MLT Study Guide

In a disk diffusion susceptibility test, which of the following can result if disks are placed on the innoculated media and left at room temp for an hour before incubation: a. the antibiotic would not diffuse into the media resulting in no zone b. zones of smaller diameter would result c. zones of larger diameter would result d. there would be no effect on the final zone diameter

C

In electrophoretic analysis, buffers: a. stabilize electrolytes b. maintain basic pH c. act as a carrier for ions d. denature proteins

C

In the international system of units, serum urea is expressed in millimoles per liter. A serum urea nitrogen concentration of 28 mg/dL would be equivalent to what concentration of urea? (Urea: NH2CONH2; atomic wt. N=14, C=12, O=16.H=1) a. 4.7 b. 5.0 c. 10.0 d. 20.0

C

Ion selective electrodes are called selective rather than specific because they actually measure the: a. activity of one ion only b. concentration of one ion c. activity of one ion much more than other ions present d. concentration and activity of one ion only

C

Most of the carbon dioxide present in the blood is in the form of: a. dissolved CO2 b. carbonate c. bicarbonate ions. d. carbonic acid.

C

Muramidase (lysozyme) is present in: a. granulocytes and their precursors b. monocytes and their precursors c. granulocytes, monocytes and their precursors d. lymphocytes and their precursors

C

Myoglobinuria is MOST likely to be noted in urine specimens from patients with which of the following disorders: a. Hemolytic anemia b. Lower urinary tract infections c. Massive muscle trauma d. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

C

Myoglobinuria is MOST likely to be noted in urine specimens from patients with which of the following disorders? a. hemolytic anemias b. lower UTI c. mycardial infarctions d. PNH

C

Patient cells Patient Serum anti-A neg A1 red cells 2+ anti-B neg B red cells 4+ anti-A,B 1+ IAT neg The most probable reason for these findings is that the patient is group: a. O - confusion due to faulty group antiserum b. O - with an anti-A1 antibody c. Ax- with an anti-A1 antibody d. A1 - with an anti-A antibody

C

Patients suffering from Waldenstroms macroglobinemia demonstrate excessively increased concentrations of" a. IgG b. IgA c. IgM d. IgD

C

Patients with Cushings syndrome exhibit: a. decrease plasma 17-hydroxysteroid concentration b. decrease urinary 17-hydroxysteroid excretion c. serum cortisol concentrations greater than 15mg/dL d. decreased cortisol secretory rate

C

Pic. The most probable ID of the fungus recovered from an induced sputum specimen is a. Fusarium sp. b. Penicillium sp. c. Aspergillus sp. d. Syncephalastrum sp.

C

Pink pigment seen within the colonies and extending to the surrounding agar is caused by the fermentation of: a. Sucrose b. Glucose c. Lactose d. Citrate

C

RhIg is used to prevent immunization to the D antigen in women who are Rh neg carrying an Rh pos fetus. One dose of RhIg contains enough anti-D to protect against: a. 50mL of whole blood b. 50mL of packed red cells c. 30mL of whole blood d. 20mL of packed red cells

C

During an evaluation of adrenal function, a patient had plasma cortisol determinations in the morning after awakening and in the evening. Lab results indicated that the morning value was higher than the evening. This is indicative of: a. A normal finding b. Cushing's syndrome c. Addison's disease d. hypopituitarism

A

Each of the following lab characteristics can be used to sep. B. fragilis from the closely related Prevotella/Porphyromonas group of anaerobes EXCEPT: a. Indole b. Brick red fluorescence under UV light c. Growth in 20% bile d. Esculin hydrolysis

A

Failure to obtain anaerobiosis in anaerobe jars is most often due to the: a. inactivation of the palladium-coated alumina catalyst pellets b. condensation of water on the inner surface of the jar c. instability of reactants in the disposable hydro-carbon dioxide generator envelope d. expiration of the methylene blue indicator strip that monitors oxidation

A

False results in urobilinogen testing may occur if the urine specimen is: a. exposed to light b. adjusted to neutral pH c. cooled to RT d. collected in a non sterile container

A

Following the second spin in the prep of platelets, the platelets should be: a. allowed to sit undisturbed for 1 hour b. agitated immediately c. pooled immediately d. transfused withing 48 hours

A

From the following organisms, which one is the LEAST pathogenic to humans: a. Corynebacterium ulcerans b. Bacillus anthrcis c. Listeria monocytogenes d. Nocardia brasilensis

A

Given the Hep B results, what is the immune status? HBsAG pos HBeAG pos Anti-HBc IgM pos Anti-HBs neg a. Acute infection b. Chronic infection c. Immune to infection d. Past infection

A

Gray,white and swarming colonies. XLD agar have black centers with pigmentation that does not extend into the agar. Pre ID of Proteus. What biochem reaction sep. P. vulgaris from P. mirabilis? a. Pos Indole b. Pos urease c. Neg MR d. Pos Phenylalanine deaminase

A

How does Aspirin affect platelet function? a. Inhibit cyclooxygenase b. activate lipids c. inhibit carbohydrates d. activate nucleic acid

A

How long should therapy continue for patients with hereditary hemochromotosis? a. Lifetime b. until normal values c. one year d. varies per patient

A

IM/EDTA test and the bioMerieux MBL E test. Detects metallo beta lactamase production. Does this organism produce metallo beta lactamase? a. Yes b. No c. Indeterminant d. Further test req.

A

Identify the urine sediment shown by the arrow: a. WBC cast b. RBC cast c. Waxy cast d. Granular cast

A

If automated methods utilizing a biochromatic analyzer, dual wavelengths are employed to: a. minimize the effects of interference b. improve precision c. increase throughput d. monitor temp changes

A

If the unit is going to be transfused within the collection facility, autologous blood must always be tested for which of the following before transfusion? a. ABO, Rh b. ABO, Rh, HBsAG c. ABO, Rh, HIV d. ABO, Rh, HBsAG, HIV

A

Image 1 = rouleaux. Image 2 = cell. Which of the following conditions is assoc. with both findings? a. Mult. myeloma b. Infectious mono c. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia d. Normal smear findings

A

Immunocomp. patients, such as those with AIDS are at an increased risk of contracting an unusual form of pneumonia from which of the following organisms? a. Pneumocystis jiroveci (carinii) b. Cryptosporidium spp. c. Toxoplasma gondii d. Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex

A

In PCV, the platelet count is: a. elevated b. normal c. decreased d. variable

A

In the Jendrassik-Grof method for the determination of serum bilirubin concentration, quantitation is obtained by measuring the green color of: a. azobilirubin b. bilirubin glucuronide c. urobilin d. urobilinogen

A

In the Kleihauer-Betke test, a maternal blood smear is treated with acid and then stained with counterstain. The fetal cells contain fetal hemoglobin, which is resistant to acid and will remain pink. Since the calculated volume of FMH is an estimate, how many additional RhIg vials need to be added for the dose? a. 1 b. 1.5 c. 2 d. 3

A

In the image, small, minute, colonies are growing around a colony of S. aureus on SBA. Which of the following organisms is this a characteristic? a. Haemophilus influenzae b. Abiotrophia sp c. Moraxella catahhalis d. Haemophilus ducreyi

A

In the potentiometric measurement of hydrogen ion concentration, reference electrodes that may be used include: a. silver-silver chloride b. quinhydrone c. hydroxide d. hydrogen

A

Platelet satellitosis is usually due to: a. EDTA phenomenon b. inadequate mixing of blood and anticoag c. hemorrhage d. poorly made wedge smear

A

Proteins as a buffer that sets the pH at 8.6 will become ______ charged and migrate to the _______? a. Neg/Anode b. Neg/Cathode c. Pos/Anode d. Pos/Cathode

A

Protozoan cysts are found in a wet mount of sediment from ethyl-acetate concentrated material. The cysts are without perph chromatin on the nuclear membrane. Each cyst has 4 nuclei and each nuclei has a large karyosome which appears as a refractive dot. These oval shaped cysts are most likely: a. Endolimax nana b. Chilomastix mesnili c. Entamoeba histolytica d. Entamoeba harmanni

A

RBC inclusion represents? a. Howell-Jolly b. artifact c. Pappenheimer d. Baso stippling

A

Recently the ADA recommended reporting which of these values to correlate with hemoglobin A1C as a further indicator of glycemic controls? a. Est. Avg glucose b. Blood urea nitrogen c. Microalbumin d. Insulin

A

Relapsing fever in humans is caused by: a. Borrelia recurrentis b. Brucella abortus c. Leptospira interrogans d. Spirillum minor

A

Serum calcitonin is typically elevated in which of the following conditions: a. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid b. Hyperthyroidism c. Glioblastoma d. Adrenal adenoma

A

The pH of a urine specimen measures the: a. free hydrogen ions b. free sodium ions c. volatile acids d. total acid excretion

A

The parasite Endolimax nana trophozoite shows what type of nuclear appearance? a. Blot like karyosome, no periph chromatin b. Central karyosome, even periph chromatin c. Large karyosome, no periph chromatin d. Eccentric karyosome, uneven periph chomatin

A

The trophozoites indicated and the 10um oval cyst were observed in a stool specimen from a person with mild intermittent diarrhea: a. Iodamoeba butschii b. Chilomastix mesnili c. Entamoeba harmanni d. Endolimax nana

A

Thee initial immune response following fetal infection with rubella is the production of which classes of antibodies? a. IgG b. IgA c. IgM d. IgG and IgA

A

This pattern is consistant with: Patient Ref Total Protein 6.1 6.0-8.0 Alb. 2.3 3.6-5.2 A1 0.2 0.1-0.4 A2 0.5 0.4-1.0 Beta 1.2 0.5-1.2 Gamma 1.9 0.6-1.6 a. cirrhosis b. acute inflammation c. polyclonal gammopathy d. alpha-1 antitrypsin deficient, severe emphasema

A

To be analyzed by gas liquid chromatography a compound must: a. be volatile or made volatile b. not be volatile c. be water soluble d. contain a nitrogen atom

A

To determine if an elevated aPTT is caused by a factor deficiency or a factor inhibitor when the PT is normal, the FIRST step would be: a. Mix one part patient plasma and one part normal pooled plasma and repeat the aPTT b. Mix one part patient plasma and one part normal aged plasma and repeat the aPTT c. Perform a Factor IX to see if it is a Factor IX deficiency d. Perform a test for a lupus anticoag.

