MLT 142 (Urinalysis and Body Fluids) / Study Guide for Final

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(See above) Based on the information provided, what type of meningitis would most probably be suspected in this patient?________

(See above) Based on the information provided, what type of meningitis would most probably be suspected in this patient?________ Fungal or Cryptococcal

The following results are obtained on a catheterized specimen from a patient with symptoms of a urinary tract infection: Color: Yellow Clarity : Cloudy Specific gravity: 1.015 pH: 7.0 Protein; 1+ Glucose: Negative Ketones: Negative Bilirubin: Negative Blood: Trace Urobilinogen: 1.0 EU Nitrite: Postive Leukocyte esterase: 2+ 80-100 WBCs/hpf 5-10 RBCs/hpf 10-15 RTE cells/hpf Many bacteria 1. Based on information provided, is this report consistent with a urinary tract infection?_____ 2. Based on the information provided, which of these results would concern a urinalysis a physician? _____________________________________

1. Based on information provided, is this report consistent with a urinary tract infection?_____ Yes 2. Based on the information provided, which of these results would concern a urinalysis a physician? _____________________________________ Renal Tubular epithelial cells

The following results are obtained on a urinalysis from a student athlete: Color: Dark yellow Clarity: Cloudy Specific gravity: 1.032 pH 6.0 Protein: 2+ Glucose: negative Ketones: Negative Bilirubin: Negative Blood: Trace Urobilinogen: 1 EU Nitrite: Negative Leukocyte esterase: Negative 15-20 crenated RBCs/hpf Rare squamous epithelial cell 2-3 hyaline casts/lpf 1-2 granular casts/lpf 1. Based on the information given, what is causing the crenated RBCs? _______________________ 2. Based on the information provided, what is the most probable cause of the abnormal results?_____________________________________________________ 3. Based on the information provided, what type of specimen should the student be asked to collect for retesting?___________________________

1. Based on the information given, what is causing the crenated RBCs? _______________________ High specific gravity 2. Based on the information provided, what is the most probable cause of the abnormal results?_____________________________________________________ Strenuous exercise 3. Based on the information provided, what type of specimen should the student be asked to collect for retesting?___________________________ First morning

Urinalysis results on a patient being monitored following an adverse reaction occurring during surgery are: Color: Red/brown Clarity: Cloudy Specific gravity: 1.012 pH: 7.0 Protein: 1+ Glucose: Negative Ketones: Negative Bilirubin: Negative Blood: Large Urobilinogen: 8.0 EU Nitrite: Negative Leukocyte esterase: Negative 6-10 RTE cels/hpf 3-4 RBC casts/lpf 1-2 RTE cell casts/lpf 1-5 RBCs 1. Based on the information provided, what substance is causing the positive reagent trip reaction for blood? A. Hemoglobin B. Myoglobin C. RBCs D. Peroxide contamination 2. Based on the information provided, what is the significance of the elevated urobilinogen reading? A. Constipation B. Liver damage C. Intravascular hemolysis D. Urine color

1. Based on the information provided, what substance is causing the positive reagent trip reaction for blood? A. Hemoglobin 2. Based on the information provided, what is the significance of the elevated urobilinogen reading? C. Intravascular hemolysis

10 mL of urine is centrifuged, and 9.5 mL of urine is decanted. The sediment concentration factor is:

10 mL of urine is centrifuged, and 9.5 mL of urine is decanted. The sediment concentration factor is: 20

A 1+ reagent strip reaction and a 4+ Clinitest reaction could indicate the presence of: A. Glucose and other reducing substances B. Glucose only C. Non-glucose-reducing substances only D. Contamination by a strong oxidizing agent

A 1+ reagent strip reaction and a 4+ Clinitest reaction could indicate the presence of: A. Glucose and other reducing substances

A 40-year-old female tennis player with tendonitis is taking large doses of an over-the-counter nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agent. After taking the medication for several weeks, she develops a skin rash and observes a decrease in urine volume. Results of her urinalysis are: · Color: Dark yellow · Clarity: Cloudy · Specific gravity: 1.011 · pH: 6.0 · Protein: 3+ · Glucose: Negative · Ketones: Negative · Bilirubn: Negative · Blood: Large · Urobilinogen: EU · Nitrtire: Negative · Leukocyte esterase: 2+ · Microscopic · >100 WBCs/hpf · 60-70 RBCs/hpf · 1-2 RTE/lpf · 1-2 hyaline casts/lpf · 5-6 WBC casts/lfp What additional test might be requested on this specimen? A. Creatinine clearance B. Prussian blue stain C. Urine eosinophil stain D. Fungal culture What is the probable diagnosis? A. Acute interstitial nephritis B. Fanconi syndrome C. Acute tubular necrosis D. Acute glomerulonephritis

A 40-year-old female tennis player with tendonitis is taking large doses of an over-the-counter nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agent. After taking the medication for several weeks, she develops a skin rash and observes a decrease in urine volume. Results of her urinalysis are: · Color: Dark yellow · Clarity: Cloudy · Specific gravity: 1.011 · pH: 6.0 · Protein: 3+ · Glucose: Negative · Ketones: Negative · Bilirubn: Negative · Blood: Large · Urobilinogen: EU · Nitrtire: Negative · Leukocyte esterase: 2+ · Microscopic · >100 WBCs/hpf · 60-70 RBCs/hpf · 1-2 RTE/lpf · 1-2 hyaline casts/lpf · 5-6 WBC casts/lfp What additional test might be requested on this specimen? C. Urine eosinophil stain What is the probable diagnosis? A. Acute interstitial nephritis

A CSF protein report of 32 g/dL: A. Is normal B. Indicates possible multiple sclerosis C. Is an erroneous report D. Should be followed by electrophoresis

A CSF protein report of 32 g/dL: C. Is an erroneous report

A CSF specimen, in which there is uneven distribution of blood among the three tubes and clots are detected, is an indication of: A. Meningitis B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Multiple sclerosis D. Traumatic tap

A CSF specimen, in which there is uneven distribution of blood among the three tubes and clots are detected, is an indication of: D. Traumatic tap

A black, tarry looking stool is indicative of: A. Upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding B. Lower GI bleeding C. Excess fat D. Excess carbohydrates

A black, tarry looking stool is indicative of: A. Upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding

A blood-streaked pericardial exudate with an increased amount of neutrophils is indicative of: A. Bacterial endocarditis B. Cardiac puncture C. Tuberculosis D. Misuse of anticoagulant medication

A blood-streaked pericardial exudate with an increased amount of neutrophils is indicative of: A. Bacterial endocarditis

A blood-streaked pleural fluid has a fluid-to-serum cholesterol ratio of 0.45, a WBC count of 20,000/µL, increased neutrophils, glucose: 40 mg/dL (serum 100 mg/dL), and a pH of 6.8. Based on the information given, what is the most probable cause of the effusion? A. Pneumonia B. Hemothorax C. Malignancy D. Congestive heart failure

A bloody stool produced by a newborn should have what test performed? _________________

A bloody stool produced by a newborn should have what test performed? _________________ Apt

A broad spectrum of reactive and nonreactive lymphocytes in the CSF is associated with: A. Bacterial meningitis B. Allergic reactions C. Cerebral hemorrhage D. Viral meningitis

A broad spectrum of reactive and nonreactive lymphocytes in the CSF is associated with: D. Viral meningitis

A correlation exists between a specific gravity of 1.050 and a:_______________________________

A correlation exists between a specific gravity of 1.050 and a: Radiographic dye

A dark green amniotic fluid is associated with: a) Meconium b) Infection c) Fetal death d) Oxidized bilirubin

A dark green amniotic fluid is associated with: a) Meconium

A false-negative LE reaction may be caused by: A. The presence of eosinophils and basophils B. Increased bacteria C. Lysed leukocytes D. Failure to wait 2 minutes to read the reaction

A false-negative LE reaction may be caused by: D. Failure to wait 2 minutes to read the reaction

A female patient presents to her OB/GYN with the following complaints: genital itching, dysuria, and an abnormal looking white "chunky" substance on her undergarments. The immediate next step the physician should take is: A. Order DNA and PCR testing B. Perform a saline wet prep C. Perform a whiff test and KOH test D. Send the patient home

A fern test is performed to differentiate between: _____________________ and _______________

A fern test is performed to differentiate between: _____________________ and _______________ Urine amniotic fluid

A first morning specimen is frequently requested to confirm: 1) Orthostatic proteinuria 2) Fanconi's syndrome 3) Urinary tract infection 4) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) deficiency

A first morning specimen is frequently requested to confirm: 1) Orthostatic proteinuria

A laboratory error that can result in an infant developing severe mental retardation could be attributed to failure to perform a/an: ___________________________

A laboratory error that can result in an infant developing severe mental retardation could be attributed to failure to perform a/an: ___________________________ Clinitest

A lipid droplet that does not stain with Sudan III may be composed of:

A lipid droplet that does not stain with Sudan III may be composed of: Cholesterol

A medical laboratory science student consistently obtains lower RBC counts than the instructor. A possible reason for this might be: A. Failure to completely resuspend the sedimented specimen B. Reading the same cells twice C. Counting all crenated cells twice D. Using too much stain

A medical laboratory science student consistently obtains lower RBC counts than the instructor. A possible reason for this might be: A. Failure to completely resuspend the sedimented specimen

A milky or light brown-beige-colored BAL fluid indicates a/an: A. Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis B. Alveolar hemorrhage C. Airway disease D. Infectious lung disease

A milky or light brown-beige-colored BAL fluid indicates a/an: A. Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis

A milky-appearing synovial fluid can be associated with the presence of:_______________________

A milky-appearing synovial fluid can be associated with the presence of: monosodium urate crystals

A negative reagent strip test for glucose with a positive Clinitest indicates the possibility of:____________________________

A negative reagent strip test for glucose with a positive Clinitest indicates the possibility of:____________________________ Galactosuria

A negative urine pregnancy test performed on a random specimen may need to be repeated using a________________

A negative urine pregnancy test performed on a random specimen may need to be repeated using a________________ First morning, Serum is also correct, but a first morning specimen is easier to collect.

A pale, frothy looking stool is indicative of:__________________________________

A pale, frothy looking stool is indicative of:__________________________________ Excess fat

A patient previously diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency arrives in the emergency room with symptoms of meningitis. A lumbar puncture is performed.Using the information provided, in addition to Gram stain, what additional testing should be performed? A. VDRL B. Electrophoresis C. Cryptococcal antigen test D. Differential of peripheral blood

A patient whose stool exhibits increased fats, undigested muscle fibers, and the inability to digest gelatin may have:______________________________________________

A patient whose stool exhibits increased fats, undigested muscle fibers, and the inability to digest gelatin may have:______________________________________________ Cystic fibrosis

A patient with severe back pain and 15 to 20 RBCs/hpf in the urine sediment may have: A. Renal calculi B. Acute glomerulonephritis C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Osteomyelitis

A patient with severe back pain and 15 to 20 RBCs/hpf in the urine sediment may have: A. Renal calculi

A patient with symptoms of pulmonary hemoptysis and urinary hematuria should be tested for: A. Antiglomerular basement membrane antibody B. Antistreptolysin O antibody C. Antistreptococcal antibody D. Anti-IgM antibody

A patient with symptoms of pulmonary hemoptysis and urinary hematuria should be tested for: A. Antiglomerular basement membrane antibody

A pericardial exudate from a patient diagnosed with AIDS might be tested with: A. An India ink preparation B. An acid-fast stain C. A Gram stain D. An immunofixation electrophoresis

A pericardial exudate from a patient diagnosed with AIDS might be tested with: B. An acid-fast stain

A person exhibiting oliguria would have a urine volume of:

A person exhibiting oliguria would have a urine volume of: <400 mls

A positive fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption test (FTA-ABS) and a positive CSF venereal disease research laboratory test (VDRL) indicate: A. A false-positive reaction B. Neurosyphilis C. Failure to inactivate the CSF D. The need to perform a rapid plasma reagin test

A positive fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption test (FTA-ABS) and a positive CSF venereal disease research laboratory test (VDRL) indicate: B. Neurosyphilis

A positive nitrite test and a negative leukocyte esterase test is an indication of a:

A positive nitrite test and a negative leukocyte esterase test is an indication of a: Specimen older than 2 hours.

A positive nitrite test suggests the presence of a minimum of ____________ organisms /mL

A positive nitrite test suggests the presence of a minimum of ____________ organisms /mL 10 to the fifth

A primary function of amniotic fluid is to: a) Provide nourishment to the fetus b) Provide protection for the fetus c) Remove waste products from the fetus d) Facilitate oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange

A primary function of amniotic fluid is to: b) Provide protection for the fetus

A questionable India ink preparation on the CSF from an immunocompromised patient should be further tested using: A. A cryptococcal antigen test B. A bacterial antigen panel C. Counterimmunoelectrophoresis D. An anaerobic culture

A questionable India ink preparation on the CSF from an immunocompromised patient should be further tested using: A. A cryptococcal antigen test

A reagent strip test for blood is reported positive. No red blood cells are seen on the microscopic examination. The patient's condition is called: A. Hematuria B. Oliguria C. Hemoglobinuria D. Hemosiderinuria

A reagent strip test for blood is reported positive. No red blood cells are seen on the microscopic examination. The patient's condition is called: C. Hemoglobinuria

A report of many gram-positive cocci on a clear CSF sample with a normal cell count may be the result of: A. An incorrect cell count B. Effective antibiotic treatment C. Use of contaminated albumin in the cytocentrifuge D. Use of recycled cytocentrifuge chambers

A report of many gram-positive cocci on a clear CSF sample with a normal cell count may be the result of: C. Use of contaminated albumin in the cytocentrifuge

A second amniocentesis is performed on a diabetic woman believed to be at approximately 35 weeks gestation. She is pregnant with her second child, and the bilirubin A450 on the first amniocentesis was in zone 2 of the Liley graph. Using the information provided, why was a second amniocentesis performed? a) She is diabetic b) To determine fetal antibodies c) To monitor the bilirubin concentration d) This is her second pregnancy

A semen specimen delivered to the laboratory in a condom has a normal sperm count and markedly decreased sperm motility. Why?

A semen specimen delivered to the laboratory in a condom has a normal sperm count and markedly decreased sperm motility. Why? Antispermicide in the condom

A slightly hazy CSF specimen is diluted 1:10 with acetic acid. An average of 50 cells are counted in five large squares on both sides of the Neubauer counting chamber (10 squares total 49 on one side and 51 on the other). The count is reported as: ______ Show your math for full credit.

A specific gravity of greater than 1.040 by refractometer is 1.025 when checked using a reagent strip. The technologist should: A. Report the result as 1.025 B. Dilute the specimen and retest by refractometer C. Request a new specimen D. Report the result as greater than 1.040

A specific gravity of greater than 1.040 by refractometer is 1.025 when checked using a reagent strip. The technologist should: A. Report the result as 1.025

A specific gravity reading of 1.040 by refractometer and 1.015 by reagent strip is indicative of_____________________________________

A specific gravity reading of 1.040 by refractometer and 1.015 by reagent strip is indicative of: Radiographic dye

A specimen delivered to the laboratory in a gray-top Vacutainer is acceptable for urinalysis. True/False

A specimen delivered to the laboratory in a gray-top Vacutainer is acceptable for urinalysis. False

A specimen with a specific gravity of 1.005 would be considered: a. Isosthenuric b. Hyposthenuric c. Hypersthenuric d. Not urine

A specimen with a specific gravity of 1.005 would be considered: b. Hyposthenuric

A specimen with a strong ammonia odor and a heavy white precipitate when it arrives in the laboratory may require:___________________________

A specimen with a strong ammonia odor and a heavy white precipitate when it arrives in the laboratory may require: Recollection

A spotted reaction on the reagent strip reaction for blood can indicate: A. Hematuria B. Hemoglobinuria C. Myoglobinuria D. Porphyrinuria

A spotted reaction on the reagent strip reaction for blood can indicate: A. Hematuria

A strong odor of ammonia in a urine specimen could indicate: a. Ketones b. Normal c. Phenylketonuria d. Urinary tract infection

A strong odor of ammonia in a urine specimen could indicate: d. Urinary tract infection

A synovial fluid was collected and a cell count was performed. An average of 52 WBCs were observed in 4 large squares counted. The synovial fluid was very cloudy and yellow and had to be diluted 1:20. A differential was performed and 85% neutrophils were seen with 15% lymphs. 1. What is the calculated cell count? Show your work. 2. What is the suspected diagnosis? 3. What other test needs performed on this sample?

