MIDTERM CH 14 (wk 5)

Lakukan tugas rumah & ujian kamu dengan baik sekarang menggunakan Quizwiz!

102. In which aspect of the orbital wall a "blowout fracture" usually occurs? (A) Superior (B) Inferior (C) Medial (D) Lateral

(B) Inferior

142. The uppermost portion of the iliac crest is approximately at the same level as that of the (A) costal margin (B) umbilicus (C) xiphoid tip (D) fourth lumbar vertebra

(D) fourth lumbar vertebra

22. The American Hospital Association's (AHA's) Patient Care Partnership includes the essentials of the Bill of Rights and reviews what patients can/should expect during a hospital stay, including 1. protection of patient privacy 2. help with billing claims 3. help when leaving the hospital (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

27. Which of the following factor(s) is/are important in determining thickness of protective barriers? 1. Distance between the x-ray source and the barrier 2. Occupancy factor time 3. Workload (mA-min/week) (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

34. Diseases whose mode of transmission is air include 1. tuberculosis 2. mumps 3. rubella (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

37. Advantages of light-emitting display (LED) over liquid crystal display (LCD) include 1. less power consumption 2. improved lighting 3. thinner design (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

41. Characteristics of nonstochastic effects of radiation include 1. they have predictability 2. they have a threshold 3. severity is directly related to dose (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

43. Potential educational Honor Code violations include 1. falsification of clinical competency documents 2. cheating and/or plagiarism 3. violating patient confidentiality (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

45. Patient dose during fluoroscopic examinations varies with 1. Magnification 2. patient size 3. length of examination (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

48. The following bones participate in the formation of the knee: 1. femur 2. tibia 3. patella (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

72. Major effect(s) of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) irradiation includes 1. malignant disease 2. chromosome aberration 3. cell death (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

160. kV selection in digital imaging has an effect on 1. photon energy 2. penetration 3. image contrast (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3 (B) 1 and 2 only (book says B but Kris says D)

57. A patient is usually required to drink barium sulfate suspension in order to demonstrate which of the following structure(s)? 1. Pylorus 2. Sigmoid 3. Duodenum (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 3 only

(B) 1 and 3 only

188. Radiographers use monitoring devices to record their monthly exposure to radiation. The types of devices suited for this purpose include 1. pocket dosimeter 2. thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD) 3. optically stimulated luminescence (OSL) (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

24. Advantages of moving the image intensifier closer to the patient during traditional fluoroscopy include 1. increased object-to-image-receptor distance (OID) 2. decreased patient dose 3. improved image quality (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

42. Chemical substances that are used to kill pathogenic bacteria are called 1. antiseptics 2. Germicides 3. disinfectants (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

56. Glenohumeral joint dislocation can be evaluated with which of the following? 1. Inferosuperior axial (contraindicated for dislocation) 2. Transthoracic lateral 3. Scapular Y projection (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

7. Symptoms of imminent anaphylactic shock include 1. dysphasia (difficulty speaking so not a typical allergic reaction) 2. urticaria 3. constriction of the throat (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

77. The enteral route of drug administration includes the following: 1. intravenous 2. oral 3. nasogastric (NG) tube (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

89. Which of the following medical equipment is used to determine blood pressure? 1. Pulse oximeter 2. Stethoscope 3. Sphygmomanometer (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

182. To demonstrate the pulmonary apices with the patient in the AP erect position, the (A) CR is directed 15°-20° cephalad (B) CR is directed 15°-20° caudad (C) exposure is made on full exhalation (D) patient's shoulders are rolled forward

(A) CR is directed 15°-20° cephalad

81. The product of absorbed dose (D) and radiation a weighting factor (Wr) is (A) EqD (B) EfD (C) TEDE (D) Wt

(A) EqD

6. When reviewing patients' blood chemistry levels, what is considered the normal creatinine range? (A) 0.6-1.5 mg/100 mL (B) 4.5-6.0 mg/100 mL (C) 8-25 mg/100 mL (BUN Range) (D) Up to 50 mg/100 mL

(A) 0.6-1.5 mg/100 mL

68. A student radiographer who is younger than 18 years must not receive an annual occupational dose greater than (A) 1 mSv (0.1 rem) (B) 5 mSv (0.5 rem) (C) 50 mSv (5 rem) (D) 100 mSv (10 rem)

(A) 1 mSv (0.1 rem)

176. Proper care of leaded apparel includes 1. periodic check for cracks 2. careful folding following each use 3. routine laundering with soap and water (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(A) 1 only

193. A slit camera is used to measure 1. focal spot size 2. laser beam accuracy 3. SID resolution (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(A) 1 only

78. The energy of x-ray photons has an inverse relationship to 1. photon wavelength 2. applied mA 3. applied kV (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(A) 1 only

8. Which of the following is/are well demonstrated in the oblique position/projection of the lumbar spine? 1. Zygapophyseal joints 2. Intervertebral foramina 3. Intervertebral joints (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(A) 1 only

98. Chemical substances that inhibit the growth of pathogenic microorganisms without necessarily killing them are called 1. antiseptics 2. germicides 3. disinfectants (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(A) 1 only

32. Examples of primary radiation barriers include 1. x-ray room walls 2. control booth 3. lead aprons (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(A) 1 only Primary radiation barriers: direct exposure from the primary (useful) x-ray beam, greater attenuation capability (lead walls and doors of a radiographic room, any surface that could be struck by the useful beam; walls with 1/16 inch (1.5 mm) lead thickness and 7 feet height) secondary barriers, which protect only from leakage and scattered radiation.