A

UA report on a 37 y/o female. ER - headache, hypertension, weight loss, mild edema: Color: Red RBC: 25-50 Clarity: Cloudy WBC: 2-4 SG: 1.010 Gran Cast: 2-5 pH: 5.0 Hya Cast 2-5 Gluc: neg RBC Cast 0-2 Pro: 3+ few epi Ket: neg Nit: neg Blood: mod Uro: norm a. Acute Glomerulonephritis b. Acute puelonephritis c. Acute cystitis d. Nephrotic Syndrome

A

Ureaplasma urealyticum are difficult to grow in the lab on a routine media because of their requirement for: a. sterols b. horse blood c. ferric pyrophosphate d. surfactant such as Tween 80

A

Using polarized microscopy, which urinary elements are birefringent? a. cholesterol b. triglycerides c. fatty acids d. neutral fats

A

What are the cells: a. Codocytes (target) b. Acanthocytes c. Spherocytes d. Tear drop

A

What are the possible ABO genotypes of offspring whose parents are AA and BB? a. AB b. AO c. BO d. OO

A

What causes the hemolysis assoc. with infection by malaria organisms? a. Mult. of merozoites within erythrocytes b. Invasion of erythrocytes by sporozoites c. Hosts immune response to damaged erythrocytes d. Toxins produced the the malarial organism

A

What changes in potassium and sodium results may occur with diuretic use? a. Decrease in both b. Increase in both c. Increase in K and decrease in Na d. Decrease in K and increase in Na

A

What is a typical finding for determining the endpoint for the initial or iron-depletion phase of treatment for hereditary hemochromotosis: a. The serum ferritin decreases to between 20 and 50 ng/mL b. The hepatic iron index returns to normal c. The transferrin saturation drops below 20% d. The serum iron falls to below 35ug/dL

A

What is ergonomics? a. The study of human capabilities in relation to work demands b. The science of human measurement c. The study of muscular activity d. The study of infectious diseases

A

What is the minimum hemoglobin concentration required for autologous blood donation? a. 11 b. 10 c. 13 d. 12.5

A

What is the nucleated cell present in the following image? a. Osteoblast b. Megakaryocyte c. Osteoclast d. Macrophage

A

What type of anticoagulant is generally suitable for TDM analysis? a. Heparin b. EDTA c. Citrate d. Oxalate

A

When evaluating a 2 hour GTT performed on a pregnant woman, which of the following is considered normal? a. Less than 140 mg/dl b. Less than 10 mg/dl c. greater than 153 mg/dl d. No change

A

When measuring enzyme activity, if the instrument is operating 5 degree C lower than the temp prescribed for the method, how will the results be affected? a. Lower b. Higher c. Varied d. No effect

A

When performing an antibody panel, which one of the following antigens will be destroyed by enzyme treatment? a. Fya b. Jka c. E d. Lua

A

Which IgG subclass is most efficient at crossing the placenta? a. IgG1 b. IgG2 c. IgG2 d. IgG4

A

Which are the following adipocyte products is an important messenger in metab, signaling the hypothalmus that there are changes in fat stores? a. Leptin b. Resistin c. IL-6 d. Angiotensiogen

A

Which characteristic best differentiates Acinetobacter sp. from Moraxella sp. a. production of cytochrome oxidase b. growth on MAC c. motility d. suscept to penicillin

A

Which is assoc with pseudo-Pelger-Huet anomaly: a. aplastic anemia b. iron def anemia c. myelogenous leukemia d. Chediak-Higashi

A

Which morphologic term describes this slide? a. alder-reilly neutrophils b. Auer rods c. Dohle bodies, bacteria, toxic granulation d. Pelgeroid neutrophils

A

Which of the erythrocyte inclusions would appear on a Wright stain as round, smooth, almost pyknotic, dark-purple staining bodies ranging in size from 0.5 to 1.0 micron in diam. and usually occuring singly in erythrocytes? a. Howell-Jolly bodies b. Heinze c. Baso stip d. Pappen

A

Which of the following BEST describes a transfusion reaction? a. any adverse event assoc. with the transfusion of blood products b. A fever assoc. with transfusion c. The destruction of transfused red cells d. The dev. of a rash after transfusion

A

Which of the following applies to cryoscopic osmometry? a. the temp at equalibrium is a function of the number of particles in solution b. The temp plateau for a solution is horizontal c. the freezing point of a sample is absolute d. the initial freezing of a sample produces an immediate solid state

A

Which of the following arthropods would be classified as Arachnida: a. ticks b. fleas c. lice d. crabs

A

Which of the following best defines "sensitivity"? a. The % of patients with a disease who will have a positive result b. The % of patients w/o a disease who will have a neg result c. The % of patients with a disease who will have a neg test d. The % of patients w/o a disease who will have a pos test

A

Which of the following cells is characterized by a thin rim of cytoplasm around the nucleus? a. small lymph b. large lymph c. mono d. seg. neut

A

Which of the following conditions would make a sample unsuitable for lactic acid testing? a. Movement of hand or arm during spec. collect b. Received in the lab on ice c. Centrifuged in a refridge cetrifuge d. Specimen centrifuged and plasma sep from cells less than 15 min after collect

A

Which of the following describes gastrin's roll in digestion? a. Stimulates gastric acid-HCl secretion b. Stimulates secretion of a base to lower stomach pH c. Is secreted when the gastric fluid pH is low to buffer fluid d. Inhibits the secretion of intrinsic factor

A

Which of the following helminths is a tissue nematode whose life cycle resides in a single host? a. Trichinella spiralis b. Taenia solium c. Teinia saginata d. Diphyllobathrium latum

A

Which of the following is most likely to be ordered in addition to serum calcium to determine the cause of tetany? a. Mg b. Phosphorous c. Sodium d. Vit D

A

Which of the following is most often used to prepare a slide from a plate culture of a dermatophyte for micro observation: a. lactophenol cotton blue b. potassium hydroxide c. iodine solution d. Gram stain

A

Which of the following is proper procedure for prep of platelets from whole blood? a. light spin followed by hard spin b. light spin followed by 2 hard spins c. two light spins d. hard spin followed by a light spin

A

Which of the following is the "recognition unit" in the classical complement pathway? a. C1q b. C3a c. C4 d. C5

A

Which of the following is the correct calculation using the Friedewald calculation for LDL? a. LDL = total chol. - HDL- tri/5 b. LDL = tri/5 + HDL - total Chol c. LDL = total chol. + HDL - tri/5 d. LDL = total chol. + HDL + tri/5

A

Which of the following is the formula for calc a % (w/v) solution? a. g of solute/vol of solvent * 100 b. g of solute * vol of solvent * 100 c. vol of solvent/g of solute * 100 d, (g of solute * volume of solvent)/100

A

Which of the following is the formula for calc the amount of moles of a chemical? a. g/GMW b. g*GMW c. GMW/g d. (g*100)/GMW

A

Which of the following is the recommended method for preparing a CSF sample for a diff count? a. Cytocentrifugation b. Concentration of cells by traditional centrifugation c. Manual smear method d. Use of hemocytometer

A

Which of the following leukocytes is most directly assoc. with antibody production? a. B cell b. T cell c. Neut d. NK cell

A

Which of the following markers is assoc. with normal mature B cell expression? a. CD19 b. CD8 c. CD14 d. C42

A

Which of the following media is routinely used to culture C. jejuni: a. Skirrow's medium b. CIN agar c. anaerbic CNA agar d. bismuth sulfite

A

Which one of the following results is typical of Campylobacter jejuni? a. optimal growth at 42C b. oxidase neg c. catalase neg d. nonmotile

A

Which one of the following species of Mycobacterium does NOT usually fluoresce on fluorochrome stain? a. M. fortutium b. M. tuberculosis c. M. ulcerans d. M. bovis

A

Which platelet response is most likely assoc with classic vW disease? a. a decreased platelet aggregation to ristocetin b. normal platelet aggregation to ristocetin c. absent aggregation to epinephrine, ADP, and collagen d. decreased amount of ADP in platelets

A

Which sets of tests best diff Salmonella and Citrobacter sp. a. KCN, malonate, beta-gal, lysine decarb b. dulcitol, citrate, indole, H2S production c. lactose, adonitol, KCN, motility d. lysine decarb, lactose,sucrose, malonate, indole

A

A gram neg rod was isolated from a wound infection caused by a bite from a pet cat. The following were seen: Oxidase + Glucose OF fermented Catalase + Motility - MAC no growth a. P. aeruginosa b. Pasturella multcida c. Aeromonas hydrophila d. Vibrio cholerae

B

A lipid panel is composed of which of the following tests? a. Cholesterol, lipoprotein, glucose, triglycerides b. Chol, lipo, HDL, tri c. Chol, BUN, glucose, tri d. Albumin, chol, glucose, lipo

B

A liquid fecal specimen from a 3mo/o infant is submitted for micro exam. In additions to culture on routine media for Salmonella and Shigella, the specimen routinely should be: a. examined for the presence of Entamoeba hartimanni b. examined for the presence of Campylobacter sp c. screened for the detection of enterotoxigenic E. coli d. placed in thio broth to detect C. diff

B

A mean value of 100 and a SD of 1.8 were obtained from a set of glucose measurements on a control solution. The 95% CI would be? a. 94.6-105.5 b. 96.4-103.6 c. 97.3-102.7 d. 98.2-101.8

B

A normal hemoglobin molecule is comprised of: a. Ferrous iron and 4 globin chains b. 4 heme and 4 globin chains c. 4 heme and 1 globin d. 1 heme and 4 globin

B

A potentiometric electrode which measures an analyte that passes through a selectively permeable membrane and rapidly enters into an equilibrium with an electrolyte solution is: a. pH b. pCO2 c. pO2 d. HCO3

B

A serologic test for syphilis that depends upon the detection of cardiolipin-lecithin-cholesterol antigen is: a. FTA-ABS b. RPR c. MHA-TP d. TPI

B

A solution contains 20g of solute dissolved in 0.5mL of water. What is the % of this solution? a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8

B

A throat swab is submitted for anaerobic culture. This specimen should be: a. set up immediately b. rejected c. inoculated into thio broth d. sent to a ref. lab

B

A urine specimen comes to the lab 7 hours after it is obtained. It is acceptable for culture only if the specimen has been stored: a. at 22C b. at 6C c. at -22C d. without a preservative additive

B

A voided urine specimen sent to lab 6 hours after collection: Clarity = cloudy, pH = 9.0, Nitrate = + a. The patient has a UTI b. The urine may have remained too long at RT and bacteria contaminants have affected pH and nitrites c. The specimen had a preservative added d. The leukocyte esterase result is wrong

B

According to AABB standards, which of the following allogeninc donors may be accepted as a blood donor? a. hip replacement 5 mo prev b. spontaneous abortion at 2 mo of preg, 3 mo ago c. resides with a known hep patient d. received a blood trans 22 wks prev

B

The avoidance of lab dx techniques that utilize water is recommended for the ID of which of these? a. Cryptosporidium parvum b. Blastocystis hominis c. Toxoplasma gondii d. Balantidium coli

B

The bacteria producing a swarming on the surface of the 5% SBA was indole neg. The most likely ID is a. Morganella morgani b. Proteus mirabilis c. Proteus vulgaris d. Providencia rettgeri

B

The characteristics of an acute phase protein include the following EXCEPT: a. an acute phase response is a non-specific indicator of an inflammatory response b. Acute phase proteins are synthesized slowly in response to tissue injury c. C-reactive protein is an acute phase protein d. Lab measurements of an acute phase can be used to monitor the progress of therapy in inflammatory diseases.