A turbid synovial fluid with yellow-green color indicates:____________________________

A turbid synovial fluid with yellow-green color indicates: Infection

A urine bacterial culture should not be performed on a catheterized specimen. True/False

A urine bacterial culture should not be performed on a catheterized specimen. False

A urine sample that tests positive for ketones and negative for glucose is most likely from a patient suffering from:____________________________________

A urine sample that tests positive for ketones and negative for glucose is most likely from a patient suffering from:____________________________________ Starvation

A urine specimen containing a large amount of precipitated amorphous material may have been preserved using what method?

A urine specimen containing a large amount of precipitated amorphous material may have been preserved using what method? Refrigeration

A urine specimen for reagent strip glucose analysis can be preserved using all of the following methods except: 1) Refrigeration 2) Boric acid 3) Sodium fluoride 4) Commercial tablets

A urine specimen for reagent strip glucose analysis can be preserved using all of the following methods except: 3) Sodium fluoride

A urine specimen has a specific gravity of 1.025. It also has 2 g/dL of protein and 3 g/dL of glucose. Calculate the corrected specific gravity. Show your work.

A urine specimen has a specific gravity of 1.025. It also has 2 g/dL of protein and 3 g/dL of glucose. Calculate the corrected specific gravity. Show your work. Answer: 1.025 -2(0.003) -3(0.004)= 1.025-0.006-0.012=1.007

A urine specimen is referred for cytodiagnostic urine testing to detect the presence of:

A urine specimen is referred for cytodiagnostic urine testing to detect the presence of: Malignant cells

A urine specimen label should include the date and time of collection. True/False

A urine specimen label should include the date and time of collection. True

A urine specimen may be rejected by the laboratory for all of the following reasons except: 1) Nonmatching label and requisition form 2) Specimen contaminated with feces 3) Contamination on the exterior of the container 4) The container uses a screw-top lid

A urine specimen may be rejected by the laboratory for all of the following reasons except: 4) The container uses a screw-top lid

A urine specimen refrigerated overnight is cloudy and has a pH of 6. The turbidity is probably due to:_____________________________

A urine specimen refrigerated overnight is cloudy and has a pH of 6. The turbidity is probably due to:_____________________________ Amorphous urates

A urine specimen with a pH of 9.0 indicates that the patient should be:

A urine specimen with a pH of 9.0 indicates that the patient should be: asked to collect a new specimen

A urine that turns black after standing may contain: a. Homogentisic acid b. Melanin c. Methemoglobin d. All of the above.

A vaginal fluid collection kit is dropped off in the laboratory for analysis and the technologist notices condensation inside the biohazard bag. Which of the following tests cannot be performed? A. Trichomonas motility testing B. HSV testing C. C. trachomatis testing D. Atropic vaginitis

A vaginal fluid was collected from a 25-year-old female that showed the following results: appearance is pink with flocculent discharge, pH is 3.9, whiff test is negative, many Gram-positive rods, clue cells are absent. What is your interpretation of these results? A. Patient has a possible bacterial infection B. Patient has a possible yeast infection C. Patient is normal and is menstruating D. Patient has a possible Trichomonas infection

A vaginal pH value of 6.0 could indicate which of the following conditions? A. Normal condition B. Bacterial infection C. Yeast infection D. Increased estrogen production

A vaginal pH value of 6.0 could indicate which of the following conditions? B. Bacterial infection

A xanthochromic CSF specimen will appear: A. Crystal clear B. White and turbid C. Yellow and clear D. Red and turbid

A xanthochromic CSF specimen will appear: C. Yellow and clear

A yellow-brown specimen that produces a yellow foam when shaken can be suspected of containing: __________________________________

A yellow-brown specimen that produces a yellow foam when shaken can be suspected of containing: Bilirubin

Abnormal crystals are most frequently seen in a urine that is: (what characteristic)_________________

Abnormal crystals are most frequently seen in a urine that is: (what characteristic)_________________ Acidic

Acute renal failure may be classified as all of the following except: A. Rapidly progressive B. Prerenal C. Renal D. Postrenal

Acute renal failure may be classified as all of the following except: A. Rapidly progressive

After eating beets purchased at the local farmers' market, Mrs. Williams notices that her urine is red, but Mr. Williams's urine remains yellow. The Williams should: a. Be concerned because red urine always indicates the presence of blood b. Not be concerned because all women produce red urine after eating beets c. Be concerned because both of them should have red urine if beets are the cause d. Not be concerned because only Mrs. Williams is genetically susceptible to producing red urine from beets

After eating beets purchased at the local farmers' market, Mrs. Williams notices that her urine is red, but Mr. Williams's urine remains yellow. The Williams should: d. Not be concerned because only Mrs. Williams is genetically susceptible to producing red urine from beets

All of the following affect the formation of crystals except: A. Urine specific gravity B. Urine pH C. Urinary casts D. Urine temperature

All of the following affect the formation of crystals except: C. Urinary casts

All of the following are associated with severe urinary stasis except: A. Granular casts B. Waxy casts C. WBC casts D. Broad casts

All of the following are associated with severe urinary stasis except: C. WBC casts

All of the following are functions of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) except: A. Nutritional enrichment of nervous tissue B. Transmission of neurologic impulses C. Removal of metabolic waste products D. Protection of neurologic tissue from trauma

All of the following are functions of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) except: B. Transmission of neurologic impulses

All of the following are reported as the quantity per high-power field except: A. Casts B. Red blood cells (RBCs) C. White blood cells (WBCs) D. Bacteria

All of the following are reported as the quantity per high-power field except: A. Casts

All of the following are tests frequently performed on synovial fluid except: A. Gram stain B. WBC count C. Uric acid D. Differential

All of the following are tests frequently performed on synovial fluid except: C. Uric acid

All of the following are true about waxy casts except they: Represent extreme urine stasis May have a brittle consistency Require staining to be visualized Contain degenerated granules

All of the following are true about waxy casts except they: Require staining to be visualized

All of the following can cause crystals to be present in the synovial fluid except: A. Metabolic disorders B. Increased ingestion of dairy products C. Degeneration of cartilage D. Injection of medications

All of the following can cause crystals to be present in the synovial fluid except: B. Increased ingestion of dairy products

All of the following cellular elements can be seen in patients with candidiasis, except: A. Clue cells B. White blood cells C. Epithelial cells D. Budding yeast

All of the following cellular elements can be seen in patients with candidiasis, except: A. Clue cells

All of the following crystals can be found in acid urine except: A. Cholesterol B. Tyrosine C. Cystine D. Ammonium biurate

All of the following crystals can be found in acid urine except: D. Ammonium biurate

All of the following descriptions apply to orthostatic proteinuria except: A. Most commonly appears in young adults B. Usually occurs without apparent disease C. Urinary proteins are excreted only when the patient is lying down D. Is considered to be a functional, transitory proteinuria

All of the following descriptions apply to orthostatic proteinuria except: C. Urinary proteins are excreted only when the patient is lying down A. Most commonly appears in young adults B. Usually occurs without apparent disease D. Is considered to be a functional, transitory proteinuria

All of the following may be helpful in preventing the formation of renal calculi except: A. Increased hydration B. Increased exercise C. Dietary restrictions D. Adjustment of urine pH

All of the following may be helpful in preventing the formation of renal calculi except: B. Increased exercise

All of the following may be seen in the urine following strenuous exercise except: A. Protein B. Glucose C. Hyaline casts D. Granular casts

All of the following may be seen in the urine following strenuous exercise except: B. Glucose

All of the following may produce false-negative glucose reactions except: A. Detergent contamination B. B. Ascorbic acid C. C. Unpreserved specimens D. Low urine temperature

All of the following primary cells are seen in normal synovial fluid except: A. Macrophages B. Neutrophils C. Monocytes D. Synovial tissue cells

All of the following primary cells are seen in normal synovial fluid except: B. Neutrophils

All of the following reagent strip tests use a diazonium salt except: A. Bilirubin B. Nitrite C. Specific gravity D. Leukocyte esterase

All of the following reagent strip tests use a diazonium salt except: C. Specific gravity

All of the following specimens are acceptable for a urine culture except: 1) Catheterized specimen 2) Timed specimen 3) Suprapubic aspiration 4) Midstream clean-catch specimen

All of the following specimens are acceptable for a urine culture except: 2) Timed specimen

All of the following statements on synovial fluid are true except that it: A. Surrounds all joints in the body B. Is found only in the knee C. Acts as a lubricant D. Supplies nourishment to cartilage

All of the following statements on synovial fluid are true except that it: B. Is found only in the knee

All of the following will cause false-positive protein reagent strip values except: Proteins other than albumin Highly buffered alkaline urines Delay in removing the reagent strip from the specimen Contamination by quartenary ammonium compounds

All of the following will cause false-positive protein reagent strip values except: Proteins other than albumin

All of the following will produce a positive leukocyte esterase (LE) reaction except: A. Monocytes B. Trichomonas C. Neutrophils D. Lymphocytes

All of the following will produce a positive leukocyte esterase (LE) reaction except: D. Lymphocytes

All of the following will produce an alkaline urine except: A. Lettuce B. Cranberry juice C. Green beans D. Tomatoes

All of the following will produce an alkaline urine except: B. Cranberry juice

All precipitation tests must be performed on ____________specimens to remove any extraneous contamination.

All precipitation tests must be performed on ____________specimens to remove any extraneous contamination. centrifuged

Amniotic fluid for fetal lung maturity testing should be preserved: a) In the refrigerator b) At room temperature c) In a dark container d) At 37C

Amniotic fluid for fetal lung maturity testing should be preserved: a) In the refrigerator

Amniotic fluid is formed by all of the following except: a) Fetal urine b) Fetal cell metabolism c) Fetal swallowing d) Transfer of water across the placenta

Amniotic fluid is formed by all of the following except: c) Fetal swallowing

Amniotic fluid tests for determining fetal lung maturity include: a) Bilirubin and urea b) Bilirubin and lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio c) L/S ratio and lamellar bodies d) Creatinine and urea

Amniotic fluid tests for determining fetal lung maturity include: c) L/S ratio and lamellar bodies

Amniotic fluid that is being tested for bilirubin should be protected from _________

Amniotic fluid that is being tested for bilirubin should be protected from _________ light

An advantage in using the Acetest tablet test for ketones is the ability to:_________________________

An advantage in using the Acetest tablet test for ketones is the ability to:_________________________ Tests serum and urine

An alkaline urine turns black upon standing, develops a cloudy white precipitate, and has a specific gravity of 1.012. The major concern about this specimen would be: a. Color b. Turbidity c. Specific gravity d. All of the above

An alkaline urine turns black upon standing, develops a cloudy white precipitate, and has a specific gravity of 1.012. The major concern about this specimen would be: a. Color

An alternative to the catheterized specimen is the: 1) Fasting specimen 2) First morning specimen 3) Midstream clean-catch specimen 4) Three glass collection

An alternative to the catheterized specimen is the: 3) Midstream clean-catch specimen

An amniocentesis is performed on a woman believed to be at approximately 15 weeks gestation. A possible abnormality has been observed on her sonogram, and her serum alpha fetoprotein is elevated. What type of fetal distress is suspected? a) Hemolytic disease of the newborn b) Polyhydramnios c) Oligohydramnios d) Neural tube disorder

An amniocentesis is performed on a woman whose last two pregnancies have resulted in stillbirths due to hemolytic disease of the newborn. A screening test performed at the hospital is positive for bilirubin, and the specimen is sent to a reference laboratory for a bilirubin scan. Doctors are concerned when the report comes back negative, and they question if the: a) Correct specimen was sent b) Specimen was refrigerated c) Specimen was exposed to light d) Specimen reached the reference laboratory within 30 minutes

An ascitic fluid absolute neutrophil count of 1000/µL is most indicative of: A. Cirrhosis B. Malignancy C. Bacterial peritonitis D. Blunt trauma injury

An ascitic fluid absolute neutrophil count of 1000/µL is most indicative of: C. Bacterial peritonitis

An elevated urine bilirubin with a normal urobilinogen is indicative of: A. Cirrhosis of the liver B. Hemolytic disease C. Hepatits D. Biliary obstruction.

An elevated urine bilirubin with a normal urobilinogen is indicative of: D. Biliary obstruction.

An increase in neutrophils in BAL indicates: A. Hypersensitivity pneumonitis B. Aspiration pneumonia C. Granulomatous lung disease D. Alveolar hemorrhage

An increase in neutrophils in BAL indicates: B. Aspiration pneumonia

An increase in urinary WBCs is called:

An increase in urinary WBCs is called: Pyuria

An increase in urine production during the night is described as:

An increase in urine production during the night is described as: Nocturia

An increased urinary eosinophils are diagnostic for: A. Acute pyelonephritis B. Acute interstitial nephritis C. Acute tubular necrosis D. Chronic pyelonephritis

An increased urinary eosinophils are diagnostic for: B. Acute interstitial nephritis

An unpreserved urine specimen left at room temperature overnight will have decreased _____________ and ______________.

An unpreserved urine specimen left at room temperature overnight will have decreased _____________ and ______________. Glucose Ketone

An unusual number of positive occult blood tests are reported by a new employee in a satellite clinic. What is the most likely cause of these false positives?

An unusual number of positive occult blood tests are reported by a new employee in a satellite clinic. What is the most likely cause of these false positives? Patients are not being given proper dietary instructions.

Analysis of amniotic fluid bilirubin levels is performed using: a) Fluorescence polarization b) Spectrophotometry c) Thin-layer chromatography d) Immunoassay

Analysis of amniotic fluid bilirubin levels is performed using: b) Spectrophotometry

Annual testing for occult blood has a high positive predictive value for detecting_________ in its early stages.