174. What minimum total amount of filtration (inherent plus added) is required in an x-ray equipment operated above 70 kV? (A) 2.5-mm Al equivalent (B) 3.5-mm Al equivalent (C) 2.5-mm Cu equivalent (D) 3.5-mm Cu equivalent

(A) 2.5-mm Al equivalent

36. In which of the following positions was the radiograph seen in Figure 14-5 made? (A) AP erect (B) PA recumbent (C) Right lateral decubitus (D) Dorsal decubitus

(A) AP erect

167. Which of the following systems functions to compensate for changing patient/part thicknesses during fluoroscopic procedures? (A) Automatic brightness control (ABC) (B) Minification gain (C) Automatic resolution control (D) Flux gain

(A) Automatic brightness control (ABC)

3. Which of the following statements regarding Figure 14-1A and B is true? (A) In Figure 14-1A, the plantar surface and the image receptor (IR) form a 30° angle (B) In Figure 14-1A, the plantar surface and the IR form a 60° angle (C) In Figure 14-1B, the plantar surface and the IR form a 30° angle (D) In Figure 14-1B, the plantar surface and the IR form a 60° angle

(A) In Figure 14-1A, the plantar surface and the image receptor (IR) form a 30° angle

83. What does the letter H represent in Figure 14-8? (A) Jejunum (B) Ascending duodenum (C) Descending duodenum (D) Bulb of duodenum

(A) Jejunum

184. In which quadrant is the sigmoid colon located? (A) LLQ (left lower quadrant) (B) LUQ (left upper quadrant) (C) RLQ (right lower quadrant) (D) RUQ

(A) LLQ (left lower quadrant)

61. What does the letter H represent in Figure 14-7? (A) Lunate (B) Pisiform (C) Trapezoid (D) Hamate

(A) Lunate

79. Cervical spine positions performed to demonstrate the intervertebral foramina closest to the IR are (A) RAO (right anterior oblique) and LAO (left anterior oblique) (B) RPO and LPO (C) AP (D) lateral

(A) RAO (right anterior oblique) and LAO (left anterior oblique)

172. An accurately positioned oblique projection of the first through fourth lumbar vertebrae will demonstrate the classic "Scotty dog." What bony structure does the Scotty dog's "ear" represent? (A) Superior articular process (B) Pedicle (C) Transverse process (D) Pars interarticularis

(A) Superior articular process

47. What portion of a computed radiography system records the radiologic image? (A) The photostimulable phosphor (B) The scanner/reader (C) The emulsion (D) The image plate (IP)

(A) The photostimulable phosphor (RESEARCH IF THIS IS CORRECT)

112. A small bottle containing a single dose of medication is termed (A) an ampule (B) a vial (C) a bolus (D) a carafe

(A) an ampule

60. The image intensifier's input phosphor is generally composed of (A) cesium iodide (B) zinc cadmium sulfide (C) gadolinium oxysulfide (D) calcium tungstate

(A) cesium iodide

135. The mechanical device used to correct an ineffectual cardiac rhythm is a (A) defibrillator (B) cardiac monitor (C) crash cart (D) resuscitation bag

(A) defibrillator

138. An abnormal passage between organs is a/an (A) fistula (B) polyp (C) diverticulum (D) abscess

(A) fistula

175. A CR histogram is a graphic representation of (A) grayscale values of the imaged part (B) a characteristic curve of the imaged part (C) Dmax (D) Dmin

(A) grayscale values of the imaged part

120. The sternoclavicular joints are best demonstrated with the patient PA and (A) in a slight oblique, affected side adjacent to the IR (B) in a slight oblique, affected side away from the IR (C) erect, weight bearing (D) erect, with and without weights

(A) in a slight oblique, affected side adjacent to the IR

69. Proper body mechanics includes a wide base of support. The base of support is the portion of the body (A) in contact with the floor or other horizontal surface (B) in the midportion of the pelvis or lower abdomen (C) passing through the center of gravity (D) none of the above

(A) in contact with the floor or other horizontal surface

158. The automatic exposure device that is located immediately under the x-ray table is the (A) ionization chamber (B) scintillation camera (C) photomultiplier (D) photocathode

(A) ionization chamber

190. The radiograph seen in Figure 14-15 illustrates the joint space obscured by the (A) medial femoral condyle (B) lateral femoral condyle (C) intercondylar eminences (D) tibial tuberosity

(A) medial femoral condyle

4. Photostimulable luminescence (PSL) occurs when the photostimulable phosphor (PSP) is exposed to (A) monochromatic laser light (B) barium fluorohalide (C) high-energy x-ray photons (D) low-energy x-ray photons

(A) monochromatic laser light

140. The type of shock associated with pooling of blood in the peripheral vessels is classified as (A) neurogenic (B) cardiogenic (C) hypovolemic (D) septic

(A) neurogenic Neurogenic: pooling of blood in the peripheral vessels ( trauma to the central nervous system, resulting in decreased arterial resistance and pooling of blood in peripheral vessels) Cardiogenic: cardiac failure (interference with heart function, cardiac tamponade, pulmonary embolus, or myocardial infarction) Hypovolemic: loss of large amounts of blood (internal bleeding or hemorrhage associated with trauma) Septic: (result of massive infection) Anaphylactic: contact with substances to which the individual has become sensitized ( medication or bee sting)

66. The AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull best demonstrates the (A) occipital bone (B) frontal bone (C) facial bones (D) sphenoid bone

(A) occipital bone

88. The function of shuttering is to (A) remove bright, unexposed areas outside the collimated field (B) prevent overexposure (C) prevent underexposure (D) substitute for, or supplement, collimation

(A) remove bright, unexposed areas outside the collimated field

91. Circuit devices that permit electrons to flow in only one direction are (A) solid-state diodes (B) resistors (C) transformers (D) autotransformers

(A) solid-state diodes

181. All of the following statements concerning respiratory structures are true, except (A) the right lung has two lobes (B) the uppermost portion of the lung is the apex (C) each lung is enclosed in pleura (D) the trachea bifurcates into mainstem bronchi

(A) the right lung has two lobes

12. The right colic flexure is formed by the junction of the (A) transverse and ascending colon (B) descending and transverse colon (C) descending and sigmoid colon (D) cecum and ascending colon

(A) transverse and ascending colon

157. Characteristics of a 16:1 grid include 1. absorbing more useful radiation than an 8:1 grid 2. having more centering latitude than an 8:1 grid 3. using with higher kV exposures than an 8:1 grid (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 3 only

18. The term effective dose refers to (A) whole-body dose (B) localized organ dose (C) absorbed dose (D) radiation weighting factor (A) whole-body dose

(A) whole-body dose Tissue weighting factor (Wt) represents the relative tissue radiosensitivity of irradiated material. Radiation weighting factor (Wr) is a number assigned to different types of ionizing radiations in order to better determine their effect on tissue. The Wr of different ionizing radiations is dependent on the LET of that particular radiation. The following formula is used to determine effective dose (E): Effective dose (E) = Radiation weighting factor (Wr) × Tissue weighting factor (Wt) × Absorbed dose. The effective dose describes whole-body dose. Whole-body dose is always less than the exposure dose received by the irradiated part. For example, the entrance skin exposure of a PA chest is approximately 70 mrem, whereas the effective dose is 10 mrem. The effective (whole body) dose is much less because much of the body is not included in the primary beam. Occupational dose limits are expressed as effective dose.

