A. production of white blood cells, red blood cells and platelets. B. migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues. C. loss of blood due to hemorrhaging. D. production of only red blood cells. E. plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding.

B. migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues. Got this right

Each of the following contributes to emerging drug resistance except: A. the overuse of antibiotics. B. multiple drug therapy. C. the ingestion of antibiotics with animal feed. D. the improper use of antibiotics. E. the addition of antibiotics to common household products.

B. multiple drug therapy. Got this right - we use multiple drugs so that the bacteria WON'T become resistant.

The causative agent of whooping cough is: A) parvovirus. B) M. pneumoniae. C) B. pertussis. D) S. aureus. E) W. pertussis.

B. pertussis. Bordatella pertussis - tiny G- rod with capsule, aerobic - sensitive to sunlight, drying, quickly dies outside host

31. Pasteurization A. kills all vegetative forms. B. reduces the number of vegetative forms. C. reduces the number of endospores. D. increases food nutrient value. E. None of the choices is correct.

B. reduces the number of vegetative forms

Sphaerotilus and Leptothrix are examples of A. purple sulfur bacteria. B. sheathed bacteria. C. prosthecate bacteria. D. Enterobacteriaceae. E. green non-sulfur bacteria.

B. sheathed bacteria

A male patient comes to the clinic where you work complaining of urethral discharge and pain on urination. He has recently had unprotected sex with someone he met at a party. You take a sample of the urethral discharge for analysis. Based on the Gram stain results, you tell your patient that you think he has gonorrhea, a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae. You are able to make this diagnosis based on: A. signs and symptoms AND the fact that there are bacteria in the urethral discharge. B. signs and symptoms AND because N. gonorrhoeae is the only Gram-negative diplococcus found within white blood cells in the male urethra. C. signs and symptoms AND the fact that bacteria in the discharge are Gram-positive. D. the fact that bacteria are present in red blood cells AND because N. gonorrhoeae is the only Gram-negative diplococcus found within the male urethra. E. the fact that N. gonorrhoeae is the only Gram-negative diplococcus found within white blood cells in the male urethra.

B. signs and symptoms AND because N. gonorrhoeae is the only Gram-negative diplococcus found within white blood cells in the male urethra.

2. The process that destroys or removes all microorganisms and microbial forms including bacterial endospores on inanimate objects is A. disinfection. B. sterilization. C. antisepsis. D. sanitization. E. degermation.

B. sterilization

The more closely related two organisms are, A. the less they look alike. B. the more similar the nucleic acid sequence. C. the less similar the nucleic acid sequence. D. the more they are phenotypically similar. E. the more similar the nucleic acid sequence AND the more they are phenotypically similar.

B. the more similar the nucleic acid sequence

27. The shortest time required to kill all the microbes in a sample at a specified temperature is called the A. thermal death point (TDP). B. thermal death time (TDT). C. sporicidal time. D. death phase point. E. None of the choices is correct.

B. thermal death time (TDT)

37. _____ radiation excites atoms to a higher energy state within molecules such as DNA that then leads to the formation of pyrimidine dimers. A. Infrared B. Ultraviolet C. Gamma D. Particle E. Ionizing

B. ultraviolet

8. The easiest microbial forms to kill or inhibit are \ A. prions. B. vegetative bacteria and fungi. C. endospores. D. protozoan cysts. E. mycobacteria and staphylococci.

B. vegetative bacteria and fungi

The scientist who received the first Nobel Prize in Medicine for his work on antibody therapy was: A) Koch. B) von Behring. C) Jenner. D) Roux. E) Pasteur.

B. von Behring

THIS TEST WAS INSANE. CRAZY AND I'M POSITIVE FULL OF THINGS NOT IN THE 7 CHAPTERS WE WERE SUPPOSED TO COVER.

BEWARE, I GOT SOME WRONG! But I'm working to get the right answers.

All of the following genera are spirochetes:

Borrelia, Leptospira, Spirochaeta, Treponema CAULOBACTER IS NOT A SPIROCHETE

An apoenzyme: A. is part of a simple enzyme B. is also called a coenzyme C. contains the active site D. is often an inorganic metal ion E. is an RNA molecule

Bacteria use ___________ attached to the polymerase and they direct RNA polymerase to promoters; eukaryotic cells use __________ that instead attach directly to the DNA first. A. transcription factors; sigma factors B. tRNA; rRNA C. sigma factors; transcription factors D. ribosomes; sigma factors

Phages that can either replicate and cause cell lysis or can integrate their DNA into the host DNA are called A. segmented phages. B. virulent phages. C. temperate phages. D. lytic phages. E. acute phages.

The viral envelope resembles the A. prokaryotic cell wall. B. cytoplasm. C. eukaryotic cell membrane. D. capsomere.

Treponema and Borrelia: A.are endosymbionts. B.are both transmitted by mosquitoes. C.are spirochetes. D. are luminescent. E.are both easily grown on artificial media.

Why would a person who has their tonsils removed be more susceptible to certain types of infections of the throat and respiratory tract? A) Tonsils are primary lymphoid organs found in the oral cavity that produce high levels of lactoferrin and transferrin; these are strong natural antibacterial compounds that protect the lungs. B) Tonsils are secondary lymphoid organs found in the oral cavity that produce large amounts of interferons; these are natural antiviral compounds that protect the respiratory tract. C) Tonsils are secondary lymphoid organs; they help to provide a constant response to the microbes in the oral cavity, helping to keep them in check and preventing them from spreading to other areas. D) Tonsils are the location where T cells develop and mature. Without them, a person won't have T cells, and will be more likely to suffer from infections that would normally be eliminated by such cells. E) Tonsils are primary lymphoid organs; they help to provide a constant response to the microbes in the gut, helping to keep them in check and preventing them from spreading to other areas.

You explain to your patient the role of cytotoxic T cells in immunity, telling her that: A) TC cells induce apoptosis in infected "self" cells. B) TC produce antibodies AND TC destroy cancerous "self" cells. C) TC destroy cancerous "self" cells AND TC cells induce apoptosis in infected "self" cells. D) TC cells activate B cells AND TC cells induce apoptosis in infected "self" cells. E) TC cells activate B cells and macrophages AND TC cells produce antibodies AND TC destroy cancerous "self" cells

Your friend Ellie is pregnant. She tells you that her mother, a microbiologist, has warned her not to clean out the cat's litter box while she is pregnant in case she contracts a disease called toxoplasmosis, which can affect her fetus. She says her mom told her toxoplasmosis is caused by a parasite called Toxoplasma gondii, that may be found in the feces of infected cats and also in raw meat. Your friend's mom tells her that when a person has not had a particular disease, they are not immune to the pathogen that causes the disease, and lack antibodies against that microbe. Your friend has never had toxoplasmosis but she doesn't quite understand why this, and the fact that she doesn't have antibodies to T. gondii, is important. You help her understand some facts about her adaptive immune system. Ellie doesn't understand why it is important as to whether a woman has a first or subsequent exposure to a pathogen such as T. gondii when she is pregnant. You explain to her the difference between a primary and a secondary immune response. Which of the following would you NOT say to her? A) When memory B cells become activated, some quickly differentiate to form plasma cells, resulting in the rapid production of antibodies. IgG crosses the placenta and protects the fetus. B) In the first (primary) exposure to an antigen, it takes about 10 to 14 days for a significant concentration of antibodies to accumulate. IgM is made, followed by IgG. C) The second exposure to an antigen, which characterizes the memory of adaptive immunity, causes rapid production of relatively large quantities of IgM but no IgG. D) If the same antigen is encountered later in life, a stronger antigen-specific adaptive immune response occurs, called the secondary response. Large amounts of IgG are made. E) The first adaptive immune response to an antigen is the primary response; effector cells and memory cells are formed as a result of this initial encounter.

To increase the proportion of mutants in a population of bacteria one may use: A. a direct selection. B. replica plating. C. penicillin enrichment. D. individual transfer.

C - in INDIRECT SELECTION the mutants and the prototrophs can grow on the same medium so PENICILLIN ENRICHMENT is used to increase the proportion of mutants in the population. On a glucose-salt agar add penicillin which will kill any growing cells, the mutants exist on this medium but don't grow so they are safe. You end up with a higher amount of mutants comparitively and then can move on to replica plating.

_____ function in humoral immunity, while _____ function in cell-mediated immunity. A. T cells, B cells B. B cells, neutrophils C. B cells, T cells D. Basophils, T cells E. Monocytes, Basophils

C Got this right

Microorganisms use hydrogen bonds to attach themselves to the surfaces that they live upon. Many of them lose hold of the surface because of the weak nature of these bonds and end up dying or being washed away. Why don't microbes just use covalent bonds instead?

C and D

Large respiratory droplets typically travel no farther from point of release than: A) 3 meters. B) 5 meters. C) 1 meter. D) 20 meters. E) 12 inches.

C) 1 meter.

Why is a false positive more significant in HIV testing of patients than in screening donated blood for transfusions? A) It isn't—both are equally dangerous/significant. False positives in people can lead to psychological trauma, but false positives in blood could lead to the useful blood being discarded. B) A false positive in a person is easily re-testable. This makes it more significant, because we would simply quickly retest the person to verify their actual HIV status. C) A false positive in blood is easily re-testable. This makes it less significant, because we would simply quickly retest the blood to verify its actual HIV status. D) This statement is backwards. False positives in blood testing are more significant. If the false positive rate is high, we're more likely to discard useful blood that may lead to acute blood shortages for patients needing transfusions. E) This question is misleading because like all immunological testing, the HIV test is infallible and there is absolutely no possibility of false positive results.

C) A false positive in blood is easily re-testable. This makes it less significant, because we would simply quickly retest the blood to verify its actual HIV status.

Which of the following is NOT a political/societal reason for a decrease in rates of childhood immunizations? A) Distrust of the healthcare body administering the vaccinations. B) Distrust of the government funding the vaccination process. C) A lack of a proper "cold chain" for stable transport of vaccines into tropical areas. D) Distrust of the scientific community advocating for administration of vaccines. E) Lack of awareness of the seriousness of diseases such as pertussis.

C) A lack of a proper "cold chain" for stable transport of vaccines into tropical areas.

Antibiotics that affect various strains of Gram-positive bacteria and various strains of Gram-negative bacteria are called: A) isolate usable. B) stress-induced. C) broad-spectrum. D) narrow-spectrum. E) intermediate.

C) broad-spectrum. slide 14

A young couple brings their 3-month old baby to the emergency department where you work as a triage nurse. The parents tell you that the baby had a runny nose, low grade fever, and mild cough two days earlier, which they assumed was a cold. However, the cough has become significantly worse and they are really worried about the gasping sound the child makes when breathing in after a coughing spell. The baby's cough is so bad that she has been vomiting and is refusing to feed. You are concerned that the baby has pertussis, commonly known as whooping cough. You give the parents some information while they are waiting for a physician to examine their child. You are very concerned about your patient because you know that B. pertussis releases three toxins that play a role in disease progression. One of these, pertussis toxin (PT) is an A-B toxin that causes an increase in mucus production by cells in the respiratory tract. The parents ask you to explain what you mean by an A-B toxin. Which of the following would you NOT tell them? A) Exotoxins are proteins, so the immune system can generally produce neutralizing antibodies against them. B) A-B toxins consist of two parts: the A subunit is the toxic (active) portion and the B subunit binds to a specific surface molecule on cells. C) A-B toxins are exotoxins that are produced by Gram-positive cells but not by Gram-negative cells. D) Epithelial cells of the respiratory system possess receptors to which the B portion of PT can bind. E) A vaccine that protects against toxin-mediated disease are call toxoids; these vaccines contain inactivated toxins.

C) A-B toxins are exotoxins that are produced by Gram-positive cells but not by Gram-negative cells. Table 16.2 - exotoxins can be made by BOTH G+ and G- bacteria.

Who is credited with first observing microorganisms? A) Robert Koch B) Robert Hooke C) Anton van Leeuwenhoek D) Carolus Linnaeus E) Louis Pasteur

C) Anton van Leeuwenhoek Made his own 300x microscope and say "animalcules" in pond water.

Antibodies are made by: A) red blood cells. B) macrophages. C) B cells/plasma cells. D) T cells. E) all leukocytes.

C) B cells/plasma cells

Your class decides to celebrate the last day of spring break by having a picnic. You arrange to meet at your local park and everyone agrees to bring a dish of food to the event. On the day, there is a wide variety of things to eat, but the snack that everyone agreed was the best was the hot chicken wings made by Paul. Almost everyone ate at least two to three wings. The picnic was a huge success. The next morning you wake up feeling awful. You have a low grade fever and you have both vomiting and diarrhea. You call your friend Susan to tell her you won't make it to class that day and to please take good notes, which she promises to do. About 20 minutes later, Susan calls you back and tells you that three other people have also called her and are experiencing the same symptoms as you. You realize that you must have all eaten something at the picnic that is causing your illness. After finding out that none of the vegetarians or vegans in the class are ill, you figure out that it was likely a meat product. Some populations more than others are likely to be affected by a given pathogen. Many population characteristics influence the occurrence of disease. Which of the following MOST likely explains why some students at the picnic did not get ill? A) Herd immunity, that protects non-immune people from an infectious agent—the agent cannot spread in a population because most potential hosts are immune. Most students were probably immune to the foodborne pathogen. B) Age, because the immune system starts to weaken after childhood, and consequently people are vulnerable to certain diseases when they reach adulthood. The younger students in the group remained healthy. C) Behavioral practices, that significantly influence the rate and type of disease transmission; in this case the vegetarians and vegans remained healthy, suggesting that not eating meat protected them from the pathogen. D) Gender, because females are always more likely than males to acquire gastrointestinal diseases due to differences in their gut normal microbiota populations. The students who got ill were all female. E) None of these factors explain the outcome of the picnic

C) Behavioral practices, that significantly influence the rate and type of disease transmission; in this case the vegetarians and vegans remained healthy, suggesting that not eating meat protected them from the pathogen.

Please select the CORRECT definition regarding interactions between hosts and microbes. A) Immunocompetent—having a weakness or defect in the innate or adaptive defenses. B) Parasitism—relationship between two organisms in which one partner benefits and the other is unaffected. C) Dysbiosis—an imbalance in the microbiome that may be caused by taking antimicrobial medications. D) Secondary infection—infection in a previously healthy person, such as measles in a child who has not had measles before. E) Fc receptors—molecule that binds the antigen-binding region of an antibody.

C) Dysbiosis—an imbalance in the microbiome that may be caused by taking antimicrobial medications. A is immunocompromised, B is Commensalism.

You are about to graduate as a RN. Your final term project is to prepare a presentation on HIV/AIDS. HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) is a retrovirus—it is an enveloped single-stranded virus that has duplicate copies of a single-stranded RNA genome. All retroviruses encode reverse transcriptase, an enzyme that uses an RNA genome as a template to make a complementary DNA strand. HIV can infect a variety of human cell types, but the most important are the helper T cells (also called CD4 cells)—the virus infects these cells and causes their death; their numbers slowly decline until the immune system can no longer resist infections or tumor development. You give your presentation to the class and are asked by your professor at the end of the session to answer some questions that your peers have on diagnosing HIV. You explain to the class that ELISA tests may be direct or indirect. Please select the FALSE statement regarding these tests. A) In direct ELISAs, specific antigens in the sample are "captured" by antibodies that have been attached to the inside surface of the well B) ELISAs have advantages over other common immunoassays in that they are easy to do and often require minimal technical skills. C) ELISA tests are 100% accurate; unlike other immunoassays, ELISAs never yield false positive results, so additional testing is not required. D) ELISA tests are often done in microtiter plates, allowing multiple samples to be tested all at once. E) Indirect ELISAs require a labeled secondary antibody to detect the unlabeled first (primary) antibody.

C) ELISA tests are 100% accurate; unlike other immunoassays, ELISAs never yield false positive results, so additional testing is not required. - see question 70

Which of the following does NOT explain why a patient with Klebsiella pneumonia is more likely to die than one with pneumococcal pneumonia? A) Treatment options for Klebsiella pneumonia are limited because the causative agent is resistant to many antibiotics. Pneumococcal pneumonia can be treated with antibiotics such as penicillin. B) The causative agent of Klebsiella pneumonia is Gram-negative and may cause septic shock. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a Gram-positive bacterium so does not have endotoxin. C) The most severe types of Pneumococcal pneumonia can be prevented with the PPSV23 vaccine. There is no vaccine that protects against Klebsiella pneumonia. D) Klebsiella pneumoniae causes lung abscesses which may result in the death of the patient. Pneumococcal pneumonia does not result in permanent lung damage. E) All of these statements explain why Klebsiella pneumonia is more frequently fatal than pneumococcal pneumonia.

C) The most severe types of Pneumococcal pneumonia can be prevented with the PPSV23 vaccine. There is no vaccine that protects against Klebsiella pneumonia.

In two of Koch's postulates (#2 and #3), a pure culture of the organism is required. Which of the following would NOT be a possible consequence of using a contaminated culture? A) You can't necessarily attribute the illness directly to the microbe in question; it may in fact be caused by the contaminating microbe. B) There's the possibility that the test animal might be acutely susceptible to the contaminating microbe, but completely resistant to the microbe you suspect causes the illness of interest. As such, when you introduce it into the test animal, it could confuse your final results. C) Even though there's a contaminating microbe present, as long as the original suspect microbe is also present, the disease should still manifest in test animals and the organism should still be recoverable from test animals. As such, there's really no consequence to using a contaminated culture. D) The problem is that one microbe may be toxic to the other. It may have killed all of your suspect microbe in the culture. Therefore, you can't be sure that you're infecting your test animals with the microbe you suspect is causing the illness, or if it's only the second (contaminating) microbe. E) These would all be consequences of using contaminated cultures.

C) Even though there's a contaminating microbe present, as long as the original suspect microbe is also present, the disease should still manifest in test animals and the organism should still be recoverable from test animals. As such, there's really no consequence to using a contaminated culture. - that last part, from 'As such...' was like a red flag.

Which of the following tests allows the separation of cells according to their sizes, densities, and surface markers tagged by specific fluorescentantibodies? A) Western blotting B) ELISA C) Fluorescence-activated cell sorter D) FA test on a microscope slide E) DNA gel electrophoresis

C) Fluorescence-activated cell sorter

Your father has just been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. He has pain and the sensation of "pins and needles" in some if his finger joints and also in his wrists. He knows you covered autoimmune diseases in your microbiology class, so asks you to help him understand his condition. You discuss treatment approaches that are taken for various autoimmune diseases. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable option for treating autoimmunity? A) Limiting the immune response with anti-inflammatory or immunosuppressant medications. B) Replacement therapy to restore damaged tissues or tissue products, for example giving insulin to diabetics. C) Gene therapy, using retroviruses to replace defective genes coding for enzymes involved in recognizing "self" antigens. D) Inducing tolerance by introducing the antigen by the oral route, so that the immune system "learns" to tolerate it. E) These are all reasonable approaches to treating autoimmunity.

C) Gene therapy, using retroviruses to replace defective genes coding for enzymes involved in recognizing "self" antigens.

Which autoimmune disease is CORRECTLY described? A) Systemic lupus erythematosus—antibodies bind to acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction, thereby blocking nerve impulses that normally cause muscle contraction. B) Diabetes mellitus—characterized by a variety of autoantibodies and immune complexes that lodge in tissues around the body, causing damage. C) Grave's disease—antibodies bind to the THS receptor of the thyroid and activate it inappropriately, leading to increased thyroid hormone production and enlargement of the gland. D) Myesthenia gravis—infiltration of connective tissues, most often within joints, by T cells that release cytokines and cause inflammation. E) Rheumatoid arthritis—formation of immune complexes in small blood vessels caused by autoantibodies to DNA and other nuclear components.

C) Grave's disease—antibodies bind to the THS receptor of the thyroid and activate it inappropriately, leading to increased thyroid hormone production and enlargement of the gland. - pic of the guy with a goiter

In what clinical situation is it most appropriate to use a broad-spectrum antimicrobial? A) In an example of a viral pediatric otitis media (middle ear) infection. We can't properly test for the specific drug that would best eliminate the infection due to its location, so we use a broad-spectrum drug instead. B) In a case of viral meningitis. The infection spreads so quickly that we must treat it with an antibacterial drug as quickly as possible. We don't have time to determine which drug will work best, because the patient will die in the meantime. C) In a case of bacterial meningitis. The infection spreads so quickly that we must treat it with an antibacterial drug as quickly as possible. We don't have time to determine which drug will work best, because the patient will die in the meantime. D) In a case of Staphylococcus aureus skin infection. Since this microbe can be resistant to several types of drugs, we want to use one that has the broadest spectrum possible to treat this microbe-specific infection. E) There are no appropriate situations for using broad-spectrum antibiotics, because they almost always lead to resistance. It is much better to use a narrow-spectrum medication.

C) In a case of bacterial meningitis. The infection spreads so quickly that we must treat it with an antibacterial drug as quickly as possible. We don't have time to determine which drug will work best, because the patient will die in the meantime. Use a broad spectrum antimicrobial in acute, life-threatening cases when there is no time for a C&S (then do one and switch to a narrow spectrum if needed).

Which of the following is NOT true of artificially acquired passive immunity? A) It involves injecting a person with antibodies produced by other people or animals. B) It can be used to prevent disease immediately before or after likely exposure to a pathogen. C) It can be used to cure certain diseases. D) It can be used to limit the duration of certain diseases. E) It can be used to block the action of microbial toxins.

C) It can be used to cure certain diseases.

The arguments supporting spontaneous generation were finally disproved by: A) Francesco Redi. B) John Needham. C) Louis Pasteur. D) Lazzaro Spallanzani. E) Rudolf Virchow.

C) Louis Pasteur. Made swan neck flasks, boiled broth and showed there was no 'vital force' in the air that created life, the broth would stay sterile even exposed to air if the microorganisms were filtered out and only when tipped to meet the filter would the broth cloud with growth.

Which of the following statements concerning viruses is true? A) Viruses are usually about the same size as bacteria. B) Viruses possess enzymes for protein synthesis and ATP generation. C) The "host range" for a virus is determined by the presence or absence of particular components on the surface of a host cell that are required for the virus to attach. D) Viruses contain both DNA and RNA, and they undergo binary fusion.

C) The "host range" for a virus is determined by the presence or absence of particular components on the surface of a host cell that are required for the virus to attach.

The interaction of all organisms within a biological community with their environment is called a(n): A) group. B) cluster. C) ecosystem. D) network. E) family.

C) ecosystem.

If a patient received a kidney transplant that was matched well across each of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules, but theystopped taking their anti-rejectiondrugs, what would happen and why? A) Nothing; the transplant is matched, so the patient doesn't need the drugs to prevent rejection. The new organ should be seen by the recipient's immune system as "self." B) The organ will be rejected very quickly, as allografts (tissue from the same species, but a different individual) are seen by the recipient's immune system as "foreign," and are quickly attacked. C) The organ will be rejected, but it will be a gradual process since it was matched well. There are a number of other proteins that cannot be matched between donors, so the graft will still be viewed as "foreign" by the recipient's immune system, and will still be attacked and rejected. D) Nothing; since the transplant was accepted for so long with the anti-rejection drugs, the person's immune system has had the time to become accustomed to it and now views the graft as "self." It will not be attacked. E) Nothing. The anti-rejection drugs are not really necessary once the patient's surgery wounds have healed. At the time their immune system returns to normal, so the new organ will not be rejected.