Annual testing for occult blood has a high positive predictive value for detecting_________ in its early stages. colorectal cancer

Ascitic fluid from a patient with symptoms of severe abdominal pain has an elevated amylase and alkaline phosphatase, a WBC count of 30,000/µL, an absolute neutrophil count of 80%, and albumin of 3.5 mg/dL (serum albumin: 4.0 mg/dL). Based on the information provided, what disorder is suggested by these results? A. Cirrhosis B. Ovarian malignancy C. Peritonitis D. Malnutrition What is the probable cause of the patient's disorder? A. Alcoholism B. Esophageal rupture C. Intestinal perforation D. Bile duct obstruction

Ascitic fluid from a patient with symptoms of severe abdominal pain has an elevated amylase and alkaline phosphatase, a WBC count of 30,000/µL, an absolute neutrophil count of 80%, and albumin of 3.5 mg/dL (serum albumin: 4.0 mg/dL). Based on the information provided, what disorder is suggested by these results? C. Peritonitis What is the probable cause of the patient's disorder? C. Intestinal perforation

Bacterial antigen tests have replaced the Gram stain as the method of choice for detecting meningitis. True or False

Bacterial antigen tests have replaced the Gram stain as the method of choice for detecting meningitis. False

Based on the following description, identify the cell: a large irregular shaped cell that ranges from 25 to 70 microns in diameter with a prominent central nucleus that is 8-10 microns in size, a cytoplasm that contains no granules, with "shaggy" borders. A. Squamous epithelial cell B. Clue cell C. Transitional epithelial cell D. Renal tubule epithelial cell

Based on the information provided, how long should the slide for muscle fibers be examined?_______

Based on the information provided, how long should the slide for muscle fibers be examined?_______ 5 minutes

Based on the information provided, if the bilirubin A450 is now in zone 3, what additional testing should be performed? a) Alpha fetoprotein b) Lamellar bodies c) Maternal antibody screen d) Fern test

Based on the information provided, if the bilirubin A450 is now in zone 3, what additional testing should be performed? b) Lamellar bodies

Based on the information provided, should an L/S ratio or an Amniostat test be performed? a) L/S ratio b) Amniostat

Based on the information provided, should an L/S ratio or an Amniostat test be performed? b) Amniostat

Based on the information provided, the presence of what substance is of particular concern prior to inducing labor? a) Lecithin b) Sphingomyelin c) Acetylcholinesterase d) Phosphatidyl glycerol

Based on the information provided, the presence of what substance is of particular concern prior to inducing labor? d) Phosphatidyl glycerol

Before analysis, a refrigerated urine specimen must be________________________.

Before analysis, a refrigerated urine specimen must be________________________. returned to room temperature

Before and during collection of a sample for quantitative fecal fats, a patient should: A. Consume 100 g of fat per day B. Consume less than 10 g of fat per day C. Increase usual fat intake by 20% D. Maintain a soft or liquid diet

Before and during collection of a sample for quantitative fecal fats, a patient should: A. Consume 100 g of fat per day

Besides dark yellow, what color or urine could indicate the presence of bilirubin? _____________________

Besides dark yellow, what color or urine could indicate the presence of bilirubin? Green

Blood flows through the nephron in the following order: 1) Efferent arteriole, peritubular capillaries, vasa recta, afferent arteriole 2) Peritubular capillaries, afferent arteriole, vasa recta, efferent arteriole 3) Afferent arteriole, efferent arteriole, peritubular capillaries, vasa recta 4) Efferent arteriole, vasa recta, peritubular capillaries, afferent arteriole

Blood flows through the nephron in the following order: 3) Afferent arteriole, efferent arteriole, peritubular capillaries, vasa recta

Blood tests can be used to confirm the diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis because of the detection of: A. M protein B. Electrolyte imbalance C. Antistreptococcal antibodies D. Decreased serum albumin

Blood tests can be used to confirm the diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis because of the detection of: C. Antistreptococcal antibodies

Broad casts may form as a result of: A. Extreme urinary stasis B. Strenuous exercise C. Increase in loss of amino acids D. Dehydration

Broad casts may form as a result of: A. Extreme urinary stasis

CSF electrophoresis can be used to confirm the diagnosis of multiple sclerosis and would be expected to show which of the following? A. Increased IgG with oligoclonal bands not seen on serum electrophoresis B. Increased IgG with oligoclonal bands similar to those seen on serum electrophoresis C. Decreased IgG with antibody-specific oligoclonal bands D. Decreased IgG with oligoclonal bands resembling those seen on serum electrophoresis

CSF is formed in the _______________ and reabsorbed by the _______________. A. Ventricles, spinal cord B. Choroid plexus, arachnoid granulations C. Arachnoid space, blood-brain barrier D. Blood-brain barrier, arachnoid granulations

CSF is formed in the _______________ and reabsorbed by the _______________. B. Choroid plexus, arachnoid granulations

CSF is produced primarily by: A. Secretion by cells of the arachnoid villi B. Diffusion from the plasma into the central nervous system (CNS) C. Selective filtration of plasma in the choroid plexus D. Excretions from the ependymal cells lining the central nervous system

CSF is produced primarily by: C. Selective filtration of plasma in the choroid plexus

Causes of acute renal failure can include all of the following except: A. Malignancy B. Goodpasture syndrome C. Acute tubular necrosis D. Renal calculi

Causes of acute renal failure can include all of the following except: B. Goodpasture syndrome

Cell counts on CSF are performed on: A. Cells as they are counted in the hemocytometer B. Cover-slipped wet preparations C. Stained smears prepared from the undiluted specimen D. Stained smears prepared from a concentrated specimen

Cell counts on CSF are performed on: A. Cells as they are counted in the hemocytometer

Centrifugation of less than the recommended 12 mL of urine for the microscopic examination will:

Centrifugation of less than the recommended 12 mL of urine for the microscopic examination will: Decrease the number of cellular elements

Chemical analysis of CSF shows that the fluid contains: A. Plasma chemicals in the same concentration as in the plasma B. Plasma chemicals in concentrations different from those in the plasma C. More chemicals than are found in plasma D. Fewer chemicals than are found in plasma

Chemical analysis of CSF shows that the fluid contains: B. Plasma chemicals in concentrations different from those in the plasma

Child who has ingested ethylene glycol A. Prerenal B. Renal C. Postrenal

Child who has ingested ethylene glycol B. Renal

Clue cells are derived from: A. Renal tubular epithelial cells B. Trichomonas vaginalis C. Histiocytes D. Squamous epithelial cells

Clue cells are derived from: D. Squamous epithelial cells

Collection of a midstream clean-catch specimen will alleviate contamination by: A. Renal tubular epithelial cells B. RBCs C. Transitional epithelial cells D. Squamous epithelial cells

Collection of a midstream clean-catch specimen will alleviate contamination by: D. Squamous epithelial cells

Conditions that produce elevated CSF protein include all of the following except: A. Fluid leakage B. Meningitis C. Multiple sclerosis D. Hemorrhage

Conditions that produce elevated CSF protein include all of the following except: A. Fluid leakage

Crystals found in the urine that are associated with pathogenic disease include: A. Calcium oxalate and uric acid B. Leucine and tyrosine C. Heavy amorphous phosphates D. Triple phosphate and ammonium biurate

Crystals found in the urine that are associated with pathogenic disease include: B) Leucine and tyrosine

Crystals frequently seen in patients' joints with chronic inflammation are:_______________________

Crystals frequently seen in patients' joints with chronic inflammation are: Cholesterol

Crystals that appear to be rhombic-shaped and are blue when aligned with the slow vibration of red compensated polarized light are: A. Monosodium urate B. Calcium pyrophosphate C. Hydroxyapatite D. Corticosteroid

Crystals that appear to be rhombic-shaped and are blue when aligned with the slow vibration of red compensated polarized light are: B. Calcium pyrophosphate

Crystals that are found in synovial fluid during attacks of gout are most likely:_________________

Crystals that are found in synovial fluid during attacks of gout are most likely: Monosodium urate

Cystine crystals are often confused with what other crystal?

Cystine crystals are often confused with what other crystal? Uric acid crystals

Cystitis can be differentiated from pyelonephritis by: A. Performing a cystoscopy B. The presence of white blood cell casts C. Performing blood cultures The presence of bacteriuria

Cystitis can be differentiated from pyelonephritis by: B. The presence of white blood cell casts

Damage to the blood-brain barrier by Mycobacterium tuberculosis may cause the CSF to: A. Appear blood-streaked B. Appear xanthochromic C. Contain a pellicle or clot D. Contain decreased protein

Damage to the blood-brain barrier by Mycobacterium tuberculosis may cause the CSF to: C. Contain a pellicle or clot

Dark yellow amniotic fluid is caused by:

Dark yellow amniotic fluid is caused by: Bilirubin

Define Azoospermia

Define Azoospermia: No sperm

Define Diarrhea in two words.

Define Diarrhea in two words. Watery stools

Define Oligospermia

Define Oligospermia: <20 million/ml

Define osmolarity.

Define osmolarity. The osmotic pressure of a solution expressed in milliosmoles per kilogram; it is affected only by the number of particles present.

Define xanthochromia:

Define xanthochromia: Yellowish, pink, or orange supernatant discoloration of the cerebrospinal fluid.

Determine whether each of the following patients is expected to produce this urine. A 7-year-old girl with uncontrolled diarrhea and vomiting for 3 days. o Yes o No An uncontrolled diabetic patient who is 2 hours postprandial. o Yes o No A 42-year-old man taking diuretics and maintaining adequate fluid intake. o Yes o No A 25-year-old woman on a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet. o Yes o No

Determine whether each of the following patients is expected to produce this urine. A 7-year-old girl with uncontrolled diarrhea and vomiting for 3 days. o Yes An uncontrolled diabetic patient who is 2 hours postprandial. o No A 42-year-old man taking diuretics and maintaining adequate fluid intake. o No A 25-year-old woman on a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet. o Yes

Diarrhea can result from all of the following except: A. Disruption of the normal intestinal bacterial flora B. Addition of pathogenic organisms to the normal intestinal flora C. Increased reabsorption of intestinal water and electrolytes Increased concentration of fecal electrolytes

Diarrhea can result from all of the following except: C. Increased reabsorption of intestinal water and electrolytes A. Disruption of the normal intestinal bacterial flora B. Addition of pathogenic organisms to the normal intestinal flora D. Increased concentration of fecal electrolytes

Differentiation among RBCs, yeast, and oil droplets may be accomplished by all of the following except: A. Observation of budding in yeast cells B. Increased refractility of oil droplets C. Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid D. Lysis of RBCs by acetic acid

Differentiation among RBCs, yeast, and oil droplets may be accomplished by all of the following except: C. Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid

Differentiation between a hemothorax and a hemorrhagic effusion on a bloody pleural fluid is done by: A. Observing the fluid for streaks of blood, because this indicates a hemothorax B. Performing a hematocrit value, because a hemothorax will give a value close to that of blood C. Performing a red blood cell (RBC) count, because a hemorrhagic effusion will have a count over 100,000/L D. Performing both RBC and white blood cell (WBC) counts, because a hemothorax will have marked elevations of both cell types

Differentiation between a hemothorax and a hemorrhagic effusion on a bloody pleural fluid is done by: B. Performing a hematocrit value, because a hemothorax will give a value close to that of blood

Differentiation between an ascitic fluid transudate and exudate is most accurately made using the: A. Fluid-to-serum bilirubin ratio B. Serum-ascites albumin gradient C. Absolute neutrophil count D. Fluid-to-serum albumin ratio

Differentiation between an ascitic fluid transudate and exudate is most accurately made using the: B. Serum-ascites albumin gradient

Dilute alkaline urine should be examined carefully for the presence of:

Dilute alkaline urine should be examined carefully for the presence of: Ghost RBCs

Dilution of CSF prior to performing a total cell count should be made using: A. Normal saline B. Deionized water C. Acetic acid D. Acetic acid containing methylene blue

Dilution of CSF prior to performing a total cell count should be made using: A. Normal saline

Diseases affecting the glomerulus are primarily caused by: A. Trauma B. Diabetes C. Immunological disorders D. Toxic chemicals

Diseases affecting the glomerulus are primarily caused by: C. Immunological disorders

Documentation of appropriate handling of specimens for drug analysis is provided by the:

Documentation of appropriate handling of specimens for drug analysis is provided by the: Chain of Custody Form

Eosinophils are found in the urine in cases of:

Eosinophils are found in the urine in cases of: Acute interstitial nephritis

Examination of a CSF shows 1000 WBCs, of which 75% are lymphocytes and 25% are monocytes. This finding is consistent with: A. Normal spinal fluid B. Bacterial meningitis C. Viral meningitis D. Multiple sclerosis

Examination of a CSF shows 1000 WBCs, of which 75% are lymphocytes and 25% are monocytes. This finding is consistent with: C. Viral meningitis

Examination of synovial fluid under direct polarized light reveals intracellular needle-shaped crystals that appear white against the black background. When a red compensator is added and the crystals are aligned with the slow vibration, they appear yellow against the red background. These crystals are: A. Monosodium urate showing positive birefringence B. Monosodium urate showing negative birefringence C. Calcium pyrophosphate showing positive birefringence D. Calcium pyrophosphate showing negative birefringence

Excessive fat metabolism is indicated by the urinary presence of:

Excessive fat metabolism is indicated by the urinary presence of: Ketones

Exudate fluids usually result from: A. Cardiac insufficiency B. Inflammation of the serous membrane C. Abnormal electrolyte balance D. Lack of protein in the diet

Exudate fluids usually result from: B. Inflammation of the serous membrane

Failure to blot the edge of the reagent strip may result in errors in color interpretation caused by:

Failure to blot the edge of the reagent strip may result in errors in color interpretation caused by: Runover

Failure to empty the bladder before beginning the collection of a timed urine specimen will: 1) Cause falsely increased results 2) Affect the preservation of glucose 3) Cause falsely decreased results 4) Adversely affect culture results

Failure to empty the bladder before beginning the collection of a timed urine specimen will: 1) Cause falsely increased results

Failure to mix a specimen prior to inserting the reagent strip will primarily affect the: Glucose reading Blood reading Nitrite reading Ph reading

Failure to mix a specimen prior to inserting the reagent strip will primarily affect the: Blood reading

Filtration of protein is prevented in the glomerulus by_______________________________________ and _________________

Filtration of protein is prevented in the glomerulus by_______________________________________ and _________________ Capillary pores Shield of negativity

Following recovery from an upper respiratory infection, a 5-year-old boy develops numerous petechia. He reports that his urine is red. Results of his urinalysis are: · Color: Red · Clarity: Cloudy · Specific gravity: 1.017 · pH: 6.0 · Protein: 2+ · Glucose: Negative · Ketones: Negative · Bilirubin: Negative · Blood: Large · Urobilinogen: 0.2EU · Nitrite: Negative · Leukocyte esterase: Trace · Microscopic · 6-8 WBCs/hpf · >100 RBCs/hpf · 1-3 hyaline casts/lpf · 2-4 RBC casts/lpf Based on the information provided, what other specimen(s) could be collected and tested for the presence of blood? A. Sputum B. Cerebral spinal fluid C. Bronchial washing D. Abdominal fluid Based on the information provided, how does the presence of petechiae relate to the abnormal results? A. Allergic reaction B. Decreased vascular integrity C. Increased platelets D. Increased destruction of red cells Based on the information given, what is the most probable diagnosis? A. Henoch-Schönlein purpura B. Minimal change disease C. Wegener's granulomatosus D. Goodpasture syndrome

Following recovery from an upper respiratory infection, a 5-year-old boy develops numerous petechia. He reports that his urine is red. Results of his urinalysis are: · Color: Red · Clarity: Cloudy · Specific gravity: 1.017 · pH: 6.0 · Protein: 2+ · Glucose: Negative · Ketones: Negative · Bilirubin: Negative · Blood: Large · Urobilinogen: 0.2EU · Nitrite: Negative · Leukocyte esterase: Trace · Microscopic · 6-8 WBCs/hpf · >100 RBCs/hpf · 1-3 hyaline casts/lpf · 2-4 RBC casts/lpf Based on the information provided, what other specimen(s) could be collected and tested for the presence of blood? A. Sputum Based on the information provided, how does the presence of petechiae relate to the abnormal results? B. Decreased vascular integrity Based on the information given, what is the most probable diagnosis? A. Henoch-Schönlein purpura Answer as it appears in D2L: Sputum Decreased vasular integrity Henoch-Schonlein pupura

Formation of crystals due to medications is most frequently caused by: A. Inadequate hydration B. Incorrect timing of medication doses C. Medication overdoses D. Use of expired antibiotics

Formation of crystals due to medications is most frequently caused by: A. Inadequate hydration

Freshly voided normal urine is usually clear; however, if it is alkaline, a white turbidity may be present due to: a. Amorphous phosphates and carbonates b. Uroerythrin c. WBCs d. Yeast