117. What is the intensity of scattered radiation perpendicular to and 1 m from the patient compared with the useful beam at the patient's surface? (A) 0.01% (B) 0.1% (C) 1.0% (D) 10.0%

(B) 0.1% general, at 1 m from the patient, the intensity is reduced by a factor of 1000 to approximately 0.1% of the original intensity.

159. What pixel size has a 512 × 512 matrix with a 20-cm FOV? (A) 0.07 mm/pixel (B) 0.40 mm/pixel (C) 0.04 mm/pixel (D) 4.0 mm/pixel

(B) 0.40 mm/pixel Pixel size is determined by dividing the FOV by the matrix. In this case, the FOV is 20 cm; because the answer is expressed in millimeters, first change 20 cm to 200 mm. Then 200 divided by 512 equals 0.39 mm:

110. Typical characteristics of the android pelvis include 1. pubic angle less than 90° 2. narrow, vertical 3. pelvic inlet large and round (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only

113. An increase in kV will have which of the following effects? 1. More scattered radiation will be produced 2. The exposure rate will increase 3. Radiographic contrast will increase (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only

125. Image resolution improves as 1. scintillation increases 2. DEL size decreases 3. fill factor increases (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only

130. In order to be considered as legitimate legal evidence, each x-ray image must contain certain essential and specific patient information, including 1. date of examination 2. side marker 3. referring physician (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only

131. In the lateral projection of the foot, the 1. plantar surface should be perpendicular to the IR 2. metatarsals should be superimposed 3. talofibular joint should be visualized (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only

16. Symptoms of shock include 1. pallor and weakness 2. increased pulse rate 3. fever (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only

196. Which of the following conditions would require an increase in technical factors? 1. Congestive heart failure 2. Pleural effusion 3. Emphysema (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only

198. Advantages of flat panel fluoroscopy include 1. decreased patient dose 2. increased temporal resolution 3. decreased DQE (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only

39. When imaging the skull with the orbitomeatal line (OML) perpendicular to the IR and the CR directed 25° cephalad 1. the occipital bone is well demonstrated 2. the dorsum sella is seen within the foramen magnum 3. the petrous pyramids fill the orbits (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only

49. Adult tissues that are relatively insensitive to radiation exposure include 1. muscle tissue 2. nerve tissue 3. epithelial tissue (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only

92. Exposure rate increases with an increase in 1. mA 2. kV 3. SID (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only

93. Characteristics of anemia include 1. decreased number of circulating red blood cells 2. decreased hemoglobin 3. hematuria (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only

162. Digital radiographic imaging equipment provides a number of functions for optimization of image quality, including 1. exposure data recognition (EDR) 2. automatic rescaling 3. narrow latitude (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only Digital imaging EDR and automatic rescaling offer wide latitude and automatic optimization of the values of interest in the radiologic image. EDR, using the selected processing algorithm and its lookup table (LUT), enables compensation for approximately 80% underexposure and 500% overexposure. Although automatic/computerized optimization of the radiologic image is a wonderful tool, radiographers must be even more aware of their responsibility to keep patient dose to a minimum. Overexposure, although correctable via EDR, results in increased patient dose; underexposure results in decreased image quality because of increased image noise.

21. During a gastrointestinal (GI) examination, the anteroposterior (AP) recumbent projection of a stomach of average shape usually demonstrates 1. barium-filled fundus 2. double contrast of distal stomach portions 3. barium-filled duodenum and pylorus (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only With the body in the AP recumbent position, barium easily flows into the fundus of the stomach, displacing it somewhat superiorly. The fundus, then, is filled with barium, whereas the air that had been in the fundus is displaced into the gastric body, pylorus, and duodenum, illustrating them in double-contrast fashion. Air contrast delineation of these structures allows us to see through the stomach to retrogastric areas and structures. Barium-filled duodenum and pylorus are best demonstrated in the RAO position.

13. The following imaging procedures do not require use of ionizing radiation to produce an image: 1. diagnostic sonography 2. computed tomography (CT) 3. magnetic resonance imaging (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 3 only

178. If the test image seen in Figure 14-14 is known to represent correctly operating full-wave rectified equipment, then at what exposure time was it made? (A) 1/15 second (B) 1/30 second (C) 1/60 second (D) 1/120 second

(B) 1/30 second When a spinning top is used to test the timer efficiency of single-phase, full-wave rectified equipment, the result is a series of dots or dashes, with each dot representing a pulse of radiation. With full-wave rectified current, and a possible 120 pulses (dots) available per second, one should visualize 12 dots at 1/10 second, 6 dots at 0.05 second, and so on. If four dots of a possible 120 are seen, then the exposure time is The spinning-top test may be used to test timer accuracy in single-phase equipment. A spinning top is a metal disk with a small hole placed in its outer edge and placed on a pedestal approximately 6 inches high. The exposure is made while the top spins. Because three-phase equipment produces almost constant potential—rather than pulsed radiation—the standard spinning top cannot be used. A synchronous spinning top can be employed to test timers of three-phase equipment. Physicists often use an ion chamber or photodiode assembly.