B

The charcteristic morphologic feature in multiple myeloma is: a. cytotoxic T cells b. rouleaux formation c. spherocytosis d. macrocytosis

B

The electrophoretic pattern of a plasma sample as compared to a serum sample shows a: a. broad prealbumin peak b. sharp fibrinogen peak c. diffuse pattern because of the presence of anticoags d. decreased globulin fraction

B

The following is an inclusion that may be round in the immature cyst of amoebae such as Entamoeba histolytica and Entomoeba coli. This inclusion is rod shaped, contains refractile chromatin, and may have smooth, rounded edges or splintered ends. a. Glycogen Mass b. Chromatoid bars c. Karyosomes d. Flagella

B

The following lab results were obtained on arterial blood: Sodium 136 pH 7.32 Potassium 4.4 pCO2 79 Chloride 92 Bicarb 40 a. Resp alk b. resp acid c. meta alk d. meta acid

B

The following results were obtained on a 55y/o male complaining of headaches and blurred vision: WBC 19.0*10^3 DIFF RBC 7.2*10^6 Seg - 84% PLT 1056*10^3 Band - 10% Uric acid 13.0 Lymph - 3% O2 sat 93% Mono - 2% Rh Neg Eos - 1% Red cell vol 3911mL (normal = 1600) a. neutrophilic leukemoid reaction b. PCV c. chronic granulocytic leukemia d. leukoerythroblastosis in myelofibrosis

B

The following results were obtained on an elctronic particle counter: WBC 6.5 RBC 4.55 HGB 18.0 HCT 41.5 MCV 90.1 MCH 39.6 MCHC 43.4 The first step in obtaining valid results is to: a. perform a microhematocrit b. correct the hemoglobin for lipemia c. dilute the blood d. replace the lysing agent

B

The formation of estriol in a pregnant woman is dependent on: a. maternal ovarian function b. fetal and placental function c. fetal adrenal function d. maternal liver function

B

The immunoglobulin class typically found to be present in saliva, tears, and other secretions is: a. IgG b. IgA c. IgM d. IgD

B

The infectious disease process in which large numbers of activated macrophages and histiocytes are collected at the site of inflammation is called? a. Purulent b. Granulomatous c. Chronic d. Opportunistic

B

The infective stage for the majority of all intestinal amebae is the: a. Trophozoite b. Cyst c. Larva d. Egg

B

The lectin Dolichus biflorus agglutinate which type of cells? a. B b. A1B c. A2 d. Both A1B and A2

B

The middle value of a data set is statistically known as: a. mean b. median c. mode d. SD

B

The most appropriate screening test for hemoglobin S: a. KB test b. dithionite solubilty c. osmotic fragility d. sucrose hemolysis

B

The most appropriate screening test for hered spherocytosis is: a. osmotic fragility b. sucrose hemolysis c. heat instability test d. KB test

B

The most common cause of error when using automated cell counters is: a. contamination of the diluent b. inadequate mixing of the sample prior to test c. variation in voltage of the current supply d. a calibrating error

B

The most common testing method for Vit E determination is by: a. Protein binding radioimmunoassay b. High performance liquid chromotography c. 2, 4 dinitrophenylhydrazine d. Not assayes

B

The most likely primary site of infection represented by the Staphylococcus sp. growing on the surface of the agar plate with a 2mm zone of inhibition around a 5ug novobiocin disk is: a. The genital tract b. The urinary tract c. The respiratory tract d. The central nervous system

B

The presence of Bence Jones protein in urine is assoc. with which of the following conditions? a. TB b. Mult. myeloma c. UTI d. Diabetes

B

The production of neutral 17-ketosteroids is measure of which of the following? a. Cholesterol production b. Androgen production c. Estrogen production d. Growth hormone

B

The smallest amount of test antimicrobial that will inhibit visible growth of a microbe, is the definition of" a. synergism b. minimal inhibitory concentration c. indifference of additive d. min. bacterial concentration

B

The solute that contributes the most total serum osmolality is: a. glucose b. sodium c. chloride d. urea

B

The substance that is measured to estimate the serum concentration of triglycerides by MOST methods is: a. phospholipids b. glycerol c. fatty acids d. pre-beta lipoprotein

B

The urine test strip was normal. Upon viewing microscopically, the tech noticed these circular elements. ID? a. RBC b. Artifacts c. Yeast d. Trans epi cells

B

These results are consistent with: ALP slight increase ALT slight increase APT slight increase Gamma-glu slight increase a. acute hep b. chronic hep c. obstructive jaundice d. liver hemangioma

B

These results are most consistent with: Alkaline phosphatase slight increase Alanine aminotransferase slight increase Aspartate aminotransferase slight increase Gamma-glutamyl transferase slight increase a. acute hep b. chronic hep c. obstructive jaundice d. liver hemangioma

B

Trichomonas, Giardia, and Chilomastix belong to the following parasitic group based on the type of motility: a. Amoebae b. Flagellates c. Ciliates d. Microsporidia

B

Two SD is the acceptable limit of error in the chem lab. If you run the normal control 100 times, how many of the values would be out of control due to random error? a. 1 b. 5 c. 10 d. 20

B

What battery of tests is most useful in evaluating an anion gap of 22 mEq/L? a. Ca, Mg, PO4, and pH b. BUN, creatinine, salicylate, and methanol c. AST, ALT, LD, and amylase d. glucose, CK, myoglobin, and cryoglobin

B

What characteristic is common to all of these conditions: hereditary spherocytosis, elliptocytosis, stomatocytosis, and PNH? a. Autosomal dominant inheritance b. Red cell membrane defects c. Positive DAT d. Presence of Hb C

B

What conclusion can be made if a person has a cardiovascular risk marker that is abnormal? a.The person will have a cardiac event withing the next 12-24 months b. The person has an increased prob. of developing CD c. The person has a decreased prob. of developing CD d. With only 1 marker, the person is not at risk for CD

B

What is the ID of these crystals seen in a urine with an Acid pH? a. Uric Acid b. Calcium oxalate c. Triple phosphate d. Calcium carbonate

B

What is the acceptable temp range for maintaining RBC components during transport? a. 1-6 b. 1-10 c. 10-15 d. 20-24

B

What is the molarity of a solution that contains 18.7 g of KCI (MW=74.5) in 500 mL of water? a. 0.1 b. 0.5 c. 1.0 d. 5.0

B

What is the most common Rh haplotype among whites? a. Dce b. DCe c. DcE d. dce

B

What is the most prudent step to follow to select units for XM after recipient antibodies have been ID? a. Perform DAT on patient serum and donor units b. Antigen type patient cells and any donor cells to be XM c. Perform IAT on patient cells and donor units d. Obtain a different sample and repeat antibody panel

B

What is the patients Free Thyroxine Index? Patient Ref T4 4 5-12 T3 uptake 40% 25-35 a. 0.1 b. 1.6 c. 10.0 d. 36.0

B

When can a Dr. order a panel made up of test they specifically want? a. any time b. Only if lab ensures the Dr. knows what tests are included on the panel and the appropriate procedure and dx codes for each c. If approved by a dept. head d. If the panel is used by the Dr at another lab and they have approved it.

B

When considering TDM, which two organ systems are assoc with drug elimination? a. Cardiac and pulmonary b. Hepatic and renal c. Renal and cardiac d. Hepatic and respiratory

B

When considering therapeutic drug monitoring, what is the definition of bioavailability? a. The relative proportion between the circulation and the tissues b. The fraction of the admin. dose that eventually reaches its site of action c. The variations in drug metabolism as related to genetics d. The metabolic generation of a therapeutically cative metabolite.

B

Where does most CSF originate? a. Cerebral arachnoid space b. Choroid plexus c. Ventricles d. Lumbar region

B

Which class of immunoglobulin is thought to function as an antigenic receptor site on the surface of immature B lymphocytes? a. IgD b. IgM c. IgA d. IgG

B

Which disorder is most closely assoc with granulocyte hyposegmentation? a. May-Hegglin b. Pelger-Huet c. Chediak-Higashi d. Gauchers

B

Which family of steroid hormones is characterized by an unsaturated A ring? a. progestins b. estrogens c. androgens d. glucocorticoids

B

Which is assoc with May-Hegglin anomaly? a. membrane defect of lysosomes b. Dohle bodies and giant platelets c. chronic myelogenous leukemia d. mucopolysaccharidosis

B

Which lab finding is assoc. with Factor XII defic.? a. prolonged activated Partial thromboplastin time b. clot solubility in a 5 molar urea solution c. prolonged thrombin time d. prolonged prothrombin time

B

Which of the following Mycobacterium sp. is closely associated with infection in HIV+ patients? a. M ulcerans b. M avium-intracellulare complex c. M simiae d. M bovis

B

Which of the following activities may lead to a HIPAA violation? a. Faxing health info to Dr. b. Throwing lab results in regular trash c. Discussing info with patient family with permission d. Logging off computer after entering updates

B

Which of the following are markers currently used to diff heart failure from lung disease? a. TnI and TnT b. BNP and NT-proBNP c. Myoglobin and LD d. hs-CRP and hemocysteine

B

Which of the following best describes reverse typing? a. Known antisera used to detect ABO antigens b. Known antisera used to detect ABO antibodies c. Known antigen used to detect ABO antigens d. Known antisera used to detect ABO antibodies

B

Which of the following blood components contains the most Factor VII concentration relative to volume? a. Single Donor Plasma b. Cryo AHF c. FFP d. Platelets

B

Which of the following blood components is the best source of Factor IX? a. platelets b. Prothrombin complex c. Cryo d. Single donor plasma

B

Which of the following blood components must be prepared within 8 hours after pheleb? a. RBC b. FFP c. RBC Frozen d. Cryo

B

Which of the following cardiovascular risk markers is a more sensitive version of a test that is used to assess inflammation? a. Oxidized-LDL b. hs-CRP c. ApoB/ApoA1 d. LpPLA2

B

Which of the following cells when found upon microscopic examination of the urine would be most indicative of kidney disease? a. WBC and bacteria b. Renal tubular and epi cells c. Squamous epi cells d. RBC

B

Which of the following conditions is assoc. with Epstein Barr Virus? a. Measles b. Burkett's lymphoma c. Mumps d. Chicken pox

B

Which of the following conditions should be suspected if a health patient presents with an elevated potassium level while all other chem results are normal? a. The sample is turbid b. The sample is hemolyzed c. The sample is clotted d. The sample is lipemic

B

Which of the following crystals would most likely be found in normal ALKALINE urine? a. Amorphous urates b. Triple phosphate c. Uric Acid d. Calcium oxalate

B

Which of the following electrodes is based on the principle of ampero metric measurement: a. pCO2 electrode b. pO2 electrode c. pH electrode d. ionized calcium electrode

B

Which of the following is MOST likely discrepancy seen when a person demonstrates and "acquired B-antigen" phenomenon? a. Forward type appears B, but reverse is O b. Forward type appears AB, but reverse is A c. Forward type appears AB, but reverse is B d. Forward type appears B, but reverse is AB

B

Which of the following is the correct storage temp for component listed? a. Cryo AHF 4 b. FFP -20 c. RBC frozen -40 d. Platelets 37