Freshly voided normal urine is usually clear; however, if it is alkaline, a white turbidity may be present due to: a. Amorphous phosphates and carbonates

Galactose will react with: A. Multistix but not Clinitest B. Multistix but not Chemstrip C. Multistix and Chemstrip D. Clinitest but not Chemstrip

Galactose will react with: D. Clinitest but not Chemstrip

Ghost RBCs most frequently occur with a urine specimen that exhibits the following: A. High pH, high specific gravity B. High pH, low specific gravity C. Low pH, high specific gravity D. Low pH, low specific gravity

Ghost RBCs most frequently occur with a urine specimen that exhibits the following: B. High pH, low specific gravity

Given the following information, calculate the creatinine clearance: Show your work Urine volume 1250 ml in 24 hours Urine creatinine of 115 mg/dL Serum creatinine of 3.0 mg/dL. Is the above value clinically significant? ______ Why or why not?_____________________________________________________

Given the following information, calculate the creatinine clearance: Show your work Urine volume 1250 ml in 24 hours Urine creatinine of 115 mg/dL Serum creatinine of 3.0 mg/dL. ANSWER: 1250 mls in 24 hours is 1250/1440 min= 0.87 ml/min. 115 x 0.87/3.0 =33.35 ml/min Clinically significant Very low

Glitter cell is a term used to describe a specific type of:

Glitter cell is a term used to describe a specific type of: Neutrophil

Glomerular basement membrane thickening occurs in membranous glomerulonephritis as a result of deposition of: A. IgA immune complexes B. IgG immune complexes C. Protein components D. Amyloid material

Glomerular basement membrane thickening occurs in membranous glomerulonephritis as a result of deposition of: B. IgG immune complexes

Glucose will appear in the urine when the: 1)Blood level of glucose is 200 mg/dl 2)Tm for glucose is reached 3)renal threshold for glucose is exceeded 4)All of the above

Goodpasture syndrome and Wegener's granulomatosis are associated with the presence of which of the following in the urine sediment? A. Hyaline casts B. Red blood cell casts C. Waxy casts D. White blood cell casts

Goodpasture syndrome and Wegener's granulomatosis are associated with the presence of which of the following in the urine sediment? B. Red blood cell casts

Gram stains performed on CSF specimens are helpful in the: A. Diagnosis of tubercular meningitis B. Diagnosis of bacterial meningitis C. Detection of viral meningitis D. Detection of bacterial and fungal meningitis

Gram stains performed on CSF specimens are helpful in the: D. Detection of bacterial and fungal meningitis

Hemolytic disease of the newborn endangers the fetus by: a) Delaying production of red blood cells (RBCs) b) Affecting liver function c) Destroying fetal bone marrow d) Destroying fetal RBCs

Hemolytic disease of the newborn endangers the fetus by: d) Destroying fetal RBCs

Hemolytic disease of the newborn is caused by: a) Abnormal maternal hemoglobins b) Abnormal fetal hemoglobins c) Maternal antibodies d) Fetal antibodies

Hemolytic disease of the newborn is caused by: c) Maternal antibodies

How should BAL specimens be transported to the laboratory for analysis? A. Body temperature B. Cold on ice C. Room temperature D. Freeze immediately

How should BAL specimens be transported to the laboratory for analysis? C. Room temperature

Hyaline casts may degenerate into:

Hyaline casts may degenerate into: Waxy casts

Identification of oval fat bodies can be verified using: A. Bright-field microscopy B. Phase contrast C. Polarized light D. Interference-contrast microscopy

Identification of oval fat bodies can be verified using: C. Polarized light

Identification of urinary crystals is based on shape and:_______________

Identification of urinary crystals is based on shape and:_______________ pH of the urine

If CSF tubes numbered 2 and 3 cannot be analyzed within 1 hour, the correct procedure is to: A. Refrigerate both tubes B. Leave both tubes at room temperature C. Refrigerate tube 2 and freeze tube 3 D. Refrigerate tube 3 and leave tube 2 at room temperature

If CSF tubes numbered 2 and 3 cannot be analyzed within 1 hour, the correct procedure is to: D. Refrigerate tube 3 and leave tube 2 at room temperature

In a fully automated analyzer, clarity is measured by: A. Light scatter B. Turbidity C. Laser light D. Reflectance

In a fully automated analyzer, clarity is measured by: A. Light scatter

In an unpreserved and old urine specimen, there could be difficulty differentiating between bacteria and

In an unpreserved and old urine specimen, there could be difficulty differentiating between bacteria and... Amorphous phosphates

In ascending order, the location of epithelial cells in the urinary tract is:

In ascending order, the location of epithelial cells in the urinary tract is: Squamous transitional renal tubular

In diabetic nephropathy, solid material deposited around the capillary tufts includes: A. IgG B. Glycosylated IgA C. Glycosylated protein D. IgM complexes

In diabetic nephropathy, solid material deposited around the capillary tufts includes: C. Glycosylated protein

In gout, both serum and synovial fluid will have increased levels of:_______________________

In gout, both serum and synovial fluid will have increased levels of: uric acid

In the laboratory, the preferred method of urine preservation is______________________.

In the laboratory, the preferred method of urine preservation is______________________. refrigeration

In what circumstance might a sediment be slightly warmed prior to microscopic examination? a. To hemolyze RBCs b. To dissolve amorphous urates c. To increase specific gravity d. To correct for temperature in determining the specific gravity

In what circumstance might a sediment be slightly warmed prior to microscopic examination? b. To dissolve amorphous urates

In which of the following disorders would waxy and broad casts be most likely to be seen? A. Chronic pyelonephritis B. Acute renal failure C. Chronic renal failure D. Acute interstitial nephritis

In which of the following disorders would waxy and broad casts be most likely to be seen? C. Chronic renal failure

Increased CSF eosinophils are associated with: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Introduction of foreign material C. Human immunodeficiency virus D. Viral meningitis

Increased CSF eosinophils are associated with: B. Introduction of foreign material

Increased neutrophils in a stool sample may indicate that the patient has which of the following? A. Staphylococcal food poisoning B. Pancreatic insufficiency C. Lower GI bleeding D. Salmonella infection

Increased neutrophils in a stool sample may indicate that the patient has which of the following? D. Salmonella infection

Increased turbidity in urine stored at room temperature is usually caused by: 1) Evaporation 2) White blood cells 3) Bacterial growth 4) Protein precipitation

Increased turbidity in urine stored at room temperature is usually caused by: 3) Bacterial growth

India ink preparations are useful in the diagnosis of:________

India ink preparations are useful in the diagnosis of:________ Cryptococcal meningitis or Fungal meningitis

Indicate whether each of the following would be considered a Preanalytical, Analytical, or Post Analytical factor. Rejection of a contaminated specimen Telephoning a positive Clinitest result on a newborn Examining a urine for microscopic elements Collecting a timed urine specimen 1. Preanalytical 2. Analytical 3. Post Analytical

Indicate whether each of the following would be considered a Preanalytical, Analytical, or Post Analytical factor. Rejection of a contaminated specimen = 1. Preanalytical Telephoning a positive Clinitest result on a newborn = 3. Post Analytical Examining a urine for microscopic elements = 2. Analytical Collecting a timed urine specimen = 1. Preanalytical

Infection of the bladder is termed:___________

Infection of the bladder is termed:___________ Cystitis

Large orange-red droplets seen on direct microscopic examination of stools that have been mixed with Sudan III stain can represent: A. Fatty acids B. Soaps C. Neutral fats D. Cholesterol

Large orange-red droplets seen on direct microscopic examination of stools that have been mixed with Sudan III stain can represent: C. Neutral fats

Leaving a reagent strip in the specimen for too long will:

Leaving a reagent strip in the specimen for too long will: Cause reagents to leach from the pads.

List 4 reasons for performing an amniocentesis later in the pregnancy (20-42 weeks).

List 4 reasons for performing an amniocentesis later in the pregnancy (20-42 weeks). Fetal Lung Maturity Fetal distress HDN caused by Rh blood type incompatibility Infection

List five nonpathologic causes of cloudy urine. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

List five nonpathologic causes of cloudy urine. Squamous epithelial cells Mucus Amorphous phosphates carbonates urates Semen Radiographic contrast media Talcum powder Vaginal cream Fecal Contamination

List five pathologic causes of cloudy urine that are observed as cells during the microscopic examination. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

List five pathologic causes of cloudy urine that are observed as cells during the microscopic examination. RBC WBC Bacteria Yeast Nonsquamous Epithelial cells

List four primary causes of serous effusions.

List four primary causes of serous effusions. Increased hydrostatic pressure decrease oncotic pressure increased capillary permeability lymphatic obstruction

List the four renal functions of the nephron that allow the kidneys to clear waste products selectively from the blood and simultaneously to maintain the body's essential water and electrolyte balances.

List the four tests to determine Glomerular Filtration _______________________ _______________________ _______________________ _______________________

List the four tests to determine Glomerular Filtration Beta2-microglobulin Creatinine Clearance Estimated Glomerular filtration rates Cystatin C

List the test for Tubular Reabsorption.___________________________________

List the test for Tubular Reabsorption. Osmolarity or Osmolality

List the three stains used for the detection of fecal neutrophils:

List the three stains used for the detection of fecal neutrophils: Methylene Blue Wrights stain Gram stain

List three conditions which can cause a false negative FOBT.

List three conditions which can cause a false negative FOBT. >250 mg/d of Vitamin C Iron supplements containing Vitamin C Failure to wait specified time after sample is applied to add the developer reagent

Lithotripsy is a procedure that is performed to: A. Prevent the formation of renal calculi B. Determine the composition of renal calculi C. Aid in the removal of renal calculi D. Identify the presence of renal calculi

Lithotripsy is a procedure that is performed to: C. Aid in the removal of renal calculi

Major advantages of the leukocyte esterase reagent strip test include all of the following except: A. It will detect the presence of lysed leukocytes B. It can be used to screen specimens before bacterial culturing C. It is a more standardized method for detecting leukocytes than the microscopic method D. It will accurately quantitate the leukocytes present

Major advantages of the leukocyte esterase reagent strip test include all of the following except: D. It will accurately quantitate the leukocytes present

Match the following abnormal crystals with their description/identifying characteristics: 1. _____Cystine 2. _____Tyrosine 3. _____Cholesterol 4. _____Leucine 5. _____Ampicillin 6. _____Radiographic dye 7. _____Bilirubin A. Bundles following refrigeration B. Highly alkaline pH C. Bright yellow clumps D. Hexagonal plates E. Flat plates, high specific gravity F. Concentric circles, radial striation G. Notched corners H. Fine needles seen in liver disease

Match the following abnormal crystals with their description/identifying characteristics: 1. _____Cystine = D. Hexagonal plates 2. _____Tyrosine = H. Fine needles seen in liver disease 3. _____Cholesterol = G. Notched corners 4. _____Leucine = F. Concentric circles, radial striation 5. _____Ampicillin = A. Bundles following refrigeration 6. _____Radiographic dye = E. Flat plates, high specific gravity 7. _____Bilirubin = C. Bright yellow clumps

Match the following crystals seen in acidic urine with their description/identifying characteristics: 1. _____Amorphous urates 2. _____ Uric acid 3. _____Calcium oxalate monohydrate 4. ____Calcium oxalate dihydrate A. Envelopes B. thin needles C. yellow brown rosettes or wedges D. pink sediment E. ovoid

Match the following crystals seen in acidic urine with their description/identifying characteristics: 1. _____Amorphous urates = D. pink sediment 2. _____ Uric acid = C. yellow brown rosettes or wedges 3. _____Calcium oxalate monohydrate = E. ovoid 4. ____Calcium oxalate dihydrate = A. Envelopes

Match the following terms to their definitions. ___Clarity ___Hypersthenuric ___Refractometry ___Hyposthenuric ___Specific gravity ___Isosthenuric ___Urinometry ___Harmonic oscillation A. Pertaining to urine specific gravity the same as the 1.010 of the glomerular filtrate B. The density of a solution compared with that of a similar volume of distilled water, influenced by both the number and size of the particles present. C. Transparency of urine, ranging from clear to turbid D. Pertaining to urine specific gravity greater than the 1.010 of the glomerular filtrate E. A method of measuring specific gravity by measuring the change in the frequency of a sound wave after it enters a solution F. Measurement of light bending capability of solutions G. Pertaining to urine specific gravity lower than the 1.010 of the glomerular filtrate. H. An imprecise method for measuring urine specific gravity using a weighted densitometry float.

Match the following terms to their definitions. Clarity = C. Transparency of urine, ranging from clear to turbid Hypersthenuric = D. Pertaining to urine specific gravity greater than the 1.010 of the glomerular filtrate Refractometry = F. Measurement of light bending capability of solutions Hyposthenuric = G. Pertaining to urine specific gravity lower than the 1.010 of the glomerular filtrate. Specific gravity = B. The density of a solution compared with that of a similar volume of distilled water, influenced by both the number and size of the particles present. Isosthenuric = A. Pertaining to urine specific gravity the same as the 1.010 of the glomerular filtrate Urinometry = H. An imprecise method for measuring urine specific gravity using a weighted densitometry float. Harmonic oscillation = E. A method of measuring specific gravity by measuring the change in the frequency of a sound wave after it enters a solution

Match the following types of microscopy with their descriptions: 1. _____Bright-field 2. _____Phase 3. _____Polarized 4. _____Dark-field 5. _____Fluorescent 6. _____Interference contrast A. Indirect light is reflected off the object B. Objects split light into two beams C. Low refractive index objects may be overlooked D. Three-dimensional images E. Forms halo of light around object F. Detects specific wavelengths of light emitted from objects

Match the following types of microscopy with their descriptions: 1. _____Bright-field = C. Low refractive index objects may be overlooked 2. _____Phase = E. Forms halo of light around object 3. _____Polarized = B. Objects split light into two beams 4. _____Dark-field = A. Indirect light is reflected off the object 5. _____Fluorescent = F. Detects specific wavelengths of light emitted from objects 6. _____Interference contrast = D. Three-dimensional images

Matching: Choose the description for the following urine crystals: A. Thorny apple B. Coffin lid C. Notched corners D. Hexagonal E. Dumbbell 1. Ammonium biurate ___ 2. Calcium carbonate ___ 3. Triple phosphate ___ 4. Cystine ___ 5. Cholesterol ___

Matching: Choose the description for the following urine crystals: A. Thorny apple = 1. Ammonium biurate B. Coffin lid = 3. Triple phosphate C. Notched corners = 5. Cholesterol D. Hexagonal = 4. Cystine E. Dumbbell = 2. Calcium carbonate

Matching: Select the area of the male reproductive system that performs the following functions: 1. Prostate 2. Bulbourethral glands 3. Seminal vessels 4. Epididymis A. Maturation of sperm B. Provides energy for sperm motility C. Neutralized vaginal acidity D. Propels sperm through the urethra

Matching: Select the area of the male reproductive system that performs the following functions: 1. Prostate = D. Propels sperm through the urethra 2. Bulbourethral glands = C. Neutralized vaginal acidity 3. Seminal vessels = B. Provides energy for sperm motility 4. Epididymis = A. Maturation of sperm

Measurement of CSF lactate is useful for monitoring cases of: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Bacterial meningitis C. Reye's syndrome D. Tertiary syphilis

Measurement of CSF lactate is useful for monitoring cases of: B. Bacterial meningitis

Measurement of amniotic fluid creatinine levels can be used to: a) Determine approximate fetal weight b) Diagnose hydramnios c) Differentiate between amniotic fluid and maternal urine Differentiate between maternal and fetal urine

Measurement of amniotic fluid creatinine levels can be used to: c) Differentiate between amniotic fluid and maternal urine

Meconium is composed of bowel constituents. T/F

Meconium is composed of bowel constituents. True

Microscopic examination of a clear urine that produces a pink precipitate after refrigeration will show:________________________________

Microscopic examination of a clear urine that produces a pink precipitate after refrigeration will show: Amorphous urates

Microscopic examination of stools for fecal cells provides preliminary information as to the cause of diarrhea because: A. Neutrophils are present in conditions caused by toxin-producing bacteria B. Neutrophils are present in conditions that affect the intestinal wall C. Red and white blood cells are present if the cause is malabsorption D. Neutrophils are present if the condition is of nonbacterial etiology

Microscopic examination of stools for fecal cells provides preliminary information as to the cause of diarrhea because: B. Neutrophils are present in conditions that affect the intestinal wall

Microscopic screening of a pale, frothy stool from a patient with prolonged diarrhea is performed for fecal neutrophils, fats, and meat fibers. The fecal neutrophil examination result is negative, increased large and small orange droplets are seen in the fat stains, and 10 unstriated muscle fibers are observed. Based on the information provided, what is the significance of the pale, frothy stool? A. Biliary obstruction B. Lactose intolerance C. Malnutrition D. Dumping syndrome

Microscopic urinalysis findings of a patient with acute interstitial nephritis include all of the following except: A. Bacteria B. White blood cells C. Red blood cells D. White blood cell casts

Microscopic urinalysis findings of a patient with acute interstitial nephritis include all of the following except: A. Bacteria

Most laboratories detect the presence of phosphatidylglycerol using thin-layer chromatography. T/F

Most laboratories detect the presence of phosphatidylglycerol using thin-layer chromatography. False

Most renal calculi are composed of: A. Ammonium phosphate B. Magnesium C. Uric acid D. Calcium

Most renal calculi are composed of: D. Calcium

Myelin basic protein is measured in the CSF to assess the condition of patients with: A. Cerebral hemorrhage B. Multiple sclerosis C. Bacterial meningitis D. Neurosyphilis

Myelin basic protein is measured in the CSF to assess the condition of patients with: B. Multiple sclerosis

Myoglobinuria may be caused by: A. A "crushing" injury B. Incompatible blood transfusions C. Chronic renal disease D. Biliary obstruction

Myoglobinuria may be caused by: A. A "crushing" injury

Name 5 abnormal morphologies for sperm.