2. Which of the following is/are used to account for relative radiosensitivity of various tissues and organs? 1. Radiation weighting factors (Wr) 2. Tissue weighting factors (Wt) 3. Absorbed dose (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 2 only

19. With the body in the erect position, the diaphragm moves (A) 2-4 inches higher than when in the recumbent position (B) 2-4 inches lower than when in the recumbent position (C) 2-4 inches superiorly (D) very slightly

(B) 2-4 inches lower than when in the recumbent position

119. A 3-inch object to be radiographed at 36-inch SID lies 4 inches from the IR. What will be the image width? (A) 2.6 inches (B) 3.3 inches (C) 26.0 inches (D) 33.0 inches

(B) 3.3 inches

169. What is the fetal dose limit for pregnant radiographers for the entire gestation period? (A) 1.0 mSv (0.1 rem) (B) 5.0 mSv (0.5 rem) (C) 50 mSv (5.0 rem) (D) 100 mSv (10 rem)

(B) 5.0 mSv (0.5 rem)

46. In which position was the radiograph seen in Figure 14-6B obtained? (A) AP erect (B) AP recumbent (C) PA erect (D) PA recumbent

(B) AP recumbent

168. Which of the following is usually recommended for cleaning CR image storage screens? (A) Denatured alcohol (B) Anhydrous ethanol (C) Soap and water (D) Intensifying screen cleaner

(B) Anhydrous ethanol

44. In which of the following locations can the pulse be detected only by the use of a stethoscope? (A) Wrist (B) Apex of the heart (C) Groin (D) Neck

(B) Apex of the heart

141. What projection of the calcaneus is obtained with the leg extended, plantar surface vertical and perpendicular to the IR, and CR directed 40° caudad? (A) Axial plantodorsal projection (B) Axial dorsoplantar projection (C) Lateral projection (D) Weight-bearing lateral

(B) Axial dorsoplantar projection

128. Which of the following functions to protect the x-ray tube and the patient from overexposure in the event the AEC device fails to terminate an exposure? (A) Circuit breaker (B) Backup timer (C) Rheostat (D) Fuse

(B) Backup timer

52. In which of the following positions should you place a patient who is experiencing syncope? (A) Dorsal recumbent with head elevated (B) Dorsal recumbent with feet elevated (C) Lateral recumbent (D) Seated with feet supported

(B) Dorsal recumbent with feet elevated

99. Which of the following is a vasopressor and may be used for an anaphylactic reaction or cardiac arrest? (A) Nitroglycerin (B) Epinephrine (C) Hydrocortisone (D) Digitoxin

(B) Epinephrine

124. Which of the following devices functions to produce hard copies of digital images? (A) Digitizer (B) Laser printer (C) Histogram (D) CRT

(B) Laser printer

105. By which of the following dose-response curves are late or long-term effects of radiation exposure generally represented? (A) Linear threshold (B) Linear nonthreshold (C) Nonlinear threshold (D) Nonlinear nonthreshold

(B) Linear nonthreshold

118. Which of the following is demonstrated in a 25° LPO position with the CR entering 1 inch medial to the elevated anterior superior iliac spine? (A) Left sacroiliac joint (B) Right sacroiliac joint (C) Left ilium (D) Right ilium

(B) Right sacroiliac joint

9. Which of the following digital postprocessing actions removes high-frequency noise from the digital image? (A) Windowing (B) Smoothing (low-pass filtering) (C) Aliasing (D) Edge enhancement

(B) Smoothing (low-pass filtering) Smoothing is a type of spatial frequency filtering performed in digital image postprocessing by averaging each pixel frequency with surrounding pixel values to remove high frequency noise. This results in a reduction of noise and contrast, and is useful for viewing small structural details. Windowing is a postprocessing adjustment of digital image brightness and contrast. Aliasing is an artifact that can occur in digital imaging with insufficient sampling frequency. Edge enhancement is also a postprocessing function that can be used to emphasize small high contrast tissues.

189. During GI radiography, the position of the stomach often varies depending on 1. respiratory phase 2. body habitus 3. patient position (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

195. What should be the radiographer's main objective regarding personal radiation safety? (A) Not to exceed his or her dose limit (B) To keep personal exposure as far below the dose limit as possible (C) To avoid whole-body exposure (D) To wear protective apparel when "holding" patients for exposures

(B) To keep personal exposure as far below the dose limit as possible

132. The image artifact seen in Figure 14-11 is representative of (A) a processor artifact (B) an exposure artifact (C) a handling artifact (D) mechanical artifact

(B) an exposure artifact

152. The position illustrated in Figure 14-12 can be improved by (A) bringing the chin up more (B) bringing the chin down more (C) angling the CR caudad (D) opening the mouth more

(B) bringing the chin down more

115. In Figure 14-10, the letter E represents the (A) trochlea (B) capitulum (C) lateral epicondyle (D) medial epicondyle

(B) capitulum

126. The best way to control voluntary motion is (A) immobilization of the part (B) careful explanation of the procedure (C) short exposure time (D) physical restraint

(B) careful explanation of the procedure Patients who are able to cooperate are usually able to control voluntary motion if they are provided with an adequate explanation of the procedure. Once patients understand what is needed, most will cooperate to the best of their ability (by suspending respiration and holding still for the exposure). Certain body functions and responses, such as heart action, peristalsis, pain, and muscle spasm, cause involuntary motion uncontrollable by the patient. The best way to control involuntary and voluntary motion is by always selecting the shortest possible exposure time. Voluntary motion may also be minimized by careful explanation, immobilization, and (as a last resort and only in certain cases) restraint.

11. Somatic effects of radiation refer to effects that are manifested (A) in the descendants of the exposed individual (B) during the life of the exposed individual (C) in the exposed individual and his or her descendants (D) in the reproductive cells of the exposed individual

(B) during the life of the exposed individual

111. A radiographic image exhibiting few shades of gray between black and white is said to possess (A) no contrast (B) high contrast (C) low contrast (D) little contrast

(B) high contrast

75. The PSP is exposed to a narrow laser beam (A) on the display monitor (B) in the scanner/reader (C) in the cassette (D) on the x-ray table

(B) in the scanner/reader

194. The most effective method of sterilization is (A) dry heat (B) moist heat (C) pasteurization (D) freezing

(B) moist heat

51. Any wall that the useful x-ray beam can be directed toward is called a (A) secondary barrier (B) primary barrier (C) leakage barrier (D) scattered barrier

(B) primary barrier

183. The effects of radiation on biologic material are dependent on several factors. If a quantity of radiation is delivered to a body over a long period of time, the effect (A) will be greater than if it were delivered all at one time (B) will be less than if it were delivered all at one time (C) has no relation to how it is delivered in time (D) is solely dependent on the radiation quality

(B) will be less than if it were delivered all at one time

133. The technical factor that is used to regulate x-ray beam intensity is 1. milliamperage 2. exposure time 3. kilovoltage (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