B

Which of the following is the formula for calc the gram equiv weight of a chemical? a. MW x oxidation number b. MW/oxidation number c. MW + oxidation number d. MW - oxidation number

B

Which of the following is the most probable explanation for these results? Anti-A Anti- B Anti-D Rh cont. DAT AB screen Infant 4+ 0 2+ 0 0 NT Mother 0 0 w+ 0 0 0 a HDFN due to antibody against high freq antigen b. large FMH c. HDFN due to anti-D d. mothers cells are polyagglutinable

B

Which of the following organisms can grow in the small intestine and cause diarrhea in children, travelers diarrhea, or a severe cholera-like syndrome through the production of enterotoxins? a. Yersinia enterocolitica b. E. coli c. Salmonella typhi d. Shigella dysenteriae

B

Which of the following statement re: the ABO phenotype A2 is true? a. A2 cells contain more antigens per RBC than A1 cells b. A2 antigens are linear where A1 are branched c. A2 RBC will agglutinate with anti-A1 lectin d. A2 cells will not agglutinate with anti-A antisera used for ABO blood typing

B

Which of the following steroids is an adrenal cortical hormone? a. angiotensinogen b. corticosterone c. progesterone d. pregnanetriol

B

Which of the following substances can cause a false + result for blood on the urine chem strip? a. Ascorbic acid b. Bleach in the bottle c. high levels of nitrite d. high specific gravity

B

Which of the following tests would be most useful in the ID of S. pneumoniae? a. Niacin accumulation b. Optochin c. Phenylalanine deaminase d. Indoxyl acetate

B

Which of the following would be true of the myeloid to erythroid ratio in a case of CML? a. Normal 2:1-4:1 b. High >41 c. Low <2:1 d. Variable

B

Which one of the following statements concerning Vit D is correct? a. Vit D deficiency is a cause of scurvy b. Vit D acts as a hormone in calcium regulation c. Vit D functions in part to aid in optic nerve transmission d. One form of Vit D is referred to as pyridoxal phosphate.

B

Which urinary parameters are measured during the course of concentration and dilution tests to assess renal tubular function? a. urea nitrogen and creatinine b. osmolality and SG c. Sodium and chloride d. Sodium and osmolality

B

Within the genus Campylobacter, the lab test most helpful in ID C. jejuni is? a. Indoxyl acetate b. Hippurate hydrolysis c. Nitrate reduction d. Susceptibility to nalidixic acid

B

All of the following statements about fluorometry are true, EXCEPT: a. its more sensitive than spectrphotometry b. Both excitiation and emission spectra are characteristics of the analyte c. Fluorescence is indirectly proportional to the analyte being measured. d. Fluorometes typically utilize monochromators or optical fibers

C

All of the following would be considered a normal part of a routine electrolyte panel, EXCEPT? a. Sodium b. Potassium c. Magnesium d. Chloride

C

An 8 y/o girl was admitted to the ER with a 3 day history of fever, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and vomiting. A stool culture grew many lactose neg colonies that yielded the following: Oxidase neg TSI A/A Indole neg Urease pos Orin pos Sucrose pos H2S neg Motility at 22C a. Providencia alcalifaciens b. Providencia stuartii c. Yersinia enterocolitica d. Providencia rettgeri

C

An acid elution stain was made using a 1-hour postdelivery maternal blood sample. Two thousand cells were counted and thirty of these cells appeared to contain fetal hemoglobin. It is the policy of the medical center to add one vial of Rh immune globulin to the calculated dose when the estimated volume of the hemorrhage exceeds 20 mL of whole blood. Calculate the number of vials of Rh immune globulin that would be indicated under these circumstances. a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

C

An adult diabetic with renal complications has the following results sodium 133 mEq/L glucose 487 mg/dL BUN 84 mg/dL creatinine 5 mg/dL On the basis of these results, the calculated serum osmolality is a. 266 b.290 c. 304 d. 709

C

An elevated serum iron with normal iron binding capacity is most likely assoc with: a. iron deficiency anemia b. renal damage c. pernicious anemia d. septicemia

C

An organism was inoculated to a TSI tube and gave the following reactions: alkaline slant/acid butt, H2S, gas produced This organism most likely is: a Klebsiella pneumoniae b Shigella dysenteriae c Salmonella typhimurium d Escherichia coli

C

An urticarial transfusion reaction is characterized by: a. Rapid rise in temperature b. Difficulty breathing c. Rash and hives d. Blood in the urine

C

Anti-Fya is: a. usually a cold reactive agglutinin b. more reactive when tested with enzyme treated RBC's c. capable of causing hemolytic transfusion reactions d. often an autoagglutinin

C

Arterial blood: pH = 7.51 pCO2 = 49 HCO3 = 38.7 pO2 = 85 a. Met acid b. Resp acid c. Met alk d. Resp alk

C

At what temp should urine be prior to testing with the reagent strip method? a. 4 b. 37 c. RT d. Temp does not affect results

C

Calibration of refractometers is done by measuring the SG of? a. DI water and protein b. DI water and glucose c. DI water and sodium chloride d. DI water and urea

C

Cells that produce antibodies are called: a. erythrocytes b. granulocytes c. lymphocytes d. thrombocytes

C

Cells that stain + with acid phosphatase and are NOT inhibited with tartrate are charcteristically seen in: a. Infectious Mono b. Infectious Lymphocytosis c. Hairy cell leukemia d. T-cell ALL

C

Coughing cyanosis and difficult breathing ar symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions? a. febrile b. allergic c. circulatory overload d. hemolytic

C

Cryo, if maintained in the frozen state at -18C or below, has a shelf life of: a. 42 days b. 6 mo c. 12 mo d. 36 mo

C

Elevation of the lymphocyte percentage above 75% is termed? a. absolute lymphocytosis b. relative lymphocytosis c. relative neutrophilic leukocytosis d. absolute neurophilic leukocytosis

C

Enterobius vermicularis infection is acquired by? a. Skin penetration of larvae b. Insect bite c. Ingestion or inhalation of egg d. Ingestion of infected fish

C

Evaluation of the total white cell count above 12*10^9/uL is termed: a. relative lymphocytosis b. absolute lymphocytosis c. leukocytosis d. relative neutrophilic leukocytosis

C

Excessive carbohydrate loss that may occur due to vomiting or rapid weight loss may result in which of the following substances not normally contained in the urine? a. Glucose b. Bilirubin c. Ketones d. Urobillinogen

C

First-gen cephalosporins can be adequately represented by: a. streptomycin b. chloramphenicol c. cephalothin d. colistin

C

Fluid from a cutaneous black lesion was submitted for routine bacterial culture. After 18 hours of incubation at 35°C there was no growth on MacConkey agar, but 3+ growth on sheep blood agar. The colonies were nonhemolytic, nonmotile, 4-5 mm in diameter and off-white with a ground glass appearance. Each colony had an irregular edge with comma-shaped outgrowths that stood up like "beaten egg whites" when gently lifted with an inoculating needle. A Gram stain of a typical colony showed large, gram-positive rectangular bacilli. The organism is most likely: a Clostridium perfringens b Aeromonas hydrophila c Bacillus anthracis d Mycobacterium marinum

C

Forward Reverse Anti-A Anti-B Anti-A1 A1 cells A2 cells B cells 4+ neg 4+ neg 2+ 4+ The ABO discrepancy seen is most likely due to: a. anti-A1 b. rouleaux c. Anti-H d. unexpected IgG antibody present

C

Four mL of water are added to 1 mL of serum. This represents which of the following serum dilutions? a 1:3 b 1:4 c 1:5 d 1:6

C

Hemoblobinurea, hypotension, and generalized bleeding are symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions? a. allergic b. circ overload c. hemolytic d. anaphylactic

C

How long are healthy neutrophils expected to reside in the peripheral blood of an adult? a. 3 days b. 1 day c. 7-8 hours d. 12-14 hours

C

Hypotension, nausea, flushing, fever, and chills are symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions? a. allergic b. circulatory overload c. hemolytic d. anaphylactic

C

Identify the cell: a. Spherocytes b. Giant platelets c. Polychromatophilic erythrocytes d. Artifacts

C

If the effect of combined antimicrobials is greater than the sum of the effects observed with the two drugs independently, the condition is decribed as: a. indifference of additive b. inhibition c. synergism d. antagonism

C

Select the statement that best describes high sensitivity CRP testing? a. Measurement of acute inflammation and used to monitor these types of conditions b. An anti-inflammatory adipokine synthesized by adipocytes c. A marker of chronic inflammation and measured to predict the risk of cardiovascular disease d. Is decreased in inflammatory conditions and measured to predict a return of inflammation

C

Smal,slowly growing gray-white colonies were recovered from a blood culture of a farm worker who developed fever and chills leading to septicemia, following ingestion of contaminated milk. Gram stain is neg coccobacilli in loose clusters. Rapid urease reaction. a. Cardiobacterium hominis b. Eikenella corrodens c. Brucella sp. d. Campylobacter fetus

C

That statistical term for the avg value is the: a. mode b. median c. mean d. coefficient of variation

C

The A1 subgroup represents what % of group A individuals? a. 25-30 b. 50-60 c. 75-80 d. 95-98

C

The Rh nomeclature which uses the letters DCE is? a. Wiener b. Shorthand c. Fisher-Race d. Rosenfield

C

The bacterial species most likely assoc. with bacillary angiomatosis is: a. Afipia felis b. Bartonella elizabethae c. Bartonella henselae d. Bartonella bacillifomis

C

The first step to be taken when attempting to repair a piece of electronic equipment is: a. check all the electronic connections b. reseat all the printed circuit boards c. turn the instrument off d. replace all the fuses

C

The following data were obtained on a patient: PT 20sec Thrombin time 13 sec aPTT 55 sec aPTT +aged serum Corrected apTT + absorbed plasma Not corrected Circ. inhibitor none present What coag is deficient? a. Factor V b. VIII c. X d.XI

C

The formula for calculating serum osmolality that incorporates a correction for the water content of plasma is: a. 2Na*(Glucose/20)*(BUN/3) b. Na + [(2xGlucose)/20]*(BUN/3) c. 2Na + (Glucose/20) + (BUN/3) d. 2Na + (Glucose/3) + (BUN/20)

C

The latex agglutination titer commonly considered as the lower limit of positivity for dx or RA is: a. 1:2 b. 1:40 c. 1:160 d. 1:640

C

The major cross match is performed using: a. donor serum and patient red cells b. donor serum and patient serum c. donor red cells and patient serum d. donor red cells and patient red cells

C

The majority of cells present in this urine slide: a. RBC b. WBC c. Yeast d. Squamous epi cells

C

The measurement of sodium and chloride in sweat is the most useful test for the dx of what? a. Steatorrhea b. Direct determination of the exocrine secretory capacity of the pancreas c. CF d. Zollinger-Ellison syndrom

C

The most appropriate screening test for PNH is: a. heat instatbility b. sucrose hemolysis c. osmotic fragility d. dithionite solubility

C

The most appropriate screening test for detecting cells with predominant hemoglobin F is: a. osmotic fragility b. dithionite solubility c. KB test d. heat instability test