Name 5 abnormal morphologies for sperm. Double tail Spermatid Pinhead Double head Amorphous head Giant head Tapered head Constricted head Coiled tail

Name two nonpathogenic causes of abnormally high specific gravity readings using a refractometer.

Name two nonpathogenic causes of abnormally high specific gravity readings using a refractometer. I.V. pyelogram (excretion of radiographic dye) receiving dextran or high molecular weight IV fluids.

Nonpathogenic or "normal" crystals found in acidic urine include: A. Calcium oxalate, uric acid, amorphous urates B. Calcium oxalate, uric acid, sulfonamides C. Uric acid, amorphous urates, triple phosphate D. Uric acid, calcium carbonate, bilirubin

Nonpathogenic or "normal" crystals found in acidic urine include: A. Calcium oxalate, uric acid, amorphous urates

Nonpathogenic or "normal" crystals found in alkaline urine include: A. Calcium oxalate, uric acid, amorphous urates B. Calcium oxalate, uric acid, sulfonamides C. Uric acid, amorphous urates, calcium carbonate D. Triple phosphate, calcium carbonate, ammonium biurate

Nonpathogenic or "normal" crystals found in alkaline urine include: D. Triple phosphate, calcium carbonate, ammonium biurate

Normal semen should liquefy: ____________________________ (what time frame?)

Normal semen should liquefy: ____________________________ (what time frame?) Within 1 hour

Normal sperm count range in seminal fluid is:

Normal sperm count range in seminal fluid is: 20-250 million/ml, 40 million per ejaculate

Normal vaginal flora is predominantly of which genus? A. Mobiluncus sp B. Gardnerella sp C. Bacteroides sp D. Lactobacillus sp

Normal vaginal flora is predominantly of which genus? D. Lactobacillus sp

Normal volume range of seminal fluid is:

Normal volume range of seminal fluid is: 2-5 mL

Nucleated red blood cells (RBCs) seen in the CSF indicate: A. Recent cerebral hemorrhage B. Acute leukemia C. A ventricular rather than a lumbar puncture D. Bone marrow contamination from the puncture

Nucleated red blood cells (RBCs) seen in the CSF indicate: D. Bone marrow contamination from the puncture

Oligoclonal bands are significant in the diagnosis of multiple sclerosis when: A. They are seen in both the serum and CSF B. At least five bands are seen in the CSF C. They are seen in the CSF and not in the serum D. They appear in both the albumin and globulin fractions of serum and CSF

Oligoclonal bands are significant in the diagnosis of multiple sclerosis when: C. They are seen in the CSF and not in the serum

Oval fat bodies and fatty casts are characteristic urine sediment constituents in patients with: A. Chronic glomerulonephritis B. Acute interstitial nephritis C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Wegener's granulomatosis

Oval fat bodies and fatty casts are characteristic urine sediment constituents in patients with: C. Nephrotic syndrome

Oval fat bodies are:

Oval fat bodies are: Renal tubular epithelia cells that contain lipids.

Patient with increased transitional epithelial cells in the urine sediment A. Prerenal B. Renal C. Postrenal

Patient with increased transitional epithelial cells in the urine sediment C. Postrenal

Patient with positive blood cultures for Staphylococcus aureus A. Prerenal B. Renal C. Postrenal

Patient with positive blood cultures for Staphylococcus aureus A. Prerenal

Pediatric urine specimens are additionally tested for the presence of:_______________________ using what test?____________________

Pediatric urine specimens are additionally tested for the presence of:_______________________ using what test?____________________ Galactose using Clinitest

Pericardial fluid is collected in a procedure called:

Pericardial fluid is collected in a procedure called: Pericardiocentesis

Peritoneal fluid is collected by a procedure called:________________

Peritoneal fluid is collected by a procedure called:________________ Pericardiocentesis

Peritoneal lavage is performed to:__________________________

Peritoneal lavage is performed to:__________________________ Detect intra-abdominal bleeding

Persons taking diuretics can be expected to produce: A. Anuria B. Polyuria C. Nocturia D. Oliguria

Persons taking diuretics can be expected to produce: B. Polyuria

Physicians performing urinalysis can determine whether a specimen is urine from the presence of formed elements. T/F

Physicians performing urinalysis can determine whether a specimen is urine from the presence of formed elements. False

Pleural fluid is collected in a procedure called:

Pleural fluid is collected in a procedure called: Thoracentesis

Prior to identifying an RBC cast, all of the following should be observed except: This is a tricky question. Chose the answer that is best. Free floating RBCs Intact RBCs in the cast Presence of a cast matrix Positive reagent strip blood reactions

Prior to identifying an RBC cast, all of the following should be observed except: This is a tricky question. Chose the answer that is best. Intact RBCs in the cast

Prior to performing a Gram stain in CSF, the specimen must be:

Prior to performing a Gram stain in CSF, the specimen must be: centrifuged

Prior to reporting a postvasectomy specimen as negative for the presence of sperm, the specimen must be:________________________

Prior to reporting a postvasectomy specimen as negative for the presence of sperm, the specimen must be: Centrifuged

Production of both lecithin and sphingomyelin increases after 35 weeks gestation. T/F

Production of both lecithin and sphingomyelin increases after 35 weeks gestation. False

Proper care of reagent strips includes all of the following except: A. Checking the expiration date B. Storing in a clear container C. Preventing exposure to toxic fumes D. Storing with a desiccant

Proper care of reagent strips includes all of the following except: B. Storing in a clear container A. Checking the expiration date C. Preventing exposure to toxic fumes D. Storing with a desiccant

Proper collection of a semen specimen should include all of the following except: A. In a sterile container B. After a 3-day period of sexual abstinence C. At the laboratory followed by 1 hour of refrigeration D. At home and delivery to the laboratory within 1 hour

Proper collection of a semen specimen should include all of the following except: C. At the laboratory followed by 1 hour of refrigeration

Quality control on reagent strips must be performed whenever a/an: A. Abnormal result is obtained B. Different person performs the test C. New bottle of strips is opened D. Student is training in the laboratory

Quality control on reagent strips must be performed whenever a/an: C. New bottle of strips is opened

Quantitation of a substance that varies with daily activities should be performed on what type of specimen?

Quantitation of a substance that varies with daily activities should be performed on what type of specimen? 24 Hour Specimen

Reagent strip chemical tests may be inaccurate if the specimen is: A. Mixed before delivery B. Tested immediately after refrigeration C. Tested immediately after it is voided D. Collected by catheter

Reagent strip chemical tests may be inaccurate if the specimen is: B. Tested immediately after refrigeration

Reagent strip reactions for blood are based on the: A. Peroxidase activity of hemoglobin B. Oxidation of hemoglobin peroxidase C. Reaction of hemoglobin with bromothymol blue D. Reduction of a chromogen by hemoglobin

Reagent strip reactions for blood are based on the: A. Peroxidase activity of hemoglobin

Reagent strip reactions for ketones react primarily with:

Reagent strip reactions for ketones react primarily with: Acetoacetic acid

Reagent strip reactions for white blood cells are based on the detection of__________________________

Reagent strip reactions for white blood cells are based on the detection of: Esterase activity

Refractive index compares:___________________________________________________

Refractive index compares: Light velocity in air versus velocity in solution.

Refractometers are calibrated using: a. Distilled water and protein b. Distilled water and blood c. Distilled water and sodium chloride d. Distilled water and urea

Refractometers are calibrated using: c. Distilled water and sodium chloride

Requests for amylase and alkaline phosphatase determinations on ascitic fluid are received in suspected cases of: A. Peritonitis B. Gastrointestinal perforations C. Ruptured bladder D. Malignancy

Requests for amylase and alkaline phosphatase determinations on ascitic fluid are received in suspected cases of: B. Gastrointestinal perforations

Schistosoma haematobium would most likely be found in the urine from a: A. Foreign-service employee B. Marathon runner C. Diabetic patient D. Health-care worker

Schistosoma haematobium would most likely be found in the urine from a: A. Foreign-service employee

Sediment constituents that are used to differentiate between upper and lower urinary tract infections are: A. WBCs B. WBC clumps C. RBCs and WBCs D. WBC casts

Sediment constituents that are used to differentiate between upper and lower urinary tract infections are: D. WBC casts

Semen analysis on postvasectomy patients should be performed: A. Within 1 week postvasectomy B. 1 month postvasectomy C. Until two consecutive monthly specimens show no sperm D. Until two consecutive monthly specimens show no viable sperm

Semen analysis on postvasectomy patients should be performed: C. Until two consecutive monthly specimens show no sperm

Semiautomated analyzers for the chemical analysis of urine use the test principle of: A. Enzyme immunochemistry B. Laser light scattering C. Reflectance photometry D. Electrical resistance

Semiautomated analyzers for the chemical analysis of urine use the test principle of: C. Reflectance photometry

Sodium nitroprusside and an alkaline buffer are used to test for: _____________________

Sodium nitroprusside and an alkaline buffer are used to test for: _____________________ Ketones

Solute dissolved in solvent will: 1)Decrease vapor pressure 2)Lower the boiling point 3)decrease the osmotic pressure 4)lower the specific gravity

Solute dissolved in solvent will: 1)Decrease vapor pressure

Solute dissolved in sovent will: a) Raise the vapor pressure b) Lower the boiling point c) Decrease the osmotic pressure d) Lower the freezing point

Solute dissolved in sovent will: d) Lower the freezing point

True or False: Specific gravity is of more diagnostic value than osmolarity in evaluating renal concentration ability.

Specific gravity is of more diagnostic value than osmolarity in evaluating renal concentration ability. False

Specimens containing mucus may be erroneously reported as containing: A. Bacteria B. Yeast C. Hyaline casts D. Oval fat bodies

Specimens containing mucus may be erroneously reported as containing: C. Hyaline casts

Specimens from patients receiving treatment for urinary tract infections frequently appear:___________________________(consistency)_ and ____________________________(color)

Specimens from patients receiving treatment for urinary tract infections frequently appear:___________________________(consistency)_ and ____________________________(color) Viscous yellow/orange

Specimens from patients suspected of having fungal meningitis should be tested with: A. Gram stain, acid-fast stain, and India ink B. Gram stain and India ink C. India ink only D. Acid-fast stain and India ink

Specimens from patients suspected of having fungal meningitis should be tested with: B. Gram stain and India ink

Specimens that contain intact RBCs can be visually distinguished from those that contain hemoglobin because: a. Hemoglobin produces a much brighter red color b. Hemoglobin produces a cloudy, pink specimen c. RBCs produce a cloudy specimen d. RBCs are quickly converted to hemoglobin

Specimens that contain intact RBCs can be visually distinguished from those that contain hemoglobin because: c. RBCs produce a cloudy specimen

Sperm motility after 1 hour should be at least:

Sperm motility after 1 hour should be at least: 50%

State the most probable cause for each of the following scenarios: A student is having difficulty interpreting the reagent strip color reactions on a thick orange specimen. A. Vegetarian diet B. Elevated urobilinogen C. Phenazopyridium D. Cloudy specimen A laboratory that routinely screens all infants with the Clinitest is accused of missing a case of galactosuria. A. "Pass through" was not observed B. Specimen was too old C. High level of ketones D. High level of glucose

State the most probable cause for each of the following scenarios: A student is having difficulty interpreting the reagent strip color reactions on a thick orange specimen. C. Phenazopyridium A laboratory that routinely screens all infants with the Clinitest is accused of missing a case of galactosuria. A. "Pass through" was not observed

State the most probable disorder that would relate to the following scenario: A patient who works in a steel-processing plant presents to the hospital with a normal plasma glucose has consistently elevated reagent strip urine glucose readings. A. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus B. Renal glycosuria C. Fanconi syndrome D. Goodpasture syndrome

State the most probable disorder that would relate to the following scenario: A patient with a history of intermittent hematuria following strenuous exercise has an elevated serum immunoglobulin A level. A. Minimal change disease B. IgA nephropathy C. Acute glomerulonephritis D. Alport's disease

State the most probable disorder that would relate to the following scenario: A positive antineutrophilic cytoplasmic antibody test is obtained on a patient exhibiting symptoms of pulmonary hemoptysis and urinary hematuria. A. Acute glomerulonephritis B. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis C. Goodpasture syndrome D. Wegener's granulomatosis

State the most probable disorder that would relate to the following scenario: An HIV-positive patient develops edema, elevated cholesterol and triglyceride levels, and heavy proteinuria. A. Chronic glomerulonephritis B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis D. Fanconi syndrome

State the most probable disorder that would relate to the following scenario: An intravenous pyelogram is performed on a child with a history of episodes of urinary frequency and burning and the presence of WBC and bacterial casts. A. Acute interstitial nephritis B. Minimal change disease C. Acute pyelonephritis D. Chronic pyelonephritis

State the most probable disorder that would relate to the following scenario: Following ingestion of mushrooms found growing in his garden, a man develops symptoms of oliguria, lethargy, and edema. Many renal tubular epithelial (RTE) cells are observed in his urinalysis. A. Fanconi syndrome B. Acute tubular necrosis C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Acute renal failure

State whether the following actions will cause false-positive or false-negative test results: A. False-positive B. False negative A patient is deprived of fluids during a 6-hour timed urine collection.

State whether the following actions will cause false-positive or false-negative test results: A. False-positive B. False negative Aliquots from 24-hour specimens are being obtained before measuring and mixing the sample.

State whether the following actions will cause false-positive or false-negative test results: A. False-positive B. False negative The second sample of a three glass collection has a positive urine culture.