C) The organ will be rejected, but it will be a gradual process since it was matched well. There are a number of other proteins that cannot be matched between donors, so the graft will still be viewed as "foreign" by the recipient's immune system, and will still be attacked and rejected.

Why does a sensitized person not experience a skin reaction immediately after exposure to poison oak? A) The reaction is caused by activation of memory B cells formed as a result of the first exposure. Active B cells are not formed immediately. B) The reaction is caused by activation of plasma cells formed as a result of the first exposure. Active B cells are not formed immediately. C) The reaction is caused by activation of memory T cells formed as a result of the first exposure. Active T cells are not formed immediately. D) The reaction is caused by activation of macrophages formed as a result of the first exposure. Activated macrophages are not formed immediately. E) The reaction is caused by activation of dendritic cells formed as a result of the first exposure. Activated dendritic cells are not formed immediately.

C) The reaction is caused by activation of memory T cells formed as a result of the first exposure. Active T cells are not formed immediately. - think Type IV Hypersensitivity: delayed-type cell mediated - T cells, contact dermatitis.

Which of the following statements about the members of the Kingdom Animalia is false? A) They are multicellular. B) They have eukaryotic cells. C) They can photosynthesize. D) They use organic carbon sources. E) They use organic energy sources.

C) They can photosynthesize.

What are two advantages of automated tests used to determine antimicrobial susceptibility? A) They are easier to perform. B) They produce results more quickly than conventional tests. C) They produce results more quickly than conventional tests AND they are easier to perform. D) They take longer to perform BUT they give fewer false results. E) They are cheaper than conventional tests AND they give more accurate results.

C) They produce results more quickly than conventional tests AND they are easier to perform.

A new serotype of Vibrio cholerae, V. cholerae 0139, has picked up the ability to produce: A) pili. B) flagella. C) a capsule. D) a toxin. E) endotoxin.

C) a capsule.

C) a type III secretion system. - injectisome, G- only.

If a patient lacks B cells, the resulting disease is: A) SCID. B) AIDS. C) agammaglobulinemia. D) Di George's syndrome. E) chronic granulomatous disease.

C) agammaglobulinemia. A - without, globulin - antibodies, -emia - blood Primary immune deficiency

Immunological tests may determine the presence of: A) only antibody. B) only antigen. C) antigen or antibody. D) neither antibody nor antigen. E) only IgG.

C) antigen or antibody. - immunological tests depend on antibody-antigen specificity - if you don't know one, you can use the known other to figure it out.

Immunosuppressive drugs: A) are only needed during the first week after transplantation. B) are only needed for the first year after transplantation. C) are needed indefinitely after transplantation. D) are needed for transplants between identical twins. E) are needed indefinitely after transplantation AND are needed for transplants between identical twins.

C) are needed indefinitely after transplantation.

Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by the diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae, commonly called gonococcus (GC). This organism developed resistance to penicillin and tetracycline in the 1980s, after which fluoroquinolones were the recommended drugs for treating GC. Subsequent resistance to the fluoroquinolones has led to the current recommended treatment of injected ceftriaxone in combination with oral azithromycin. Although this approach continues to be effective, recent data from the CDC indicates that resistance to azithromycin is emerging. Azithromycin is a bacteriostatic antibiotic that interferes with protein synthesis. Ceftriaxone is a β-lactam antibiotic and is primarily bactericidal. This means that: A) azithromycin kills bacterial cells while ceftriaxone inhibits the growth of bacterial cells. B) bacteria are sensitive to azithromycin but are resistant to ceftriaxone. C) azithromycin inhibits the growth of bacterial cells while ceftriaxone kills bacterial cells. D) bacteria are resistant to azithromycin but are susceptible to ceftriaxone. E) azithromycin can only be used against Gram-positive bacteria.

C) azithromycin inhibits the growth of bacterial cells while ceftriaxone kills bacterial cells.

C) illness phase. - showing signs and symptoms of illness

The period of time between exposure to an agent and the onset of disease signs and symptoms is called the: A) prodromal phase. B) decline phase. C) incubation period. D) lag phase. E) carrier phase.

C) incubation period.

The period of time between exposure to an agent and the onset of disease signs and symptoms is called the: A) prodromal phase. B) decline phase. C) incubation period. D) lag phase. E) carrier phase.

C) incubation period. - followed by illness, then by convelescence in an acute infection, by long period of illness in a chronic infection.

The amount of infecting agent received by susceptible individuals is called the: A) exposure. B) infectious number. C) infectious dose. D) infecting level. E) infective exposure.

C) infectious dose. Number of cells needed to be enough to cause an infection.

C) it contains a nucleotide analog and a sugar.

What are epitopes? A) parts of the antibody molecule B) T-cell receptors C) parts of an antigen recognized by an antibody D) B-cell receptors E) parts of an antibody recognized by an antigen

C) parts of an antigen recognized by an antibody

An antibiotic made by microorganisms and modified by chemists is called: A) anti-metabolic. B) catabolic. C) semi-synthetic. D) synthetic. E) semi-catabolic.

C) semi-synthetic.

Desensitization: A) stimulates an increase in IgG AND reduces the number of mast cells. B) reduces the number of mast cells AND increases the number of basophil cells. C) stimulates an increase in IgG AND is a treatment for hypersensitivity reactions. D) increases the number of basophil cells AND is a treatment for hypersensitivity reactions. E) increases the number of mast cells AND decreases the number of basophil cells.

C) stimulates an increase in IgG AND is a treatment for hypersensitivity reactions. - series of diluted shots of antigen Want the body to make IgG to bind to the allergen/antigen before IgE can. Type I Hypersensitivity: Immediate IgE-mediated - Increase in IgG and regulatory T cells, decrease in IgE.

After a long cold winter, you are looking forward to spring semester, when you will complete your nursing degree. The only thing that concerns you is the allergies that hit you in April/May every year, exactly when you will be taking your final exams. Your roommate is currently taking microbiology, so you decide to review what you know about hypersensitivity with him. You tell your friend that ragweed pollen gives you hay fever, but now he needs some revision—he can't remember the signs and symptoms of this allergy. You remind him that they include A) spasms of smooth muscle tissue lining the bronchial tubes and increased mucus production, caused by inflammatory mediators in the lower respiratory tract. B) extensive blood vessel dilation and fluid loss from the blood, causing a severe drop in blood pressure that may lead to heart failure and insufficient blood flow to vital organs. C) teary eyes, a runny nose, and sneezing, caused by fluid leakage from dilated capillaries in the mucous membranes. D) an itchy swelling generally resembling a mosquito bite, surrounded by redness called a flare. E) fluid accumulation due to leaky dilated blood vessels, contraction of smooth muscles, itching and pain due to effects on nerve endings, and increased mucus production.

C) teary eyes, a runny nose, and sneezing, caused by fluid leakage from dilated capillaries in the mucous membranes.

Precipitation reactions depend on: A) the antigen having one epitope. B) the antibody having one epitope. C) the antigen having two or more epitopes. D) the antigen having no epitopes. E) the epitope have one or more antigens.

C) the antigen having two or more epitopes.

Giant cells are: A) a fusion of B cells. B) a fusion of T cells. C) used to contain bacterial infections. D) activated T helper cells. E) used to engulf very large pathogens.

C) used to contain bacterial infections.

The procedure developed by the Chinese to protect against smallpox was called: A) Oriental poxination. B) humoral immunity. C) variolation. D) naturally acquired immunity. E) vacciolation.

C) variolation. E. Jenner - transferred cowpox materials from a milkmaid to a boy and then 6 wks later boy was exposed to but didn't get small pox - used this to spread the practice of variolation.

Attributes of an organism that promote pathogenicity are called: A) disease factors. B) colonization factors. C) virulence factors. D) mutualistic factors. E) pathogenic factors.

C) virulence factors. slide 18 - Virulence Factors = microbial components that contribute to the ability to cause disease in a susceptible host

All of the following are true about the term vaccination EXCEPT: A) is a general term that would include the process of variolation. B) was coined by Jenner. C) was coined by Pasteur and comes from the Latin for cow, variola. D) comes from the Latin for cow, vacca. E) was coined by Jenner and comes from the Latin for cow, vacca.

C) was coined by Pasteur and comes from the Latin for cow, variola. GOT TO WONDER IF THIS IS OLD OLD BECAUSE VACCINATION WAS TERMED SUCH BY PASTEUR, NOT BY JENNER.

Attenuated agents are: A) dead viruses. B) toxins. C) weakened but replicating microbes. D) parts of an organism. E) weakened, nonreplicating microbes.

C) weakened but replicating microbes. - difference between attenuated and inactivated is that attenuated agents can still replicate. - attenuated cause a stronger immune response but can sometimes cause disease

Which of the following statements regarding protozoa is FALSE? A-Some protozoan pathogens are transmitted by arthropod vectors. B-Most protozoa reproduce asexually. C-Nearly all protozoa cause disease. D-Protozoa are common in water and soil. E-Protozoa are unicellular eukaryotes.

C-Nearly all protozoa cause disease.

The reference for taxonomic descriptions of bacteria is A. Gray's Anatomy. B. Websters Manual of Taxonomic Bacteriology. C. Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology. D. Bacteriology.

C. Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology. - I had this as a T/F question. - It describes descriptions of all known species.

15. Which is correct regarding the rate of microbial death? A. Cells die at increasingly greater rates. B. Only older cells die in a culture. C. Cells in a culture die at a constant rate. D. Upon contact with the control agent, all cells die at one time. E. Cells become metabolically inactive, but are never killed.

C. Cells in a culture die at constant rate.

Blood for transfusion is frequently tested for AIDS by using the: A. complement fixation test. B. radioimmunoassay test. C. ELISA method. D. RIA test.

C. ELISA method.

Which statement regarding the Gram stain is FALSE? A. A Gram stain may give sufficient information to start appropriate antibiotic treatment—for example a Gram-positive diplococcus in sputum is likely to be Streptococcus pneumoniae. B. A Gram stain can sometimes be used to make a diagnosis—for example a Gram-negative diplococcus in WBC from urethral discharge is Neisseria gonorrhoeae. C. Gram staining can be used to differentiate intestinal normal microbiota from pathogens—for example differentiating E. coli from Salmonella enterica. D. In most cases, Gram staining is not sufficient to identify an organism—for example, Gram-positive staphylococci on skin may be either S. aureus or S. epidermidis. E. Medically important bacteria can seldom be identified by Gram staining alone—for example the throat may harbor Streptococcus pyogenes (pathogen) as well as Streptococcus species that are normal microbiota.

C. Gram staining can be used to differentiate intestinal normal microbiota from pathogens—for example differentiating E. coli from Salmonella enterica.

What roles do hydrogen gas and carbon dioxide play in the metabolism of methanogens? A. They use hydrogen gas in respiration, and they use carbon dioxide in photosynthesis. B. Hydrogen gas is their terminal electron acceptor, and carbon dioxide is their energy source. C. Hydrogen gas is their energy source, and carbon dioxide is their terminal electron acceptor. D. Hydrogen gas is their energy source, and carbon dioxide is their carbohydrate source. E. Hydrogen gas is their initial electron acceptor, and carbon dioxide is their energy source.

C. Hydrogen gas is their energy source, and carbon dioxide is their terminal electron acceptor.

Histamine causes all the following except: A. Fever and headache B. Wheal and flare reaction in skin C. Increased sensitivity to pain D. Relaxes vascular smooth muscle E. Constriction of smooth muscle of bronchi and the intestine

C. Increased sensitivity to pain Got this right

Explain the difference between MIC and MBC. A .MBC is the maximum dose of an antimicrobial medication needed to prevent the growth of an organism, while MIC is the maximum dose of that medication needed to kill the organism. B. MBC is the minimum dose of an antimicrobial medication that prevents the growth of an organism, while MIC is the minimum dose of that medication that kills the organism. C. MIC is the minimum dose of an antimicrobial medication that prevents the growth of an organism, while MBC is the minimum dose of that medication that kills the organism. D. MIC is the maximum dose of an antimicrobial medication needed to prevent the growth of an organism, while MBC is the maximum dose of that medication needed to kill the organism.

C. MIC is the minimum dose of an antimicrobial medication that prevents the growth of an organism, while MBC is the minimum dose of that medication that kills the organism.

Which of the following organisms is the causative agent of Hansen's disease (leprosy)? A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. Mycobacterium avium C. Mycobacterium leprae D. Mycobacterium smegmatis

C. Mycobacterium leprae

Thermus and Deinococcus: A. are both radiation resistant. B. are both Gram-positive. C. survive in extreme environments. D. both serve as the source of Taq polymerase. E. are both thermophilic.

C. survive in extreme environments - Thermus is thermophilic and Deinococcus can survive radiation. . Thermus is G-, Deinococcus is G+ Thermus is the source of Taq polymerase Deinococcus can survive gamma radiation

A soluble greenish pigment is produced by: A. Streptococcus pneumoniae. B. Escherichia coli. C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. D. Serratia marcescens. E. all streptococci.

C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. - also there's a fruity smell

You have identified the causative organism of the outbreak as E. coli. In an effort to characterize the strain of the organism involved, you do different tests. The results are as follows: Gram stain—Gram-negative rods; Oxidase test—negative; Lactose fermentation—positive; Serological testing—O157:H7; Colony morphology—smooth, creamy colonies; RFLPs—E. coli O157:H7; Antibiogram—resistant to ampicillin. Which test(s) confirm the identity of the organism at the strain level? A. Lactose fermentation AND oxidase test B. Gram stain AND antibiogram C. RFLPs AND serological testing D. Serological testing AND colony morphology E. Oxidase test AND RFLPs

C. RFLPs AND serological testing

Which of the following statements concerning development of antibiotic resistance is FALSE? A. It is often mediated by R-plasmids. B. Resistant cells are normally in the minority in a bacterial population. C. Resistant cells grow more efficiently and quickly than susceptible cells. D. New resistance genes can be gained through transformation, transduction, or conjugation. E. Resistance can occur through mutation of existing bacterial genes.

C. Resistant cells grow more efficiently and quickly than susceptible cells.

Why would a person who has their tonsils removed be more susceptible to certain types of infections of the throat and respiratory tract? A. Tonsils produce high levels of lactoferrin, a strong natural antibacterial compound. B. Tonsils produce large amounts of interferons, natural antiviral compounds. C. Tonsils are secondary lymphoid organs-they help to provide a constant response to the microbes in the oral cavity, helping to keep them in check and preventing them from spreading to other areas. D. Tonsils are the location where T cells develop and mature. Without them, a person won't have T cells, and will be more likely to suffer from infections that would normally be eliminated by such cells.

C. Tonsils are secondary lymphoid organs-they help to provide a constant response to the microbes in the oral cavity, helping to keep them in check and preventing them from spreading to other areas.

Chemoautotroph (energy source + carbon souce)

C. Uses chemical reactions for energy

45. All of the following pertain to hypochlorites except A. release hypochlorous acid in solution. B. cause denaturation of enzymes. C. found in iodophors. D. used to disinfect water, restaurant, and medical equipment. E. found in common household bleach.

C. found in iodophors

The name Lactococcus (Streptococcus) lactis A. indicates that the subgenus is Streptococcus. B. indicates that the family is Lactococcus. C. indicates that Streptococcus is the old genus name. D. indicates that Lactococcus is the old class name.

C. indicates that Streptococcus is the old genus name. - the naming system isn't static. Changing names means for more accurate descriptions but is bad in medical situations when people don't know/remember about the name change.

Mycobacterium tuberculosis is one of the few species of bacteria that A. stains Gram-positive. B. lacks a peptidoglycan cell wall. C. is acid-fast. D. is encapsulated. E. stains Gram-negative.

C. is acid-fast. It is the waxy mycolic acid that prevents stain uptake. Remember that it is stained with carbol fuschin first (mycobacterium shows up red) and everything else is stained with methylene blue (shows blue)

35. Vials of microorganisms that undergo the freeze-drying process called _____ will remain preserved and viable for years. A. desiccation B. flash freeze C. lyophilization D. pasteurization E. sterilization

C. lyophilization

In 1908 Orla-Jensen suggested that bacteria be grouped according to their A. arrangement. B. morphology. C. physiology. D. Gram stain.

C. physiology.

In the 1930s Kluyver and van Niel proposed a classification scheme based on A. Gram reactions. B. biochemical relationships. C. presumed evolutionary relationships. D. DNA sequences.

C. presumed evolutionary relationships.

11. The removal of all life forms from inanimate objects is termed A. antisepsis. B. disinfection. C. sterilization. D. decontamination. E. degerming.

C. sterilization

Nucleotide Analogs

Cause gene mutations. AZT (lacks 3' OH), 5'bromouracil.

Nonionizing Radiation

Causes gene mutations. UV light. Pyrimidine dimers.

Ionizing Radiation

Causes gene mutations. X-rays, gamma rays. Removes an electron from atoms, breaks DNA.

The resistance of the tubercle bacillus to various factors is probably due to its: A) cell wall. B) capsule. C) larger ribosomes. D) ability to adhere tightly.

Cell Wall Mycobacterium tuberculosis - slender, acid-fast, rod-shaped bacterium, aerobe with a generation time of over 16 hours. - cell wall contains mycolic acids, cells resist drying, disinfectants, strong acids and alkalis, responsible for acid-fast staining. - easily killed by PASTURIZATION

Reticulate and elementary bodies are two forms in the life cycle of - Mycoplasma. - Caulobacter. - Treponema. - Chlamydia. - Myxobacteria.

Chlamydia

Which of the following genera are obligate intracellular parasites? - Chlamydia, Coxiella, AND Rickettsia - Chlamydia, Mycoplasma, AND Micrococcus - Escherichia AND Erlichia - Mycoplasma, Chlamydia, Coxiella, AND Rickettsia - Chlamydia AND Mycoplasma

Chlamydia, Coxiella, AND Rickettsia

Which of the following contains bacteriochlorophyll? - Streptococcus, Chromatium, Thidictyon - Staphylococcus, Thiospirillum, Thidictyon - Bacillus, Chromatium, Thiospirillum - Escherichia, Chromatium, Thiospirillum - Chromatium, Thiospirillum, Thidictyon

Chromatium, Thiospirillum, Thidictyon

Operator

Controls movement of RNA polymerase. Repressors bind here.

Mismatch Repair

Correct strand determined by level of methylation.

The virus originally used for vaccination against smallpox is named: A) vaccinia. B) cowpox. C) rubella. D) herpes. E) polio.

Cowpox - E. Jenner saw that milkmaids who got cowpox usually didn't get small pox.

A common vector used for cloning genes is/are A. bacteria. B. viroids. C. nucleotides. D. plasmids. E. viruses.

A holoenzyme is a combination of a protein and one or more of the substances called: A. substrates B. apoenzymes C. catalysts D. cofactors E. none of the choices are correct

All of the chemical reactions of the cell are called: A. catabolism B. redox reactions C. phosphorylation D. metabolism E. cellular respiration

Anoxygenic phototrophs: A. produce oxygen AND use the same form of chlorophyll found in terrestrial plants. B. produce oxygen. C. use water as a source of electrons D. use hydrogen sulfide or organic compounds as a source of electrons. E. use the same form of chlorophyll found in terrestrial plants.

Enzymes that are only produced when substrate is present are termed: A. exoenzymes B. endoenzymes C. constitutive enzymes D. induced enzymes E. conjugated enzymes

Please identify the incorrect definition. A) Cytotoxic T cell—type of lymphocyte programmed to destroy infected or cancerous "self" cells. B) Plasma cell—effector form of a B cell; it functions as an antibody-secreting factory. C) T cell receptor—molecule on a T cell that enables the T cell to recognize a specific antigen. D) MHC class II—molecules that cells use to present antigen to cytotoxic T cells. E) Fab region—portion of an antibody molecule that binds to the antigen.

Please select the CORRECT statement regarding MHC molecules. A) Cytotoxic T cells recognize antigens presented on MHC class II molecules. B) Dendritic cells are the only cells that make MHC class II molecules. C) All nucleated cells express MHC class II molecules. D) Helper T cells recognize antigens presented on MHC class II molecules. E) Endogenous antigens are presented on MHC class II molecules.

Protozoan classification is based on their means of: A. reproduction. B. growth. C. fermentation. D. locomotion. E. obtaining nutrients.

Which is TRUE about the RNA transcript? A. The template starts at the promoter region. B. It is formed using the DNA minus strand as a template. C. It has the same 5'-3' orientation as the DNA positive strand. D. It is formed using the DNA minus strand as a template, it has the same 5'-3' orientation as the DNA positive strand AND the template starts at the promoter region. E. It is made in short fragments that are then stitched together.

Which of the following is not true about mismatch repair? A. It utilizes the state of methylation of the DNA to differentiate between strands. B. It requires DNA polymerase and DNA ligase. C. It utilizes an endonuclease. D. It removes both strands in the mismatch area.

Your friend Ellie is pregnant. She tells you that her mother, a microbiologist, has warned her not to clean out the cat's litter box while she is pregnant in case she contracts a disease called toxoplasmosis, which can affect her fetus. She says her mom told her toxoplasmosis is caused by a parasite called Toxoplasma gondii, that may be found in the feces of infected cats and also in raw meat. Your friend's mom tells her that when a person has not had a particular disease, they are not immune to the pathogen that causes the disease, and lack antibodies against that microbe. Your friend has never had toxoplasmosis but she doesn't quite understand why this, and the fact that she doesn't have antibodies to T. gondii, is important. You help her understand some facts about her adaptive immune system. A fetus is protected by maternal antibodies that cross the placenta. You explain to Ellie that the fetus: A) is protected by both maternal IgG and maternal IgM, because these can easily cross the placenta. B) is protected by maternal IgM but not by maternal IgG, because IgM can cross the placenta but IgG cannot because it is a pentamer. C) will make large amounts of its own IgG and IgM immediately if the mother contracts some type of pathogen. D) is protected by maternal IgG but not by maternal IgM—IgG can cross the placenta but IgM cannot because it is a pentamer. E) will make its own IgG if the mother contracts any type of pathogen; it cannot make IgM because this is a pentamer.

Your friend Ellie is pregnant. She tells you that her mother, a microbiologist, has warned her not to clean out the cat's litter box while she is pregnant in case she contracts a disease called toxoplasmosis, which can affect her fetus. She says her mom told her toxoplasmosis is caused by a parasite called Toxoplasma gondii, that may be found in the feces of infected cats and also in raw meat. Your friend's mom tells her that when a person has not had a particular disease, they are not immune to the pathogen that causes the disease, and lack antibodies against that microbe. Your friend has never had toxoplasmosis but she doesn't quite understand why this, and the fact that she doesn't have antibodies to T. gondii, is important. You help her understand some facts about her adaptive immune system. Ellie wonders whether she has fully understood what you have told her, so she tells you what she knows but she makes one mistake. Which statement made by your friend is INCORRECT? A) When a person is exposed to an antigen, B cells get activated by TH cells, proliferating and differentiating to form populations of plasma cells and memory cells. B) Plasma cells produce antibodies which are specific proteins that bind to the antigens, tagging them for elimination by other immune cells such as macrophages and neutrophils. C) On first exposure to an antigen, a person makes IgM followed by IgG. On second exposure to that same antigen, memory cells produce large amounts of IgG. D) If a woman experiences a primary exposure to a particular while pregnant, she makes IgM in response. This antibody crosses the placenta and protects her fetus from that pathogen. E) If a woman experiences a secondary exposure to a particular pathogen while pregnant, she makes IgG that crosses the placenta and protects the fetus from that antigen.

The characteristic function and properties of each class of antibody is determined by the: A) variable region on the light chains. B) hinge region of all chains. C) constant region on the light chains. D) constant region on the heavy chains. E) variable region on the heavy chains.