154. Types of positive contrast agents include 1. barium sulfate suspension 2. water-based iodinated media 3. carbon dioxide (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1 and 3 only

187. The total brightness gain of an image intensifier is a result of 1. flux gain 2. minification gain 3. focusing gain (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1 and 3 only

20. With all other factors constant, as a digital image's matrix size increases 1. pixel size decreases 2. resolution increases 3. pixel size increases (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 2 and 3 only

90. Which of the following statements regarding human gonadal cells is/are accurate? 1. The female oogonia reproduce only during fetal life 2. The male spermatogonia reproduce continuously 3. Both male and female stem cells reproduce only during fetal life (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 3 only

50. To better demonstrate ribs below the diaphragm 1. suspend respiration at the end of full exhalation 2. suspend respiration at the end of deep inhalation 3. perform the examination in the recumbent position (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 2 and 3 only

108. Special beam-shaping optics are used in the CR reader to keep the infrared laser scanning light finely focused in order to 1. collect analog data 2. improve signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) 3. maintain good spatial resolution (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

123. In which of the following conditions is protective or "reverse" isolation required? 1. Tuberculosis 2. Burns 3. Leukemia (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

129. Potential digital image postprocessing tasks include 1. PACS (picture archiving and communications system) 2. annotation 3. inversion/reversal (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

137. The blue-green PSL that corresponds to the visible x-ray image occurs 1. immediately upon the initial prompt emission of light 2. sometime after the initial prompt emission of light 3. upon stimulation by finely focused infrared light (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

145. The type(s) of radiation produced at the tungsten target is/are 1. photoelectric 2. characteristic 3. bremsstrahlung (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

186. The four major arteries supplying the brain include the 1. brachiocephalic artery 2. common carotid arteries 3. vertebral arteries (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

106. Radiographic subject unsharpness is a result of 1. object plane is not parallel with the CR 2. object plane is not parallel with the IR 3. anatomic details of interest are not in the path of the CR (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(C) 2 and 3 only A certain amount of object unsharpness is an inherent part of every radiographic image because of the position and shape of anatomic structures within the body. For the shape of anatomic structures to be accurately recorded, the structures must be parallel to the x-ray tube (perpendicular to the CR) and the IR and aligned with the CR. Image details away from the path of the CR will be exposed by more divergent rays, resulting in rotation distortion. This is why the CR must be directed to the part of greatest interest. The shape of anatomic structures lying at an angle within the body or placed away from the CR will be misrepresented on the IR. There are two types of shape distortion. If a linear structure is not parallel to the long axis of the part/body and not parallel to the IR, that anatomic structure will appear smaller—it will be foreshortened. On the other hand, elongation occurs when the x-ray tube is angled.

94. Grid interspace material can be made of 1. carbon fiber 2. aluminum 3. plastic fiber (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(C) 2 and 3 only Grids are composed of alternating strips of lead and radiolucent interspace material. The interspace material is either aluminum or plastic fiber. Aluminum resists moisture, is sturdier, and provides a "smoother" appearance with less visible grid lines—but requires a higher mAs and therefore increases patient dose. Plastic fiber interspace material can be affected by moisture, resulting in warping. Carbon fiber is often used as IP-front material because of its durability and homogeneity.

71. Accurate operation of the automatic exposure control (AEC) device is dependent on 1. thickness and density of the object 2. positioning of the object with respect to the ionization chamber 3. beam restriction (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(C) 2 and 3 only The AEC automatically terminates the exposure when the proper density has been recorded on the IR. The important advantage of the phototimer, then, is that it can accurately duplicate radiographic densities. It is useful in providing accurate comparison in follow-up examinations and in decreasing patient exposure dose by decreasing the number of "retakes" because of improper exposure. The AEC automatically adjusts the exposure required for body parts having different thicknesses and densities. Remember that proper functioning of the AEC depends on accurate positioning by the radiographer. The correct ionization chamber(s) must be selected, and the anatomic part of interest must completely cover the ionization chamber to achieve the desired density. If collimation is inadequate, and a field size larger than the part is used, excessive scattered radiation from the body or tabletop can cause the AEC to terminate the exposure prematurely, resulting in an underexposed radiograph.

87. An increase in added filtration will result in 1. an increase in maximum energy of the x-ray beam 2. a decrease in x-ray intensity 3. an increase in effective energy of the x-ray beam (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

200. Proper treatment of epistaxis includes 1. tilt head back 2. breath through mouth 3. refrain from speaking (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

107. Order the following cell types in terms of radiosensitivity, from greatest to least: 1. osteoblasts 2. spermatogonia 3. myocytes (A) 1, 2, 3 (B) 1, 3, 2 (C) 2, 1, 3 (D) 3, 1, 2

54. Arrange the following tissues in the order of decreasing radiosensitivity: 1. liver cells 2. intestinal crypt cells 3. muscle cells (A) 1, 3, 2 (B) 2, 3, 1 (C) 2, 1, 3 (D) 3, 1, 2

97. Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the proximal tibiofibular articulation? (A) AP (B) 90° mediolateral (C) 45° internal rotation (D) 45° external rotation

40. A profile view of the glenoid fossa can be obtained with the CR directed perpendicular to the glenoid fossa and the patient rotated (A) 20°, affected side down (B) 20°, affected side up (C) 45°, affected side down (D) 45°, affected side up

96. Which of these radiation exposure situations is likely to be the most harmful? (A) A large dose to a specific area all at once (B) A small dose to the whole body over a period of time (C) A large dose to the whole body all at one time (D) A small dose to a specific area over a period of time

170. What type of precaution prevents the spread of infectious agents in aerosol form? (A) Strict isolation (B) Protective isolation (C) Airborne precautions (D) Contact precautions

31. Which of the following digital artifacts can result if the direction of the grid's lead strips and the grid frequency match the scan frequency of the scanner/reader? (A) Phantom image (B) Skipped scan lines (C) Aliasing (D) Grid lines

55. The percentage of incoming x-ray photons that are detected and absorbed by the receptor describes (A) DEL (B) FOV (C) DQE (D) TFT

76. What is the best way to reduce magnification distortion? (A) Use a small focal spot (B) Increase the SID (C) Decrease the OID (D) Use a shorter exposure time

(C) Decrease the OID There are two types of distortion: size and shape. Shape distortion relates to the alignment of the x-ray tube, the part to be radiographed, and the IR. There are two kinds of shape distortion: elongation and foreshortening. Size distortion is magnification and is related to the OID and SID. Magnification can be reduced by either increasing the SID or decreasing the OID. However, an increase in SID must be accompanied by an increase in mAs (milliampere seconds) to maintain density. It is therefore preferable, in the interest of exposure time, to reduce OID whenever possible. Use of short exposure time is beneficial for reducing motion unsharpness.