State whether the following actions will cause false-positive or false-negative test results: A. False-positive B. False negative The temperature of a specimen for drug testing is 25oC when measured within 4 minutes of collection.

Stools from persons with steatorrhea contain excess amounts of:________________________

Stools from persons with steatorrhea contain excess amounts of:________________________ Fat

Substances found in the urinary sediment that can be confirmed using polarized light are: A. WBCs B. Casts C. Ketone bodies D. Lipids

Substances found in the urinary sediment that can be confirmed using polarized light are: D. Lipids

Substances that may interfere with measurement of urine and serum osmolarity include all of the following except: 1) ethanol 2) lactic acid 3) sodium 4) lipids

Substances that may interfere with measurement of urine and serum osmolarity include all of the following except: 3) sodium

Synovial fluid for crystal examination should be: A. Stained with Wright's stain and examined with bright-field microscopy B. Stained with methylene blue and examined under polarized light C. Examined unstained under direct and red compensated polarized light D. Examined unstained with phase microscopy

Synovial fluid for crystal examination should be: C. Examined unstained under direct and red compensated polarized light

T/F Normal values for chemistry tests on serous fluid are different from values obtained on serum

T/F Normal values for chemistry tests on serous fluid are different from values obtained on serum False

T/F Pleural fluid amylase is elevated in cases of pancreatitis

T/F Pleural fluid amylase is elevated in cases of pancreatitis True

T/F A significant finding in a serous effusion is an increase in mesothelial cells

T/F A significant finding in a serous effusion is an increase in mesothelial cells False

T/F Cultures of peritoneal fluid should be routinely incubated both aerobically and anaerobically

T/F Cultures of peritoneal fluid should be routinely incubated both aerobically and anaerobically True

T/F Reactive mesothelial cells indicate a malignant effusion

T/F Reactive mesothelial cells indicate a malignant effusion False

Tests for the detection of occult blood rely on which chemical reaction? A. Reaction of hemoglobin with hydrogen peroxide B. Pseudoperoxidase activity of hemoglobin C. Reaction of hemoglobin with peroxidase D. Pseudoperoxidase activity of hydrogen peroxide

Tests for the detection of occult blood rely on which chemical reaction? B. Pseudoperoxidase activity of hemoglobin

The A450 of an amniotic fluid is plotted in zone 3 of a Liley graph. The physician should: a) Repeat the testing in 3 weeks. b) Immediately induce labor c) Request testing for fetal lung maturity d) Tell the mother that the pregnancy is normal

The A450 of an amniotic fluid is plotted in zone 3 of a Liley graph. The physician should: c) Request testing for fetal lung maturity

The CSF circulates through the brain and spinal cord in the: A. Arachnoid mater B. Choroid plexuses C. Dura mater D. Subarachnoid space

The CSF circulates through the brain and spinal cord in the: D. Subarachnoid space

The CSF glucose in a patient with a blood glucose of 90 mg/dL is 60 mg/dL. These results are representative of: A. An improperly preserved specimen B. Bacterial meningitis C. Normal CSF D. Damage to the blood-brain barrier

The CSF glucose in a patient with a blood glucose of 90 mg/dL is 60 mg/dL. These results are representative of: C. Normal CSF

The CSF/serum albumin index is performed to determine: A. The amount of albumin in the CSF B. Synthesis of IgG within the CNS C. The integrity of the blood-brain barrier D. If an unknown fluid is in the CSF

The CSF/serum albumin index is performed to determine: C. The integrity of the blood-brain barrier

The Ictotest is a more sensitive test for urinary bilirubin because: A. The tablets contain a more sensitive diazonium salt B. Sulfosalicylic acid is included in the tablets C. Bilirubin remains on the surface of the mat D. Water is used to dissolve the tablet

The Ictotest is a more sensitive test for urinary bilirubin because: C. Bilirubin remains on the surface of the mat

The Multistix and Chemstrip color charts are interchangeable. True/False

The Multistix and Chemstrip color charts are interchangeable. False

The ____________ is a cold precipitation test that reacts equally with all forms of protein. (Spell this out. Do not use the acronym)

The ____________ is a cold precipitation test that reacts equally with all forms of protein. (Spell this out. Do not use the acronym) Sulfosalicylic Acid Precipitation Test

The appearance of glucose in the urine of a patient with an elevated blood sugar indicates:

The appearance of glucose in the urine of a patient with an elevated blood sugar indicates: Diabetes mellitus

The average range of volume of CSF in an adults is: _____

The average range of volume of CSF in an adults is: _____ 90-150 mls

The blood level at which tubular reabsorption stops (renal threshold) for glucose is approximately _________ to __________.

The blood level at which tubular reabsorption stops (renal threshold) for glucose is approximately _________ to __________. 160-180 mg/dL

The buffering capacity of the blood depends on __________ which are readily filtered by the glomerulus and must be expediently returned to the blood to maintain the proper pH.

The buffering capacity of the blood depends on __________ which are readily filtered by the glomerulus and must be expediently returned to the blood to maintain the proper pH. HCO3- or bicarbonate

The cells lining the pleural cavities are primarily:______________________

The cells lining the pleural cavities are primarily:______________________ Mesothelial

The cells most frequently associated with urinary tract infection are______________________

The cells most frequently associated with urinary tract infection are: Neutrophils

The chemical principle of the reagent strip test for bilirubin is that bilirubin:

The chemical principle of the reagent strip test for bilirubin is that bilirubin: Combines with a diazonium salt to form a colored complex.

The chemical reaction in the reagent strip reaction for glucose uses a ________________________

The chemical reaction in the reagent strip reaction for glucose uses a ________________________ Double sequential enzyme reaction.

The development of diabetic nephropathy leading to reduced glomerular filtration and eventual renal failure is a common occurrence in persons with diabetes. Onset of renal complications can first be predicted by detection of _______________________________ performed on _________________________ (specific type of specimen)

The fetal fibronectin test is used to determine which of the following conditions? A. Pregnancy B. Preterm delivery C. Postpartum status D. Gestational age

The fetal fibronectin test is used to determine which of the following conditions? B. Preterm delivery

The finding of a 2+ reagent strip reaction for blood in the urine of a patient with severe lower back pain can aid in confirming a diagnosis of: A. Pyelonephritis B. Appendicitis C. Renal calculi D. Multiple myeloma

The finding of a 2+ reagent strip reaction for blood in the urine of a patient with severe lower back pain can aid in confirming a diagnosis of: C. Renal calculi

The finding of bacterial casts can be associated with: A. Acute pyelonephritis B. Acute interstitial nephritis C. Cystitis D. Acute glomerulonephritis

The finding of bacterial casts can be associated with: A. Acute pyelonephritis

The finding of increased hyaline and granular casts in the urine of an otherwise healthy person may be the result of:

The finding of increased hyaline and granular casts in the urine of an otherwise healthy person may be the result of: Recent strenuous exercise

The fluid leaving the glomerulus has a specific gravity of________________________________

The fluid leaving the glomerulus has a specific gravity of________________________________ 1.010

The following urinalysis results are obtained from a female vegetarian who supplements her diet with megavitamins: Why is there a discrepancy between the urine color and specific gravity? A. An old specimen B. Diabetes mellitus C. Increased beta carotene D. Increased bacteria

The formation of clots does not occur in CSF that does not contain blood. False/True

The formation of clots does not occur in CSF that does not contain blood. False

The function of serous fluid is to:

The function of serous fluid is to: Provide lubrication for the serous membranes

The largest source of error in creatinine clearance tests is:

The largest source of error in creatinine clearance tests is: Improperly timed specimen

The least contaminated specimen for bacterial culture is the: 1) Catheterized specimen 2) Suprapubic aspiration 3) Three glass collection 4) Midstream clean-catch specimen

The least contaminated specimen for bacterial culture is the: 2) Suprapubic aspiration

The liver breaks down protein to form what waste product?

The liver breaks down protein to form what waste product? urea

The major constituent of urinary casts is:

The major constituent of urinary casts is: Uromodulin protein

The method for determining a urine specific gravity that is based on the principle that the frequency of a sound wave entering a solution changes in proportion to the density of the solution is: ___________________________________________________________

The microscopic hematuria associated with renal lithiasis is caused by: A. Glomerular damage B. Tubular inflammation C. Tissue irritation D. Bacterial infection

The microscopic hematuria associated with renal lithiasis is caused by: C. Tissue irritation

The microscopic of a cloudy amber urine is reported as rare WBCs and epithelial cells. What does this suggest? a. Urinary tract infection b. Dilute random specimen c. Precipitated amorphous urates d. Possible mix-up of specimen and sediment

The microscopic of a cloudy amber urine is reported as rare WBCs and epithelial cells. What does this suggest? d. Possible mix-up of specimen and sediment

The most frequent concern of premature delivery is underdevelopment of the: __________

The most frequent concern of premature delivery is underdevelopment of the: __________ Lungs

The normal CSF glucose is: A. 25 to 50 mg/dL B. 80 to 120 mg/dL C. 60% to 70% of the blood glucose D. 10% to 20% higher than the blood glucose

The normal CSF glucose is: C. 60% to 70% of the blood glucose

The normal CSF protein range is:

The normal CSF protein range is: 15-45 mg/dL

The normal brown color of the feces results from intestinal oxidation of _________ to _____________________

The normal brown color of the feces results from intestinal oxidation of _________ to _____________________ stercobilinogen urobilin

The normal composition of feces includes all of the following except Bacteria Blood Electrolytes Water

The normal composition of feces includes all of the following except Blood

The normal range of urine pH is:

The normal range of urine pH is: 4.5-8.0

The normal yellow color of urine is produced by _________

The normal yellow color of urine is produced by: Urochrome

The number of fields that should be examined when quantitating urinary sediment constituents is:

The number of fields that should be examined when quantitating urinary sediment constituents is: 10

The only type of cast capable of polarization is the: A. Waxy cast B. Hyaline cast C. Fatty cast D. Granular cast

The only type of cast capable of polarization is the: C. Fatty cast

The organisms attached to a clue cell are:

The organisms attached to a clue cell are: Gardnerella vaginalis

The polyuria associated with diabetes mellitus is caused by: 1) The presence of excess glucose in the urine 2) A defect in the production of ADH (antidiuretic hormone) 3) The diuretic effect of insulin 4) Failure of the collecting duct to respond to ADH

The polyuria associated with diabetes mellitus is caused by: 1) The presence of excess glucose in the urine

The presence of a fetal neural tube disorder may be detected by: a) Increased amniotic fluid bilirubin b) Increased maternal serum alpha fetoprotein c) Decreased amniotic fluid phosphatidyl glycerol d) Decreased maternal serum acetylcholinesterase

The presence of a fetal neural tube disorder may be detected by: b) Increased maternal serum alpha fetoprotein

The presence of amebic dysentery may be suspected when a stool: A. Has a green color B. Is coated with blood-streaked mucus C. Has an extremely foul odor D. Appears unusually slender

The presence of amebic dysentery may be suspected when a stool: B. Is coated with blood-streaked mucus

The presence of heavy proteinuria is most characteristic of: A. Acute glomerulonephritis B. Acute interstitial nephritis C. Pyelonephritis D. Nephrotic syndrome

The presence of heavy proteinuria is most characteristic of: D. Nephrotic syndrome

The presence of increased renal tubular epithelial cell casts is most indicative of: A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Fanconi syndrome C. Acute tubular necrosis D. Acute pyelonephritis

The presence of increased renal tubular epithelial cell casts is most indicative of: C. Acute tubular necrosis

The presence of red blood cells indicates: A. Hypersensitivity pneumonitis B. Aspiration pneumonia C. Granulomatous lung disease D. Alveolar hemorrhage

The presence of red blood cells indicates: D. Alveolar hemorrhage

The presence of which of the following crystals can be associated with nephrotic syndrome? A. Cholesterol B. Tyrosine C. Cystine D. Ampicilli

The presence of which of the following crystals can be associated with nephrotic syndrome? A. Cholesterol

The presence of xanthochromia and an increased D-dimer test in the CSF is indicative of: A. A traumatic tap B. Multiple sclerosis C. A cerebral hemorrhage D. Viral meningitis

The presence of xanthochromia and an increased D-dimer test in the CSF is indicative of: C. A cerebral hemorrhage

The primary cause of a decreased CSF glucose in bacterial meningitis is: A) Utilization of glucose by the microorganisms present in the fluid B) Rapid glycolysis C) Utilization of glucose by leukocytes present in the fluid D) Alteration of blood-brain glucose transport

The primary cause of a decreased CSF glucose in bacterial meningitis is: D) Alteration of blood-brain glucose transport

The primary cause of a decreased CSF glucose in bacterial meningitis is: A. Utilization of glucose by the microorganisms present in the fluid B. Rapid glycolysis C. Utilization of glucose by leukocytes present in the fluid D. Alteration of blood-brain glucose transport

The primary cause of a decreased CSF glucose in bacterial meningitis is: D. Alteration of blood-brain glucose transport

The primary cause of the changes that take place in unpreserved urine is:

The primary cause of the changes that take place in unpreserved urine is: Bacteria Growth

The primary disadvantage in using a cytocentrifuge to prepare CSF differential slides is: A. Frequent bacterial contamination B. Uneven distribution of cells C. Cellular distortion D. Increased cost

The primary disadvantage in using a cytocentrifuge to prepare CSF differential slides is: C. Cellular distortion

The primary factor that favors the formation of urinary casts is:

The primary factor that favors the formation of urinary casts is: Urinary stasis

The principle of reflectance photometry is: A. Laser light that causes a deflection of the light beam to measure color B. Electrical current that causes a change in electrical resistance to measure color C. Enzymes utilizing chemical pads to generate light to measure color D. A light-emitting diode for a specific wavelength to measure color

The principle of reflectance photometry is: D. A light-emitting diode for a specific wavelength to measure color

The principle of the reagent strip test for pH is:

The principle of the reagent strip test for pH is: Double indicator reaction

The principle of the reagent strip test for protein is the:

The principle of the reagent strip test for protein is the: Protein "error of indicator"

The principle of the reagent strip test for specific gravity is:_________________________________________________

The principle of the reagent strip test for specific gravity is: Ionization of a polyelectrolyte with bromethymol blue to produce a pH change

The pronounced edema associated with nephrotic syndrome is related to the: A. Lipidemia B. Hypoalbuminemia C. Decreased glomerular filtration rate D. Lipiduria

The pronounced edema associated with nephrotic syndrome is related to the: B. Hypoalbuminemia

The protein section of the reagent strip is most sensitive to: A. Albumin B. Mucoprotein C. Bence Jones protein D. Globulin

The protein section of the reagent strip is most sensitive to: A. Albumin

The pseudoperoxidase reaction is the principle for the reagent strip test(s) for:___________________

The pseudoperoxidase reaction is the principle for the reagent strip test(s) for:___________________ blood

The purpose of plotting amniotic fluid bilirubin on a Liley graph is to: a) Detect possible fluid contamination b) Detect exposure to light c) Determine the optical density difference d) Determine further treatment

The purpose of plotting amniotic fluid bilirubin on a Liley graph is to: d) Determine further treatment

The purpose of scanning the perimeter of urine sediment placed under a conventional glass slide is to:

The purpose of scanning the perimeter of urine sediment placed under a conventional glass slide is to: Detect the presence of casts

The reading of distilled water by the refractometer is 1.003. You should:_________________________________

The reading of distilled water by the refractometer is 1.003. You should: Adjust the set screw.