D -Fab is arms, Fc is stem. Arms are variable, stem is constant. Arms are 1 heavy + 1 light chain each, stem is 2 heavy chains - disulfide bonds hold all together.

An example of natural passive immunity would be: A. Chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity B. Chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox C. Giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease D. A fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta E. None of the choices is correct

D Got this right

Serological methods: A. are useful in identifying unknown bacteria. B. rely on the specificity of an antibody-antigen interaction. C. may be simple and rapid. D. use cellular proteins and carbohydrates as markers. E. All choices are correct.

D - NOT B - I've seen others say B, it's not, got it wrong with B. I got nervous and changed my answer.

The Western blot is used to confirm the results of an ELISA test. Which of the following is the correct sequence of steps involved in this procedure? 1. To determine if a patient's serum has antibodies specific for any of the proteins in the sample (in this case HIV proteins), some of that serum is added to the blot, after which unbound antibodies are washed off. 2. The antigen proteins separate according to size. The separated proteins in the gel are then transferred ("blotted") to a nylon membrane to immobilize them in the same positions they were in the gel. 3. A type of gel electrophoresis (SDS-PAGE) is used to separate the proteins of an antigen, which involves loading the sample onto a polyacrylamide gel matrix, and running an electrical current through it. 4. Labeled anti-human IgG antibodies are added, which bind to any serum antibodies that have attached to the proteins. Unbound labeled antibodies are then washed off and attached label is detected. A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 3, 2, 4, 1 C) 3, 4, 2, 1 D) 3, 2, 1, 4 E) 2, 4, 3, 1

D) 3, 2, 1, 4

Fossil evidence indicates that prokaryotic cells first existed on the Earth A) 350 years ago. B) 3500 years ago. C) 3.5 million years ago. D) 3.5 billion years ago. E) 3.5 × 1012 years ago.

D) 3.5 billion years ago.

Which of the following would you prescribe to treat a person with M. pneumoniae? A) A β-lactam antibiotic such as penicillin B) A glycopeptide antibiotic such as vancomycin C) Bacitracin D) A macrolide such as erythromycin E) Bacitracin OR penicillin

D) A macrolide such as erythromycin Macrolides work by binding to a specific subunit of ribosomes (sites of protein synthesis) in susceptible bacteria, thereby inhibiting the formation of bacterial proteins. In most organisms this action inhibits cell growth; however, in high concentrations it can cause cell death. - includes erythromycin, roxithromycin, azithromycin and clarithromycin.

In which of the following is/are B cells involved? A) Asthma, hemolytic disease of the newborn, AND allergic contact dermatitis B) Hives, transplanted organ rejection, AND transfusion reactions C) Systemic anaphylaxis, hives, AND graft-versus-host reactions D) Anaphylactic shock, hemolytic disease of the newborn, AND glomerulonephritis E) Hives, transfusion reactions, disseminated intravascular coagulation, AND allergic contact dermatitis

D) Anaphylactic shock, hemolytic disease of the newborn, AND glomerulonephritis - Type I, II and III Hypersensitivities. -contact dermatitis and transplant rejection is Type IV - T cells

Please select the INCORRECT definition regarding hypersensitivity. A) Hypersensitivity—an exaggerated immune response that damages tissues. B) Degranulation—release of mediators from a cell's granules, such as histamine released from mast cells. C) Systemic anaphylaxis—an immediate hypersensitivity reaction caused by IgE attached to circulating basophils. D) Anaphylactic shock—raised blood pressure and increased circulation caused by a severe allergic reaction. E) Delayed-type cell-mediated hypersensitivity—an exaggerated immune response of antigen-specific T cells.

D) Anaphylactic shock—raised blood pressure and increased circulation caused by a severe allergic reaction. - actually see low BP and decreased blood circulation to organs.

The formal system for classifying and naming organisms was developed by: A) Robert Koch. B) Ignaz Semmelweis. C) Aristotle. D) Carolus Linnaeus. E) Louis Pasteur.

D) Carolus Linnaeus.

What type of hypersensitivity reaction causes rejection of transplanted organs? A) Immediate IgE-mediated B) Cytotoxic C) Immune-complex mediated D) Delayed-type cell-mediated E) Cytotoxic OR delayed-type cell-mediated

D) Delayed-type cell-mediated

Which of the statements about transmission of pathogens is TRUE? A) Vertical transmission of a pathogen is from the environment to a person. B) Horizontal transmission refers to spread of a pathogen from mother to fetus. C) Sexual intercourse is an example of indirect contact. D) Droplet transmission is a particularly important source of contamination in densely populated buildings such as schools. E) Droplet nuclei are large drops of pathogen-containing fluid discharged by talking; they fall to the ground within a meter of the person.

D) Droplet transmission is a particularly important source of contamination in densely populated buildings such as schools.

Please select the FALSE statement. A) A common source epidemic occurs when all of the cases result from exposure to a single source of the infectious agent. B) A case-control study occurs when all of the cases result from exposure to a single source of the infectious agent. C) The natural habitat of a pathogen is called the reservoir of infection. D) Herd immunity can never be overcome by a pathogen. E) Emerging infectious diseases are those that are novel or have recently increased in incidence.

D) Herd immunity can never be overcome by a pathogen. It can. In the individual an enormous amount of pathogen can overwhelm the immune system. Herd immunity works best if >90% are immune - extend the previous statement to herd immunity. Voila.

What might be an advantage to using an individual's own stem cells instead of pancreatic cell allografts to treat type I diabetes? A) Stem cells can disable the immune responses that led to the diabetes state in the first place. B) This process should be far cheaper than the surgical intervention needed for the allograft. C) You can't do this—stem cell research it is still theoretical, not approved by the FDA, and is currently illegal in the United States. As such, there is no advantage. D) If you were able to use a person's own cells, it would be considered an autograft rather than an allograft. As such, there should be no HLA/MHC matching required, and no long-term anti-rejection drugs would be needed. E) This process should be far cheaper than the surgical intervention needed for the allograft AND stem cells can disable the immune responses that led to the diabetes state in the first place.

D) If you were able to use a person's own cells, it would be considered an autograft rather than an allograft. As such, there should be no HLA/MHC matching required, and no long-term anti-rejection drugs would be needed.

If the thymus is removed from a 2-year-old child, which of the following is likely to occur? A) Decreased success of an organ transplant and increased incidence of cancer. B) Decreased incidence of cancer and decreased incidence of viral infection. C) Decreased success of an organ transplant and increased incidence of viral infection. D) Increased success of an organ transplant and increased incidence of bacterial infection. E) Increased success of an organ transplant and decreased incidence of bacterial infection.

D) Increased success of an organ transplant and increased incidence of bacterial infection.

A bacterial species differs from a species of eukaryotic organisms in that a bacterial species A) Does not breed with other species. B) Has a limited geographical distribution. C) Can be distinguished from other bacterial species. D) Is a population of cells with similar characteristics. E) Breeds with its own species.

D) Is a population of cells with similar characteristics.

Why did it take so long to understand that L. pneumophila is the cause of a respiratory tract infection? A) It stains poorly and is difficult to detect. B) It has fastidious growth requirements and is difficult to culture. C) It is extremely rare in nature and is seldom present in a population. D) It has fastidious growth requirements and is difficult to culture AND it stains poorly and is difficult to detect. E) It is extremely small and can only be detected using electron microscopy AND it is extremely rare in nature and is seldom present in a population.

D) It has fastidious growth requirements and is difficult to culture AND it stains poorly and is difficult to detect. -rare in nature and seldom present in a population.

A researcher noted in a bacterium that there were more mutations in stretches of DNA having higher proportions of thymine than the other bases. Which is the most probable explanation for this observation? A) Thymine is easily converted to uracil by mutagens. B) The other bases are not prone to mutation. C) Thymine mutations cannot be repaired by the SOS system. D) Thymine dimers are more likely to form in those stretches. E) Most mutagens do not alter thymine.

D) Thymine dimers are more likely to form in those stretches.

Prevention of patient-to-personnel transmission of disease depends on limiting contact with: A) patients. B) personnel. C) administrators. D) physicians. E) body fluids.

E) body fluids.

Select the FALSE statement regarding artificially acquired passive immunity. A) Immune globulin is used to prevent or treat specific diseases, for example using rabies immune globulin (RIG) to protect against rabies. B) It involves the use of antiserum (a preparation of serum that contains protective antibodies) or antitoxin (antibody preparation that protects against a given toxin). C) Hyperimmune globulin is used to protect unvaccinated people who have been recently exposed to certain diseases, including measles and hepatitis A. D) It occurs naturally in response to infections, and artificially in response to vaccination, when antigens are deliberately introduced into the body. E) These statements are all false.

D) It occurs naturally in response to infections, and artificially in response to vaccination, when antigens are deliberately introduced into the body. - this is Naturally acquired immunity

Proof that a microbe could cause disease was provided by: A) Wasserman. B) Semmelweis. C) Lister. D) Koch. E) Pasteur.

D) Koch Studied anthrax in mice. Koch's Postulates

Mycolic acids are targeted by isoniazid in the treatment of: A) S. aureus. B) S. epidermidis. C) M. luteus. D) M. tuberculosis. E) E. coli.

D) M. tuberculosis. isoniazid is a first line drug against TB.

D) Medical devices such as urinary catheters AND inadequately sterilized instruments used in invasive procedures.

Please select the TRUE statement regarding bacterial resistance to antimicrobials. A) Gram-positive bacteria are intrinsically resistant to certain medications because the lipid bilayer of their outer membrane prevents the molecules from entering. B) Intrinsic resistance generally occurs through spontaneous mutation or horizontal gene transfer. C) The genes for antimicrobial resistance are often carried on fertility plasmids (F plasmids). D) Mycoplasma species lack a cell wall, so they are resistant to penicillin that interferes with peptidoglycan synthesis. This is an example of intrinsic resistance. E) Acquired resistance is very limited because microorganisms cannot evolve, so are incapable of developing mechanisms to avoid the effects of medications.

D) Mycoplasma species lack a cell wall, so they are resistant to penicillin that interferes with peptidoglycan synthesis. This is an example of intrinsic resistance. A. G- have outer membrane, not G+ B. Acquired resistance, intrinsic is something they have, not something they get by mutation or transfer. C. R plasmids, not F. E. Just no.

Why are nucleoside analogs active only against replicating viruses? A) These drugs can only be taken up by cells that are infected by viruses. They are shut out from non-infected cells. This makes them effective only against cells where viruses are replicating. B) Each of these drugs is specifically activated by enzymes produced by the viruses. The viruses will only produce these enzymes when they are replicating, so the drugs can only become activated when these processes are occurring. C) Nucleoside analogs work by directly inhibiting the activity of nucleic acid polymerases. If the virus isn't actively replicating, there's no DNA/RNA polymerase active for the drug to inhibit, so the drug cannot work. D) Nucleoside analogs work by being incorporated into growing strands of DNA/RNA. This indirectly shuts down further extension of these chains. However, new strands of viral DNA/RNA are only being created when the virus is replicating. Thus, these drugs can only work when the virus is actively replicating as well. E) Nucleoside analogs work by being incorporated into growing strands of amino acids during enzyme synthesis. This indirectly shuts down further extension of these chains. However, new viral proteins are only being created when the virus is replicating, so these medications only work if that is the case.

D) Nucleoside analogs work by being incorporated into growing strands of DNA/RNA. This indirectly shuts down further extension of these chains. However, new strands of viral DNA/RNA are only being created when the virus is replicating. Thus, these drugs can only work when the virus is actively replicating as well.

It has been estimated that most of the intestinal bacteria are A) Facultative anaerobes B) Facultative aerobes C) Obligate aerobes D) Obligate anaerobes

D) Obligate anaerobes

After a long cold winter, you are looking forward to spring semester, when you will complete your nursing degree. The only thing that concerns you is the allergies that hit you in April/May every year, exactly when you will be taking your final exams. Your roommate is currently taking microbiology, so you decide to review what you know about hypersensitivity with him. You've forgotten what happens after sensitization, so your friend gives you a summary. Which is the CORRECT statement? A) Complement protein C3a binds to two IgE molecules bound to the surface of the basophil, causing it to degranulate and release histamine and other mediators. B) On second exposure, complement protein C3a binds to two IgG molecules attached to the surface of the mast cell, causing it to degranulate and release interleukins. C) On second exposure, complement protein C5b cross-links two allergen molecules bound to the surface of the basophil, causing it to degranulate and release histamine and other mediators. D) On second exposure, the allergen cross-links two IgE antibodies bound to the surface of the basophil, causing it to degranulate and release histamine and other mediators. E) Second exposure to the allergen causes activation of B cells that are initially programmed to produce IgM molecules, but then undergo class switching to produce IgE.

D) On second exposure, the allergen cross-links two IgE antibodies bound to the surface of the basophil, causing it to degranulate and release histamine and other mediators.

Why would co-administration of a bacteriostatic drug interfere with the effects of penicillin? A) Since most bacteriostatic drugs are produced from bacteria but penicillin is produced from mold, the two drugs are incompatible with each other. B) A bacteriostatic drug interferes with the ability of a bacterial cell to take in compounds from the outside environment. Penicillin must be taken in by the cell in order to have its effect, so this would directly inhibit it. C) The bacteriostatic drugs would bind directly to the penicillin, preventing both its uptake by the cell and its ability to perform its duty within the bacterial cell. D) Penicillin interferes with cell wall production so it only works when the cells are actively replicating and MAKING new peptidoglycan. A bacteriostatic drug works by shutting down replication, holding the cells "static." This would interfere with the mode of action required by the penicillin. E) Nothing interferes with the effects of penicillin. It is the most effective medication that we have, so is never used with the addition of a second drug when treating a person.

D) Penicillin interferes with cell wall production so it only works when the cells are actively replicating and MAKING new peptidoglycan. A bacteriostatic drug works by shutting down replication, holding the cells "static." This would interfere with the mode of action required by the penicillin.

Bacteria and archaea are similar in which of the following? A) Peptidoglycan cell walls B) Methionine as the start signal for protein synthesis C) Sensitivity to antibiotics D) Possessing prokaryotic cells E) Plasma membrane ester linkage

D) Possessing prokaryotic cells

The first example of an antimicrobial drug synthesized in the laboratory was: A) penicillin. B) sulfa. C) erythromycin. D) Salvarsan. E) Erlichsan.

D) Salvarsan - an arsenic compound, Ehrlich tried and on the 606th try, got it right.

The arsenic compound that proved highly effective in treating syphilis was called: A) penicillin. B) sulfa. C) erythromycin. D) Salvarsan. E) erlichsan.

D) Salvarsan arsphenamine (Salvarsan) - Ehrlich - syphilis

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism for avoiding destruction by a phagocyte? A) Some pathogens escape from the phagosome before it fuses with lysosomes. B) Some pathogens prevent phagosome-lysosome fusion. C) Some microbes can survive the destructive environment within the phagolysosome. D) Some microbes produce IgA protease that cleaves IgA, the class of antibody found in mucus and other secretions. E) These are all mechanisms for avoiding phagocytic destruction.

D) Some microbes produce IgA protease that cleaves IgA, the class of antibody found in mucus and other secretions. - that is about avoiding antibodies

A patient is tested for antibodies to a particular infectious agent and is found to be positive. What would account for the positive result inthisperson? A) The person is currently infected with the agent AND the person was previously vaccinated against the agent. B) The person was previously vaccinated against the agent. C) The person was infected with the agent sometime in the past AND the person is currently infected with the agent. D) The person is currently infected with the agent, the person was infected with the agent sometime in the past, OR the person was previously vaccinated against the agent. E) The person was previously exposed to the infectious agent OR the person was previously vaccinated against the agent AND the person is currently infected with the agent.

D) The person is currently infected with the agent, the person was infected with the agent sometime in the past, OR the person was previously vaccinated against the agent.

An elderly patient comes to see you complaining of a very painful rash. When he lifts his shirt, you see that he has a rash of small blisters (vesicles) on one side of his back. You think he likely has shingles, caused by varicella-zoster virus (VZV), a double-stranded DNA virus that belongs to the Herpesviridae family. You explain this to your patient, who asks you to please give him an antibiotic for his infection. You tell him an antibiotic will not help him, and give him information on virus infections and their treatment. Viruses are completely unaffected by antibiotics because: A) they rely almost completely on the host cell's metabolic machinery for their replication, making it difficult to find a target for selective toxicity. B) they have no cell wall, ribosomes, or any other structure targeted by antibiotics. C) they rely almost completely on the host cell's metabolic machinery for their replication, making it difficult to find a target for selective toxicity AND most viruses are innately resistant to broad- and narrow-spectrum antibiotics. D) They have no cell wall, ribosomes, or any other structure targeted by antibiotics AND they rely almost completely on the host cell's metabolic machinery for their replication, making it difficult to find a target for selective toxicity. E) most viruses are innately resistant to broad- and narrow-spectrum antibiotics.

D) They have no cell wall, ribosomes, or any other structure targeted by antibiotics AND they rely almost completely on the host cell's metabolic machinery for their replication, making it difficult to find a target for selective toxicity.

Which of the following is NOT true about the role normal microbiota plays in maintaining host health? A) They provide a surface that is incompatible for attachment of an invader. B) They establish competition for nutrients and vitamins. C) They produce antimicrobial substances. D) They inhibit the innate immune system. E) All of the choices are true.

D) They inhibit the innate immune system. Normal microbiota so I bet the adaptive immune system has a tolerance to them unless they get out of line.

Which of the following statements about the members of the Kingdom Plantae is false? A) They are multicellular. B) They have eukaryotic cells. C) They can photosynthesize. D) They use organic carbon sources. E) They use inorganic energy sources.

D) They use organic carbon sources.

Which of the following statements is NOT a reason why fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) has become a valuable tool for environmental microbiologists? A) It allows for detection of uncultured microbes. B) It demonstrates the diversity of microbes in an environment. C) It allows observation of microbes in their natural environment in association with other microbes. D) To obtain pure cultures of microbes. E) All of the above.

D) To obtain pure cultures of microbes.

You are a newly qualified RN and have just been employed at your first job at a state hospital. Before you start your work with patients, you are required to complete a refresher course on nosocomial infections. You are asked to watch a short video and are then asked a series of questions, which are given below. You are somewhat nervous but need not be because you understand the risks of these infections and you know how they can be avoided. You answer the questions are directed. The organisms that cause healthcare-associated infections can originate from a number of different sources, including other patients, the healthcare environment, healthcare workers, visitors, and the patient's own microbiota. Select the INCORRECT statement. A) P. aeruginosa is resistant to many disinfectants and antimicrobial medications, and requires few nutrients, which enables it to multiply in environments containing little other than water. B) A healthcare worker who is an asymptomatic carrier of a pathogen such as Staphylococcus aureus may inadvertently infect patients; sometimes personnel do not realize that they pose a risk to patients until they are implicated in an outbreak. C) Nearly any invasive procedure can transmit organisms of a patient's normal microbiota to otherwise sterile body sites—for example, skin microbiota such as Staphylococcus epidermidis may gain access to the bloodstream. D) Transmission of HAI-causing infectious agents may be direct through contact with others, including healthcare personnel. However, indirect transmission almost never occurs in hospitals because they are a sterile environment. E) Healthcare personnel should routinely wash or disinfect their hands after touching one patient before going to the next. They should also wear gloves when they have contact with patient's blood, mucous membranes, broken skin, or body fluids.

D) Transmission of HAI-causing infectious agents may be direct through contact with others, including healthcare personnel. However, indirect transmission almost never occurs in hospitals because they are a sterile environment.

Which of the following is NOT a likely reason why diseases caused by opportunists are becoming more frequent in the U.S. population? A) People with impaired immune systems such as those with HIV disease survive longer due to more effective therapies, but this gives them a longer period of time to be infected by opportunists. B) People in the U.S. are living longer than ever before, but they're living with a number of chronic health issues that can impair the immune system. This leads to a greater likelihood of opportunistic infections. C) Cancer treatments have improved significantly in the last 30 years, but they often suppress the immune system. This leads to a greater likelihood of opportunistic infections in people receiving these treatments. D) Travel into and out of the U.S. has increased significantly. This has the potential to bring in many new pathogens that can cause infections, even in otherwise healthy and immunocompetent individuals. E) People in the U.S. are living longer than ever before, but their immune systems decline with age. This leads to a greater likelihood of opportunistic infections, especially if they receive any kind of invasive procedure.

D) Travel into and out of the U.S. has increased significantly. This has the potential to bring in many new pathogens that can cause infections, even in otherwise healthy and immunocompetent individuals.

The World Health Organization (WHO) is part of the: A) Food and Drug Administration. B) Department of Health and Human Services. C) Department of Human Resources. D) United Nations. E) North Atlantic Treaty Organization.

D) United Nations. I think it says that the WHO has 193 member states. A,B,C are either just US or not right. North Atlantic is too limiting.

Which of the following statements is NOT a reason for classifying viruses in the three domains rather than in a fourth domain? A) Some viruses can incorporate their genome into a host's genome. B) Viruses direct anabolic pathways of host cells. C) Viruses are obligate parasites. D) Viruses are not composed of cells. E) None of the above.

D) Viruses are not composed of cells.

What is apoptosis? A) a form of programmed cell death AND results specifically in T cell death B) induced in target cells by effector T cytotoxic cells AND results specifically in T cell death C) results specifically in T cell death AND refers to the transformation of B cells into plasma cells D) a form of programmed cell death AND is induced in target cells by effector T cytotoxic cells E) refers to the transformation of B cells into plasma cells

D) a form of programmed cell death AND is induced in target cells by effector T cytotoxic cells

Precipitation occurs when: A) antigen combines with antigen at optimal proportions. B) antibody combines with antibody at optimal proportions. C) antibody combines with complement at optimal proportions. D) antibody combines with antigen at optimal proportions. E) antigen combines with complement at optimal proportions.

D) antibody combines with antigen at optimal proportions. - zone of optimal proportion is where the concentration of each antibody and antigen are right to form percipitate.

Transmission-Based Precautions: A) is an online informative course all health workers must take on an annual basis. B) are guidelines from WHO for dealing with emerging infectious diseases. C) are instructions on the care of all patients given to nurses at their place of employment. D) are guidelines to use with patients infected with a highly transmissible or epidemiologically important pathogen. E) are guidelines given to patients before they enter the hospital to educate them on HAIs.

D) are guidelines to use with patients infected with a highly transmissible or epidemiologically important pathogen.

Gonorrhea is a disease that may be: A) zoonotic. B) pandemic. C) syndemic. D) asymptomatic. E) All of the answer choices are correct.

D) asymptomatic. About 50% of infected women have no symptoms.

The suffix -emia means in the: A) body. B) lymph. C) interstitial fluid. D) blood. E) cerebrospinal fluid.

D) blood. - toxemia - toxins in the blood - bacteremia - bacteria in the blood - viremia - viruses in the blood - septicemia or sepsis = acute, life-threatening illness caused by infectious agents or products in the bloodstream. slide 25

Helper T cells: A. Secrete antibodies B. Directly destroy target cells C. Function in allergic reactions D. Suppress immune reactions E. Activate B cells, macrophages, and assist other T cells

E. Activate B cells, macrophages, and assist other T cells Got this right

Most bacteria, as well as all fungi and protozoa, are A) chemolithtrophs B) photoautotrophs C) photoheterotrophs D) chemoheterotrophs E) chemoautotrophs

D) chemoheterotrophs "Chemoheterotroph" is the term for an organism which derives its energy from chemicals, and needs to consume other organisms in order to live. - people are chemoheterotrophs. - Animals, most bacteria, fungi, and protozoa are chemoheterotrophs.