C

The most important use of non treponemal antibody test alone is in: a. establishing the dx of acute active syphilis b. establishing the dx of chronic syphilis c. evaluating the success of therapy d. determining the prevalence of disease in the gen population

C

The most sensitive enzymatic indicator for liver damage from ethanol intake is: a. ALT b. AST c. GGT d. Alkaline phosphatase

C

The part of the kidney in which there is selective retention and excretion of various substances and in which the concentration of urine occurs in the: a. glomerulus b. papilla c. tubule d. ureter

C

The porphyrin test was devised to detect strains of Haemophilus capable of: a. ampicilin degradation b. capsule production c. synthesis of porphobilinogen d. chloramphenicol resistance

C

The product produced in amplification is termed: a. Codon b. Nucleic acid c. Amplicon d. Translation

C

What are data collected in a real time PCR a. Prior to addition of fluorescent dyes or probes b. At a single end point c. During nucleic amplification d. During the cooling stage

C

What are the PRIMARY reagents used in the aPTT? a. Thromboplastin and Sodium chloride b. Activated partial thromboplastin and potassium c. Activated partial thromboplastin and calcium d. Actin and sodium chloride

C

What are the two general categories of nucleic acid amplification techniques? a. PCR and branched chain DNA b. FISH and strand displacement amplification c. Target amplification and signal amplification d. PCR and RT-PCR

C

What is the lower reference limit for progressive motility of spermatozoa when performing a semen analysis? a. 12% b. 22% c. 32% d. 40%

C

What is the mechanism that causes megaloblastic anemia? a. Defective stem cell production b. Interruption of hemoglobin production c. Interruption of DNA synthesis d. Interruption of development of precursor cells

C

What is the most reliable test to diff Neisseria lactamica from Neisseria meningitidis? a. acid from maltose b. growth on mod. TM c. lactose degradation d. nitrite reduction to nitrogen gas

C

What is the primary functional unit of the kidney? a. Ureter b. Glomerulus c. Nephron d. DCT

C

What is the process of monoclonal antibody production? a. Stimulation of activated T-cells b. Fusion of plasma cell secretions c. Fusion of antibody specific lymphocyte and myeloma cell d. multiplication of cytotoxic T-cells

C

What procedure is used by the lab personnel to confirm ABO typing by using cells with known blood groups? a. DAT b. Forward type c. Reverse type d. Antibody ID panel

C

Which group of conditions increases the risk of HbS polymerization? a. Acid pH, dehydration, decreased level of 2,3 DPG b. Alk pH, dehydration, increased 2,3 DPG c. Acid pH, dehydration, increased 2,3 DPG d. Alk pH, dehydration, decreased 2,3 DPG

C

Which hemoglobin will be increased in delta-beta thalassemia? a. HbA b. HbA2 c. HbF d. HbH

C

Which lab procedure is most helpful in diff severe liver disease accompanying secondary fibrinolysis from DIC a. Presence of fibrin split products b. increase aPTT c. Factor VII activity d. fibrinogen level

C

Which marker is most useful for detection of gestational trophoblastic disease? a. CEA b. AFP c. hCG d. CA-125

C

Which of the following anaerobes is inhibited by sodium polyanetholesulfonate: a. Peptostreptococcus magnus b. Peptostreptococcus prevotii c. Peptostreptococcus anaerobius d. Veillonella parvula

C

Which of the following chemical determinations may be of help in establishing the presence of seminal fluid? a. Lactic dehydrogenase b. isocitrate dehydrogenase c. acid phosphatase d. alkaline phosphatase

C

Which of the following conditions would be suggested by a jaundiced patient experiencing a marked rise in ALP, conjugated bilirubin and a slight rise in ALT? a. Cardiovascular disease b. Hepatitis c. Post-hepatic cholestasis d. Renal failure

C

Which of the following genotypes cause beta thalassemia minor? a. B/B b. B+/B+ c. B0/B d. BO/BO

C

Which of the following is a TRUE statement concerning ALP? a. It is optimally active at pH 5 b. It is decreased in bone disorders involving the osteoblasts c. it is increased in obstructive jaundice d. it is increased in myocardial infarctions

C

Which of the following is a mechanism known to cause platelet satellitosis? a. An antibody directed against factor VII b. An antibody directed against vWF c. An antibody directed against the platelet membrane d. An antibody directed against fibrinogen

C

Which of the following is correct regarding CRP: a. It is a highly specific test b. Corresponds to serum complement levels c. Is usually elevated in pediatric bacterial infections d. Does not react with pneumococcal C-polysaccharide

C

Which of the following is the formula for coefficient of variation? a. (SD*100)/SE b. (mean*100)/SD c. (SD*100)/mean d. (variance*100)/mean

C

Which of the following is the most useful morph feature in ID the mycelial phase of Histoplasma capsulatum? a. arthrospores every other cell b. microspores 2-5 microns c. tuberculate macroconidia 8-14 microns d. nonseptate macroconidia 5-7 cells

C

Which of the following lipoproteins will form a creamy layer at the top of stored, non fasting plasma specimens? a. HDL b. LDL c. Chylomicrons d. VLDL

C

Which of the following organisms causes disease by direct invasion of tissues? a. Clostridium botulinum b. Vibrio cholerae c. Yersinia enterocolitica d. Shigella sonnei

C

Which of the following organisms is considered universally susceptible to penicillin: a. H. influenzae b. N. gonorrhoeae c. S. pyogenes d. Corynebacterium diptheriae

C

Which of the following serum protein factors is most likely to be elevated in patients with nephrotic syndrome? a. alpha 1 globulin b. alpha 1 and alpha 2 globulins c. alpha 2 and beta globulin d. beta and gamma globulin

C

Which of the following statements about immunoassays using enzyme labeled antibodies or antigens is correct? a. inactivation of the enzyme is required b. the enzyme label is less stable that an isotopic label c. quantitation of the label cam be carried out with a spectrophotometer d. the enzyme label is not an enzyme found naturally in serum

C

Which of the following statements about lead poisoning is False? a. While lead distributes to all the tissues, the CNS, kidney, and BM are particularly susceptible to lead toxicity b. Whole blood lead measurement is the best test c. Serum lead level is a good inexpensive screening test d. Lead levels below 5ug/dl in kids do not prompt monitoring

C

Which of the following statements concerning the germ tube test is true? a. using a heavy innoc enhances the rapid prod of germ tubes b. germ tubes should be read after 2 hrs incubation at 25C c. C. albicans and C. tropicalis can be used as + and - controls d. serum will be stable fro 1 year if stored at 4C prior to use

C

A patients blood was collected at 8 am for a serum iron determination. The result was 85ug/dL. A repeat specimen was collected at 8 pm, the serum was stored at 4C and run the next morning. The result was 40ug/dL. These results are most likely due to: a. iron deficiency anemia b. improper storage of the specime c. possible liver damage d. the time of day the second specimen was drawn

D

A person suspected of having meta alkalosis would have the following lab findings? a. CO2 content and pCO2 elevated, pH decreased b. CO2 content decreased and pH elevated c. CO2 content, pCO2 and pH decreased d. CO2 content and pH elevated

D

A phelb. enters a draw room to perform routine venepuncture. The phleb uses a vein that appears to be good. No blood. Uses other arm. All of the following info would have been obtained from palp of the vein EXCEPT: a. Size b. Health or resiliency c. Direction and depth d. Observation of hematoma formation

D

A physician suspects his patient has pancreatitis. Which test would be most indicative of this disease? a. Creatinine b. Troponin c. Gastrin d. amylase

D

When platelets concentrate at edges and feathered end of a blood smear, it is usually due to: a. EDTA phenomenon b. inadequate mixing of blood and anticoag c. hemorrhage d. poorly made wedge smear

D

Which Brucella sp has pos H2S production and may or may not need CO2 for growth? a. Brucella canis b. Brucella suis c. Brucella melitensis d. Brucella abortus

D

Which blood group antibody would you find in group AB individuals? a. Anti-A b. Anti-B c. Anti- A, Anti-B d. None

D

Which branch of the immune system has an immediate response on first exposure to a foreign antigenic stimulus? a. Cell Mediated b. Specific c. Humoral d. Innate

D

Which is associated with Alder-Reilly inclusions? a. membrane defect of lysosomes b. Dohle bodies and giant platelets c. two lobed neutrophils d. mucopolysaccharidosis

D

Which is characteristic of PCV? a. elevated urine erytropoietin levels b. increased oxygen affinity of hemoglobin c. tear drop poik d. decreased or absent BM iron stores

D

Which of the following cells have pale blue cytoplasm with a few azurophilic granules and an oval or indented nucleus? a. Mono b. Seg Neut c. Eos d. Lymph

D

Which of the following choices is the basic technique used to detect unexpected antibodies with a commercial set of reagent cells? a. Polyclonal b. DAT c. Enzyme d. IAT

D

Which of the following genotypes is found with the highest frequency in the Caucasian population? a. CDe/cDe b. cDE/ce c. cDE/cE d. CDe/ce

D

Which of the following hemoglobins is replaced by HbH after birth in individuals with HbH disease? a. Constant Spring b. A2 c. Lepore d. Bart's

D

Which of the following is NOT a condition in which coarse basophilic stippling is typically found? a. Anemias of abnormal hemoglobin sythesis b. Thalassemia c. Lead poisioning d. Hemolytic anemia

D

Which of the following is NOT considered a characteristic of PCH? a. Patient pop: children and young adults b. Pathogenesis: following viral infection c. Site of hemolysis: intravascular d. Autoantibody class: IgM

D

Which of the following is a cause of metabolic alkalosis? a. Late stage of Salicylate poisoning b. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus c. Renal failure d. Excessive vomiting

D

Which of the following is an indicator of polyagglutination? a. RBCs typing as weak D + b. presence of red cell autoantibody c. decreased serum bilirubin d. agglutination with normal adult ABO compatible sera

D

Which of the following organisms typically produces umbilicate (deprssed center) colonies? a. Yeast b. Staph aureus c. Proteus mirabilis d. Strep pneumoniae

D

Which one of the following combinations of organisms would be appropriate as controls to test the functions listed: a. beta hemolysis - E. coli and S. pyo b. catalase - S. aureau and S. epi c. H2S - P. mirabilis and Salmonella typhi d. indole - E. coli and P. mirabilis

D

Which one of the following specimen requests is acceptable: a. feces submitted for anaerobic culture b. foley cath tip submitted for aerobic culture c. rectal swab submitted for direct smear for gonocci d. urine for culture of acid-fast bacilli

D

Which represents characteristic features of iron metabolism in patients with anemia of a chronic disorder? a. A serum iron is normal, transferrin saturation is normal, TIBC is normal b. serum iron is increased, transferrin is increased, TIBC is normal or slightly increased c. serum iron is normal, transferrin is markedly increased, TIBC is normal d. serum iron is decreased, transferrin is decreased, TIBC is normal or decreased

D

Which urine result is most apt to be changed by prolonged exposure to light? a. pH b. protein c. ketones d. bilirubin