The reagent strip reaction that should be read last is the:

The reagent strip reaction that should be read last is the: Leukocyte esterase

The reagent strip test for ketones may detect the urinary presence of:_________________ and _________________________________

The reagent strip test for ketones may detect the urinary presence of:_________________ and _________________________________ Acetoacetic acid and acetone

The reagent strip test for nitrite is based on the_______________________

The reagent strip test for nitrite is based on the: Reduction of nitrate to nitrite by bacteria

The recommended centrifugation setting for preparation of the urine sediment is:

The recommended centrifugation setting for preparation of the urine sediment is: 400 RCF for 5 minutes

The recommended diluting fluid for synovial fluid cell counts is:__________

The recommended diluting fluid for synovial fluid cell counts is: Saline

The recommended serologic test for the diagnosis of neurosyphilis is the rapid plasma reagin test. True or False

The recommended serologic test for the diagnosis of neurosyphilis is the rapid plasma reagin test. False

The recommended specimen for quantitative fecal testing is a:________________________________

The recommended specimen for quantitative fecal testing is a:________________________________ 72 hour specimen

The recommended specimen for routine urinalysis testing is the___________.

The recommended specimen for routine urinalysis testing is the___________. First morning midstream clean catch

The required specimen for quantitative analysis of urinary constituents is the_____________.

The required specimen for quantitative analysis of urinary constituents is the_____________. Times specimen

The secretion of _______________ by the renal tubular cells into the filtrate prevents the filtered bicarbonate from being excreted in the urine and causes the return of ta bicarbonate ion to the plasma.

The significance of seeing bacteria in the urine sediment is increased when what else is present?_______________________________________

The significance of seeing bacteria in the urine sediment is increased when what else is present?_______________________________________ WBCs are present

The specimen of choice for routine urinalysis is the first morning urine because it _________________________________.

The specimen of choice for routine urinalysis is the first morning urine because it _________________________________. It is more concentrated to better detect abnormalities.

The term occult blood in fecal analysis can indicate which of the following? A. Blood that is produced in the lower GI tract B. Blood that is produced in the upper GI tract C. Blood that is not visibly apparent in the stool specimen D. Blood that produces a black, tarry stool

The term occult blood in fecal analysis can indicate which of the following? C. Blood that is not visibly apparent in the stool specimen

The test for placental alpha-1 microglobulin protein is used to determine: A. Fetal membrane rupture B. Pregnancy C. Bacterial vaginosis D. Atropic vaginosis

The test for placental alpha-1 microglobulin protein is used to determine: A. Fetal membrane rupture

The test performed on peritoneal lavage fluid is the:_________________

The test performed on peritoneal lavage fluid is the:_________________ RBC count

The third tube of CSF collected from a lumbar puncture should be used for: A. Chemistry tests B. Cytology examination C. Microbiology tests D. Hematology tests

The third tube of CSF collected from a lumbar puncture should be used for: D. Hematology tests

The three glass collection is used for the diagnosis of:

The three glass collection is used for the diagnosis of: Prostatitis

The type of cast most closely associated with tubular damage is the: A. WBC cast B. Epithelial cell cast C. RBC cast D. Fatty cast

The type of cast most closely associated with tubular damage is the: B. Epithelial cell cast

The type of cells that line the bladder and ureters are called:

The type of cells that line the bladder and ureters are called: Transitional Epithelial cells.

The type of proteinuria least likely to be detected by reagent strip is: A. Orthostatic B. Prerenal C. Renal D. Postrenal

The type of proteinuria least likely to be detected by reagent strip is: B. Prerenal

The unpleasant odor associated with fecal analysis is caused primarily by: A. Undigested foodstuffs B. Bile salts C. Bacterial metabolism D. Pancreatic secretions

The unpleasant odor associated with fecal analysis is caused primarily by: C. Bacterial metabolism

The urinary sediment constituent most closely associated with bleeding within the nephron is the:

The urinary sediment constituent most closely associated with bleeding within the nephron is the: RBC casts

The usual average daily volume of urine produced by a normal adult is approximately: (Don't forget units)

The usual average daily volume of urine produced by a normal adult is approximately: (Don't forget units) 1200 mls

The volume of amniotic fluid is regulated by fetal swallowing. T/F

The volume of amniotic fluid is regulated by fetal swallowing. True

Three tubes of CSF are submitted to the laboratory. They are numbered 1, 2, and 3 and show blood in all tubes but decreasing in amount as one inspects tubes 1 through 3. This observation should be interpreted as: A. The tubes were numbered in the wrong sequence, as one would expect increasing amounts of blood B. A traumatic or bloody tap is suspected and, in all likelihood, no pathogenic significance should be attached to the presence of the blood C. The pathologic presence of RBCs and reported to the supervisor immediately D. A pathologic presence of RBCs, but because the RBC morphology is normal there is minimal importance

Three tubes of CSF are submitted to the laboratory. They are numbered 1, 2, and 3 and show blood in all tubes but decreasing in amount as one inspects tubes 1 through 3. This observation should be interpreted as: B. A traumatic or bloody tap is suspected and, in all likelihood, no pathogenic significance should be attached to the presence of the blood

Three tubes of blood-streaked synovial fluid from the elbow of a 40-year-old tennis player are delivered to the laboratory with a request for a WBC count, differential, crystal analysis, glucose, and Gram stain. Based on the information provided, what is the significance of the blood-streaked fluid? A. Elbow trauma B. Infection C. Traumatic collection D. Membrane damage

To detect the presence of casts, the sediment is examined using:

To detect the presence of casts, the sediment is examined using: Reduced light under low power

To detect the presence of early renal disease, diabetic patients are tested for:_____________________. This test should be performed on _____________(what type of specimen).

To detect the presence of early renal disease, diabetic patients are tested for:_____________________. This test should be performed on _____________(what type of specimen). Microalbumin First Morning

To determine if a questionable specimen is semen, the specimen should be tested for:__________

To determine if a questionable specimen is semen, the specimen should be tested for:__________ Acid phosphatase

To differentiate a bacterial cast from a granular cast, a clinical laboratory scientist could: A. Perform a Gram stain B. Use polarizing microscopy C. Perform a Hansel stain D. Add acetic acid to the sediment

To differentiate a bacterial cast from a granular cast, a clinical laboratory scientist could: A. Perform a Gram stain

To differentiate between maternal and fetal blood in blood-streaked amniotic fluid, the fluid is tested for:___________________

To differentiate between maternal and fetal blood in blood-streaked amniotic fluid, the fluid is tested for:___________________ Fetal hemoglobin

To dissolve amorphous urates, you could:

To dissolve amorphous urates, you could: Warm the specimen to body temperature

To distinguish a cellular cast from a clump of cells, the clinical laboratory scientist should:

To distinguish a cellular cast from a clump of cells, the clinical laboratory scientist should: Look carefully for the cast matrix

To prevent false-positive fecal occult blood results, patients should be instructed to avoid eating all of the following for 3 days before testing except: A. Horseradish B. Chicken C. Melons D. Red meat

To prevent false-positive fecal occult blood results, patients should be instructed to avoid eating all of the following for 3 days before testing except: B. Chicken

To standardize the sediment concentration for microscopic analysis one must: A) Centrifuge the entire urine collection B) Use only the urine tubes and pipettes for a single commercial system C) Interchange the urine tubes and pipettes from several commercial systems D) Use only the parts of the commercial system that you want

To standardize the sediment concentration for microscopic analysis one must: B) Use only the urine tubes and pipettes for a single commercial system

Trauma requiring transfusion of 8 pints of blood A. Prerenal B. Renal C. Postrenal

Trauma requiring transfusion of 8 pints of blood A. Prerenal

Under what conditions will a port-wine urine color be observed in a urine specimen?________________________________

Under what conditions will a port-wine urine color be observed in a urine specimen? Urine contains porphyrins.

Untreated cystitis A. Prerenal B. Renal C. Postrenal

Untreated cystitis B. Renal

Urinalysis on a patient with severe back and abdominal pain is frequently performed to check for: Glucosuria Proteinuria Hematuria Hemoglobinuria

Urinalysis on a patient with severe back and abdominal pain is frequently performed to check for: Hematuria

Urinary casts are formed in the:

Urinary casts are formed in the: Distal collecting tubules

Urinary crystals that appear yellow to reddish-brown are in normal acidic urine are :__________________________________

Urinary crystals that appear yellow to reddish-brown are in normal acidic urine are :______________ Uric acid

Urinary pH provides valuable information for the:

Urinary pH provides valuable information for the: Identification of crystals

Urine contains organic and inorganic chemicals that can vary with body metabolic functions. True/False

Urine contains organic and inorganic chemicals that can vary with body metabolic functions. True

Urine from a patient with diabetes insipidus has: 1) Decreased volume and decreased specific gravity 2) Decreased volume and increased specific gravity 3) Increased volume and increased specific gravity 4) Increased volume and decreased specific gravity

Urine from a patient with diabetes insipidus has: 4) Increased volume and decreased specific gravity

Urine sediment artifacts frequently differ from true sediment constituents by their:_______________________________________

Urine sediment artifacts frequently differ from true sediment constituents by their:_______________________________________ Refractility

Urine sediments containing increased WBCs should be observed closely for the presence of:

Urine sediments containing increased WBCs should be observed closely for the presence of: Bacteria

True or False: Urine specific gravity is equally influenced by the presence of glucose and sodium.

Urine specific gravity is equally influenced by the presence of glucose and sodium. False

Urine that remains unpreserved at room temperature will show an increase in the concentrations of nitrate, glucose, and white blood cells. True/False

Urine that remains unpreserved at room temperature will show an increase in the concentrations of nitrate, glucose, and white blood cells. False

Urobilinogen is formed from the: A. Conjugation of bilirubin in the liver B. Reduction of conjugated bilirubin in the bile C. Reduction of bilirubin by intestinal bacteria D. Oxidation of urobilin by intestinal bacteria

Urobilinogen is formed from the: C. Reduction of bilirubin by intestinal bacteria

Using a 1:10 dilution, 120 cells are counted in the four large corner squares on one side of the hemocytometer. What is the cell count? Show your math for full credit.

Using a 1:10 dilution, 120 cells are counted in the four large corner squares on one side of the hemocytometer. What is the cell count? Show your math for full credit. count x depth factor x dilution factor/# of large squares 120 x 10 x 10 / 4 = 3,000 ANSWER: 120*10/4*0.1=3000 cells/uL

Using a 1:10 dilution, an average of 64 cells are counted in five large squares on both sides of the hemocytometer.(10 squares counted 63 in one side and 65 in the other) What is the reported cell count? Show your math for full credit.

Using a 1:20 dilution and the 5 RBC counting squares of the Neubauer counting chamber, an average of 54 sperm is counted. The sperm concentration is:___________________________________________ Show your work

Using a 1:20 dilution of a specimen with a volume of 4 mL, 30 sperm are counted in two large squares (WBC) of the Neubauer hemocytometer. What is the number of sperm per ejaculate? Show your work.

Using a 1:20 dilution of a specimen with a volume of 4 mL, 30 sperm are counted in two large squares (WBC) of the Neubauer hemocytometer. What is the number of sperm per ejaculate? Show your work. 30*20/2*0.1= 3000 sperm/ul x 1000= 3,000,000 sperm /ml x volume of 4 mls= 12 million per ejaculate.

Using a 1:20 dilution of semen, a student counts 70 sperm in the five RBC squares on one side of the Neubauer hemocytometer and 82 sperm on the other side. The student should______________________ Why? _________________________________

Using a bright-field microscope, the final magnification of a high-power field is:

Using a bright-field microscope, the final magnification of a high-power field is: 400X

Using an undiluted specimen, 100 cells are counted in the nine large squares on one side of the hemocytometer. What is the cell count? Show your math for full credit.

Using an undiluted specimen, 100 cells are counted in the nine large squares on one side of the hemocytometer. What is the cell count? Show your math for full credit. count x depth factor x dilution factor/# of large squares 100 x 10 x 1 / 9 111 ANSWER: 100*1/9*0.1= 111 cells/uL

Using polarized microscopy, which of the following is/are birefringent? A. Cholesterol B. Triglycerides C. Fatty acids D. Neutral fats

Using polarized microscopy, which of the following is/are birefringent? A. Cholesterol

Using the following laboratory results, determine whether they represent bacterial, viral, tubercular, or fungal meningitis: WBC count: 1000/uL Lymphocytes: 10% Monocytes: 0% Neutrophils: 90% Protein 150 mg/dL Glucose: 15 mg/dL (Serum 90 mg/dL) Lactate: 40 mg/dL

Using the following laboratory results, determine whether they represent bacterial, viral, tubercular, or fungal meningitis: WBC count: 300/uL Lymphocytes: 70% Monocytes: 30% Neutrophils: 0% Protein 90mg/dL Glucose: 30 mg/dL (Serum 90 mg/dL) Lactate: 30 mg/dL Pellicle formation

Using the following laboratory results, determine whether they represent bacterial, viral, tubercular, or fungal meningitis: WBC count: 400/uL Lymphocytes: 90% Monocytes: 8% Neutrophils: 2% Glucose: 70 mg/dL (Serum 100 mg/dL) Lactate: 18 mg/dL

Vaginal secretion collection kits are specific for which of the following? A. Temperature in which they must be used B. Pricing for the medical practice C. For the organism sought D. For left- or right-handed medical personnel

Vaginal secretion collection kits are specific for which of the following? C. For the organism sought

Values for creatinine clearance tests on children are corrected for _______________________

Values for creatinine clearance tests on children are corrected for Body size

Waxy casts are most easily differentiated from hyaline casts by their: A. Color B. Size C. Granules D. Refractivity

Waxy casts are most easily differentiated from hyaline casts by their: D. Refractivity

Waxy casts can be found in the urine sediment of patients with what disease state?

Waxy casts can be found in the urine sediment of patients with what disease state? Renal failure

What action would you take with the following results? A. Call the floor because the urobilinogen is over the panic value B. Notify the floor that the specimen is too old C. Recheck the sediment D. Report the result

What action would you take with the following results? D. Report the result

What are the three components of normal urine, (excluding water)?

What are the three components of normal urine, (excluding water)? Urea Chloride Creatine

What are the two methods of measuring osmolality?

What are the two methods of measuring osmolality? Freezing point Vapor pressure

What are three reasons for performing a semen analysis?

What are three reasons for performing a semen analysis ? Infertility Post vasectomy Forensic medicine

What color BAL fluid would a heavy smoker have? A. White B. Gray C. Brown D. Black

What color BAL fluid would a heavy smoker have? B. Gray

What do the following results suggest? A. Diabetes mellitus B. Unsatisfactory specimen C. Urinary tract infection D. Normal female specimen

What do the following results suggest? C. Urinary tract infection

What factor is the most common reason for xanthochromia?

What factor is the most common reason for xanthochromia? Presence of RBC degradation products.

What happens when the renal threshold for glucose is exceeded?

What happens when the renal threshold for glucose is exceeded? Glucose appears in the urine

What is the Apt test used for? (What does it differentiate?)

What is the Apt test used for? (What does it differentiate?) Fetal blood and maternal blood in an infant's stool

What is the advantage of cytocentrifuge of CSF specimens?

What is the advantage of cytocentrifuge of CSF specimens? Produces a more concentrated area of cells

What is the instillation volume for cellular examination and culture? A. 50 to 100 mL in 10 to 20 aliquots of sterile saline B. 100 to 200 mL in 10 to 20 aliquots of sterile saline C. 100 to 300 mL in 20 to 50 aliquots of sterile saline D. 200 to 400 mL in 20 to 50 aliquots of sterile saline

What is the instillation volume for cellular examination and culture? C. 100 to 300 mL in 20 to 50 aliquots of sterile saline

What is the main reason for performing and osmolality test?

What is the main reason for performing and osmolality test? For a more accurate evaluation of renal concentrating ability.

What is the major functional unit of the kidney and what two components make it up?