Patch tests are used to detect: A) hives. B) serum sickness. C) immune complexes. D) contact hypersensitivity. E) Arthus reaction.

D) contact hypersensitivity. Against skin under bandaids, rxn peaks in a couple days - Type IV.

When an infectious disease cannot spread in a population because it lacks a significant number of susceptible hosts, the phenomenon is referred to as: A) protected population. B) active immunity. C) passive immunity. D) herd immunity. E) protective immunity.

D) herd immunity. Need upwards of 90% of the population to be immune to protect those who aren't.

The first identified case in an outbreak is called the: A) starter case. B) traceable case. C) primary case. D) index case. E) initiator case.

D) index case. Learned this term in relation to the first stick on the epi curve of a propagated epidemic where it starts with one person who infects a few more who go out and infect a few more each...

After a long cold winter, you are looking forward to spring semester, when you will complete your nursing degree. The only thing that concerns you is the allergies that hit you in April/May every year, exactly when you will be taking your final exams. Your roommate is currently taking microbiology, so you decide to review what you know about hypersensitivity with him. Your allergies are so bad every year that you finally decide that you are going to go for desensitization treatments. These treatments A) involve getting concentrated shots of allergen that causes the immune system to produce IgM against it. When exposed to the allergen again, the IgM antibodies bind to it, coating it and preventing it from cross-linking bound IgE on T cells. B) involve you sitting in a room into which ragweed pollen will be introduced via the air system. This will force your immune system to recognize the allergen as "friendly" and stop reacting to it by causing basophils to degranulate. C) include receiving increasingly high doses of antihistamine so that a maximum level is reached on your blood stream. The antihistamines will neutralize the allergen by binding to it before it has the opportunity to bind to basophil-bound IgE. D) involve getting shots of very dilute allergen that causes the immune system to produce IgG against it. When exposed to the allergen again, the IgG antibodies bind to it, coating it and preventing it from cross-linking bound IgE on mast cells or basophils. E) involves recombinant humanized monoclonal antibodies (rhuMabs). These will bind to and neutralize the IgA made on on first exposure to ragweed pollen, and prevent your B cells from undergoing class switching.

D) involve getting shots of very dilute allergen that causes the immune system to produce IgG against it. When exposed to the allergen again, the IgG antibodies bind to it, coating it and preventing it from cross-linking bound IgE on mast cells or basophils

Your father has just been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. He has pain and the sensation of "pins and needles" in some if his finger joints and also in his wrists. He knows you covered autoimmune diseases in your microbiology class, so asks you to help him understand his condition. You In an effort to help your father understand his symptoms, you tell him that RA A) is a localized disease, affecting only a single joint, usually the left knee. B) occurs when B cells infiltrate the joints and, when stimulated by specific antigens, release cytokines that cause inflammation. C) is one of the most rarest autoimmune diseases, and unlike arthritis that arises from wear and tear of joints, only occurs later in life. D) is characterized by joint damage that results when antibodies to tissue in the joints form immune complexes characteristic of type III hypersensitivity. E) is a condition in which cells called cytotoxic T cells release antibodies that target connective tissues, most often within joints.

D) is characterized by joint damage that results when antibodies to tissue in the joints form immune complexes characteristic of type III hypersensitivity.

The best way to speed up recovery from a common cold is: A) to dose the patient with ibuprofen to keep the fever down. Reducing fever speeds up recovery. B) to take decongestants as a means of alleviating the symptoms of the cold. C) to take 1,000 mg of vitamin C every day during the illness. Vitamin C destroys cold viruses. D) let the immune system do its job. Several of the treatments listed may actually increase the recovery time. E) take an antibiotic such as penicillin that will rid the body of the cold virus.

D) let the immune system do its job. Several of the treatments listed may actually increase the recovery time.

To produce an allergic reaction in Type I hypersensitivity, the antigen: A) must bind to mast cells. B) must bind to free IgE molecules. C) must just bind to IgE on mast cells. D) must bind to two neighboring IgE molecules on mast cells, crosslinking them. E) must bind to two neighboring IgM molecules on mast cells, crosslinking them.

D) must bind to two neighboring IgE molecules on mast cells, crosslinking them. - it's the crosslinking that triggers degranulation.

The symbiotic relationship wherein both partners benefit is termed: A) commensalism. B) parasitism. C) independence. D) mutualism. E) dysbiosis.

D) mutualism.

53. Which of the following is not used as an antiseptic? A. iodophor B. chlorhexidine C. 3% hydrogen peroxide D. betadine (povidone-iodine) E. glutaraldehyde

E. glutaraldehyde

The length of the incubation period depends on a variety of factors, including: A) the growth rate of the pathogen AND environmental conditions. B) the host's condition AND the carrier's vaccination status. C) number of infectious cells or virions encountered AND the host's condition. D) number of infectious cells or virions encountered, the host's condition, AND the growth rate of the pathogen. E) the growth rate of the pathogen only.

D) number of infectious cells or virions encountered, the host's condition, AND the growth rate of the pathogen.

The first step for directly linking a microbe to a specific disease according to Koch's postulates is to: A) compare the blood of a sick animal to blood obtained from a healthy animal. B) isolate microbes from the blood of healthy animals. C) inject a sample of blood or other body fluid from a diseased animal into a healthy animal. D) obtain a sample of blood or other body fluid from a diseased animal. E) culture the blood or other body fluid from a diseased animal using nutrient medium.

D) obtain a sample of blood or other body fluid from a diseased animal. From this list the order would be: D,E,C,A,B - I think. :)

The variable region of an antibody occurs: A) only on the heavy chains. B) only on the light chains. C) on one of the light chains. D) on all four chains. E) at the hinge region only.

D) on all four chains.

A disease-causing microorganism or virus is referred to as a(n): A) avirulent infection. B) colony. C) commensal. D) pathogen. E) virulent.

D) pathogen. Pathogenicity = ability to cause disease Virulence = the ability of an agent of infection to produce disease. The virulence of a microorganism is a measure of the severity of the disease it causes.

Most cases of generalized anaphylaxis are a result of: A) fire ant stings and bites. B) aspirin and heparin. C) bananas and strawberries. D) peanuts, bee stings, or penicillin injections. E) All of these.

D) peanuts, bee stings, or penicillin injections. - penicillin is a hapten - pairs with a protein to create a hapten:protein complex that the immune system can see.

As a school RN, you sometimes see students who came to school feeling well but start to feel ill during the course of the school day. Jay comes to you complaining of abdominal pain and chills. You take his temperature and find that it is 38.2oC. While you are examining him, he confides that directly before he came to see you, he went to the bathroom and had diarrhea. He tells you that he and his family went out for dinner the night before and that he had been feeling completely fine until a couple of hours ago. You think that Jay may have a Salmonella infection. Although a person's normal gastrointestinal microbiota protects them from pathogenic infections, in this case, Jay has contracted the disease. You explain to Jay the role his normal microbiota plays in excluding pathogens, including: A) covering binding sites that might otherwise be used for attachment by a pathogen B) consuming available nutrients (thus "starving") the pathogen AND reducing water and oxygen availability in their immediate environment C) producing compounds toxic to other bacteria AND phagocytizing any incoming pathogenic cells D) producing compounds toxic to other bacteria, consuming available nutrients (thus "starving" the pathogen) AND covering binding sites that might otherwise be used for attachment by a pathogen. E) producing compounds toxic to other bacteria, secreting carbohydrate "traps" that catch foreign bacteria AND phagocytizing any incoming pathogenic cells

D) producing compounds toxic to other bacteria, consuming available nutrients (thus "starving" the pathogen) AND covering binding sites that might otherwise be used for attachment by a pathogen.

The Salk polio vaccine: A) protects against nervous system and gastrointestinal infection. B) protects only against gastrointestinal infection. C) is a subunit vaccine. D) protects only against nervous system infection. E) protects against nervous system and gastrointestinal infection AND is a subunit vaccine.

D) protects only against nervous system infection. Poliomyelitis virus gets in through the mouth, infects cells lining throat and GI tract, invades bloodstream and then goes to NERVE CELLS and causes the disease poliomyelitis. Salk virus lowers the rate of disease - which is at he NERVE CELLS. - later Sabin vaccine provides mucosal immunity (secretory IgA response) starting at mouth level - provides better herd immunity.

Women died after childbirth of: A) S. aureus intoxication. B) toxic shock syndrome. C) Klein's disease. D) puerperal fever. E) shock.

D) puerperal fever. Another name for childbed fever is: puerperal fever.

Disease(s) in which the causative agent becomes latent is/are: A) cold sores AND influenza. B) genital herpes AND pneumonia. C) chickenpox AND influenza. D) shingles, genital herpes, AND cold sores. E) shingles, genital herpes, AND common colds.

D) shingles, genital herpes, AND cold sores. Infection can cause ACUTE, CHRONIC and LATENT disease. Some cause more than one.

A young couple brings their 3-month old baby to the emergency department where you work as a triage nurse. The parents tell you that the baby had a runny nose, low grade fever, and mild cough two days earlier, which they assumed was a cold. However, the cough has become significantly worse and they are really worried about the gasping sound the child makes when breathing in after a coughing spell. The baby's cough is so bad that she has been vomiting and is refusing to feed. You are concerned that the baby has pertussis, commonly known as whooping cough. You give the parents some information while they are waiting for a physician to examine their child. You examine the baby thoroughly, telling the parents that you need to record all signs and symptoms for your report to the clinician who will also assess the baby. The parents tell you they know what symptoms are but they don't know what you mean by signs. You tell them that: A) symptoms are objective and can be measured (such as fever) while signs are subjective and cannot be measured (such as pain). B) signs are objective and can be measured (such as pain) while symptoms are subjective and cannot be measured (such as a rash). C) symptoms are objective and can be measured (such as pain) while signs are subjective and cannot be measured (such as a rash). D) signs are objective and can be measured (such as fever) while symptoms are subjective and cannot be measured (such as nausea). E) signs and symptoms mean the same thing, and can be used interchangeably.

D) signs are objective and can be measured (such as fever) while symptoms are subjective and cannot be measured (such as nausea).

Mycoplasma pneumoniae: A. does not cause pneumonia despite its name. B. causes pneumonia more often than Streptococcus pneumoniae. C. causes pneumonia only in conjunction with viral activity. D. is one of the causes of atypical pneumonia.

D. is one of the causes of atypical pneumonia.

Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by the diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae, commonly called gonococcus (GC). This organism developed resistance to penicillin and tetracycline in the 1980s, after which fluoroquinolones were the recommended drugs for treating GC. Subsequent resistance to the fluoroquinolones has led to the current recommended treatment of injected ceftriaxone in combination with oral azithromycin. Although this approach continues to be effective, recent data from the CDC indicates that resistance to azithromycin is emerging. Penicillin is a(n): A) β-lactam antibiotic and has a low therapeutic index, meaning that it is of high toxicity to the host. B) carbapenam and is thus resistant to extended spectrum β-lactamases. C) glycopeptide antibiotic and is thus used as an antibiotic of last resort. D) β-lactam antibiotic and has a high therapeutic index, meaning that it is of low toxicity to the host. E) aminoglycoside and may sometimes cause kidney damage.

D) β-lactam antibiotic and has a high therapeutic index, meaning that it is of low toxicity to the host.

In the malaria parasite life cycle, humans are the ________ host, while mosquitoes are the ________ host as well as the vector. A-vector, intermediate B-intermediate, intermediate C-temporary, final D-intermediate, definitive E-definitive, intermediate

D-intermediate, definitive The parasite which causes malaria (called Plasmodium) requires two different hosts—a vertebrate intermediate host, such as a human, and an insect definitive host, also known as the vector. For the types of malaria which infect humans and other mammals, the vector is always a mosquito of the genus Anopheles.

Which of the rRNA molecules has proven the most useful in taxonomy/identification? A. 70S B. 23S C. 80S D. 16S E. 5S

D. 16S

Beta-hemolytic group A streptococci are responsible for _________. A. rheumatic fever B. necrotizing fasciitis C. pharyngitis D. All of the choices are correct.

D. All of the choices are correct.

Serological methods A. are useful in identifying unknown bacterium. B. rely on the specificity of an antibody-antigen interaction. C. may be simple and rapid. D. All of the choices are correct.

D. All of the choices are correct.

Which of the following pairs is INCORRECT? A. Therapeutic index - measure of the relative toxicity of a medication B. Short half-life - medication needs to be taken relatively frequently C. 70S ribosome - target of some antibacterial medications D. Broad spectrum - an organism that is susceptible to a wide range of medications E. Bacteriostatic - inhibits growth of bacteria

D. Broad spectrum - an organism that is susceptible to a wide range of medications

In 1970 Stanier proposed that classification be based on A. evolution. B. Gram stain. C. physiology. D. DNA sequence.

D. DNA sequence.

Which plant has been used to deliver vaccine? A. peanuts B. lima beans C. spinach D. potatoes

D. Potatoes

Plasma cells: A. Function in cell-mediated immunity B. Are derived from T-lymphocytes C. Function in blood clotting D. Produce and secrete antibodies E. All of the choices are correct

D. Produce and secrete antibodies Got this right

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A. Hemolysins and damage to red blood cells B. Capsules and antiphagocytic factor C. Slime layer and adherence to substrate D. Streptolysin O and hydrolysis of phospholipids E. Leukocidins and damage to white blood cells

D. Streptolysin O and hydrolysis of phospholipids Got this right

51. All of the following disrupt the cytoplasmic membrane except A. detergents. B. quaternary ammonium compounds. C. high concentration phenols. D. iodine.

D. iodine

Purple nonsulfur bacteria (energy source + carbon source)

D. Uses light energy and uses organic compounds

The attraction of leukocytes to the area on inflammation is referred to as: A. parasitism. B. infection. C. phototaxis. D. chemotaxis.

D. chemotaxis - see in Ch 16 - C5a is a chemoattractant for phagocytes like macrophages.

19. Surfactants work by A. coating the organism, preventing interaction with its environment. B. blocking transport into the organism. C. blocking transport out from the organism. D. disrupting membrane integrity. E. All of the choices are correct.

D. disrupting membrane integrity

Methanogens often grow in association with: A. nitrifying bacteria. B. lithotrophic bacteria. C. photosynthetic bacteria. D. fermentative bacteria.

D. fermentative bacteria. (someone else said: chemoorganotrophs)

43. _____ is a control method that removes microorganisms rather than inhibiting or killing them. A. Boiling B. Sterilization C. Radiation D. Filtration E. Disinfection

D. filtration

Anti-human-gamma-globulin antiserum is often used in: A. direct fluorescent antibody tests. B. complement fixation test. C. radioimmunoassay. D. indirect fluorescent antibody tests.

D. indirect fluorescent antibody tests.

"Clonal selection" and "clonal expansion": A) imply that each individual lymphocyte produces a single antibody. B) describe how a single lymphocyte proliferates in a population of effector cells. C) depend on an antibody recognizing a specific epitope. D) explain how an antigen stimulates the production of matching antibodies. E) All of the answer choices are correct.

A scientist reports the isolation of a new blood-borne virus that completely shuts down presentation of viral epitopes on MHC molecules in thecells it infects.He producesan internet video describing the virus, claiming it will be indestructible by CD8+ cytotoxic T cells and will kill millions of people. The medical community quickly denounces the warning as irrelevant, and the whole thing is quickly forgotten. Why? A) CD8+ T cells are not the cells that are responsible for killing virally infected cells. The scientist has confused the information. The medical community denounces the information so that people are not unnecessarily alarmed by the video. B) While CD8+ T cells ARE important for eliminating a viral infection, they are not the ONLY things that can do so. Natural killer cells can kill virally infected cells that have shut down MHC antigen presentation, and interferons can assist in cleaning virally infected cells. C) A blood-borne virus would not be capable of rapidly infecting millions of people, due to its difficult mode of transmission AND CD8+ T cells are not the cells that are responsible for killing virally infected cells. The scientist has confused the information. The medical community denounces the information so that people are not unnecessarily alarmed. D) B cells would be primed right away to produce complement proteins to destroy the virus. This would prevent cells from being infected with it in the first place. The medical community denounces the scientist's video to prevent people from becoming alarmed. E) While CD8+ T cells ARE important for eliminating a viral infection, they are not the ONLY things that are capable of doing so. Natural killer cells can kill virally infected cells that have shut down MHC antigen presentation, and interferons can assist in cleaning virally infected cells AND a blood-borne virus would not be capable of rapidly infecting millions of people, due to its difficult mode of transmission.

An ideal vector A. may be a plasmid or bacteriophage. B. has multiple restriction enzyme recognition sites. C. contains an origin of replication. D. contains a selectable marker. E. All of the choices are correct.

In order to get around the lack of ability of prokaryotes to remove introns from precursor RNA, it may be necessary to A. use different promoters. B. use the DNA after it has been processed. C. use the DNA directly. D. use the DNA directly AND use the DNA after it has been processed. E. turn mRNA into cDNA.

PCR is particularly useful in A. detecting viable yet non-culturable organisms. B. assessing impure (multiple types of bacteria present) samples. C. dealing with very small numbers of bacteria. D. relatively quickly producing results. E. All of the choices are correct.

Stem cells: A) have an almost unlimited capacity to divide. B) can differentiate into different tissues. C) may be used to test the effects of drugs on human cells. D) come from fetal material. E) All of the answer choices are correct.

When enzyme action stops due to a buildup of end product this control is called: A. negative feedback B. competitive inhibition C. enzyme induction D. enzyme repression E. none of the choices are correct

Why is it a good idea for a bacterial cell to be able to utilize glucose FIRST as an energy source (until it is used up), THEN switch to lactose? A. Glucose provides 10 times as much energy when broken down as lactose B. Glucose is an easier compound to break down and obtain energy from than lactose C. Lactose cannot be used by bacterial cells as an energy source D. It's about conservation of energy; bacteria will not expand the energy to make the extra enzymes for breaking down lactose if glucose is available and the extra breakdown enzymes are not needed E. Glucose is an easier compound to break down and obtain energy from than lactose AND it's about conservation of energy-why expend the energy to make the extra enzymes for breaking down lactose when glucose is right there and doesn't need extra enzymes for breakdown

You describe for your patient the sequence of events that occurs when a B cell is activated. Please select the correct order of statements. 1. TH cells recognize the presented antigen-MHC complex on the B cell and bind to it. 2. B cell receptor binds to an antigen and the antigen is internalized by endocytosis. 3. The bound TH delivers cytokines to the B cell that initiate the process of clonal expansion of that particular B cell. 4. The antigen is degraded and peptide fragments are expressed at the B cell membrane with MHC class II molecules. A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 4, 3, 1, 2 C) 1, 3, 2, 4 D) 2, 3, 1, 4 E) 2, 4, 1, 3

The Ames test is useful as a rapid screening test to identify those compounds that: A. will respond to chemical agents. B. will respond to chemical agents AND will protect an organism from cancer. C. will protect an organism from cancer. D. respond to the deletion of DNAses. E.have a high probability of being carcinogenic.

E - Ames test is about identifying if a chemical is a mutagen. Some can become carcinogenic in the body when they come into contact with animal enzymes so rat liver extract is added to check. E is the only one in that ball park or that made any sense.

Endospores: A. are a form of sexual reproduction. B. are involved in anaerobic respiration. C. are a dominant form of a bacterium. D. are formed by members of medically relevant groups of fungi. E.are a dormant form of a bacterium formed by members of medically relevant groups of bacteria.

E - Genus Bacillus and Clostridium - dormant form and Clostridium is responsible for many medical issues like botulism, gangrene, tetnus. Also, not fungi - are BACTERIA.

The specific sequence of nucleotides in the DNA to which the RNA polymerase binds is the: A.sigma region. B.signal sequence. C.core region. D.regulatory region. E.promoter region.

E - RNA polymerase binds to the promoter on DNA for transcription. It is upstream of the operator that a repressor can bind to/release to regulate transcription.

Planar molecules used as chemical mutagens are called: A. nitrous oxides. B. alkylating agents. C. base analogs. D. intercalating agents.

E - example is ethidium bromide that is used in gel electrophoresis - It is used because upon binding of the molecule to the DNA and illumination with a UV light source, the DNA banding pattern can be visualized. - alkylating agents are the most common chemical mutagens.

Coliforms: A. are an informal grouping of enterics. B. ferment lactose. C. includes E. coli. D. are used as indicators of fecal contamination. E. All of the choices are correct.

E - the enterics are FERMENTORS.

Immunotherapy is the: A. Use of antitoxins B. Use of immune serum globulin C. Conferring of passive immunity D. Administering of preformed antibodies E. All of the choices are correct

E Got this right

Titer is the amount of: A. Complement in serum B. Memory cells in serum C. WBC in serum D. Antigen in serum E. Antibody in serum

E Got this right

Anti-A and anti-B antibodies: A) are considered natural antibodies. B) are present at birth. C) are typically IgM. D) easily cross the placenta. E) are considered natural antibodies AND are typically IgM.

E - We don't have them at birth (shocker!) and start making them in the first 6 months.

Which of the following is NOT true about HIV? A) It leads to development of AIDS. B) It is a retrovirus virus. C) It destroys T helper cells. D) It makes the patient vulnerable to infections. E) It is a dsDNA virus.

E - retrovirus - RNA virus

Movement of spirochetes occurs by means of structures called: A. cilia. B. flagella. C. pili. D. pseudopods. E. axial filaments.

E - also called endoflagella - Any of a series of flagella, wound around spirochetes, that form an axial filament.

In Figure 10.1, the closest ancestor for both species "a." and species "b." would be A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

E) 5

Please select the correct definition of balanced pathogenicity. A) A host-parasite relationship in which the parasite persists in the host, causing maximal harm. The pathogen becomes more virulent while the host becomes increasingly susceptible. B) A generated balance in the microbiome that may be caused by taking antimicrobial medications. It generally helps the host maintain optimal health. C) A mechanism that allows bacteria to transfer gene products directly into host cells, inducing changes such as altering the cell's cytoskeleton structure. D) A situation in which an abnormally high number of TH cells (effector helper T cells) are stimulated, causing a massive release of cytokines (a "cytokine storm"). E) A host-parasite relationship in which the parasite persists in the host while causing minimal harm. The pathogen becomes less virulent while the host becomes less susceptible.

E) A host-parasite relationship in which the parasite persists in the host while causing minimal harm. The pathogen becomes less virulent while the host becomes less susceptible.

Which of the following is NOT an example of an inactivated vaccine? A) Toxoid vaccines B) Subunit vaccines C) Conjugate vaccines D) Virus-like particles E) Adjuvants

E) Adjuvants

Newborn babies acquire microbiota: A) when passing through the birth canal. B) through breastfeeding. C) by contact with the mother's skin. D) from the environment. E) All of the above are a source of microbiota.

E) All of the above are a source of microbiota. Babies born via C-section are exposed to different microorganisms than those born vaginally. slide 14

E) All of the answer choices are correct.

Regarding Louis Pasteur's experiments with the S-neck flask, which of the following statements is TRUE? A) The possibility of contamination was removed. B) All preexisting microorganisms were killed. C) A food source was provided. D) Air exchange was involved. E) All of the answers are correct.

E) All of the answers are correct.

Colonization of the body is inhibited by: A) the shedding of skin cells. B) the movement of mucus by cilia. C) peristalsis in the digestive tract. D) the flushing action of the urinary tract. E) All of the choices are correct.