D

Why are small dense LDL molecules more atherogenic: a. Contain less cholesterol and phospholipids b. increase the concentration of HDL-C in the blood c. increase the concentration of adiponectin and inflammatory cytokines d. have greater mobility in the endothelium and arterial wall

D

Why would a unit of group O blood never be administered to a Bombay patient: a. Anti-A in donor b. Anti-B in donor c. Anti-H in donor d. Anti-H in recipient

D

5% SBA will support the growth of most strains of the following organisms, EXCEPT: a. Haemophilus spp b. Staph aureus c. Bacillus anthracis d. Listeria monocytogenes

A

A 16 y/o boy with infectious mono has a cold agglutinin titer of 1:2000. Am important consideration of this antibody's clinical relevance is the : a. thermal range b .titer at 4C c. specificity d. light chain type

A

A 40 y/0 man shows: RBC 2.5 HCT 22 Retic 2% Which statement describes his condition? a. The absolute retic count is 50*10^3 indicating that the BM is not adequately compensating for the anemia b. The retic count is greatly increased indicating an adequate BM response for this anemia c. The absolute retic count is 5.0*10^6 indicating that the BM is adequately compensating for the anemia d. The retic count is slightly increasing indicating an adequate response to the slight anemia

A

A patients serum reacted weakly + with 16 of 16 group O panel cells at the AHG test phase. The AC was neg. Tests with ficin treated panel cells demonstrated no reactivity at the AHG phase. Which antibody is most likely responsible for these results? a. Anti-Ch b. anti-k c. anti-e d. anti-Jsa

A

A sample has reactions occurring at immediate spin and AHG in a panel that show varying reaction strengths. There is no obvious pattern that matches a particular panel cell or single antigen profile and the auto-control was negative. Which of the following is the most likely cause? a. An IgM and IgG antibody b. An IgG antibody only c. An IgM antibody only d. An autoantibody

A

Acute phase proteins generally fall into which category? a. Glycoproteins b. Immunoglobulins c. Lipoproteins d. Microglobulins

A

After birth, which of the following is the biggest concern for a newborn suffering from HDFN? a. Accumulation of bilirubin b. Anemia due to RBC destruction c. Decrease in bilirubin production d. Low Hct values

A

All of the following are features of SLE EXCEPT: a. increased serum compliment b. positive ANA c. circulating immune complexes d. elevated ESR

A

All of the following represent an area in clinical micro using molecular detection methods a routine dx tool, EXCEPT? a. Mycology testing b. Microbial ID testing after culture c. Neg validation testing d. Genotyping for antimicrobial resist.

A

Which of the following is a possible type from the mating of an O and AB (non-cis) individual? a. AB b. O C. BB d. OO

B

Which of the following is an important cellular mediator of immune complex tissue injury? a. monocyte b. neutro c. baso d. eos

B

The biuret reaction for the analysis of serum protein depends of the number of: a. free amino groups b. free carboxyl groups c. peptide bonds d. tyrosine residues

C

The cyst state may be recovered from formed fecal specimens submitted for parasitic examination if the specimen: a. is incubated at 37C for 24 hours b. is the result of a saline enema c. is stored at refridge temp d. contains barium

C

The disappearance of HBsAG and HBeAG, the persistence of anti-HBc, the appearance of anti-HBs and often of anti-Hbe indicate: a. early acute b. early convalescent c. recovery d. carrier

C

The enzyme responsible for conferring H activity on the red cell membrane is alpha: a. galactosyl transferase b. N-acetylgalactosaminyl transferase c. L-fucosyltransferase d. glucosyltransferase

C

A cell culture line commonly used for the recovery of Chiamydia trachomatis from clinical specimens is: a. HeLa 229 b. Hep-2 c. BHK-21 d. McCoy's

D

Auer rods are most likely present in? a. chronic granulocytic leukemia b. myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia c. erythroleukemia d. acute granulocytic leukemia

D

Bioavailability of an oral drug refers to the: a. Availability for therapeutic administration b. Ratio of protein bound to free drug c. Amount of drug transformation d. Fraction of the drug that is absorbed into systemic circulation

D

Cells involved in hemostasis are: a. erythrocytes b. granulocytes c. lymphocytes d. thrombocytes

D

During phagocytosis by a neutrophil, the granules which fuse with the phagosome can contain all of the following EXCEPT: a. Lysosome b. Myeloperoxidase c. Lactoferrin d. Lactase

D

Each of the bacterial species listed below may be associated with culture-negative endocarditis except: a. Cardiobacterium hominis b. Streptococcus abiotropha c. Brucella abortis d. Staphylococcus epidermidis

D

Found freq in newborns, the cells indicated are: a. Neut b. Small lymph c. Metamyelocytes d. NRC

D

In the FTA-ABS test, the presence of a beaded pattern of fluorescence along the treponeme indicates: a. postive ID of T. pallidum b. presumptive dx of active syphilis c. prescence of non treponemal antibody d. false positive reaction

D

In the liver, bilirubin is converted to: a. urobilinogen b. urobilin c. bilirubin-albumin complex d. bilirubin diglucronide

D

Of the organisms listed, which is the most likely to be contracted following consumption of unpasteurized milk? a. Erysipelothirx rhusiopathiae b. Listeria monocytogenes c. Clostridium tetani d. Pasteurella multocida

D

Oligoclonalbands are present on electrophorsis of concentrated CSF and also on concurrently tested serum of the same patient. The proper interpretation is: a. diagnostic for primary CSF tumor b. diagnostic for MS c. CNS involvement by acute leukemia d. nondiagnositic for MS

D

On Monday, a patients hbg was 11.3 and on Tuesday is was 11.8. The SD is +/- 0.2. What can be concluded about the results? a. one value prob resulted in lab error b. there is poor precision, daily QC should be checked c. the second value is out of range and should be repeated d. there is no sig change in the patients hemoglobin concentration

D

Rh antibodies generally: a. React best at 4C b. React best at RT c. Generally do not react at any temp d. React best at 37C

D

The parent substrate in the biosynthesis of androgens and estrogens is: a. cortisol b. catecholamines c. progesterone d. cholesterol

D

The peripheral blood smear represented by the image was submitted for review. ID of the inclusion are: a. Malarial pigment b. Pappenheimer bodies c. Howell-Jolly bodies d. Baso stippling

D

The stimulant that causes localized sweating for the sweat test is: a. polyvinyl alcohol b. lithium sulfate c. potassium sulfate d. pilocarpine nitrate

D

The type of hypersensitivity reaction assoc. with macrophage activation, cytokine-mediated inflammaiton is: a. Type I b. Type II c. Type III d. Type IV

D

Thrombocytopenia is a characteristic of: a. Classic vW disease b. hemophilia A c. Glanzmanns thrombasthenia d. May-Hegglin anomaly

D

Which is the best component to treat a patient with fibrinogen deficiency? a. RBC b. Platelet c. Whole blood d. Cryoprecipitated AHF

D

Which is the most common cause of abnormality in hemostasis? a. decreased plasma fibrinogen level b. decreased Factor VIII level c. decreased Factor IX level d. quantitative abnormality of platelets

D

Which of the following additives should be used for the collection of a sample for blood gas analysis? a. Sodium citrate b. EDTA c. Sodium oxalate d. Heparin

D

Which of the following packed RBCs could be transfused to a group O patient? a. A b. B c. AB d. O

D

Which of the following parameters, according to the AHA, is not included in the dx of the presence of the metabolic syndrome in adults? a. Elevated waist circumference b. Elevated triglyceride level c. Elevated fasting glucose d. Elevated HDL

D

Which of the following serum constituants is unstable if a blood specimen is left standing at RT for 8 hours before processing: a. Cholesterol b. Triglycerides c. creatinine d. Glucose

D

Which of the following sites is used most often for CSF collection? a. Ventricles b. L1-L2 c. Subarachnoid d. L3-L4

D

Which of the following statements is true in re: CYP450 enzymes? a. Only hepatic enzymes involved in drug metab b. Few in number but very important in metab c. Very specific in the substrates they accept d. Able to make compounds more water-sol and therefore enhance excretion

D

Which of the following substances are detected with Clinitest tablets? a. Glucose only b. Glucose and albumin c. Ketones d. All reducing substances

D

Which of the following terms could be used to describe this picture? a. Thrombocytosis b. Monocytosis c. Leukopenia d. Lymphocytosis

D

Which of the following tests is used to confirm a syphilis infection after another method tests + a. RPR b. VDRL c. Dark field exam d. T. pallidum partical agglutination (TP-PA)

D

Which of the following tests is used to monitor bactericidal activity during antimicrobic therapy in cases of endocarditis? a. Elek b. tolerance c. Sherris synergism d. serum bactericidal

D

Which of the following urine chem reagent strip test is based of the Ehrlich-aldehyde reaction? a. pH b. Protein c. Glucose d. Urobilinogen

D

Which of the formulas given below is used to calc. MCHC? a. Hgb*10/RBC b. Hct*10/RBC c. RBC/Hgb*10 d. Hgb*100/Hct

D

Which test is used to monitor red cell production? a. packed cell volume b. total iron binding capacity c. Schilling test d. retic count

D

Increased concentrations of alpha-fetoprotein in adults are MOST characteristically assoc. with: a. Hepatocellular carcinoma b. alcoholic cirrhosis c. chronic active hepatitis d. multiple myeloma

A

Irregular clumping of platelets is usually due to: a. inadequate mixing of specimen b. hemorrhage c. poorly made wedge smear d.hypersplenism

A

Naegleria fowleri is assoc with which of the following? a. Amebic meningoencephalitis b. Amebic encephalitis c. Travelers diarrhea d. Non-pathogen

A

Oral cavity of 16y/o girl. Micro = GNR loose clusters, light gray-yellow smooth colonies. Indole and lipase +, alk- non fermentor......? a. Porphyromonas asaccharolytica b. Fusobacterium nucleatum c. Bacteroides fragilis d. Propionibacterium acnes

A

Panel Cell a. Anti-Fya b. Anti=Fyb c. Anti-e d. Anti-Le

A

Severe intravascular hemolysis is most likely caused by antibodies of which blood group system? a. ABO b.Rh c. Kell d. Duffy

A

Sodium bicarb and sodium citrate are components of which of the following: a. JEMBEC system b. MTM agar c. NYC medium d. ML agar

A

Specific (secondary) granules of the neutrophilic granulocyte: a. appear first in the myelocyte stage b. contain lysosomal enzymes c. are formed on the mitochondria d. are derived from azurophil (primary) granules

A

Sputum spec grew lactose ferm organism. VP + Motility - Indole - Citrate + Urea 1+ a. Klebsiella pnemoniae b. E. coli c. Klebsiella oxytoca d. Klebsiella aerogenes

A

The chamber counting method of platelet enumeration: A. allows direct visualization of the particles being counted B. has a high degree of precision C. has a high degree of accuracy D. is relatively free from technique variation

A

The cyclic antidepressants are classified as: a. basic drugs b. neutral drugs c. acidic drugs d. structurally cycloparaffinic

A

The following aerobic, branching, filamentous Gram + species is weakly acid fast and known to cause mycetomas and lung infections in immuno comp patients: a. Nocardia sp. b. Mycobacterium sp. c. Streptomyces sp d. Corynebacterium sp.