104. What activator is required for barium fluorohalide to retain its luminous properties? (A) Cesium (B) Iodine (C) Europium (D) Gadolinium

191. The processes of the temporal include the 1. mastoid 2. zygomatic 3. styloid (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

26. Which of the following figures (Fig. 14-4) most likely demonstrates 3-phase, 12-pulse rectification of the x-ray beam? (A) Figure A (B) Figure B (C) Figure C (D) Figure D

(C) Figure C Approximately, a 13% voltage ripple (drop from maximum value) characterizes the operation of three-phase, six-pulse generators. Three-phase, 12-pulse generators have approximately a 4% voltage ripple.

84. What structure occupies the area represented by the letter G in Figure 14-8? (A) Gallbladder (B) Right lobe of the liver (C) Head of the pancreas (D) Hepatic flexure of the colon

29. When examining the fourth and fifth fingers in the lateral position, which side of the forearm should be closest to the IR? (A) Anterior (B) Posterior (C) Medial (D) Lateral

109. Which of the following is a fast-acting vasodilator used to lower blood pressure and relieve the pain of angina pectoris? (A) Digitalis (B) Dilantin (C) Nitroglycerin (D) Cimetidine (Tagamet)

58. Under which of the following conditions is biologic material most sensitive to radiation exposure? (A) Anoxic (B) Hypoxic (C) Oxygenated (D) Deoxygenated

171. Which of the following is a condition in which an occluded blood vessel stops blood flow to a portion of the lungs? (A) Pneumothorax (B) Atelectasis (C) Pulmonary embolism (D) Hypoxia

85. In what position was the radiograph seen in Figure 14-8 made? (A) AP (B) LPO (C) RAO (D) Lateral

197. What structure is indicated by the number 3 in Figure 14-16? (A) Maxillary sinuses (B) Mastoid sinuses (C) Sphenoid sinuses (D) Ethmoid sinuses

177. The sum of effective dose equivalent from external and internal radiation sources is expressed as (A) EqD (B) EfD (C) TEDE (D) Wt

(C) TEDE Important dosimetry considerations include not only the amount of radiation received but also the type of ionizing radiation and the degree of sensitivity of the irradiated tissues. Equivalent dose (EqD) is the product of absorbed dose (D) and radiation weighting factor (Wr). The weighting factor of x-rays and gamma radiation is 1; the Wr of beta particles is 10, and that of alpha particles is 20. The EqD unit of measure in biological material is the Sievert. Effective dose (EfD) describes the dose to specific tissues (Wt), as well as exposure from particular type(s) of radiation. Reproductive cells are highly radiosensitive and have a weighting factor of 0.2. Stomach, colon, and lung tissues have weighting factor of 0.12. The weighting factor of liver, esophagus, thyroid, bladder, and breast tissues is 0.05. Skin is relatively radiation insensitive; its weighting factor is 0.01. EfD is the product of absorbed dose (D), radiation weighting factor (Wr), and tissue weighting factor (Wt). Its unit of measure is the Sievert. EfD can be used to express the amount of radiation received in a particular x-ray examination. TEDE, total effective dose equivalent, is the sum of effective dose equivalent from external and internal radiation sources. It is useful for occupational exposure, particularly to those in higher radiation areas such as interventional procedures and nuclear medicine. The TEDE limit to the occupationally exposed is 0.05 Sievert (50 mSv) and 0.001 Sievert (1.0 mSv) for the general public.

38. What transforms the violet light emitted by the PSP into the image seen on the monitor? (A) The photostimulable phosphor (B) The scanner/reader (C) The analog-to-digital converter (ADC) (D) The helium-neon laser

155. Which of the following best describes correct hand hygiene? (A) The radiographer's hands should be thoroughly washed with soap and warm running water, for at least 15 second after each patient (B) The radiographer's hands should be thoroughly washed with soap and warm running water, for at least 15 second before each patient (C) The radiographer's hands should be thoroughly washed with soap and warm running water, for at least 15 second before and after each patient (D) The radiographer's hands and forearms should always be kept higher than the elbows during cleansing

(C) The radiographer's hands should be thoroughly washed with soap and warm running water, for at least 15 second before and after each patient

14. As a result of the anode heel effect, x-ray beam intensity is greatest along the (A) path of the central ray (CR) (B) anode end of the beam (C) cathode end of the beam (D) transverse axis of the IR

164. The number of gray shades that an imaging system can reproduce is termed (A) postprocessing (B) resolution (C) dynamic range (D) modulation transfer function (MTF)

86. The purposes of an advanced health care directive, or living will, include all of the following, except (A) preserving a person's right to make decisions regarding his or her own health care (B) naming the individual authorized to make health care decisions for him or her (C) ensuring that only the patient's personal physician can make health care decisions for him or her (D) including specifics regarding do not resuscitate (DNR), do not intubate (DNI), and other end-of-life decisions

153. The medical term referring to nosebleed is (A) vertigo (B) urticaria (C) epistaxis (D) aura

100. Excessive absorption of useful x-ray photons by a grid is called (A) grid selectivity (B) contrast improvement factor (C) grid cutoff (D) latitude

165. The energy of ionizing electromagnetic radiations is measured in (A) mA (B) mAs (C) keV (D) kV

116. In Figure 14-10, the letter D represents the (A) trochlea (B) capitulum (C) lateral epicondyle (D) medial epicondyle

33. Which formula would the radiographer use to determine the total number of heat units produced with a given exposure using three-phase, 12-pulse equipment? (A) mA × time × kV (B) mA × time kV × 3.0 (C) mA × time kV × 1.4 (D) mA × time kV × 1.6