E) All of the choices are correct.

Immunodiffusion tests: A) allow detection of specific antigens. B) are a simple method that produces visible results in the zone of optimal proportion. C) allow quantitation of antigen concentrations. D) None of the choices is correct. E) All of the choices are correct.

E) All of the choices are correct.

The composition of the normal microbiota may be affected by: A) hormonal changes. B) use of antibiotics. C) obesity level. D) diet. E) All of the choices are correct.

E) All of the choices are correct.

Which of the following contributes to nosocomial disease? A) Susceptible population B) Hospital environment C) Other patients D) Patient's own normal microbiota E) All of the choices are correct.

E) All of the choices are correct.

Which is true of hantavirus? A) It is a zoonosis involving mice. B) It has three segments of single-stranded RNA. C) The primary effect is to flood the lungs with fluid. D) Shock and death occur in 30% of the cases. E) All of the choices are correct.

E) All of the choices are correct. Caused by hantaviruses of bunyavirus family • Enveloped; ssRNA genome in three segments • Each type infects rodent species; harmless to them • Inflammatory response to viral antigen causes capillaries to leak plasma into lungs, suffocating patient, causing blood pressure to fall • Shock and death occur in more than 40% of cases (text = 30%)

Since many childhood diseases such as mumps and measles are rare now within the United States, why is it still important for children to be immunized against them? A) If we lose herd immunity by removing mandatory vaccination, our population will become susceptible to these illnesses again in a short period of time. B) There is always the likelihood that an individual from another country could import one of these illnesses into the United States, sparking an outbreak of new infections, if we aren't all properly vaccinated. C) By keeping the population vaccinated, we keep incidence rates of these illnesses very low. This helps to protect people that cannot be vaccinated (very young children, pregnant women, immunocompromised individuals, the elderly). D) Many of these diseases are HIGHLY contagious, and commonly through respiratory droplet (airborne) transmission. This makes an outbreak within a susceptible population very possible. Keeping the population resistant through mandatory vaccination prevents this possibility. E) All of the options are correct.

E) All of the options are correct.

65) Multiple myeloma is a plasma cell tumor in which a clone of malignant plasma cells produces large amounts of immunoglobulin. With all this excess immunoglobulin, how can a person with multiple myeloma be immunodeficient? A) All the immunoglobulin produced is most likely specific to one antigen. This limits the ability to respond to the diversity of antigens we encounter. B) The multiplication of the malignant plasma cells may crowd out normal production of other immune cells required for protective responses. C) The massive overproduction of immunoglobulin impairs the kidneys, preventing production of the correct hormones from the kidneys to balance immune system cell production from the bone marrow. D) Through a negative feedback loop, the large amount of immunoglobulin tricks the immune system into thinking it's making a strong response that is needed. As such, it shuts down production of other responses that might truly BE needed to fight off a pathogen. E) All the immunoglobulin produced is most likely specific to one antigen. This limits the ability to respond to the diversity of antigens we encounter AND the multiplication of the malignant plasma cells may crowd out normal production of other immune cells required for protective responses.

E) All the immunoglobulin produced is most likely specific to one antigen. This limits the ability to respond to the diversity of antigens we encounter AND the multiplication of the malignant plasma cells may crowd out normal production of other immune cells required for protective responses.

Home-canned foods should be boiled before consumption to prevent botulism. Considering that this treatment does NOT destroy endospores, why would it be helpful in preventing the disease? A) Because it would destroy the vegetative cells, and only the vegetative cells cause the disease. B) Because it would at least weaken the endospores, making them more susceptible to elimination by our immune system. C) Because the heat would denature the botulism endotoxin and inactivate it. The endotoxin is what leads to the disease symptoms, so this would make the food safer. D) Because although botulism exotoxin is harmless, it has a bad odor and boiling removes this, making the food more appealing to eat. E) Because the heat would denature the botulism exotoxin and inactivate it. The exotoxin is what leads to the disease symptoms, so this would make the food safer.

E) Because the heat would denature the botulism exotoxin and inactivate it. The exotoxin is what leads to the disease symptoms, so this would make the food safer.

Select the INCORRECT definition regarding the progression of an infectious disease. A) Illness phase—period of time during which symptoms and signs of disease occur. B) Incubation period—interval between the entrance of a pathogen into a susceptible host and the onset of illness caused by that pathogen. C) Prodromal period—a period of early, vague symptoms indicating the onset of a disease. D) Period of convalescence—period of recuperation and recovery from an illness. E) Carrier phase—period in which a pathogen is harbored without noticeable ill effects, but may be transmitted to other hosts.

E) Carrier phase—period in which a pathogen is harbored without noticeable ill effects, but may be transmitted to other hosts. There are carriers but NO carrier phase.

Which of the following provides taxonomic information that includes the others? A) Nucleic acid hybridization B) Nucleic acid-base composition C) Amino acid sequencing D) Biochemical tests E) Cladogram

E) Cladogram

All of the following are commonly associated with nosocomial disease EXCEPT: A) Enterococcus species. B) Clostridium difficile. C) Pseudomonas species. D) Staphylococcus aureus. E) Clostridium botulinum.

E) Clostridium botulinum. Think canned food.

Which of the following have been an effective immunosuppressant for use in transplantation? A) Amphotericin B and cephalosporin B) Amphotericin B and cyclosporin A C) Amphotericin B and tacrolimus D) Cephalosporin and tacrolimus E) Cyclosporin A and tacrolimus

E) Cyclosporin A and tacrolimus Cyclosporin A is made by a fungus and tacromilus is from a species of Streptomyces

Which of the following drugs does NOT target peptidoglycan? A) Penicillin B) Cephalosporin C) Vancomycin D) Bacitracin E) Doxycycline

E) Doxycycline

Which pathogen is INCORRECTLY matched with a portal of exit? A) Influenza virus—respiratory droplets. B) Vibrio cholerae—feces. C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis—droplets of saliva and mucus. D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae—urethral and vaginal secretions. E) E. coli—urine.

E) E. coli—urine. E. coli is an enteric - it lives in guts and leaves in feces.

Which of the following is recommended by the Standard Precautions guidelines? A) Glove use AND hand washing B) Hand washing AND a face shield C) A face shield AND antibiotics D) Antibiotic use AND glove use E) Glove use, hand washing, AND a face shield

E) Glove use, hand washing, AND a face shield

Which test is used to determine the susceptibility of a microorganism to an antimicrobial? A) Minimum inhibitory concentration B) Minimum bactericidal concentration C) Minimally-lethal dose D) Antibiotic stimulating zone test E) Kirby-Bauer test

E) Kirby-Bauer test

Which is involved in reacting to virus-infected cells? A) B cells AND cell-mediated immunity B) MHC class II molecules, B cells AND cytotoxic T cells C) B cells, leukocytes AND MHC class II molecules D) MHC class I molecules, helper T cells AND humoral immunity E) MHC class I molecules, cell-mediated immunity AND cytotoxic T cells

E) MHC class I molecules, cell-mediated immunity AND cytotoxic T cells

Data collected to date indicate that A) Humans and marine mammals cannot be infected by the same pathogens. B) Marine mammals do not get infectious diseases. C) New species of bacteria may be discovered in wild animals. D) Marine mammals don't have an immune system. E) None of the above.

E) None of the above.

Mycoplasmal and Klebsiella pneumonias: A) have similar incubation periods. B) have causative agents that lack cell walls. C) are serious diseases often requiring hospitalization. D) are both relatively mild diseases. E) None of the choices is correct.

E) None of the choices is correct.

Colds are effectively treated with: A) antibiotics. B) aspirin and acetaminophen. C) proteases. D) nucleotide analogs. E) None of the choices is correct.

E) None of the choices is correct. - Viruses don't respond to antibiotics. - aspirin and APAP are about making symptoms less so the person is more comfortable No vaccines for the common cold so none of the choices are correct.

In anaerobic respiration, all of the following molecules can be used as final electron acceptors except A) SO4- B) NO3- C) H2O D) NO2- E) O2

E) O2

The term phototroph refers to an organism that A) Obtains energy by oxidizing chemical compounds B) Uses CO2 for its carbon C) Does not need a carbon source D) Must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs E) Obtains energy from sunlight

E) Obtains energy from sunlight

Which of the following is considered a zoonotic disease? A) Measles B) Typhoid C) Common cold D) Influenza E) Plague

E) Plague

Into which group would you place a photosynthetic organism that lacks a nucleus and has a thin peptidoglycan wall surrounded by an outer membrane? A) Animalia B) Fungi C) Plantae D) Firmicutes (gram-positive bacteria) E) Proteobacteria (gram-negative bacteria)

E) Proteobacteria (gram-negative bacteria)

Which of the following would NOT be considered virulence factor(s)? A) Adhesins B) Capsules C) Endotoxins D) Proteases E) Ribosomes

E) Ribosomes slide 19 - Virulence Factors = traits that allow microorganism to cause disease

As a school RN, you sometimes see students who came to school feeling well but start to feel ill during the course of the school day. Jay comes to you complaining of abdominal pain and chills. You take his temperature and find that it is 38.2oC. While you are examining him, he confides that directly before he came to see you, he went to the bathroom and had diarrhea. He tells you that he and his family went out for dinner the night before and that he had been feeling completely fine until a couple of hours ago. Finally, you use a diagram to illustrate to Jay how some pathogens avoid phagocytosis, which is part of the innate immune defense. You tell him that Salmonella is able to avoid phagocytosis by preventing formation of the phagolyososome. Which of the following is NOT a way for a pathogen to avoid phagocytosis? A) Some pathogens escape from the phagosome before it fuses with lysosomes. B) Some pathogens survive the destructive environment within the phagolysosome. C) Some pathogens avoid being recognized by phagocytes and thus avoid being engulfed by the cell. D) Some pathogens kill phagocytes, often by using toxins to form pores in their membranes. E) Some pathogens are serum-resistant, avoiding the killing effects of phagocyte complement proteins.

E) Some pathogens are serum-resistant, avoiding the killing effects of phagocyte complement proteins. - no complement proteins INSIDE phagocytes

Which of the following cause a foodborne intoxication? A) Staphylococcus aureus AND E. coli O157:H7 B) E. coli O157:H7 AND Clostridium botulinum C) Clostridium botulinum AND Mycobacterium tuberculosis D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis AND Staphylococcus aureus E) Staphylococcus aureus, E. coli O157:H7, AND Clostridium botulinum

E) Staphylococcus aureus, E. coli O157:H7, AND Clostridium botulinum - make toxins that get ingested

E) These are all steps involved in sensitization.

Your patient has brought her 2-year old in to see you because he has a bad cold. The child has leukemia and is receiving chemotherapy, and until relatively recently has been immunocompromised, although he is currently stable. You give the mother advice on what to do for her child's illness, and they leave your office. The next child you see also has the signs and symptoms of what appears to be a cold, but on further examination you discover that she has a fever of 39.8oC. She also has a rash and when you look at her throat, you notice small white spots called Koplik's spot. These are diagnostic for measles, caused by measles virus. You question the child's parent and discover that the child has not received her MMRV vaccine. You explain to the parent of the child with measles the importance of vaccinations. She responds by saying that measles, mumps, rubella, and varicella are very rare diseases in developed countries and she doesn't want her child to go through getting her shots. She worries about the safety of the MMRV vaccine. Which is the best response regarding this concern? A) These diseases are rare BECAUSE of successful vaccination BUT the pathogens still exist and with enough susceptible hosts, they can spread in a population. B) These diseases are rare BECAUSE of successful vaccination AND the MMRV vaccine is safe and does NOT cause autism. C) An immunocompromised person such as your patient with leukemia depends on others being vaccinated to remain healthy (herd immunity) AND the MMRV vaccine is safe and is NOT associated with autism. D) These diseases are rare BECAUSE of successful vaccination BUT the pathogens still exist, and with enough susceptible hosts they can spread in a population AND the MMRV vaccine is safe and does NOT cause autism. E) These diseases are rare BECAUSE of successful vaccination, but the pathogens still exist, and with enough susceptible hosts they can spread in a population. The MMRV vaccine is safe and is NOT associated with autism, and immunocompromised people who cannot receive an attenuated vaccine depend on herd immunity to remain healthy.

E) These diseases are rare BECAUSE of successful vaccination, but the pathogens still exist, and with enough susceptible hosts they can spread in a population. The MMRV vaccine is safe and is NOT associated with autism, and immunocompromised people who cannot receive an attenuated vaccine depend on herd immunity to remain healthy.

Which is true about superantigens? A) They are a type of exotoxin AND they stimulate an abnormally high number of TC cells. B) They bind to MHC class II molecules on T cells AND they are a type of endotoxin. C) They bind to MHC class II molecules on T cells AND they enhance specific antibody production. D) They are processed intracellularly AND they are a type of endotoxin. E) They are a type of exotoxin AND they bind to MHC class II molecules on T cells.

E) They are a type of exotoxin AND they bind to MHC class II molecules on T cells. - exotoxin - bind to MHC class II on APC and T-cell receptor at the same time (on Helper T cells - makes them think they recognize an antigen though they wouldn't if that superantigen wasn't there) and cause a massive release of cytokines (cytokine storm)

Droplet nuclei typically travel no farther from point of release than: A) 3 meters. B) 5 meters. C) 1 meter. D) 12 inches. E) They are suspended indefinitely.

E) They are suspended indefinitely. Some respiratory droplets hang in the air - their liquid component evaporates and the pathogen attached to dried material can hang suspended in the air indefinately = DROP NUCLEI.

Which is true of aminoglycosides? A) They are bacteriostatic AND they reversibly bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit. B) They irreversibly bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit AND they block DNA replication. C) They block peptidoglycan synthesis AND they bind to the 80S ribosomal subunit. D) They are bactericidal AND they block DNA replication. E) They irreversibly bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit AND they are bactericidal.

E) They irreversibly bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit AND they are bactericidal.

You tell the class that ELISAs and Western blots are performed in a clinic or laboratory. However, there are a variety of tests that can be performed at home. With the oral fluid antibody self-test, a person swabs their own mouth and uses a kit to test the sample. The kit looks similar to a pregnancy test. Saliva is collected on a swab which is then inserted into the "tube" containing a test strip on which certain HIV proteins are bound. The saliva moves up the test strip until it reaches two windows on the tube - one is labeled C and the other is labeled T. When the saliva reacts with the bound virus proteins, a color change is seen. Results are interpreted as follows: No color in the C window—test is not working. Color in the C window but none in the T window—negative result. Color in the C window and color in the T window—positive result. Given this information, select the FALSE statement. A) The C window is a positive control—if color appears there, it confirms that the test is working properly. B) The T window is the test window. If color appears both there and in the C window, it indicates that anti-HIV antibodies are present in the person's saliva. C) This test is an ELISA test that is used to detect antibodies in a person's saliva. D) If color appears in the T window but not in the C window, the kit is not working properly. E) This test is an ELISA test that is used to detect the presence of viral capsid proteins in a person's saliva.

E) This test is an ELISA test that is used to detect the presence of viral capsid proteins in a person's saliva.

Which of the following statements about viruses is FALSE? A) Viruses contain a protein coat. B) Viruses use the anabolic machinery of the cell. C) Viruses have genes. D) Viruses contain DNA or RNA but never both. E) Viruses use their own catabolic enzymes.

E) Viruses use their own catabolic enzymes.

Injection of a single antigen usually results in production of: A) antibody to a single epitope. B) an antibody that recognizes several epitopes. C) additional antigen. D) epitopes against that particular antigen. E) a number of antibodies each recognizing a different epitope.

E) a number of antibodies each recognizing a different epitope. - polyclonal antibodies - makes it hard to standardize expiramental results because the antibody composition will be different each time the antiserum is made.

Substances that are contained in vaccines to help induce a better immune response are called: A) primary substances. B) secondary substances. C) adjuncts. D) secondary adjuncts. E) adjuvants.

E) adjuvants. - provide the 'danger signals' to dendritic cells so they will produce the co-stimulatory signals that activate T helper cells which activate B cells.

The most common adjuvant is: A) ethanol. B) formalin. C) aluminum. D) hydroxide. E) alum.

E) alum

As a school RN, you sometimes see students who came to school feeling well but start to feel ill during the course of the school day. Jay comes to you complaining of abdominal pain and chills. You take his temperature and find that it is 38.2oC. While you are examining him, he confides that directly before he came to see you, he went to the bathroom and had diarrhea. He tells you that he and his family went out for dinner the night before and that he had been feeling completely fine until a couple of hours ago. You explain to Jay that infections and the associated diseases are often described according to the timing and duration of the symptoms. You define the different categories to him, telling him that he has A) a chronic infection, which is an infection that develops slowly and may last for months or years. B) a latent infection—the microbe causing Jay's illness will continue to exist in him, although likely without causing any symptoms. C) a localized infection, in which the microbe is limited to a small area—in Jay's case the gastrointestinal tract. D) an inopportunistic infection, because Salmonella species are part of a person's gastrointestinal normal microbiota. E) an acute infection, characterized by symptoms that develop quickly but last only a short time.

E) an acute infection, characterized by symptoms that develop quickly but last only a short time.

What comprises the humoral immune response? A) antibodies B) T cells C) B cells D) antigens E) antibodies AND B cells

E) antibodies AND B cells

penicillin binding proteins (PBPs): A) primarily function in the cell to bind to beta-lactam drugs. B) are enzymes. C) are involved in cell wall synthesis. D) inhibit non-growing bacteria. E) are enzymes AND are involved in cell wall synthesis.

E) are enzymes AND are involved in cell wall synthesis.

Antibiotics are produced by: A) bacteria. B) protozoa. C) fungi. D) viruses. E) bacteria and fungi.

E) bacteria and fungi.

Spontaneous development of resistance to a particular antimicrobial is difficult if the drug: A) targets a single type of molecule AND binds to a single site on that target molecule. B) targets several different molecules AND affects the cytoplasmic membrane. C) affects only one molecule. D) affects the cytoplasmic membrane. E) binds to several sites on the target molecule AND targets several different molecules.

E) binds to several sites on the target molecule AND targets several different molecules.

An elderly patient comes to see you complaining of a very painful rash. When he lifts his shirt, you see that he has a rash of small blisters (vesicles) on one side of his back. You think he likely has shingles, caused by varicella-zoster virus (VZV), a double-stranded DNA virus that belongs to the Herpesviridae family. You explain this to your patient, who asks you to please give him an antibiotic for his infection. You tell him an antibiotic will not help him, and give him information on virus infections and their treatment. Acyclovir interferes with viral DNA replication. Other mechanisms of antiviral medications include all of the following EXCEPT: A) preventing fusion and inhibiting viral entry into a host cell. B) interfering with viral uncoating and release of viral nucleic acid in a host cell. C) preventing the assembly viral proteins to form capsids. D) inhibition of viral particle release from host cells. E) destroying viral ribosomes and preventing protein synthesis.

E) destroying viral ribosomes and preventing protein synthesis. No viral ribosomes. Uses the host cell's, remember?

Anti-human IgG antibodies are often used in: A) direct fluorescent antibody tests, radioimmunoassay, AND direct ELISA. B) complement fixation test, radioimmunoassay, AND Western blotting. C) radioimmunoassay, indirect ELISA, AND indirect fluorescent antibody tests. D) indirect fluorescent antibody tests, complement fixation tests, AND Western blotting. E) indirect ELISA, Western blotting, AND indirect fluorescent antibody tests.

E) indirect ELISA, Western blotting, AND indirect fluorescent antibody tests. - in the indirect tests and the Western Blot there is an organism, we want to see if serum sample has antibodies to it so we add serum with antibodies in, wash, then add anti-human IgG that has been labelled to attach to any IgG attached to organism, wash and then look for the labels.

A viroid is a(n) A) complete, infectious virus particle. B) capsid without nucleic acid. C) infectious protein. D) provirus. E) infectious piece of RNA without a capsid.

E) infectious piece of RNA without a capsid. - viroid = RNA only Complete, infectious (extracellular) virus particle = Virion Infectious protein = Prion Provirus = a virus genome that is integrated into the DNA of a host cell. Talking about a bacteriophage? It's called a prophage.

Species of both Shigella and Streptococcus: A) invade host cells AND cause a rash. B) produce a toxin AND cause a rash. C) cause diarrhea AND are delivered by flea bites. D) are delivered via flea bites AND produce a toxin. E) invade host cells AND produce a toxin.

E) invade host cells AND produce a toxin. slide 27 Patterns of Pathogenesis - produce toxins that are ingested - colonize mucous membranes, produce toxins - invade host tissues, avoid defenses - invade host tissues, produce toxins

Cyclosporin A: A) is a relatively general immunosuppressive agent AND activates macrophages. B) suppresses T-cell proliferation AND activates macrophages. C) activates macrophages AND stimulates antibody production. D) stimulates antibody production AND stimulates T-cell proliferation. E) is a relatively general immunosuppressant AND suppresses T-cell proliferation.

E) is a relatively general immunosuppressant AND suppresses T-cell proliferation.

The lack of susceptibility to diseases of other species in humans may be due to the: A) lack of any cytokine production. B) presence of endotoxins. C) lack of any cytokine production AND secretion of exotoxins. D) presence of endotoxins AND secretion of exotoxins. E) lack of receptors that are recognized by adherence factors.

E) lack of receptors that are recognized by adherence factors.

Gene therapy technology: A) may be used to generate cells for transplantation. B) may overcome graft rejection. C) may treat cancer. D) may down-regulate the immune response. E) may overcome graft rejections AND may treat cancer.

E) may overcome graft rejections AND may treat cancer.

Serological tests are most often conducted in: A) test tubes. B) flasks. C) graduated cylinders. D) Petri dishes. E) microtiter plates.

E) microtiter plates - plastic plates with lots of tiny wells that hold tiny volumes of sample. Lot easier/cheaper than using test tubes and lots of reagent

The zone size obtained in the Kirby-Bauer test is influenced by the drug's: A) molecular weight AND concentration. B) stability. C) concentration AND stability. D) molecular weight AND stability. E) molecular weight, stability, AND concentration.

E) molecular weight, stability, AND concentration.

Which of the following is associated with contact dermatitis? A) poison ivy. B) latex. C) tuberculin skin test. D) hay fever. E) poison ivy, latex, AND tuberculin skin test.

E) poison ivy, latex, AND tuberculin skin test. Type IV Hypersensitivity: delayed-type cell-mediated Hay fever is Type I.

WHO has targeted for elimination of: A) polio. B) dracunculiasis. C) measles. D) plague. E) polio, dracunculiasis, AND measles.

E) polio, dracunculiasis, AND measles. They say we got smallpox, let's get these too!

Antimicrobials may cause all of the following EXCEPT: A) allergic reactions. B) toxic effects. C) suppression of normal microbiota. D) dysbiosis. E) resistance in people.

E) resistance in people. Bacteria can become resistant to antimicrobials, the meds aren't against the host!

Agglutination tests can be used to detect: A) bacteria AND viruses. B) hormones AND drugs. C) fungi, bacteria, AND viruses. D) viruses, bacteria, AND hormones. E) viruses, bacteria, fungi, hormones AND drugs.

E) viruses, bacteria, fungi, hormones AND drugs.