What is the major functional unit of the kidney and what two components make it up? Nephron Glomerulus and renal tubules

What is the maximum length of time a urine specimen can remain unpreserved a room temperature before testing?

What is the maximum length of time a urine specimen can remain unpreserved a room temperature before testing? 2 hours

What is the most important thing the creatinine clearance test tells a clinician?

What is the most important thing the creatinine clearance test tells a clinician? Measures the rate at which the kidneys are able to remove a filterable substance from the blood.

What is the most probable cause of the discrepancies in the chemical and microscopic results? A. Dilute specimen B. Increased ascorbic acid C. Specimen color D. Specimen clarity

What is the most probable cause of the discrepancies in the chemical and microscopic results? B. Increased ascorbic acid

What is the most prominent cell type seen in BAL?

What is the most prominent cell type seen in BAL? Macrophages

What is the patient's probable diagnosis? A. Renal calculi B. Glomerulonephritis C. Allergic reaction D. Urinary tract infection

What is the patient's probable diagnosis? D. Urinary tract infection

What is the recommended number of samples that should be tested to confirm a negative occult blood result?

What is the recommended number of samples that should be tested to confirm a negative occult blood result? Two samples taken from different parts of three stools.

What is the significance of a peritoneal fluid with an elevated creatinine level? A. Renal malignancy B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Ruptured bladder D. No significance

What is the significance of a peritoneal fluid with an elevated creatinine level? C. Ruptured bladder

What is the significance of a pleural fluid with a hematocrit value of 30% (blood hematocrit: 34%)? A. Hemothorax B. Pneumonia C. Esophageal rupture D. Mesothelioma

What is the significance of a pleural fluid with a hematocrit value of 30% (blood hematocrit: 34%)? A. Hemothorax

What is the significance of an ascitic fluid exudate with a positive CA 125 and a negative CEA? A. Gastrointestinal malignancy B. No significance C. Tuberculosis D. Ovarian malignancy

What is the significance of an ascitic fluid exudate with a positive CA 125 and a negative CEA? D. Ovarian malignancy

What three parameters are considered when evaluating sperm?

What three parameters are considered when evaluating sperm? Motility Morphology Viability

What two things do you measure to determine if a specimen is urine?

What two things do you measure to determine if a specimen is urine? Urea Creatinine

When a CSF specimen is received in the microbiology laboratory, the first thing the technologist should do is: A. Perform a Gram stain B. Perform an India ink preparation C. Centrifuge the specimen D. Streak the fluid on chocolate agar

When a CSF specimen is received in the microbiology laboratory, the first thing the technologist should do is: C. Centrifuge the specimen

When an L/S ratio by thin-layer chromatography is performed, a mature fetal lung will show: a) Sphingomyelin twice as concentrated as lecithin b) No sphingomyelin c) Lecithin twice as concentrated as sphingomyelin d) Equal concentrations of lecithin and sphingomyelin

When an L/S ratio by thin-layer chromatography is performed, a mature fetal lung will show: c) Lecithin twice as concentrated as sphingomyelin

When microscopic elements are flagged by the Sysmex UF 1000i, the corrective action is: A. Call the physician's office B. Ask for a new specimen C. Rerun the specimen D. Confirm by manual examination

When microscopic elements are flagged by the Sysmex UF 1000i, the corrective action is: D. Confirm by manual examination

When performing microscopic examination of a stool for muscle fibers, the structures that are counted: A. Are coiled and stain red B. Contain no visible striations C. Have vertical and horizontal striations D. Have horizontal striations and stain blue

When performing microscopic examination of a stool for muscle fibers, the structures that are counted: C. Have vertical and horizontal striations

Where should labels on urine specimen containers be placed? 1) Container 2) Lid 3) Bottom 4) Placement does not matter

Where should labels on urine specimen containers be placed? 1) Container

Which crystal is associated with ethylene glycol ingestion?______________

Which crystal is associated with ethylene glycol ingestion? Calcium oxalate monohydrate

Which diagnostic test uses a 10% solution of potassium hydroxide to detect the volatilization of amines to produce a distinctive odor? A. Whiff test B. KOH test C. DNA test D. Western Blot test

Which diagnostic test uses a 10% solution of potassium hydroxide to detect the volatilization of amines to produce a distinctive odor? A. Whiff test

Which inherited renal disorder manifests itself in the development of gout in teenage years? A. Fanconi syndrome B. Diabetes mellitus C. Uromodulin-associated kidney disease D. Chronic glomerulonephritis

Which inherited renal disorder manifests itself in the development of gout in teenage years? C. Uromodulin-associated kidney disease

Which of the following bacterial characteristics best describes the "normal flora" found in a vaginal specimen? A. Gram-positive cocci B. Gram-variable curved rods C. Gram-positive large rods D. Gram-negative rods

Which of the following bacterial characteristics best describes the "normal flora" found in a vaginal specimen? C. Gram-positive large rods

Which of the following can produce a negative nitrite test in the presence of significant bacteriuria? A. The presence of many non-nitrate reducing bacteria B. Performing the test on a first morning specimen C. Increased dietary nitrate D. Decreased ascorbic acid

Which of the following can produce a negative nitrite test in the presence of significant bacteriuria? A. The presence of many non-nitrate reducing bacteria

Which of the following cells can both be found in both a vaginal wet prep and in urine sediment? A) Yeast cell and clue cell B) Transitional and renal epithelial cell C) Clue cell and squamous cell D) Renal and squamous cells

Which of the following cells can both be found in both a vaginal wet prep and in urine sediment? A) Yeast cell and clue cell

Which of the following cells found in increased numbers in the urine sediment is only indicative of nephron damage? A. Erythrocytes B. WBCs C. Squamous epithelial cells D. Renal tubular cells

Which of the following cells found in increased numbers in the urine sediment is only indicative of nephron damage? D. Renal tubular cells

Which of the following cells need further intervention when analyzed by automated body fluid instruments? A. Malignant cells B. White blood cells C. Red blood cells D. Mesothelial cells

Which of the following cells need further intervention when analyzed by automated body fluid instruments? A. Malignant cells

Which of the following conditions is not likely if a vaginal pH value is greater than 4.5? A. Vulvovaginal candidiasis B. Trichomoniasis C. Desquamative inflammatory vaginitis D. Bacterial vaginosis

Which of the following conditions is not likely if a vaginal pH value is greater than 4.5? A. Vulvovaginal candidiasis

Which of the following crystals occurs in two very distinct forms? A. Ammonium biurate B. Calcium oxalate C. Leucine D. Cholesterol

Which of the following crystals occurs in two very distinct forms? B. Calcium oxalate

Which of the following descriptions of synovial fluid does not correlate? A. Normal: clear, pale yellow B. Crystals: milky C. Traumatic tap: blood streaks D. Sepsis: uniform blood

Which of the following descriptions of synovial fluid does not correlate? D. Sepsis: uniform blood

Which of the following differentiates a waxy cast from a fiber most effectively? A. Waxy casts do not polarize light, and fibers do. B. Waxy casts are more refractile than fibers. C. Waxy casts have rounded ends, and fibers do not. D. Waxy casts are thicker on the edge, and fibers are thicker in the center.

Which of the following differentiates a waxy cast from a fiber most effectively? A. Waxy casts do not polarize light, and fibers do.

Which of the following elements would most likely be found in an acidic concentrated urine that contains protein? A. Ghost RBCs B. Casts C. Bacteria D. Triple phosphate crystals

Which of the following elements would most likely be found in an acidic concentrated urine that contains protein? B. Casts

Which of the following is least likely to occur if a urine specimen stands at room temperature for more than 2 hours? 1) Deterioration of formed elements 2) Increased bacteria 3) Decreased pH 4) Decreased glucose

Which of the following is least likely to occur if a urine specimen stands at room temperature for more than 2 hours? 3) Decreased pH

Which of the following is most likely to be found in the urine of a diabetic patient? A. Trichomonas vaginalis B. Escherichia coli C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus D. Candida albicans

Which of the following is most likely to be found in the urine of a diabetic patient? D. Candida albicans

Which of the following is not an advantage of automated microscopy? A. Standardization B. Reduced turnaround time (TAT) C. Cost effectiveness D. High variation of results

Which of the following is not an advantage of automated microscopy? D. High variation of results

Which of the following is not true about the Ictotest? A. Bilirubin is concentrated on the surface of an absorbent pad. B. Interfering pigments can be washed into the pad. C. It uses the same principle as the reagent strip. D. It is less sensitive than the reagent strip test.

Which of the following is not true about the Ictotest? D. It is less sensitive than the reagent strip test.

Which of the following is the most likely reason a physician would collect BAL? A. Pancreatitis B. Ulcers C. Cirrhosis D. Lung disease

Which of the following is the most likely reason a physician would collect BAL? D. Lung disease

Which of the following is the most likely reason a physician would collect vaginal fluid for analysis? A. Preeclampsia B. Vaginitis C. Pregnancy testing D. As part of a police rape kit for sexual assault

Which of the following is the most likely reason a physician would collect vaginal fluid for analysis? B. Vaginitis

Which of the following pairings of stool appearance and cause does not match? A. Black, tarry: blood B. Yellow-green: barium sulfate C. Pale, frothy: steatorrhea D. Yellow-gray: bile duct obstruction

Which of the following pairings of stool appearance and cause does not match? B. Yellow-green: barium sulfate

Which of the following results should have testing repeated? A. Positive blood and protein B. pH 7.0 with uric acid crystals C. Positive bilirubin and urobilinogen D. pH 8.0, WBCs, and triple phosphate crystals

Which of the following results should have testing repeated? B. pH 7.0 with uric acid crystals

Which of the following secretion combinations are considered to be normal? A. White, curd-like B. White, flocculent discharge C. Yellow-green, frothy D. Yellow, opaque

Which of the following secretion combinations are considered to be normal? B. White, flocculent discharge

Which of the following sets of results most closely indicates an exudate? A. Clear, fluid-to-serum LD ratio: 0.5; fluid-to-serum protein ratio: 0.5; WBC count: 900/µL B. Cloudy, fluid-to-serum LD ratio: 0.5; fluid-to-serum protein ratio: 0.4; WBC count: 1200/µL C. Cloudy, fluid-to-serum LD ratio: 0.8; fluid-to-serum protein ratio: 0.7; WBC count: 2500/µL D. Clear, fluid-to-serum LD ratio: 0.55; fluid-to-serum protein ratio: 0.55;

Which of the following sets of results most closely indicates an exudate? C. Cloudy, fluid-to-serum LD ratio: 0.8; fluid-to-serum protein ratio: 0.7; WBC count: 2500/µL

Which of the following specific gravities would be most likely to correlate with a dark yellow urine? a. 1.005 b. 1.010 c. 1.020 d. 1.030

Which of the following specific gravities would be most likely to correlate with a dark yellow urine? d. 1.030

Which of the following specimen handling combinations is incorrect? A. Trichomonas: room temperature B. N. gonorrhoeae: room temperature C. Herpes simplex virus (HSV): room temperature D. C. trachomatis: refrigerated

Which of the following specimen handling combinations is incorrect? C. Herpes simplex virus (HSV): room temperature

Which of the following terms is correctly matched with urine output? 1) Anuria: 400 mL in 24 hours 2) Oliguria: 1000 mL in 24 hours 3) Polyuria: 3000 mL in 24 hours 4) Nocturia: no urine output

Which of the following terms is correctly matched with urine output? 3) Polyuria: 3000 mL in 24 hours

Which of the following tests is valuable in the diagnosis of esophageal rupture? A. Pleural fluid pH B. Ascitic fluid pH C. Pleural fluid amylase D. Ascitic fluid amylase

Which of the following tests is valuable in the diagnosis of esophageal rupture? A. Pleural fluid pH

Which of the following urine elements if flagged by automated microscopy would need to be confirmed by a manual examination? A. Red blood cells B. White blood cells C. Crystals D. Bacteria

Which of the following urine elements if flagged by automated microscopy would need to be confirmed by a manual examination? C. Crystals

Which of the following will be detected by the reagent strip nitrite reaction? A. Staphylococcus saprophyticus B. Candida albicans C. Enterococcus faecalis D. Escherichia coli

Which of the following will be detected by the reagent strip nitrite reaction? D. Escherichia coli

Which of the following will be least affected in an unpreserved specimen left at room temperature overnight? 1) Bilirubin 2) Urobilinogen 3) Red blood cells 4) Protein

Which of the following will be least affected in an unpreserved specimen left at room temperature overnight? 4) Protein

Which of the following will not cause ketonuria? A. Inability to use carbohydrates B. Inadequate intake of carbohydrates C. Increased metabolism of carbohydrates D. Excessive loss of carbohydrates

Which of the following will not cause ketonuria? C. Increased metabolism of carbohydrates

Which urine chemicals will deteriorate when exposed to light?

Which urine chemicals will deteriorate when exposed to light? Bilirubin

While performing a Clinitest, you observe that the color changes rapidly from blue to orange and then back to blue. You should: A. Report the test as negative, because the final reaction color is blue B. Report the test as negative, because the brief orange color probably was from detergent in the tube C. Repeat the test using fewer drops of urine to check for "pass through" D. Repeat the test using more drops of urine to prevent "pass through"

While performing a Clinitest, you observe that the color changes rapidly from blue to orange and then back to blue. You should: C. Repeat the test using fewer drops of urine to check for "pass through"

Why must the laboratory draw blood when a creatinine clearance is ordered?

Why must the laboratory draw blood when a creatinine clearance is ordered? To determine the plasma or serum level of the substance being cleared.

Why should stools not be black and tarry when performing an Apt test?

Why should stools not be black and tarry when performing an Apt test? The hemoglobin is already denatured invalidating the test.

Would a control sample that has accidentally become diluted produce a trend or a shift in the Levy-Jennings plot?

Would a control sample that has accidentally become diluted produce a trend or a shift in the Levy-Jennings plot? Shift

Xanthochromic CSF may appear pink, orange, or yellow. T/F

Xanthochromic CSF may appear pink, orange, or yellow. True

You receive a call from a physician's practice asking about "extra swabs" for a vaginal secretions collection for Neisseria possible infection. Which of the following swabs cannot be used and why? A. Sterile polyester tipped swabs because they are toxic to Neisseria B. Sterile polyester tipped swabs because they inactivate Neisseria C. Sterile wood shaft swabs with cotton because they are toxic to Neisseria D. Sterile wood shaft swabs with cotton because they inactivate Neisseria

______________ is a disorder frequently associated with tubular dysfunction and present with urinalysis findings including glycosuria or a normal blood glucose and possible mild proteinuria. Urinary pH can be very low due to the failure to reabsorb bicarbonate.

_________is the primary disorder associated with damage to the renal tubes and damage may be produced by decreased blood flow that causes a lack of oxygen otherwise known as ____________

_________is the primary disorder associated with damage to the renal tubes and damage may be produced by decreased blood flow that causes a lack of oxygen otherwise known as ____________ Acute tubular necrosis Ischemia

_________occurs primarily in children after upper respiratory infections. The initial symptoms include the appearance of raised, red patches on the skin.

_________occurs primarily in children after upper respiratory infections. The initial symptoms include the appearance of raised, red patches on the skin. Henoch-Schonlein Purpura

____________ is a serious form of acute glomerular disease in which symptoms are initiated by deposition of immune complexes in the glomerulus, often as a complication of another form of glomerulonephritis or an immune systemic disorder such as systemic lupus erythematosus.

· ____________ is a serious form of acute glomerular disease in which symptoms are initiated by deposition of immune complexes in the glomerulus, often as a complication of another form of glomerulonephritis or an immune systemic disorder such as systemic lupus erythematosus. Rapidly Progressive Crescentic Glomerulonephritis

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