15. The position seen in Figure 14-2, used to demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa, requires that the CR be directed (A) vertically to the joint space (B) parallel to the long axis of the tibia (C) perpendicular to the long axis of the tibia (D) perpendicular to the joint space

192. When a patient is received in the radiology department with a urinary Foley catheter bag, it is important to (A) place the drainage bag above the level of the bladder (B) place the drainage bag at the same level as the bladder (C) place the drainage bag below the level of the bladder (D) clamp the Foley catheter

136. The term that refers to parts closer to the source or beginning is (A) cephalad (B) caudad (C) proximal (D) medial

122. All of the following positions are likely to be used for both single- and double-contrast examinations of the large bowel, except (A) lateral rectum (B) AP axial rectosigmoid (C) right and left lateral decubitus abdomen (D) RAO and LAO abdomen

144. An algorithm, as used in x-ray imaging, is a (A) geometric formula (B) series of specific exposure factors (C) series of variable instructions (D) series of predetermined exposure factors

(C) series of variable instructions An algorithm is a series of computerized step-by-step instructions used to solve a problem. The instructions are flexible, that is, variable, and various options are checked to produce the best possible results from the range of available options. Radiographically speaking, the algorithm will test a range of variations to produce the best possible group of exposure factors for the anatomic particular part and circumstances.

199. The dose of radiation that will cause a noticeable skin reaction is referred to as the (A) linear energy transfer (LET) (B) source skin distance (C) skin erythema dose (D) SID

74. When a radiographer is obtaining patient history, both subjective and objective data should be obtained. An example of subjective data is (A) the patient appears to have a productive cough (B) the patient has a blood pressure of 130/95 (C) the patient complains of RUQ pain (D) the patient has a palpable mass in the left breast

30. The term interrogation time refers to (A) the shortest possible exposure time permitted by a particular x-ray tube (B) the amount of time required for x-ray tube AM warming (C) the time required for the x-ray tube to turn off (D) the time it takes the x-ray tube to reach the required technical factors

(C) the time required for the x-ray tube to turn off The use of a fluoroscopic flat panel detector can offer the benefit of reduction in patient dose because of increased DQE and pulsed x-ray beam. The x-ray tube must be able to turn on and off very quickly. The term interrogation time refers to the time it takes the tube to reach the required technical factors. The term extinction time refers to the time it takes the tube to turn off. The required time is less than 1 millisecond.

127. The manubrial notch, a bony landmark used in radiography of the sternoclavicular joints, is located at the same level as the (A) vertebra prominens (B) first thoracic vertebra (C) third thoracic vertebra (D) ninth thoracic vertebra

161. Figure 14-13A and B is most often used to evaluate the following condition: (A) subluxation (B) spondylolisthesis (C) whiplash injury (D) cervical rib

1. The histogram demonstration of pixel value distribution can be changed/affected by the following: 1. selection of processing algorithm 2. processing delay 3. centering (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

101. Examples of destructive pathologic conditions include 1. emphysema 2. pneumoperitoneum 3. osteoporosis (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

103. Required components of a digital fluoroscopy (DF) system include 1. computer 2. video monitor 3. image manipulation console (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

121. Which of the following criteria are required for accurate visualization of the greater tubercle in profile? 1. Epicondyles parallel to the IR 2. Arm in external rotation 3. Humerus in the AP position (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

134. Types of cell repair mechanisms following irradiation include 1. DNA repair 2. cell cycle arrest 3. apoptosis (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

139. The AP projection of the scapula requires that the 1. patient's arm be abducted at right angles to the body 2. patient's elbow be flexed with hand supinated 3. exposure be made during quiet breathing (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

143. Devices that serve to collect PSL and transmit it to an ADC include 1. photomultiplier tube 2. photodiode 3. charge-coupled device (CCD) (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

147. Characteristics of the typical diagnostic x-ray tube and its construction include 1. the target material should have a high atomic number and melting point 2. the useful beam emerges from the port window 3. the cathode assembly receives both low and high voltages (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

148. During respiratory motion, the act of 1. expiration raises the diaphragm 2. inspiration elevates the ribs 3. inspiration depresses the abdominal viscera (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

156. Radiation exposure to the developing fetus can cause 1. mental retardation 2. growth retardation 3. organ damage (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

166. The total number of x-ray photons produced at the target is contingent on 1. tube current 2. target material 3. square of the kilovoltage (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

179. What is meant by the term controlled area? 1. One that is occupied by people trained in radiation safety 2. One that is occupied by people who wear radiation monitors 3. One whose occupancy factor is 1 (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

185. Patient dose during fluoroscopy is affected by the 1. distance between the patient and the input phosphor 2. amount of magnification 3. tissue density (A) 1 only (B) 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3 Moving the image intensifier closer to the patient during fluoroscopy decreases the SID and patient dose (as SID is reduced, the intensity of the x-ray photons at the image intensifier's input phosphor increases; the automatic brightness control then automatically decreases the milliamperage and, therefore, patient dose). Moving the image intensifier closer to the patient during fluoroscopy also decreases the OID and, therefore, magnification. As tissue density increases, a greater exposure dose is required.

173. Inspiration and expiration projections of the chest may be performed to demonstrate 1. pneumothorax 2. foreign body 3. atelectasis (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3 Phase of respiration is exceedingly important in thoracic radiography; lung expansion and the position of the diaphragm strongly influence the appearance of the finished radiograph. Inspiration and expiration radiographs of the chest are taken to demonstrate air in the pleural cavity (pneumothorax), to demonstrate atelectasis (partial or complete collapse of one or more pulmonary lobes) degree of diaphragm excursion, or to detect the presence of a foreign body. The expiration image will require a somewhat greater exposure to compensate for the diminished quantity of air in the lungs.