A

The included Gram stain was made from a CSF specimen submitted to the lab. What is the organism: a. GPC in chains b. GPC in clusters c. Yeast d. GNB

A

The light blue staining cells represented in the photo represent 50% of the total white blood cell count. Which of the following conditions is this peripheral blood picture most consistent with" a. Infectious Mono b. Chronic Lymphocytic leukemia c. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia d. Bacterial Infection

A

The majority of the iron in an adult is found as a constituent of: a. hemoglobin b. hemosiderin c. myoglobin d. transferrin

A

The method of choice for performing a SG measurement of urine following administration of xray contrast dyes is: a. reagent strip b. refractometer c. urinometer d.densitometer

A

The most common form of childhood leukemia is: a. Acute lymphocytic b. acute granulocytic c. acute monocytic d. chronic granulocytic

A

The most efficient method to distinguish Group B Strep from other beta hemolytic strep is: a. latex agglutination b. growth in a 6.5% NaCl broth c. growth on bile esculin medium d. bacitracin susceptibility

A

The most frequent cause of bacterial meningitis in adults and children is: a. Streptococcus pneumonia b. Neisseria meninitidis c. Haemophilus influenzae d. Escherichia coli

A

The most frequent value in a collection of data is statistically known as: a. mode b. median c. mean d. SD

A

The optimum storage temp for whole blood is: a. 4 b. -12 c. -20 d. -80

A

The osmolal gap is defined as measured Osm/kg minus the calculated Osm/kg. The avg osmolal gap is near: a. 0 b. 2 c. 4 d. 6

A

The osmolality of a urine or serum specimen is measured by a change in the: a. freezing point b. sedimentation point c. absorbance d. osmotic pressure

A

The presence of HbsAg, anti-HBc and often HbeAg is characteristic of: a. early acute phase HBV hep b. early convalescent phase HBV hep c. recovery phase d. carrier state

A

The presence of erythrocytes with altered morphology as indicated in the pic has a close assoc with which of the following conditions? a. Extensive burns b. Babesiosis c. Sickle cell d. Type I vWF

A

The recovery of some Cryptococcus sp. may be compromised if the isolation media contains: a. cycloheximide b. gentamicin c. chloramphenicol d. penicillin

A

The red cells in this illustration exhibit which of the following abnormal erythrocyte shapes: a. Teardrop b. Blister c. Stomatocytes d. Ovalcytes

A

The selectivity of an ion-selective electrode is determined by the: a. Properties of the membrane used b. Magnitude of the potential across the membrane c. The size of the membrane used d. Neural potential of the membrane

A

The serum of which of the following individuals may agglutinate group A1 cells? a. A2 b. A1B c. A1 d. Newborn

A

The smallest concentration of antimicrobial agent which prevents growth in subculture or results in a 99.9% decrease of the initial inoculum, is the definition of: a. min bactericidal concentration b. indifference of additive c. min inhibitory concentration d. synergism

A

The specimen of choice for preparation of blood films for manual differential leukocyte counts is whole blood collected in: A. EDTA B. oxalate C. citrate D. heparin

A

These results are most consistent with: Alkaline phosphatase slight increase Alanine aminotransferase marked increase Aspartate aminotransferase marked increase Gamma-glutamyl transferase slight increase a. acute hep b. chronic hep c. obstructive jaundice d. cirrhosis

A

Which of the following organisms must be incubated in a microaerophilic environment for optimal recovery of the organism: a. Campylobacter fetus b. E. coli c. P. aeruginosa d. Proteus mirabilis

A

Which of the following statements is true re: cardiovascular disease and adipose tissue? a. Inflammatory cytokines, synthesized and released by adipose tissue, contribute to the develop of cardio disease b. Increased synth and secretion of PAI-1 in metab synd contributes to cardio disease by increasing BP c. Obesity in metab synd contributes to the develop of cardio disease by increased synth and secretion of adiponectin d. There is no correlation between the amount of adipose tissue and cardio disease

A

Which test assess platelet function: a. bleeding time b. PT c. Thrombin time d. partial thromboplastin time

A

Which type of lipoprotein is the least dense? a. Chylomicrons b. VLDL c. LDL d. HDL

A

While performing a UA, a tech notices the urine specimen to have a fruity odor. This patients urine most likely containes: a. acetone b. bilirubin c. coliform bacilli d. porphyrin

A

Within one week after exposure to a rash illness, a maternal serum rubella titer that is = to or greater than 1:8 indicates: a. prob immunity b. evidence of acute infection c. susceptibility d. absence

A

Calculate the specificity + - Disease 984 7 No Disease 16 873 a. 98.2% b. 98.4% c. 99.1% d. 99.99%

A TN/(TN + FP) x 100

A patient has increase RBC with decreased Hb and normal Hct. MCV is microcytic and the RDW is within normal. Many codocytes are present. Serum Iron is 165 (60-150), and the TIBC is 230 (250-400). Increase hemoglobin A2 of 5%? a. Beta Thalassemia silent b. Beta Thalassemia minor c. Beta Thalassemia intermedia d. Beta Thalassemia major

B

A patient with CF is admitted with a fulminant lung infection. A sputum culture grows non lactose fermenting, oxidase +, Gram neg bacilli. It is pyo neg, nitrate reduction variable and arginine dihydrolase neg. a. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia b. Burkholderia cepacia c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa d. Acinetobacter baumannii

B

If one finds excessive rouleaux formation on a smear, then which of the following might also be increased? a. Leukocyte count b. ESR c. Hct d. Osmotic fragility

B

In a spectrophotometer, light of a specific wavelength can be isolated from white light with a(n): a. double beam b. diffraction grating c. aperture d. slit

B

In chronic active hepatitis, high titers of which of the following antibodies are seen? a. anti-mitochondrial b. anti-smooth muscle c. anti-DNA d. anti-parietal cell

B

Mott cells are associated with? a. CLL b. Plasma cell myeloma c. Chediak-Higashi anomaly d. Severe pyogenic infection

B

Osmolal gap is the difference between: A. the ideal and real osmolality values B. calculated and measured osmolality values C. plasma and water osmolality values D. molality and molarity at 4C

B

Phagocytosis is a Funciton of: a. erythrocytes b. granulocytes c. lymphocytes d. thrombocytes

B

Some regional and public health labs carry out mass screening tests on the urine of newborns for a genetic disorder involving metabolism of: a. fructose b. galactose c. glucose d. lactose

B

Th following results WBC 61.3 RBC 1.19 HGB 9.9 HCT 21 MCV 125 MCHC 54.1 What action should be taken next: a. dilute the specimen and recount b. warm the specimen and recount c. check the tube for clots d. clean the aperture tubes and recount

B

The Liley method of predicting the severity of HDFN is based on the amniotic fluid: a. bilirubin concentration by standard methods b. change in optical density measured at 450 nm c. Rh determination d. ratio of lecithin to sphingomyelin

B

The amp of an RNA target through RT-PCR to detect HIV requires the following enzyme for the initial synthesis of DNA from the viral RNA template: a. Transcriptase b. Reverse transriptase c. Taq polymerase d. Thermocycler

B

The anemia of chronic infection is characterized by: a. decreased iron stores in the reticuloendothelia system b. decreased serum iron levels c. macrocytic erythrocytes d. increased serum iron binding capacity

B

The extent to which measurements agree with the true value of the quantity being measured is known as: a. reliability b. accuracy c. reproducibility d. precision

B

What condition would be suspected in an asymptomatic patient with greater than 20% atypical lymphs on their periph blood smear? a. Herpes simplex virus b. Epstein-Barr virus c. Bacterial meningitis d. Acute leukemia

B

Which of the following factors is known as Hageman factor? a. X b. XII c. V d. VII

B

Lewis Blood Group System- The antigen is produced by exocrine glands, eventually adsorbing to the surface of the RBC. Its expression is based off the genetic expression of the Lewis secretor genes. Based of the following (Le) (Se), what would you predict the Lewis type is? a. Le(a-b-) b. Le(a+b+) c Le(a-b+) d. Le (a+b-)

C

MF agglutination at the AHG phase of a XM may be attributed to: a. recently transfused cells b. intrauterine exchange transfusion c. an antibody such as anti-Sda d. FMH

C

MF reactions with anti-A and anti-A,B and neg reactions with anti-B and anti-A1 lectin (Dolichos bilforus) are observed. Without further testing, the most likely conclusion is that the patient is group: a. A1 b. A2 c. A3 d. Ae1

C

Molecular methods offer improvements in sensitivity, but they are dependent upon what factor? a. The presence of significant numbers of organisms in the specimen b. Meeting unique/fastidious culture requirements c. the availability of specific instrumentation d. Maintaining the viability of the organism

C

The serologic test for syphilis recommended for detecting antibody in CSF is: a. non treponemal antibody b. CSF-VDRL c. FTA-ABS d. MHA-TP

C

The serum protein electrophoresis pattern is consistant Patient Ref Total Protein 8.9 6-8 Alb. 4.8 3.6-5.2 Alpha 1 0.3 0.1-0.4 Alpha 2 0.7 0.4-1.0 Beta 0.8 0.5-1.2 Gamma 2.3 0.6-1.6 a. cirrhosis b. acute inflammation c. monoclonal gammopathy d. polyclonal gammopathy

C

The stock cultures needed for QC testing of oxidase production are: a. E. coli/ K. pneumoniae b. Salmonella/E. coli c. E. coli/P. aeruginosa d. Proteus/E. coli

C

The test used for the ID of specific capsular serotypes of Strep pneumoniae is: a. Optochin b. Bile c. Quellung d. Hippurate

C

The use of RBC, Deglycerolized would be most beneficial when transfusing a patient: a. with sickle cell anemia b. who is at high risk for hep B infection c. with high freq antibodies d. with warm autoantibody

C

The values were obtained on an automated system performed on a blood sample from a 25 y/o man: Patient Ref WBC 5.5 5.0-10.0 RBC 2.94 4.6-6.2 HBG 13.8 14-18 HCT 35.4 40-54 MCV 128 82-90 MCH 46.7 27-31 MCHC 40 32-36 a. Megaloblastic anemia b. hered spherocytosis c. high titer of cold agglutinins d. elevated retic count

C

There are several different types of media that can be used in electrophoresis. Most methods today use a gel- cellulose acetate, agarose, or polyacrylamide gel. Which of the following statements is TRUE? a. The compounds used to make cellulose acetate gels are carcinogenic b. Polyacrylamide gels are comprised of polysaccahrides and acrylamides c. Polyacrylamide gels have the greatest resolution or separation of solutes. d. Cellulose acetate and agarose gels are the more commonly used gels

C

Total iron binding capacity measures the serum iron transporting capacity of: a. hemoglobin b. ceruloplasmin c. transferrin d. ferritin