The type of photosynthesis that does not produce oxygen A) Does not require sunlight B) Does not require CO2 as a reactant C) Occurs in algae and plants D) Occurs in cyanobacteria E)Occurs in certain bacteria

E)Occurs in certain bacteria

Wisconsin state health authorities alerted the CDC about an E. coli O157:H7 outbreak. Soon thereafter, officials from two other states reported that they also had cases of illness associated with this pathogen. Within days, the CDC determined that the E. coli strains from all three states were the same, and the likely source of the outbreak was a particular brand of pre-packaged fresh spinach. The CDC then issued a press release advising people not to eat bagged fresh spinach. Which of the following is NOT a method used to differentiate E. coli O157:H7 from other strains based directly on genotype? A. Radioisotope-labeled probes or fluorescent dye-labeled probes B. Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) C. 16S rRNA gene sequencing D. Nucleic acid amplification tests (NAATs) E. Matrix assisted laser desorption ionization time of flight mass spectrometry (MALDI-TOF MS)

E. Matrix assisted laser desorption ionization time of flight mass spectrometry (MALDI-TOF MS)

Which organism(s) is/are acid-fast? A. Nocardia B. Pseudomonas C. E. coli D. Mycobacterium E. Nocardia AND Mycobacterium

E. Nocardia AND Mycobacterium

Organisms that grow very slowly, cannot be cultured, are present in very small numbers, or are mixed with a number of other bacteria may still be identified using: A. replica plating. B. the Ames test. C. positive selection. D. Southern blotting. E. PCR. F. Escherichia coli.

E. PCR.

Which of the following statements is true of selective toxicity? A. Selective toxicity takes advantage of structural differences between host and pathogen. B. To be effective, an antimicrobial agent must be more toxic to the patient than the pathogen. C. Selective toxicity takes advantage of metabolic differences between host and pathogen. D. Antimicrobial agents must target structural differences between host and pathogen and be more toxic to the patient than the pathogen. E. Selective toxicity takes advantage of structural and/or metabolic differences between host and pathogen.

E. Selective toxicity takes advantage of structural and/or metabolic differences between host and pathogen.

Approximately 99% of the microbes in the intestines are obligate anaerobes. We have plenty of blood vessels that can bring oxygen to the tissues of the intestines. Why would there be obligate anaerobes within these areas? A. The aerobic microbes are outcompeted for nutrients in these areas by the anaerobic microbes. B. The inside space of the intestines is highly anaerobic. It is deep inside the body where carbon dioxide accumulates. C. The bacteria consume all the oxygen in the tissue areas brought by the blood vessels, creating an anaerobic environment. D. The bacteria in the intestines are protected from exposure to the oxygen in the tissues by the lining of the intestines. E. The inside space of the intestines is highly anaerobic. It is deep inside the body where oxygen cannot reach and it is not supplied with blood.

E. The inside space of the intestines, [where bacteria reside], is highly anaerobic. It is deep inside the body where oxygen cannot reach AND, [unlike the surrounding tissues], it is not supplied with blood.

21. Agents that can denature microbial proteins include all of the following except A. moist heat. B. alcohol. C. acids. D. metallic ions. E. X rays.

E. X rays

In a MALDI-TOF assay, A. part of a colony is transferred to a microscope slide, and a drop of hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) is added to it to test for catalase. B. the nucleotide sequence of ribosomal RNA molecules (rRNAs), or the DNA that encodes them (rDNAs), is used to identify microbes. C. specimens are inoculated onto differential media and a set of biochemical tests are used to identify a microorganism. D. antibodies are used to detect specific proteins and polysaccharides, particularly those that make up surface structures. E. a microorganism's proteins are separated and sorted by mass to generate a profile that provides a fast way to identify a colony.

E. a microorganism's proteins are separated and sorted by mass to generate a profile that provides a fast way to identify a colony.

38. Which of the following items are typically irradiated in order to kill microbes? A. meats like ground beef and pork B. human tissues such as heart valves and skin C. operating room air D. surgical gloves E. All of the choices are correct.

E. all of the choices are correct

48. Alcohols A. dissolve membrane lipids at concentrations of greater than 50%. B. can be used for disinfection or antisepsis. C. are skin degerming agents. D. are limited in effectiveness due to rapid evaporation. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. all of the choices are correct

44. Which of the following is not a factor that affects germicidal activity? A. the material being treated B. the length of exposure C. the strength of the germicide D. the microorganism being treated E. All of these are factors.

E. all of these factors

A selective growth medium: A. accentuates differences between the growing bacteria. B. allows no bacteria to grow. C. allows all bacteria to grow. D. is cultured anaerobically. E. allows only certain bacteria to grow.

E. allows only certain bacteria to grow.

*A member of the normal flora that becomes an opportunist if it invades the urinary bladder is...

E. coli

18. Each of the following is the target of antimicrobial agents except A. cell walls. B. cell membranes. C. ribosomes. D. cellular proteins. E. cytoplasm.

E. cytoplasm

Phycobiliproteins are A. found in purple sulfur bacteria. B. found in cyanobacteria. C. used to gather wavelengths of light that are not well absorbed by chlorophyll. D. are used to reduce hydrogen sulfide. E. found in cyanobacteria AND used to gather wavelengths of light that are not well absorbed by chlorophyll.

E. found in cyanobacteria AND used to gather wavelengths of light that are not well absorbed by chlorophyll.

You examine a patient who is complaining of belching (burping), bloating, and some vomiting. She also has some abdominal discomfort which she describes as a dull, burning pain that is worse when she is hungry and is often relieved when she takes antacids. You suspect that she may have Helicobacter pylori gastritis, and send her for a urea breath test. The breath test is positive; based on this, you get the patient's stool tested for blood, and you send her for an endoscopy, during which a biopsy is taken. Your diagnosis is confirmed by the results of these tests and that she does indeed have H. pylori. Your patient asks you to explain how the urea breath test works. You tell her that in the test, she had been asked to swallow urea containing an unusual form of carbon—non-radioactive 13C (an isotope). After 10-30 minutes, she was asked to breathe into a receptacle, and her breath had been analyzed for the presence of this form of carbon in the carbon dioxide that she exhaled. You explain that the CO2 she exhaled contained 13C, so: A. her test indicates that her stomach cells used the 13C-containing urea in cellular respiration, producing glucose and releasing CO2 containing 13C as a byproduct. B. her test indicates the presence of H. pylori—the organism contains 13C in its cell wall, and in the presence of stomach acid, the cell wall is broken down to release CO2 containing 13C which could be measured. C. her test indicates the presence of H. pylori—the organism produces ammoniase that breaks down the 13C-containing urea that the patient swallowed into urea and CO2 containing 13C which could be measured. D. nobody really understands how the urea breath test works, but that it is well known that anybody who drinks urea containing 13C and exhales CO2 containing this element afterwards needs treatment for an ulcer. E. her test indicates the presence of H. pylori—the organism produces urease that breaks down the 13C-containing urea that the patient swallowed into ammonia and CO2 containing 13C which could be measured.

E. her test indicates the presence of H. pylori—the organism produces urease that breaks down the 13C-containing urea that the patient swallowed into ammonia and CO2 containing 13C which could be measured.

23. Physical agents for controlling microbial growth include all the following except A. ultraviolet radiation. B. boiling water. C. HEPA filters. D. pasteurization. E. hydrogen peroxide.

E. hydrogen peroxide

C3a and C5a are involved in: A. inflammation. B. interferon production. C. properdin activation. D. attraction of phagocytes. E. inflammation AND attraction of phagocytes.

E. inflammation AND attraction of phagocytes.

The term vaccination: A. is a general term that would include the process of variolation. B. was coined by Jenner. C. was coined by Pasteur. D. comes from the Latin for cow, vacca. E. is a general term that would include the process of variolation, was coined by Pasteur AND comes from the Latin for cow, vacca.

E. is a general term that would include the process of variolation, was coined by Pasteur AND comes from the Latin for cow, vacca.

Phenotypically identical bacteria A. look the same. B. are genetically exactly the same. C. may be told apart by DNA sequence analysis. D. may not be told apart by any means. E. look the same AND may be told apart by DNA sequence analysis.

E. look the same AND may be told apart by DNA sequence analysis.

Various strains of E. coli: A. may be harmless. B. are all exactly the same. C. are all very different from one another. D. may cause disease. E. may cause disease AND may be harmless.

E. may cause disease AND may be harmless.

Woese

E. was involved in determining rRNA sequences AND proposed breaking prokaryotes into two groups.

Why were the slime molds and water molds once considered to be fungi? - They have the same material in their cell walls (chitin) that fungi possess. - Early identification methods focused on appearances rather than genetic similarities/differences. - Early identification methods focused on appearances rather than biochemical characteristics. - Water molds and slime molds are STILL considered to be fungi. - Water molds and slime molds always occur in the same habitats as fungi.

Early identification methods focused on appearances rather than genetic similarities/differences.

Algae have a vascular system very similar to that found in plants, true or false?

False

T/F - Broad-spectrum antibiotics have minimal effect on the normal flora.

False

T/F - Peptide vaccines have proven to be cheap and very immunogenic.

False

T/F - Streptococcus pyogenes can be easily distinguished microscopically from other Streptococcus species.

False

T/F - T cells are responsible for directly manufacturing antibodies.

False

T/F - The immune response is directed against an entire molecule.

False

T/F Generalized transduction involves the transfer of phage genes from one bacterial cell to another.

False

T/F Generalized transduction is so called because specific bacterial genes are transferred during this process.

False

T/F: Strains of an organism can always reliably be identified using RFLPs (restriction fragment length polymorphisms).

False

TRUE OR FALSE: Completed filamentous phages are often found in the cytoplasm of infected bacteria.

False

The Ames test determines antibiotic sensitivity of a bacterium. True False

False

The illness in strep throat is largely from the exotoxin produced. An antibiotic effectively eliminates exotoxins T/F

False

Thiomargarita namibiensis could not be a eukaryote because it is only 1 mm in width.

False

Viruses and bacteria are both based on the unit of a cell.

False

T/F - Active immunity develops only after a natural infection and not after vaccination.

False - Active immunity can develop after vaccination if the contents cause the body to mount an immune response.

The most difficult aspect of the new field of metagenomics is generating sequence data reliably and cost-effectively.

False -that' the easy part!

T/F - Carbapenems are easily inactivated by the extended-spectrum β-lactamases (ESBLs) produced by certain Gram-negative bacteria so cannot be usedto treat these infections.

False Beta-lactam antibiotic, carbapenems are NOT easily inactivated by ESBLs produced by certain G- bacteria so they are usually reserved as a last resort for treating severe diseases caused by ESBL-producing organisms. p.507

Once the initial case has occurred, Legionnaires' disease spreads as a propagated epidemic. T/F

False Common Source, I'd think.

The causative agent of diphtheria is a virus, not a bacterium. The antibiotic would have no effect. T/F

False Corynebacterium diphtheriae is a pleomorphic, non-motile, non-spore forming G+ rod that is a lysogen.

T/F - In a double-blind test the treating physician knows who is getting the actual treatment.

False Neither the researcher or the test subject know who is getting the actual treatment or the placebo.

Mycoplasma is effectively treated with cell wall inhibiting antibiotics. T/F

False No cell wall so...

T/F - Generally, the smaller the infective dose, the lower the chance of disease.

False Small infective dose is a bad thing. Come into contact with a tiny amount of infectious agent and chances of getting the infection are SOOOOO much higher.

Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most prevalent Gram-negative bacterium isolated from pneumonia patients. T/F

False Streptococcus pneumoniae is a gram-POSITIVE diplococci with a capsule

T/F - A gradual rise in numbers during an epidemic indicates a common source epidemic.

False That is a propagated epidemic. Common source epidemic is a sharper rise and fall.

T/F - Obligate aerobes may transform energy via fermentation.

False - THEY NEED O2, it's the terminal e- acceptor

Translation of eukaryotic mRNA can occur in the nucleus after exons are spliced together

False - must leave, translation in cytoplasm

T/F - Anti-A and anti-B antibodies are natural antibodies and are present at birth.

False - not present at birth

T/F - Lactic acid bacteria such as Streptococcus are obligate fermenters that can exist in an aerobic environment due to their use of catalase to mitigate the presence of oxygen.

False - obligate fermenters = aerotolerant anaerobes that don't notice of oxygen is even present. Don't make catalase. - catalase breaks down the ROS hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen

T/F - Type O blood is missing both anti-A and anti-B antibodies.

False - Type O plasma, containing both anti-A and anti-B antibodies, can only be given to O recipients. The antibodies will attack the antigens on any other blood type. Conversely, AB plasma can be given to patients of any ABO blood group, because it does not contain any anti-A or anti-B antibodies.

People infected with M. tuberculosis are always highly infectious to everyone around them-true or false, and why? - True-they are constantly shedding bacteria to the environment around them in high numbers, facilitating transmission. - False-while in the early stages of the illness, their tissues are not irritated and damaged to induce the cough required to spread the organism in respiratory droplets very easily. - True-as the mode of transmission is direct contact, anyone or anything they touch can be infected. - False-since TB requires a very high infectious dose, in the early stages of the disease, the patients aren't producing enough bacteria in their respiratory secretions to be infectious.

False-while in the early stages of the illness, their tissues are not irritated and damaged to induce the cough required to spread the organism in respiratory droplets very easily. - infection by Mycobacterium tuberculosis results in asymptomatic lung infection - Mycobacterium tuberculosis • Slender, acid-fast, rod-shaped bacterium • Strict aerobe with generation time over 16 hours • Unusual cell wall contains mycolic acids: cells resist drying, disinfectants, strong acids and alkali; responsible for acid-fast staining • Easily killed by pasteurization

Diatoms are algae whose silicon dioxide-containing shells are useful economically as: 1. Fertilizers 2. Filters 3. Stabilizers 4. Agar 5. Thickeners

Filters

What is meant by 'final electron acceptor'? What are the final electron acceptors in fermentation and aerobic and anaerobic respiration?

Final electron acceptor is the molecule which accepts the electrons (hydrogen) at the end of the respiration process. In aerobic respiration, it is free oxygen; in anaerobic it is nitrate or nitrite and in fermentation the final electron acceptors are pyruvate or acetaldehyde.

Penicillin was discovered by: Koch. Hooke. Fleming. Ehrlich.

Fleming. He saw, in a dish of Staphylococcus aureus, that growth near a contaminating Penicillium mold was inhibited. The substance he called penicillin but he couldn't purify it and so gave up. 10 years later, Chain and Florey purified it, helped a sick policeman (who died when it ran out), purified more and later cured 2 people. Penicillin G - first antibiotic (naturally produced antimicrobial).

Which are not arthropods? - Mosquitoes - Flukes - Lice - Fleas - Ticks

Flukes - flukes (trematodes) are helminths (parasitic worms) - arthropods are insects and arachnids

Inactivated immunizing agents are prepared by treatment with: A) alcohol. B) phenol. C) formalin. D) histamine. E) mercury.

Formalin - or other chemical agents that do not significantly change surface eitopes (antigenic determinants) - the treatment leaves the agent immunogenic even though it can't replicate.

The genomes of free-living spirochetes are larger than those living in animal hosts. Why might this be so? A.Parasitic spirochetes are smaller than free-living spirochetes. Because of this, their genomes are also smaller; they need less genes. B. It isn't so—all spirochetes would have the same size genomes, since they're all the same species of microbe. C. A smaller genome implies simplicity—the spirochetes living in animal hosts have fewer needs, so they need fewer genes. D. The spirochetes in animal hosts are different species entirely. As different species, they would naturally have smaller genomes. E. Free-living spirochetes will need genes for additional proteins to synthesize or obtain their own food from the environment. Parasitic spirochetes obtain nutrients from the animal host.

Free-living spirochetes will need genes for additional proteins to synthesize or obtain their own food from the environment. Parasitic spirochetes obtain nutrients from the animal host.

This group includes unicellular as well as filamentous forms, a number of which cause infections. Members of this group produce a variety of different reproductive spores and filaments referred to as hyphae.

Fungi

rRNA

Most of the RNA content in the cell. Can be catalytic. Makes up the ribosome.

Explain why HIV becomes resistant so quickly when a single drug is used therapeutically.

HIV uses reverse transcriptase to make a cDNA version of its RNA genome. This polymerase is "'sloppy," with a high rate of error and lack of a proofreading capability. This leads to a high rate of mutation of the viral genome and increased chance for drug resistance.

Why are viroids resistant to nucleases? - Viroids have only been identified in plants. Plant nucleases cannot digest RNA. - Nucleases will only digest DNA, not RNA, so viroids are protected. - Having a circular RNA "genome," with no protein shell, they are resistant to the protein-degrading activities of nucleases. - Viroids are composed of single stranded RNA; nucleases only act on double-stranded molecules. - Having a circular RNA "genome," they are resistant to most exonucleases (that digest the free ends of RNA or DNA).

Having a circular RNA "genome," they are resistant to the digestion of most exonucleases (that nibble/digest the free ends of RNA or DNA).

Which of the following disease states is not among those caused by immune complexes? A) Systemic lupus erythematosus B) Serum sickness C) Hay fever D) Glomerulonephritis E) Disseminated intravascular coagulation

Hay fever - that's Type I Hypersensitivity: Immediate IgE-mediated

A biologist determined the amounts of several amino acids in two separate samples of pure protein. His data stated that Protein A possessed: 7% leucine, 12% alanine, 4% histidine, 2% cysteine, and 5% glycine. Interestingly, Protein B had the same percentages of each of the same amino acids. He concluded, from this data, that Proteins A and B are the same protein. Based on this information and his conclusion, determine which of the following is the correct statement regarding his findings:

He is correct-they have the same percentages of each amino acid, so they are identical protein molecules.

Which of the following interferes with phagocytosis of S. pyogenes? - Hyaluronic acid capsule - M protein - C5a peptidase - Protein G - All of the answer choices are correct.

Hyaluronic acid capsule - I think it should be ALL. Table 21.1 literally says, "INHIBITS PHAGOCYTOSIS" Capsule mimics host cell component - phagocytes don't see it. M protein in S. pyogenes is an important adhesin that functions in attachment to the host cell - the antibodies that attach to M protein prevent infection. M protein also interferes with phagocytosis by inactivating the opsonin C3b from compliment, prevents complement activation too. C5a peptidase inactivated the chemoattractant C5a - avoids calling phagocytes to the area. Protein G is an Fc receptor that binds Fc part of opsonizing IgG - so phagocytes don't want to eat it.

Which of the following may inhibit the activity of normal flora and allow pathogens to become established?

I have seen antibodies as the answer to this one but I suspect it should be ANTIBIOTICS.

Bacterial toxins are chemical products made by bacteria. A person ingests some honey containing Clostridium botulinum. The C. botulinum is actively growing and releases toxin in the honey. The person becomes ill from ingesting the toxin. This is an example of a(n): A. hemolysin. B. toxemia. C. antitoxin. D. index case. E. pandemic.

I picked B. toxemia and got it right. Shouldn't it be intoxication?

The replicative form of nucleic acid in filamentous phages is: - dsRNA. - dsDNA. - positive ssDNA. - negative ssDNA. - positive ssRNA.

I said dsDNA (the RF - replicative form) and got it wrong. Fig 13.8 says the filamentous phage has positive ssDNA. If asked again... -but pg341 "This double stranded DNA is referred to as the replicative form (RF)."

If you were the lab technician trying to identify the causative organism of this foodborne outbreak, would you inoculate several biochemical tests at the same time, or would you inoculate each test after getting the results from the previous test?

I would inoculate several tests simultaneously, because most biochemical tests require at least 18 hours of incubation, so inoculating several tests simultaneously saves time and also aids in conclusive identification.

Taxonomy involves 3 separate but interrelated areas:

Identification (what), Classification (where), Nomenclature (who)

Please select the statement regarding antimicrobial testing that is FALSE. The MIC and the MBC are quantitative measures of a bacterial strain's susceptibility to an antimicrobial medication. In the Kirby-Bauer disc diffusion test, a clear zone around the antibiotic disc following incubation indicates that the antibiotic is bactericidal. Disc diffusion tests can determine whether an organism is susceptible, intermediate, or resistant to a variety of different antimicrobials. In the Kirby-Bauer test, the clear area in which there is no visible growth of bacteria is called a zone of inhibition. Commercial tests for determining antimicrobial sensitivity are less labor-intensive and often more rapid than conventional tests.

In the Kirby-Bauer disc diffusion test, a clear zone around the antibiotic disc following incubation indicates that the antibiotic is bactericidal. might just be bacteristatic.

Viruses are often referred to as

Infectious agents

How does Ascaris lumbricoides, an intestinal parasite, cause choking and pulmonary symptoms in some people? - Ingested Ascaris larvae penetrate intestinal capillaries, from where they are carried to the lungs, causing coughing and shortness of breath. - Ascaris is a pulmonary parasite; it only enters the intestine of people with other lung conditions, including asthma. - Ascaris larvae are highly allergenic; when they are ingested, they cause an allergic reaction which includes coughing. - People inadvertently inhale Ascaris worms when they bring contaminated food close to their mouths; these cause pulmonary blockages. - Ascaris, being anaerobic, form large cysts in pulmonary tissue; these accumulate in the lungs, causing coughing.

Ingested Ascaris larvae penetrate intestinal capillaries, from where they are carried to the lungs, causing coughing and shortness of breath.

In which disease are monoclonal antibodies against PA protein used as treatment? A) Inhalation anthrax B) Legionellosis C) Pertussis D) Pneumococcal pneumonia E) Influenza

Inhalation anthrax Anthrax is a disease primarily of livestock but people get it too. Bacillus anthracis is G+, makes endospores, non-hemolytic, non-motile, rod shaped bacterium whose spores can remain in the environment indefinately and whose vegetative cells have a capsule made of an amino-acid polymer instead of polysaccharide.

Which of the following describes a latent viral infection?

Long periods of time with essentially zero viral replication, punctuated by outbreaks of active replication and disease manifestation. Infected individuals are largely non-infectious between outbreak periods.

In S. pyogenes, which of the following interferes with phagocytosis? - M protein - protein A - collagen - pilin

M protein Table 21.1 literally says, "interferes with phagocytosis" M protein in S. pyogenes is an important adhesin that functions in attachment to the host cell - the antibodies that attach to M protein prevent infection. M protein also interferes with phagocytosis by inactivating the opsonin C3b from compliment, prevents complement activation too. More than 80 antigenic types of M protein exist! - Different S. pyogenes strains with in GAS are distinguished by variations in the virulence factor M protein on their surface.

The tissue antigens most involved in graft rejection involve: A) Rhesus antigen. B) ABO antigens. C) MHC molecules. D) MLB proteins. E) immune complexes.

MHC molecules. - I think this is a Focus Your Perspective in Ch 15.

How would increased travel lead to increased spread of multicellular eukaryotic parasites? - Many eukaryotic parasites depend on vectors (often small blood-sucking insects) for transmission, so moving an infected individual into an area with new vectors and new susceptible humans would increase spread. - It really would NOT; most individuals are screened for parasitic infections prior to traveling out of highly infected areas. We also have quarantine abilities at customs stations for individuals entering the United States. - Eukaryotic parasites are too small to travel great distances effectively; by hitching a ride on luggage, clothing, fruit/vegetables, and other food products, they can enter new geographic areas. - Traveling generally weakens a person's immune system, making them vulnerable to parasitic eukaryotes in any new place that they visit. - Many eukaryotic parasites are transmitted directly from person to person via airborne transmission, so getting an infected individual onto a plane of susceptible individuals would increase spread.

Many eukaryotic parasites depend on vectors (often small blood-sucking insects) for transmission, so moving an infected individual into an area with new vectors and new susceptible humans would increase spread.

Carbohydrates

May interconvert between ring and linear structures

Are all fungi detrimental (bad) for other organisms?

No—it depends on the fungus and the relationship it has with the other organism. Some fungi can form a symbiotic relationship with plant roots that increases their nutrient and water absorption. This is good.