64. If the exposure rate at 3 feet from the fluoroscopic table is 15 mGya/min, what will be the exposure rate for 3 min at a distance of 5 feet from the table? (A) 2.7 mGya (B) 5.4 mGya (C) 10.8 mGya (D) 16.2 mGya

(D) 16.2 mGya

35. Which of the following image matrix sizes will provide the best spatial resolution? (A) 256 × 256 (B) 512 × 512 (C) 1024 × 1024 (D) 2048 × 2048

(D) 2048 × 2048

73. The voltage ripple associated with a three-phase, 12-pulse rectified generator is approximately (A) 100% (B) 32% (C) 13% (D) 3%

(D) 3%

25. Manual exposure control was used and the exposure factors selected for a particular nongrid x-ray image were 400 mA, 20 ms, and 90 kV. Another image using an 8:1 grid is requested. Which of the following groups of factors is most appropriate? (A) 400 mA, 20 ms, 110 kV (B) 200 mA, 80 ms, 90 kV (C) 300 mA, 50 ms, 100 kV (D) 400 mA, 80 ms, 90 kV

(D) 400 mA, 80 ms, 90 kV

5. What is the relationship between source-to-image-receptor distance (SID) x-ray beam intensity and receptor exposure? (A) As SID increases, beam intensity increases and receptor exposure increases (B) As SID increases, beam intensity increases and receptor exposure decreases (C) As SID increases, beam intensity decreases and receptor exposure increases (D) As SID increases, beam intensity decreases and patient dose decreases

(D) As SID increases, beam intensity decreases and patient dose decreases

59. Which of the following pathologic conditions will most likely offer greatest resistance to the passage of x-ray photons? (A) Fibrosarcoma (B) Osteomalacia (C) Paralytic ileus (D) Ascites

(D) Ascites (fluid collects in your abdomen)

82. What does the letter D represent in Figure 14-8? (A) Fundus (B) Pylorus (C) Body of stomach (D) Bulb of duodenum

(D) Bulb of duodenum

151. In which body position would a patient suffering from orthopnea experience the least discomfort? (A) Fowler (B) Trendelenburg (C) Recumbent (D) Erect

(D) Erect

150. The term voxel is associated with all of the following, except (A) bit depth (B) volume element (C) measured in Z direction (D) FOV

(D) FOV The term FOV is used to describe how much of the patient is included in the matrix. Either the matrix or the FOV can be changed without one affecting the other, but changes in either will change pixel size. As FOV increases, for a fixed matrix size, the size of each pixel increases and spatial resolution decreases. Fewer and larger pixels result in a poor-resolution "pixelly" or "mosaicked" image, that is, one in which you can actually see the individual pixel boxes. ****I don't agree w this but maybe it's my MRI brain***

163. Which of the following generator types has the advantages of having compact size, producing nearly constant potential voltage, and decreasing patient dose? (A) Single-phase, full-wave (B) Three-phase, six-pulse (C) Three-phase, 12-pulse (D) High frequency

(D) High frequency

80. A patient was positioned for a radiographic projection with the x-ray tube, grid, and IR properly aligned but with the body part angled. Which of the following will result? (A) Grid cutoff at the periphery of the image (B) Grid cutoff along the center of the image (C) Increased receptor exposure at the periphery (D) Image distortion

(D) Image distortion

23. In which of the following positions was the image seen in Figure 14-3 made? (A) AP erect (B) Posteroanterior (PA) recumbent (C) Right lateral decubitus (D) Left lateral decubitus

(D) Left lateral decubitus

17. The term health care-associated infection (HAI) often replaces which of the following terms? (A) Upper respiratory infection (B) Urinary tract infection (UTI) (C) Suppressed infection (D) Nosocomial infection

(D) Nosocomial infection

114. Which of the following is the most proximal structure on the adult ulna? (A) Capitulum (B) Styloid process (C) Coronoid process (D) Olecranon process

(D) Olecranon process

70. In which of the following projections or positions will subacromial or subcoracoid dislocation be best demonstrated? (A) Tangential (B) AP axial (C) Transthoracic lateral (D) PA oblique scapular Y

(D) PA oblique scapular Y

146. With the patient positioned as for a parietoacanthial projection (Waters method) and the CR directed through the patient's open mouth, which of the following sinus groups is demonstrated through the open mouth? (A) Frontal (B) Ethmoid (C) Maxillary (D) Sphenoid

(D) Sphenoid

10. Which of the following ethical principles is most closely related to avoidance of deception? (A) Autonomy (B) Beneficence (C) Fidelity (D) Veracity

(D) Veracity

180. A radiograph obtained with a parallel grid demonstrates decreased receptor exposure on its lateral edges. This is most likely caused by (A) static electrical discharge (B) the grid off-centered (C) improper tube angle (D) decreased SID

(D) decreased SID The lead strips in a parallel grid are parallel to each other and therefore not to the x-ray beam. The more divergent the x-ray beam, the more likely there will be cutoff/decreased receptor exposure at the lateral edges of the radiograph. This problem becomes more pronounced at short SIDs. If there were a centering or tube angle problem, there would more likely be a noticeable receptor exposure loss on one side or the other.

65. The medical suffix plasia refers to (A) embryonic (B) condition (C) movement (D) development

(D) development

53. The phenomenon that can occur between the time a PSP is exposed to x-rays and the time it is read by the scanner/reader is termed (A) excitation (B) photostimulable luminescence (C) scatter (D) fading

(D) fading

63. Double-contrast examinations of the stomach or large bowel are performed for better visualization of (A) position of the organ (B) size and shape of the organ (C) diverticula (D) gastric or bowel mucosa

(D) gastric or bowel mucosa

95. The artifacts seen in Figure 14-9 are representative of (A) grid lines (B) Moiré artifact (C) surgical clips (D) hair braids

(D) hair braids

149. The stomach of an asthenic patient is most likely to be located (A) high, transverse, and lateral (B) low, transverse, and lateral (C) high, vertical, and toward the midline (D) low, vertical, and toward the midline

(D) low, vertical, and toward the midline

28. An autoclave is used for (A) dry heat sterilization (B) chemical sterilization (C) gas sterilization (D) steam sterilization

(D) steam sterilization

67. Structures found within the mediastinum include all of the following, except the (A) esophagus (B) thymus (C) heart (D) terminal bronchiole

(D) terminal bronchiole

62. Factors impacting spatial resolution in indirect digital/CR imaging include 1. pixel pitch 2. sampling frequency 3. DEL size of the TFT (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

spatial resolution in CR (indirect) imaging improves with increased sampling frequency (pixels/mm or pixel density), smaller pixel pitch, smaller pixel size, and larger image matrix. The smaller the pixels and pixel pitch (i.e., distance between the center of one pixel to the center of adjacent pixel), the better the resolution. DEL size of the TFT is related to direct digital imaging.

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