Would you expect the number of virions to be the same if you measured them by the plaque assay or by counting using the electron microscope? Why? - Yes—both methods measure the total number of virus particles in a solution. - Yes—only fully functioning viruses will be released from a host cell, so the quantified number of virus particles in a plaque assay should be identical to the number of free virus particles counted by electron microscopy. - No—the plaque assay only measures viable virus particles, while the electron microscope cannot distinguish between defective and viable virus. - No—you cannot count virus particles by using a plaque assay. You can only get a relative difference in quantity from one preparation of virus particles to another with this method.

No—the plaque assay only measures viable virus particles, while the electron microscope cannot distinguish between defective and viable virus.

- is used for Candida albicans infection of the vaginal tract - retards fungal overgrowth of the human intestine - retards fungal growth by ergosterol binding - acts by changing the permeability of the fungal cell membrane

Nystatin p.525 - is an anitfungal medication - a polyene - it attacks ergosterol in fungal cell membrane - disrupts cell, insides leak out, cell dies - systemically toxic so used topically/oral rinse - Candida (yeast) infections of vagina and oral thrush Amphotericin B - another polyene, antifungal - last resort -> life threatening infections as side effects are very severe.

If the GC content to two organisms is 60%, the

Organisms are most likely related

Sulfonamides are similar in structure to: DNA gyrases. LPS. ribosomes. PABA.

PABA. Sulfonamides are structural analogs of para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) and thus act as competitive antagonists in microbial cells. Microbes need PABA to form dihydrofolic acid, a precursor of folic acid. Folic acid is required for purine and pyrimidine synthesis and hence nucleic acid synthesis. Sulfonamides not only block formation of folic acid - they are incorporated into the precursors, forming a pseudometabolite that is reactive and antibacterial. Mammalian cells are not susceptible to sulfonamides as they absorb and use preformed folic acid, resulting in a wide therapeutic index.

Light Repair

Photolyase activated by visible light. Breaks pyrimidine-pyrimidine bonds.

This term means 'evolutionary relatedness'.

Phylogeny. -studying this yields the 3-domain system based on Carl Woese and replaces Whitaker's 5-kingdom approach.

You and your exercise buddy decide to go to Yosemite National Park to hike the famous El Capitan trail. You book your trip through a well known agency but before you leave for your vacation, you learn that there have been two cases of plague reported in people who recently visited a different area of the park. Your friend is anxious and tells you he thinks that plague is really dangerous and kills people everyone who gets it. He points out that this disease killed a lot of people during the Middle Ages, and says he doesn't want to do the trip after all. You decide to do some research on the plague and its causative agent before making a decision about your trip. Please select the FALSE statement regarding plague and its transmission. - People can contract plague when they are bitten by fleas from rodents infected with the causative organism. - Y. pestis is typically transmitted by the bites of infected fleas, an example of biological transmission. Plague is caused by a Gram-negative organism and is thus completely untreatable with antibiotics. - Yersinia pestis is a Gram-negative organism and thus possess an outer lipopolysaccharide layer. - The incidence of vector-borne diseases such as plague can be decreased by controlling the vector or the infected hosts.

Plague is caused by a Gram-negative organism and is thus completely untreatable with antibiotics. - you can use antibiotics on G-. - The three main antimicrobial agents recommended to treat plague are streptomycin, tetracycline, and chloramphenicol (1). Streptomycin remains the drug of choice. See? - is a Gram-negative, nonmotile, rod-shaped, coccobacillus bacteria, with no spores. It is a facultative anaerobic organism that can infect humans via the Oriental rat flea. It causes the disease plague, which takes three main forms: pneumonic, septicemic and bubonic plagues.

Replicate independently of the chromosome in prokaryotes. Carries gene not essential for survival: fertility, resistance, toxins, or pathogenic.

Plasmids

Which of the following is NOT true of prions?

Prions that cause spongiform encephalopathies have a different amino acid sequence from PrPc.

The cell types which lack a membrane bound nucleus are found in the

Prokaryotes AND archaea

The processes of transcription and translation differ between prokaryotes and eukaryotes in the following way:

Prokaryotes transcribe and translate simultaneously - remember the polyribosome (polysome)!

Protein

What part of the E. coli T4 phage attaches to the host cell receptors?

Protein fibers at the end of the phage tail.

The initial work on anaphylaxis was done by: A) Watson and Crick. B) Pasteur. C) Richet and Portier. D) Fleming. E) van Leeuwenhoek.

Richet and Portier. - jelly fish, sea anemone, toxins that dogs survived once then died at second exposure.

How could heavily fertilized lawns contribute to cyanobacterial blooms in lakes and oceans? -Large amounts of fertilizer will lead to excessive production of greenhouse gases (like CO2) from grass in lawns. Excessive CO2 production will lead to large blooms of cyanobacteria in water systems. -They won't—the two systems are completely unrelated. How could grass in lawns contribute to effects in lakes and oceans? -Nutrient-rich grass will be mowed down, with grass clipping bits eventually washing into sewer systems and into larger bodies of water. These grass clippings will serve as a nutrient source for cyanobacteria, leading to blooms. -Run-off from the lawns will get into the water system, leading to large amounts of nitrogen that can be used by cyanobacteria in water systems. - Fertilizers contains compounds that encourage the production of bacteriochlorophylls; after rain, fertilizers get into water and are used by cyanobacteria.

Run-off from the lawns will get into the water system, leading to large amounts of nitrogen that can be used by cyanobacteria in water systems. Cyanobacteria are PROKARYOTES

Defects in bone marrow stem cells result in a condition known as: A) SCID. B) AIDS. C) Di George's syndrome. D) Chediak-Higashi disease. E) Chronic granulomatous disease.

SCiD - Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) - primary immune deficiency - defining characteristic is usually a severe defect in both the T- & B-lymphocyte systems. Infants with SCID appear healthy at birth but are highly susceptible to severe infections.

Please select the INCORRECT statement regarding helminths and the diseases they cause. - Sometime helminth eggs are ingested on the surface of contaminated foods. For example, pinworm eggs (Enterobius vermicularis) may be transmitted a food surface. - Some helminths are inadvertently ingested. For example, Onchocerca volvulus, the cause of River blindness, is transmitted by drinking contaminated water or eating fish carrying this parasite. - Some helminths are inadvertently eaten with food. For example, eating undercooked pork containing Trichinella spiralis larvae is the most common cause of trichinellosis. - Some helminths burrow into people. For example, immature forms of hookworm larvae live in the soil and can burrow through human skin. - Some helminths are transmitted through insect bites. For example, Wuchereria bancrofti, the cause of elephantiasis, is transmitted by mosquitoes.

Some helminths are inadvertently ingested. For example, Onchocerca volvulus, the cause of River blindness, is transmitted by drinking contaminated water or eating fish carrying this parasite. - it is transmitted by black flies

This term is used to describe the range of different microbes that a compound can kill or inhibit:

Spectrum of activity

Causes of Mutation

Spontaneous, Radiation, chemical mutagens.

Which is/are the correct form(s)? Staphylococcus aureus Staphylococcus aureus staphylococcus aureus Staphylococcus a.

Staphylococcus aureus

Which is/are the correct form(s)?

Staphylococcus aureus AND S. aureus

Which of the following members of the normal flora inhibits the growth of bacteria by production of fatty acids from lipids?

Staphylococcus epidermidis AND Propionibacterium species.

- interferes with protein synthesis in bacteria **- is a molecule that blocks tRNA access to the ribosome** - is active against rickettsiae, chlamydiae, and gram-negative bacteria - is an antibacterial drug related to Streptomyces-produced drugs - overuse can lead to Candida albicans infection - **can cause a yellow-gray-brown discoloration of teeth** - **use is restricted in pregnant women and in young children**

Tetracycline p.508 - Inhibits Protein Synthesis - bacteriostatic - reversibly binds to the 30S subunit, blocking the attachment of tRNA and preventing the continuation of translation. - ""resistance likely due to active efflux"" (elimination) - cell is using efflux pumps to kick it out.

A sample must contain many microorganisms in order for them to be seen any using microscopy techniques. Why is this so?

The area on a microscope slide is very large compared to the relative size of microbes, and you take a very small amount of your sample to place on the slide surface. Therefore, you must have a large number of microbes initially in the culture to increase the chances that you'll be able to see bacteria on the slide.

You are an RN working in the emergency department (ED) at a major hospital in New York City. During one shift, you see two patients who are exhibiting coughing with blood-containing sputum, and shortness of breath. Both patients report that they have experienced headaches, muscle aches, high fever, confusion, and shaking chills in the days preceding their ED visit. One of the patients also has some digestive tract symptoms including diarrhea, abdominal pain, and vomiting. You discover that the patients live in the same apartment building, although they do not know each other. You suspect that they have a type of pneumonia, and given the circumstances, think it may be legionellosis. You read up on this disease to refresh your memory about it. L. pneumophila is a facultative intracellular parasite. How does it manipulate the immune system so as to enter host cells? A) The bacterial cells bind complement component C3b (an opsonin), enhancing phagocytosis. B) The bacteria have macrophage invasion potentiator (Mip) that promotes their uptake by alveolar macrophages. C) The bacteria cause necrosis of alveolar cells, leading to an inflammatory response. D) The bacteria survive in alveolar macrophages by preventing phagosome-lysosome fusion AND the bacteria cause necrosis of alveolar cells, leading to an inflammatory response. E) The bacterial cells bind complement component C3b (an opsonin), enhancing phagocytosis AND the bacteria have a surface protein (Mip) that promotes their uptake by alveolar macrophages.

The bacterial cells bind complement component C3b (an opsonin), enhancing phagocytosis AND the bacteria have a surface protein (Mip) that promotes their uptake by alveolar macrophages.

A drug that inhibits the growth of protozoan cells would not be expected to affect which of the following cell structures? The cell wall The cytoplasmic membrane Mitochondria Ribosomes

The cell wall Protozoan are single celled eukaryotes that don't have cell walls.

Why might it be easier to determine the bacterium that caused pneumonia than one that caused a wound infection?

The lungs are generally free of bacteria, while the skin may have a number of different types of bacteria . on it. This could complicate identification processes for a wound infection, as bacteria normally found on the skin may be in the wound along with the particular bacterium causing the infection.

You are graduating from nursing school in three months and have already lined up a new job. However, your employer informs you that before you start your job, it is mandatory for you to be vaccinated against hepatitis B, a double-stranded DNA virus that can cause the disease hepatitis. Your boyfriend, a biology major, wonders why you need to get the vaccine. You aced your microbiology class and you know a lot about both viruses and vaccines, so you understand why getting this vaccination is essential. You give your boyfriend a mini lesson on this by answering a few of his questions. You tell your friend that you are happy to be receiving your vaccination because hepatitis B is associated with hepatocellular carcinoma (liver cancer). Select the FALSE statement regarding viruses and cancer. - Viruses that lead to cancer formation are called oncogenic viruses. - Viruses that insert their genome into the host cell's chromosome may cause changes at the insertion site, converting a proto-oncogene into an oncogene. - Some viruses carry an oncogene—infection with these viruses interferes with the host cell's own growth-control mechanisms. - The majority of tumors are caused by oncogenic viruses but some may be caused by mutations in host genes that regulate cell growth. - The most common viral causes of tumors are certain DNA viruses such as hepatitis B virus.

The majority of tumors are caused by oncogenic viruses but some may be caused by mutations in host genes that regulate cell growth. - pg 351 says "the majority of tumors are not caused by oncogenic viruses, however, but by mutations in host genes that regulate cell growth."

Why is legionellosis not treated with β-lactam medications? A) The causative organism produces β-lactamases, so is resistant to many of these medications. B) The medication must be able to accumulate within alveolar macrophages to be effective, which β-lactam antibiotics do poorly. C) The causative organism produces β-lactamases, so is resistant to many of these medications AND the causative organism is acid-fast, so has mycolic acids and waxes in the cell wall that β-lactams cannot penetrate. D) The causative organism is acid-fast, so has mycolic acids and waxes in the cell wall that β-lactams cannot penetrate AND the causative organism produces endospores so is highly resistant to these medications. E) The medication must be able to accumulate within alveolar macrophages to be effective, which β-lactam antibiotics do poorly AND the causative organism produces β-lactamases, so is resistant to many of these medications.

The medication must be able to accumulate within alveolar macrophages to be effective, which β-lactam antibiotics do poorly AND the causative organism produces β-lactamases, so is resistant to many of these medications. Legionella pneumophila produces a beta lactamase, makes it resistant to many penicillins and some cephalosproins. Because the bacteria multiply inside the alveolar macrophages, medication must be able to accumulate within these cells to be effective, which beta lactam antibiotics do poorly. p.557

Crown gall is caused by a prokaryote plasmid that can be expressed in plant cells. True False

True

When DNA probes are used to identify bacterial DNA similarities by hybridization, the probe DNA is heated and the template DNA is treated to separate the 2 strands. Why would the probe DNA be heated?

The probe DNA is single-stranded, but it may have folded back on itself and formed portions that are double-stranded. Heating it up breaks any possible hydrogen bonds that may have formed, returning it to a single-stranded state prior to hybridization.

Which of the following is the definition of clonal selection? A) The killing of antibody-coated target cells by natural killer cells, granulocytes, or macrophages. B) The process in which a lymphocyte's antigen receptor binds to an antigen, allowing the lymphocyte to multiply. C) The process that allows a B cell to change the antibody class it is programmed to make. D) The immune response that protects the mucous membranes, which involves secretory IgA. E) The generation of diversity in antigen specificity through rearrangement of gene segments.

The process in which a lymphocyte's antigen receptor binds to an antigen, allowing the lymphocyte to multiply.

Transcription

The process of synthesizing RNA from DNA. Three steps.

What distinguishes Staphylococcus, species from Streptococcus, Enterococcus and Lactococcus species? - Their morphology. - The production of catalase. - The nature of their cell walls. - Their ability to cause disease. - All of these.

The production of catalase.

You make two agar plates: one is a nutrient agar plate (plate A) that contains histidine and penicillin. The other is a glucose salts agar (plate B) that also contains penicillin. You inoculate a sample onto both plates using replica plating technique, incubate the plates, and compare the growth after 48 hours. There are 12 colonies on the nutrient agar plate and 11 colonies on the glucose salts medium. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? - Prototrophs and auxotrophs in this experiment are resistant to penicillin. - Approximately 92% of the bacteria in the original sample are prototrophs. - The colony that is missing from plate B is an auxotroph that cannot synthesize histidine. - This experiment describes indirect selection of a mutant. - The prototrophs are resistant to penicillin but the auxotrophs are sensitive to this antibiotic.

The prototrophs are resistant to penicillin but the auxotrophs are sensitive to this antibiotic.

DNA polymerase is able to proofread the DNA sequence. True False

True

A researcher discovered a mutation in bacteria that causes rapid degradation of the bacterial DNA. Which of the following provides the best explanation of the mutation? A) Restriction enzyme function was hindered by the mutation. B) The mutation increased DNA methylation. C) Methylation of the bacterial DNA was decreased by the mutation. D) The mutation disabled SOS repair. E) Thymine dimers were not repaired as a result of the mutation.

There was no answer but I think it's C. Why? Unmethylated isn't seen as self and is destroyed by restriction enzymes.

Some arthropods cause disease even when they do not act as a vector. Which of the following is an example of this? - Dust mites do not transmit infectious disease, but inhalation of the mites and their waste products can sometimes trigger asthma. - The larvae of some mites are called "chiggers" and may cause intense itching where they attach and feed on fluids within skin cells. - Scabies is characterized by an itchy rash caused by allergic reactions to female mites that have burrowed into the outer layers of skin. - The pubic louse is commonly transmitted during sexual intercourse and can cause an unpleasant itch associated with "crabs." - These are all examples of the situation described.

These are all examples of the situation described.

Which is/are true of coccidioidomycosis and histoplasmosis? - They are both soil fungi.They are both dimorphic fungi. - They are both life-threatening. - They may be treated with antibiotics. - They are both soil fungi AND they are both dimorphic fungi.

They are both soil fungi AND they are both dimorphic fungi.

Which statement about aflatoxins is NOT true? They are possible carcinogens. They are produced by Aspergillus. They are toxins. They are produced by Candida. They may be found in peanuts.

They are produced by Candida.

Which of the following statements regarding tapeworms is FALSE? - They absorb nutrients from the host's gut through their skin. - A single worm contains broth male and female reproductive organs. - They do not have a digestive system. - They complete their life cycle in a single host. - They can sometimes cause neurological signs and symptoms in the host.

They complete their life cycle in a single host. -tapeworms don't have a complete digestive system because they latch on and absorb nutrients from the host's gut through their SKIN - the SCOLEX is the head with suckers or hooklets, attached by the neck to PROSTIGLIDS that have both male and female reproductive parts so that as the worm elongates the segments farther way are full of fertilized eggs that come off and get pooped out. - they can sometimes cause neurological signs and symptoms in the host and no, they don't live their whole lives in one host - some use fleas, rabbits, deer, sheep, etc for their INTERMEDIATE HOST

Which statement about most phages that contain single-stranded DNA is NOT true? - Their DNA is transformed to dsDNA before replication and transcription occur. - They are extruded from the host cell. - They contain a negative-sense DNA strand. - All of the choices are correct. - None of the choices is correct.

They contain a negative-sense DNA strand - filamentous phases are ssDNA - fig 13.8 shows it being ss(+)DNA

Diphtheria exotoxin is made only by strains of Corynebacterium diphtheriae that carry a prophage containing the tox gene.T/F

True

Each gene mutates at a characteristic frequency. True False

True

Which of the statements BEST describes tapeworms? - They may be transmitted by eating undercooked meat. - They do not have a digestive system AND they may be transmitted by eating undercooked meat. - They have a complicated digestive system. - They have a complicated digestive system AND they may be transmitted by eating undercooked meat. - They do not have a digestive system.

They do not have a digestive system AND they may be transmitted by eating undercooked meat.

Which statement(s) about cells taken from a tumor is/are true? a) They may be used to grow bacteriophages. b) They divide 50 times and then die AND they may be used to grow bacteriophages. c) They divide 50 times and then die. d) They may be used to grow viruses AND they may be used to grow bacteriophages. e) They may be used to grow viruses.

They may be used to grow viruses.

How do anoxygenic phototrophs benefit from having accessory pigments that allow light to be harvested at deeper areas of a moist or aquatic environment? - This allows even anaerobic microbes to conduct photosynthesis, as they can harvest light energy in the deeper areas where oxygen won't be present, use wavelengths of light not absorbed by the photosynthetic organisms closer to the surface of the water; AND don't have to compete with other cells that use oxygen in the upper levels for the scarce nutrients in the fluid environment. - These organisms don't have to compete with other cells that use oxygen in the upper levels for the scarce nutrients in the aquatic environment. - Accessory pigments allows even anaerobic microbes to carry out photosynthesis, as they can harvest light energy in the deeper areas where oxygen won't be present. - The cells can use wavelengths of light that have not been absorbed by the photosynthetic organisms closer to the surface of the water. - This allows even anaerobic microbes to conduct photosynthesis, as they can harvest light energy in the deeper areas where oxygen won't be present AND can use wavelengths of light not absorbed by the photosynthetic organisms closer to the surface of the fluid.

This allows even anaerobic microbes to conduct photosynthesis, as they can harvest light energy in the deeper areas where oxygen won't be present, use wavelengths of light not absorbed by the photosynthetic organisms closer to the surface of the water; AND don't have to compete with other cells that use oxygen in the upper levels for the scarce nutrients in the fluid environment.

An illness outbreak occurs in New York City birds in the late 1990s. After a lengthy scientific investigation, the Centers for Disease Control (CDC) determine that the agent causing the birds to die is the West Nile virus. Outbreaks of this illness have been observed in several other countries in Asia and the Middle East across the last 50 years, but not in the United States. With this information, what would be the best categorization of this infectious agent/disease

This is clearly an emerging infection. It hasn't been around that long, and it has made a jump across continents into a new susceptible population.

F plasmids and oftentimes R plasmids are both able to code for production of a pilus. True False

True

Which nucleotide is not found in RNA?

Thymine - has Uracil instead, A-T is U-T in RNA

T cells mature in the: A) bone marrow. B) thymus. C) Peyer's patches. D) nervous tissue. E) tonsils.

Thymus. - B cells mature in the bone marrow.

Initiation

Transcription. Binding of RNA polymerase to double stranded DNA at the promoter region.

Elongation

Transcription. RNA polymerase moves along the DNA, adding triphosphate ribonucleotides on the 3' OH end.

Termination

Transcription. Recognition of the transcription termination sequence and release of RNA polymerase.

A variety of free-living amoebae and ciliated protozoa are thought to provide a natural reservoir for survival and growth of Legionella spp. in nature. T/F

True

Adenoviruses may cause eye infections as well as upper respiratory tract infections. T/F

True

If one strand of DNA contains the bases ACAGT, what would be the complementary bases on the mRNA strand?

UGUCA

The formation of a covalent bond between two adjacent thymines is caused by mustard gas. alkylating agents. microwave radiation. UV radiation.

UV radiation

RNA Polymerase

Unzips DNA. No primer necessary. Uses ribonucleotides. Less efficient proofreading. Transcribes one DNA strand, (-) stand. Is complementary to (+) DNA strand..

Prokaryotic Chromosome

Usually single, circular. Always haploid. Found in the nucleoid.

Which statement about antiviral medications is INCORRECT? Nucleoside analogs and nucleotide analogs that interfere with the activity of reverse transcriptase are used in HIV treatment, along with at least one antiviral other medication. Viral replication generally uses host cell machinery; because of this, there are many targets for selectively toxic antiviral medications. Neuraminidase inhibitors inhibit neuraminidase, an enzyme encoded by influenza viruses that is important for the release of viral particles from infected host respiratory epithelial cells. Sofosbuvir is a nucleotide analog that interferes with HCV's replicase and is extremely effective when used in combination with at least one other anti-HCV medication. Available antivirals are virus-specific and target viral entry, viral uncoating, nucleic acid synthesis, integrase, and the assembly and release of viral particles.

Viral replication generally uses host cell machinery; because of this, there are many targets for selectively toxic antiviral medications.

Pneumococcal pneumonia - Pathogenesis: - encapsulated pneumococci inhaled into alveoli multiply rapidly, cause inflammatory response - Can affect nerve endings, cause pain: pleurisy

Virulence factors - capsule = resistant to phagocytosis - interferes with the opsonin C3b - pneumococcal surface protein (PsaA) interferes with C3b too - pneumolysin - membrane-damaging toxin that destroys ciliated epithelium - caused inflammatory response -> accumulation of fluid and phagocytic cells in alveoli -> difficult breathing. Can see the fluid as abnormal shadows on X-rays. Sputum has increasing amounts of pus, blood and bacteria If pneumococci enter blood from inflamed lungs = 3 outcomes - potentially fatal - sepsis = bloodstream infection - endocarditis = infection of heart valves - meningitis = infection of the meninges W/o complications in a wk you'll make enough anti-capsular antibodies to allow phagocytosis and destruction of the pneumococci = complete recovery

Hemagglutination inhibition tests can be used to diagnose diseases caused by:

Viruses Hemagglutination Inhibition - a neutralization test used mostly for the serological typing of viruses. If a person's serum contains antibodies against viruses, the antibodies will react and neutralize the virus. Hemagglutination is also used to determine blood type.

Scientists recently cloned Louis Pasteur and put him back to work in a modern lab. He promptly developed a gel that breaks down proteins. Since he hasn't been around for some time, he's unsure what the best application for his invention might be. Help him out-what pathogenic item would this gel be most effective and safe at eliminating?

Viruses on the surface of the skin

Scientists recently cloned Louis Pasteur and put him back to work in a modern lab. He promptly developed a gel that breaks down proteins. Since he hasn't been around for some time, he's unsure what the best application for his invention might be. Help him out. What pathogenic item in this gel would be most effective and safe at eliminating?

Viruses on the surface of the skin

Viruses on the surface of the skin.

Most enveloped viruses, like hepatitis B, are released by budding, a process whereby the virus acquires its envelope. Before budding occurs, virally encoded protein spikes insert into specific regions of the host cell's membrane. Given this information, which of the following would you tell your friend best describes the structure of the viral envelope? A. Phospholipid bilayer with host-derived proteins. B. Phospholipid bilayer C. Phospholipid bilayer studded with both virus- and host-derived proteins. D. Phospholipid monolayer studded with virus- and host-derived proteins. E. Protein layer with host-derived spikes.

WRONG - B. Phospholipid bilayer - the envelope is a phospholipid bilayer and the spikes are viral-encoded protein. Maybe phospholipid bilayer with both virus and host derived proteins? - found this online: :Phospholipid bilayer derived from host cell membrane. Studded with viral and host cell proteins"

In the phototrophic production of energy, the oxygen originates from A. carbon dioxide. B. water. C. glucose.

Water

Which of the following is the confirming test for people who initially tested HIV antibody-positive in the screening ELISA test? A. Radioimmunoassay (RIA) B. Immunelectrophoresis C. Western blot D. Therapeutic index E. Ouchterlony double diffusion

Western Blot Got this right

The study of the crown gall tumor found a bacterial plasmid promoter that was similar to plant promoters. an R plasmid. incorporation of the bacterial chromosome into the plant. incorporation of the plant chromosome into the bacteria.

a bacterial plasmid promoter that was similar to plant promoters.

Discuss the relationship of: a) Anabolism to catabolism b) ATP to ADP c) Glycolysis to fermentation d) Electron transport to oxidative phosphorylation

a) Anabolism results in synthesis of cell molecules; catabolism breaks down larger to smaller molecules. b) When ATP is utilized by the removal of the terminal phosphate group, ADP forms. c) Glycolysis is the first step in aerobic respiration where glucose is enzymatically converted to pyruvic acid. Fermentation is incomplete oxidation of glucose in the absence of oxygen (anaerobic respiration). d) Electron Transport: Electrons are passed from one electron carrier to another in the respiratory chain. Energy is released during this transfer which is captured by ATP synthase complex. Oxidative phosphorylation: The coupling of ATP synthesis to electron transport is known as oxidative phosphorylation.

Is antigenic shift alone likely to lead to influenza pandemics? a) Perhaps-but it would most likely be a mixture of antigenic shift AND drift that would result in a pandemic strain. b) No-antigenic SHIFT is responsible for changes in the hemagglutinin protein, while antigenic DRIFT is responsible for changes in the neuraminidase protein. You need both to lead to a pandemic strain. c) Yes-ONLY antigenic shift can lead to the large-scale mixing of gene elements required to produce a pandemic flu strain. d) No-ONLY antigenic DRIFT can lead to the large-scale mixing of gene elements required to produce a pandemic flu strain.

a) Perhaps-but it would most likely be a mixture of antigenic shift AND drift that would result in a pandemic strain.

Give six main characteristics of enzymes.

a) Substrate-specific b) Associate closely with the substrates, but do not become a part of the reaction product. c) Can be regulated by feedback and genetic mechanisms. d) Can be recycled. e) Lower the energy of activation in a reaction. f) Can be regulated by feedback and genetic mechanisms.

Acyclovir is a: a) nucleoside analog b) non-nuceoside polymerase inhibitor c) protease inhibitor d) none of the above

a) nucleoside analog

Which of the following is the target for beta-lactam antibiotics? a) peptidoglycan synthesis b) DNA synthesis c) RNA synthesis d) Protein synthesis e) Folic acid synthesis

a) peptidoglycan synthesis

Intercalating agents act during DNA synthesis. often result in frame shift mutations. only act in dormant cells. alter the hydrogen bonding properties of the bases. act during DNA synthesis AND often result in frame shift mutations.

act during DNA synthesis AND often result in frame shift mutations.

The purines of DNA are

adenine and guanine

Which of the following statements is false concerning antiviral drugs? a. macrolide drugs block attachment sites on the host cell wall and prevent viruses from entering b. drugs that neutraize the acidity of phagolysosomes prevent viral uncoating c. nucleotide analogs in antiviral drugs can be used to stop viral replication d. drugs containing protease inhibitors retard viral growth by blocking the production of essential viral proteins

a. macrolide drugs block attachment sites on the host cell wall and prevent viruses from entering

Which of the following is most closely associated with a beta-lactam ring? a. penicillin b. vancomycin c. bacitracin d. isoniazid

a. penicillin

The key to successful chemotherapy is: a. selective toxicity b. a diffusion test c. the minimum inhibitory concentration test d. the spectrum of action

a. selective toxicity Harm to the targeted cells, minimal harm to the healthy cells/tissue.

Epitopes or antigenic determinants: are parts of the antibody molecule. are T cell receptors. are a portion of antigen recognized by antibody. may be approximately 10-25 amino acids in length. are a portion of antigen recognized by antibody AND may be approximately 10-25 amino acids in length.

are a portion of antigen recognized by antibody AND may be approximately 10-25 amino acids in length.

Competent cells are able to take up naked DNA. are antibiotic resistant. occur naturally. can be created in the laboratory. are able to take up naked DNA, occur naturally AND can be created in the laboratory.

are able to take up naked DNA, occur naturally AND can be created in the laboratory.

Electrons

are found in areas outside the nucleus known as orbitals, may gain or lose energy, and may move from one orbital to another.

Heterocysts: - are found in nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria AND generate oxygen. - are used to protect nitrogenase AND generate oxygen. - are found in nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria AND are used to protect nitrogenase. - produce catalase AND are found in nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria. - are found in nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria AND produce catalase.

are found in nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria AND are used to protect nitrogenase. - made by Anabeana

Lysogenized cells : are immune to any further infection by any virus. are immune to infection by the same virus. may have new properties. respond to infection with the SOS response. are immune to infection by the same virus AND may have new properties.

are immune to infection by the same virus AND may have new properties.

The Ames test is useful as a rapid screening test to identify those compounds that will respond to chemical agents. are mutagens. respond to the deletion of DNases. will protect an organism from cancer. will respond to chemical agents AND will protect an organism from cancer.

are mutagens

Amino acids that contain many methyl (-CH3) groups

are nonpolar

Prions

are only composed of protein

Prions are only composed of DNA. are only composed of RNA. are only composed of RNA and DNA. cause diseases in plants. are only composed of protein.

are only composed of protein.

Treponema and Borrelia

are spirochaetes.

Insertion sequences are the simplest type of transposon. code for a transposase enzyme. are characterized by an inverted repeat. can produce pili. are the simplest type of transposon, code for a transposase enzyme AND are characterized by an inverted repeat.

are the simplest type of transposon, code for a transposase enzyme AND are characterized by an inverted repeat.

Repressible operons (such as the arg operon)

are usually in the "on" mode

Mycorrhizae: - are vital for the survival of lichens AND are vital for the survival of many plants. - are vital for the survival of many plants AND are used in the production of wine, beer, and bread. - increase the absorptive ability of roots AND are used in the production of wine, beer, and bread. - are used in the production of wine, beer, and bread AND are vital for the survival of lichens. - are vital for the survival of many plants AND increase the absorptive ability of roots.

are vital for the survival of many plants AND increase the absorptive ability of roots.

artificial active immunity - artificial because of the injection, active because the agent causes a primary immune response

Chemical mutagens that mimic the naturally occurring bases are called nitrogen mustards. alkylating agents. base analogs. nitrous oxide.

base analogs

The rate of elimination of an antimicrobial is expressed as its: a. metabolic destructive rate. b. half-life. c. effective time. d. dosage rate.

b. half-life. The time it takes for the concentration in the blood to decrease by half (50%).

Introns are removed and exons are spliced together

before translation

Yersinia pestis is transmitted by fleas. The organism forms biofilms in the digestive tract of infected fleas, often blocking the tract. This prevents the flea from feeding properly, causing bacteria to be regurgitated into the bite wound that the flea has made. In this situation, the flea is a: - dead-end host. - mechanical vector. - mechanical host. - biological vector. - biological host.

biological vector

Some Archaea are commonly found in

boiling hot springs AND the Great Salt Lake

Once integrated, phage DNA can remain in the prophage state as long as

certain phage genes are repressed

Which of the following statements is relevant in explaining why sulfonamides are effective? a. sulfonamides attach to sterol lipids in the pathogen, disrupt the membranes, and lyse the cells b. sufonamides prevent the incorporation of amino acids into the polypeptide chains c. humans and microbes use folic acid and PABA differently in their metabolism d. sulfonamides inhibit DNA replication in both pathogens and human cells

c. humans and microbes use folic acid and PABA differently in their metabolism

Expression of viral oncogenes in infected animal cells

can mimic proto-oncogenes, causing imbalance in cell cycle control towards unchecked proliferation, leading to tumor formation.

The shape of the virus is determined by its: - envelope. - capsid. - spikes. - nucleic acid. - tail.

capsid - shapes are icosahedral, helical or complex. It's how the capsomeres are put together into the capsid. HInt: bacillus does not refer to the shape of a virus.

Both S. pneumoniae and K. pneumoniae use this as a virulence factor. A) Pili B) Flagella C) Capsules D) Cilia E) Toxins

capsule

Phthirus pubis, 1. are transmitted by mosquitoes 2. cause "crabs" 3. Transmit bacterial disease 4. Infect the blood 5. Are biological vectors

causes "crabs"

chicken wings mosquitoes are a vector and you didn't eat Susan. Hopefully.

The resistance of Klebsiella to antibiotics may be: A) chromosomal mediated AND lysosomal mediated. B) plasmid mediated AND lysosomal mediated. C) chromosomal mediated AND plasmid mediated. D) lysosomal mediated AND capsule mediated. E) capsule mediated AND plasmid mediated.

chromosomal mediated AND plasmid mediated. Most have plasmids: β-lactamase (resist β-lactams such as penicillin); many also extended-spectrum lactamase (ESBL) (resist many cephalosporins) Capsule is about resistance to being engulfed by phagocytes. No lysosomes. Phagocytes have lysosomes. Resistance can be due to spontaneous nucleic acid mutations or conferred by plasmids. So that one.

Modern approaches to evolutionary taxonomy often involve:

comparison of DNA or RNA

A virion is a(n): - complete, extracellular virus particle. - pathogenic virus. - subviral particle. - non-enveloped virus particle. - enveloped virus particle.

complete, extracellular virus particle.

A mutation in E. coli results in the loss of both restriction endonucleases and modification enzymes. Would you expect any difference in the frequency of gene transfer via transduction FROM Salmonella INTO this E. coli strain? a) Yes-the loss of the restriction endonucleases would leave the recipient E. coli unable to break down "invading"' viral DNA from the transducing phage. This would lead to higher rates of successful transduction. b) No-transduction efficiency isn't affected by either restriction endonucleases or modification enzymes, so there'd be no effect on the overall rate. c) No-since the Salmonella strain is normal, the rate of production of transducing virus particles would still be the same, resulting in the same frequency of gene transfer. d) Yes-the loss of the restriction endonucleases would leave the recipient E. coli unable to break down "invading" viral DNA from the transducing phage, AND the loss of the modification enzymes would leave the recipient E. coli unable to tag its own DNA as "self," leaving the viral DNA untagged and recognizable as "foreign," and targeted for destruction. Together, thesewould lead to higher rates of successful transduction. e) Yes-the loss of the modification enzymes would leave the recipient E. coli unable to tag its own DNA as "self," leaving the viral DNA untagged and recognizable as "foreign," and targeted for destruction. This would lead to higher rates of successful transduction.

d) Yes-the loss of the restriction endonucleases would leave the recipient E. coli unable to break down "invading" viral DNA from the transducing phage, AND the loss of the modification enzymes would leave the recipient E. coli unable to tag its own DNA as "self," leaving the viral DNA untagged and recognizable as "foreign," and targeted for destruction. Together, thesewould lead to higher rates of successful transduction.

Drugs that act against protein synthesis include: a. beta-lactams b. trimethoprim c. polymyxin d. aminoglycosides

d. aminoglycosides

Diffusion and dilution tests that expose pathogens to antimicrobials are designed to: a. determine the spectrum of action of a drug b. determine which drug is most effective against a particular pathogen c. determine the amount of a drug to use against a particular pathogen d. both b and c

d. both b and c

The destructive nature of tuberculosis can be characterized as a(n): A) endotoxin pyrogenic response. B) delayed-type cell-mediated hypersensitivity reaction. C) immune complex reaction. D) inflammatory response. E) inflammatory pyogenic response.

delayed-type cell-mediated hypersensitivity reaction. Type IV hypersensitivies are mediated by T cells - I suspect this is a poorly worded question. p.554 " this reaction is due to the accumulation of macrophages and T lymphocytes at the injection site, caused by a delayed type hypersensitivity reaction to the injected antigens." It is talking about the tuberculin skin test (TST)/Mantoux test

DNA is characterized by which of the following features

deoxyribose & thymine

Bacteria may become antibiotic resistant due to: a. drug-inactivating enzymes. b. alteration in the target molecule. c. decreased uptake of the drug. d. increased elimination of the drug. e. All of the choices are correct.

e. All of the choices are correct.

Which of the following drugs target peptidoglycan? a. penicillin b. cephalosporin c. vancomycin d. bacitracin e. All of the choices are correct.

e. All of the choices are correct.

Which of the following groups of microorganisms produces antibiotics? a. Penicillium b. Streptomyces c. Bacillus d. Penicillium AND Streptomyces e. All of the choices are correct.

e. All of the choices are correct. p.501 - Most antibiotics come from microorganisms that normally live in the soil, including species of Streptomyces and Bacillus (bacteria), and Penicillium and Cephalosporium (fungi).

A segment of DNA encoding a protein or an RNA molecule is a

gene

Bacteria that have properties of both the donor and recipient cells are the result of UV light. SOS repair. frame shift mutations. genetic recombination.

genetic recombination

Phylogenetic relationships between prokaryotes are most accurately determined using:

genotypic information.

The scientific name of an organism includes its

genus and species.

The term phototroph refers to an organism that

gets energy from sunlight

Rebecca Lancefield showed that almost all the strains of b-hemolytic streptococci from human infections: - could cause rheumatic fever. - had the same cell wall carbohydrate "A." - had variable cell wall carbohydrates. - responded to penicillin. - had the same cell wall carbohydrate "beta."

had the same cell wall carbohydrate (surface antigen), carbohydrate "A" - B also available, C = carbohydrate antigen on cells of horses, cattle and guinea pigs, D on cell wall of human normal microbiota

The clustered, regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats (CRISPR) system in bacterial cells has been called the "immune" system of bacteria. CRISPR protect bacteria from a repeat infection from the same phage because bacterial cells:

integrate fragments from the phage DNA in their own chromosomes and target for destruction any DNA that contains the same fragments in the future

is a measure of the hydrogen ion concentration

The lac operon

is an example of negative control

Hydrogen sulfide: - has a strong citrus smell. - is produced when nitrate is used as terminal electron acceptor. - is produced by Desulfovibrio. - may react with iron to produce a deep red precipitate. - All of the answer choices are correct.

is produced by Desulfvibrio -has a strong rotten egg smell -is produced when sulfur compounds are used as terminal electron acceptors. - may react with iron to produce a black percipitate

Once inside the host cell, phage DNA

is replicated, may get degraded by bacterial nucleases, and may integrate into the host chromosome.

The E-site

is responsible for the release of the tRNA - it goes E,P,A - release, initial, incoming

The N terminal in a protein

is the end characterized by a free amino group.???

The most necessary habitat requirement of protozoa is: 1. Light 2. Moisture 3. UV light 4. basic pH 5. heat

moisture

Many spirochetes are difficult to cultivate, so their classification is based on their: - number of flagella AND morphology. - ability to cause disease AND pattern of flagella. - number of chromosomes AND pattern of flagella. - morphology AND ability to cause disease. - pattern of pili AND flexible cell wall.

morphology AND ability to cause disease.

mouth

The source of variation among microorganisms that were once identical is antibiotic resistance. virulence factors. sigma factors. mutation.

mutation

The system by which organisms are named is referred to as

nomenclature

The system by which organisms are named is referred to as

nomenclature.

Lactic acid bacteria such as Lactococcus

obligate fermentors

Both viruses and viroids are

obligate intracellular parasites

Using phages to treat a bacterial infection is an interesting idea because: - of the increasing problem of antibiotic resistance in pathogens. - lysed bacteria pose no threat to a person's health. - of the increasing problem of antibiotic resistance in people. - a single phage can be genetically engineered to infect many different species of bacteria. - a single type of phage can destroy a wide range of strains of the same pathogen.

of the increasing problem of antibiotic resistance in pathogens.

Algae: - are always saprophytic or parasitic. - are only found in the soil. - have a vascular system similar to that of plants. - often grow in areas where other forms of life may have difficulty. - are strictly macroscopic organisms.

often grow in areas where other forms of life may have difficulty.

Filamentous phages: - only infect E. coli lacking pili. - infect E. coli regardless of the presence of pili. - only infect E. coli that have pili. - do not infect E. coli. - only infect Gram-negative E. coli.

only infect E. coli that have pili.

Pediculus humanus... 1. only uses humans as a host AND is carried by mosquitoes. 2. is an obligate intracellular parasite AND only uses humans as a host. 3. can transmit a bacterial disease AND only infects feet. 4. only uses humans as a host AND can transmit a bacterial disease. 5. only infects feet AND can transmit a bacterial disease.

only uses humans as a host AND can transmit a bacterial disease.

Coordinated sets of genes that are regulated as a single unit are referred to as

operons - regulated by an operon

the specific point on the dna molecule where replication begins is the

origin of replication

Clostridium, Lactobacillus, and Propionibacterium all: - oxidize inorganic compounds AND use organic compounds as terminal electron acceptors. - neutralize organic compounds AND use organic compounds as terminal electron acceptors. - oxidize organic compounds AND use organic compounds as terminal electron acceptors. - oxidize inorganic compounds AND use sulfur compounds as terminal electron acceptors. - oxidize organic compounds AND use sulfur compounds as terminal electron acceptors.

oxidize organic compounds AND use organic compounds as terminal electron acceptors.

Comparatively greater energy is released when: - carbon dioxide is the final electron acceptor. - oxygen is the final electron acceptor. - fermentation occurs. - nitrate is the final electron acceptor. - hydrogen is the final electron acceptor.

oxygen is the final electron acceptor.

The most effective form of penicillin is: penicillium. penicillin G. penicillin E. penicillin A. penicillin B.

penicillin G.

Thymine dimers are dealt with by no repair mechanisms. photoreactivation repair. SOS repair. excision repair. photoreactivation repair AND excision repair.

photoreactivation repair AND excision repair.

A difference between plasmids and fragments of DNA that have been transferred between cells is:

plasmids can replicate independently.

Propionibacterium: - produces propionic acid AND is responsible for the holes in Swiss cheese. - is responsible for the holes in Swiss cheese AND requires aerobic environments. - produces propionic acid AND requires aerobic environments. - produces lactic acid AND is a Gram-negative organism. - produces lactic acid AND is responsible for the holes in Swiss cheese.

produces propionic acid AND is responsible for the holes in Swiss cheese.

Translation of mRNA into protein begins before transcription is complete in _________.

prokaryotes only

Single-celled eukaryotic organisms that lack chlorophyll include: - yeasts AND cyanobacteria. - algae AND yeasts. - protozoa AND yeasts. - protozoa AND cyanobacteria. - algae AND archaea.

protozoa AND yeasts.

Antibiotics cause mutations to occur. may act as alkylating mutagens. provide an environment in which pre-existing mutants survive. increase the rate of spontaneous mutation.

provide an environment in which pre-existing mutants survive.

During attachment of phage to E. coli, the phage: - randomly bumps into the bacteria AND attaches to proteins or carbohydrates on the bacterial surface. - actively seeks out the bacteria AND attaches to proteins or carbohydrates on the bacterial surface. - actively seeks out the bacteria AND attaches to the bacterial DNA. - randomly bumps into the bacteria AND attaches to the bacterial DNA. - randomly bumps into the bacteria AND attaches to the bacterial RNA.

randomly bumps into the bacteria AND attaches to proteins or carbohydrates on the bacterial surface.

Acidic or basic amino acids are

readily soluble in water, able to form ions AND considered hydrophilic.

The primary structure in a protein

refers to the sequence of amino acids

A clever technique that streamlines the identification of auxotrophic mutants is gas chromatography. replica plating. direct selection. reversion.

replica plating

Endoflagella (axial filaments) are only found on: Movement of spirochetes occurs by means of structures called:

spirochetes -use for locomotion -axial filaments

The best possible analogy available for the way in which variable (V), diversity (D), and joining (J) antibody gene segments get put together to create the diversity possible in hypervariable regions is: to think of the various segments as a deck of cards—when you get dealt a hand of five cards, you have a very high likelihood of getting a different hand every time. The quality of the hand you have dealt will dictate whether you have a "winning" hand (capable of binding to antigenic epitopes). to think of the various segments as the pieces of a house—you need a strong foundation first (the joining segments), followed by a frame (the diversity segments), then the interior walls (the variable segments) before the structure is complete. to think of the various segments as the characters in a game of Clue. Each character is assigned a specific weapon with which to commit a murder (the joining segments), but once that is assigned, the room in which the murder occurs is random (the diversity segments); to get a complete picture, you need to know the name of the victim (variable segments). to think of the various segments as building a highway—you need to prepare the area first by clearing a path (the joining segments do this), then grade/slope the area (the diversity segments) before you can finally lay down the asphalt (the variable segments). to think of the various segments as a bingo game—each segment is randomly selected, but you're going to need one of each (V, D, and J) to form a functional molecule. The "right" combination varies depending on which antigen is eventually going to be binding to the molecule (i.e., your bingo card would be the eventual antigen, and the random calling out of the number/letter combinations would be the forming of the VDJ hypervariable region).

to think of the various segments as a bingo game-each segment is randomly selected, but you're going to need one of each V, D, and J to form a functional molecule. The "right" combination varaies depending on which antigen is eventually going to be binding to the molecule (i.e., your bingo card would be the eventual antigen, and the random calling out of the number/letter combinations would be the forming of the VDJ hypervariable region).

The mechanism by which genes are transferred into bacteria via viruses is called ellipsis. replica plating. transformation. transduction. conjugation.

transduction

Segments of DNA capable of moving from one area in the DNA to another are called base analogs. intercalating agents. transposons. palindromic sequences.

transposons

From Ch 1 - The work of Tyndall and Cohn:

was used to explain why others investigating spontaneous generation had obtained results that were opposite of those obtained by Pasteur

The work of Tyndall and Cohn

was used to explain why others investigating spontaneous generation had obtained results that were opposite of those obtained by Pasteur.

water

Plant pathology grew in importance as a field of study after it was shown that the Irish potato blight was caused by: - viruses. - bacteria. - water molds. - fungi. - amoeboid protozoa.

water mold

In the late nineteenth century, immigration from Ireland to the United States occurred in high numbers due to an infection of potatoes by:

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