C

Urine samples should be examined within 1 hour of voiding because: a. RBC, Leukocytes and cast agglutinate on standing for several hours at RT b. Urobilinogen increases and bilirubin decreases after prolonged exposure to light c. bacterial contamination will cause alkalinization of the urine d. ketones will increase due to bacterial and cellular metabolism

C

Use of EDTA plasma prevents activation of the classical complement pathway by: a. causing rapid decay of compliment components b. chelating Mg ions which prevents the assembly of C6 c. chelating Ca ions which prevents assembly of C1 d. preventing chemotaxis

C

What is the composition of Howell Jolly bodies? a. Iron b. Wright stain precip c. DNA d. RNA

C

Which of the following viral families contains DNA as its nucleic acid? a. Paramyzovirdae b. Rhabdovirdae c. Poxviridae d. Orthomyzoviridae

C

Which tumor marker is used for colorectal cancer: a. CA-125 b. AFP c. CEA d. PSA

C

50%-90% myeloblasts in peripheral blood is typical of: a. chronic granulocytic leukemia b. myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia c. erythroleukemia d. acute granulocytic leukemia

D

88y/o foot wound. Gram-neg rods on MAC, dark pink oxidase neg along with: TSI: A/A H2S: neg Indole: neg Urea: pos MR: neg Motility: neg VP: pos Ornithine: neg Citrate: Pos a. Serratia marcescens b. Proteus vulgaris c. E. coli d. Klebsiella pneumonia

D

All of the following are common support media used in electrophoresis EXCEPT: a. Cellulose acetate b. Agarose gel c. Polyacrylamide gel d. Dextrose

D

All of the following are true in re: to performing QC on urine chem strips, EXCEPT: a. As often as req. by the labs procedure b. On each new lot c. When a new bottle is opened d. QC is performed only when patient results are questioned by health care provider

D

All of the following are true of Xanthochromia in CSF, EXCEPT: a. An immature blood brain barrier b. Increase protein in CSF c. Elevated bilirubin in the blood d. Clear appearance of CSF

D

All of the following are uses of nucleic acid tests for HIV infection, EXCEPT? a. Monitor the effectiveness of therapy b. Obtain a baseline value c. Dx HIV infection d. Determine the degree of immune suppression caused by HIV

D

All of the following steps should be taken in the IMMEDIATE investigation of a potential HTR EXCEPT: a. DAT on the post patient sample b. Check for clerical errors c. Visual exam of the post and pre plasma for hemolysis d. A gram stain on the patients plasma

D

An index of of precision is statistically known as the: a median b mean c t-test d coefficient of variation

D

Antigen processing is primarily accomplished by what type of cells: a. Baso b. Eos c. PMN d. Macrophages

D

Elevation of the total granulocyte count above 9.0*10^3/uL is termed: a. relative lymphocytosis b. leukocytosis c. relative neutrophilic leukocytosis d. absolute neutrophilic leukocytosis

D

Exposure to all of the following chemicals may cause hemolytic anemia, EXCEPT? a. Heavy metals b. Lead c. Naphthalene d. Ascorbic acid

D

Fecal urobilinogen level may be markedly decreased because of: a. Hemolysis b. Decreased intestinal reabsorption of urobilinogen c. Increased serum bilirubin d. Biliary obstruction

D

Heinz bodies are: a. readily identified with polychrome stain b. rarely found in glucose-6-dehydroginase deficient erythrocytes c. closely assoc. with spherocytes d. denatured hemoglobin inclusions

D

Hematology standards include: A. stabilized RBC suspension B. latex particles C. stabilized avian RBCs D. certified cyanmethemoglobin solution

D

Hemolysis in paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) is: a. temp dependent b. compliment independent c. antibody mediated d. caused by a red cell membrand defect

D

Hemolytic anemias are dx by clinical findings and lab tests. All of the following are lab values that are relied on to help dx hemolytic anemia EXCEPT? a. Hbg and/or Hct b. Retic and RBC morph c. Bilirubin and haptoglobin d. Fibrinogen and C-reactive protein

D

How many milliliters of 0.25 N NaOH are needed to make 100mL of a 0.05N solution of NaOH? a. 5mL b. 10mL c. 15mL d. 20mL

D

ID the WBC a. Myelocyte b. Neut c. Eos d. Baso

D

Middlebrook 7H10 and 7H11 media must be refrigerated in the dark, and incubated in the dark as well. If these conditions are not met, the media may prove toxic for mycobacteria because: a carbon dioxide will be released b growth factors will be broken down c light destroys the ammonium sulfate d formaldehyde may be produced

D

One advantage of the antimicrobial dilution tests is that: a. it is based on a predetermined breakpoint b. contamination can be detected easily c. it provides categorical reports d. it can detect varying degrees of organism sens and resist

D

Organisms that may be mistaken for Neisseria gonorrhoeae in Gram stained smears of uterine cerivix exudated include: a. Lactobacillus sp. b. S. agalactiae c. P. aeruginosa d. Moraxella osloenis

D

Plasma creatinine concentration is dependent on all of the following EXCEPT: a. Relative muscle mass b. Renal function c. Rate of creatinine turnover d. Sodium concentration

D

Seg small intestine. On the surface are adult Cestode worms. Based on the morphology of the proglottid, ID: a. Taenia species b. Dibhyllobothrium latum c. Hymenolepis species d. Dipylidium canium

D

Thalassemias are characterized by: a. structural abnormalities in the heme molecule b. absence of iron in hemeoglobin c. decreased rate of heme synthesis d. decreased rate of globin synthesis

D

The Gram stain was prepped from a lower respit tract specimen. How should it be reported? a. GNC b. GPC c. Many GPC in pairs d. Many GPC in pairs, many PMNs

D

The IS phase of an IAT could most likely lead to the detection of which of the following? a. Clinically sig. warm antibodies b. Clinically sig. cold antibodies c. Clinically insig. warm d. Clinically insig. cold

D

The degree to which the kidney concentrates the glomerular filtrate can be determined by: a. urine creatine b. serum creatinine c. creatinine clearance d. urine to serum osmolality ratio

D

The enzymatic process in each PCR cycle consists of the following EXCEPT: a. DNA denaturation b. Primer annealing c. Extension of primed DNA sequence d. Analysis of PCR product

D

The following results were obtained in a creatinine clearance eval: Urine concentration 84 Urine volume 1440 Serum concentration 1.4 Body surface area 1.6 The creatinine clearance is: a. 6 b. 22 c. 60 d. 65

D

The following results were obtained on an electronic particle counter: WBC ++++ RBC 2.01 HGB 7.7 HCT 28.2 MCV 141 MCH 38.5 MCHC 23.3 What is the next step? a. clean the apertures b. warm the specimen c. replace the lysing agent d. dilute the specimen

D

The following urine were obtained on a 25y/o female Color Amber Micro: Appear Cloudy Bacteria = many SG 1.015 WBC cast Few pH 5.0 WBC 30-40 Protein 1+ Glucose Neg Blood Small a. glomerulonephritis b. renal calculus c. vaginitis d. pyelonephritis

D

The form in photo was recovered from a BM sample and measures 11 um in length. ID? a. Trypanosoma epimastigote b. Trypanosoma trypomastigote c. Leishmania epimastigote d. Leishmania promastigote

D

The most appropriate screening test for Hemoglobin H is: a. dithionite solubility b. osmotic fragility c. sucrose hemolysis d. heat instability test

D

The one characteristic by which an unknown Cryptococcus sp. can be ID as C. neoformans is: a. appearance of yellow colonies b. pos urease test c. presence of a capsule d. pos Niger seed agar test

D

The optimum storage temp for RBC Frozen is: a. 4 b. -12 c. -20 d. -80

D

The parasite was recovered in a vet stool sample. Which human parasite does it most closely match? a. Trichinella spiralis encysted larva b. Ascaris lumbricoides egg c. Enterobius vermicularis egg d. Trichuris trichiura egg

D

The parasitic form in the pic may be found in the eye, as a cause of keratitis. It measures appx. 25um in diameter. ID? a. Loa loa b. Naegleria fowleri c. Trypansoma brucei gambiense d. Acanthamoeba sp.

D

The stock cultures needed for a QC testing of deamination activity are: A. E coli/ Klebsiella penumoniae B. Salmonella typhimurium/ E coli C. E coli/ Pseudmonas aeruginosa D. Proteus mirabilis/ E coli

D

The stock cultures needed for quality control testing deoxyribonuclease (DNAse) production are: a. Salmonella typhimurium/E. coli b. E. coli/ P. aeruginosa c. Proteus mirabilis/E. coli d. Serratia marcenscens/ E. coli

D

The term "internal autoinfection" is generally used in referring to infections with: a. Ascaris lumbricoides b. Necator americanus c. Trichuris trichiura d. Strongyloides stercoralis

D

What ANA staining pattern is in this image? a. Homogeneous b. Speckled c. Nucleolar d. Centromere

D

What is the ABO type Red Cells Serum Anti-A 4+ A cells 1+ Anti-B 4+ B cells 0 a. Group AB b. Group O c. Group B d. Inconclusive: could be A2B with anti-A1 in the serum

D

Which of the following is considered one of the most common coagulation inhibitors? a. Lupus anticoagulant b. Anti-factor II c. Anti-factor V d. Anti-factor X

A

Which of the following processes can lead to the formation of microclots in a patients specimen that is collected in a tube containing EDTA? a. Failing to invert the tube after specimen collection b. Filling the tube as full as the vacuum in the tube allows c. Inverting the tube 5-10 times after the specimen collection d. Using the EDTA tube for an automated platelet count

A

Which of the following serum constituents is increased following strenuous exercise? a. Creatinine b. Total lipids c. Sodium d. Iron

A

Which of the following species is an oxidase +, glucose fermenting, Gram neg bacilli? a. Plesiomonas shigelloides b. Serratia marcescens c. Escherichia coli d. Providencia rettgeri

A

Which of the following statements about fluorometry is true? a. A compound is said to fluoresce when it absorbs light at one wavelength and emits light as a second wavelength b. Detectors in floremeters are placed 180 from the excitation source c. it is less sensitive than spectrophotometer d. It avoid the necessity for complexing of components because fluorescence is native property

A

Which of the following statements is TRUE with respect to uncompensated metabolic alkaloisis? a. pH will be elevated without an elevation of pCO2 b. pH will be elevated with an elecation of pCO2 c. pH will be elevated with a decrease of pCO2 d. pH will be normal with an elevation of pCO2

A

Which of the following test BEST correlates with the severity of HDFN? a. Color Doppler ultrasonography b. An antibody screen of the mothers blood c. Amniotic fluid bilirubin d. Antibody titer of moms blood

A

Factors commonly involved in producing anemia in patients with chronic renal disease include: a. marrow hypoplasia b. ineffective erythropoiesis c. Vit b12 defic d. increased erythtopoietin production

B

Given the following values: 100, 120, 150, 140, 130 What is the mean? a. 100 b. 128 c. 130 d. 640

B

Serum levels that define hypoglycemia in pre-term or low birth weight infants are: a: the same as adults b. lower than adults c. the same as a normal full term infant d. higher than a normal full term infant

B

Which purine base is found in RNA and not in DNA? a. Thymine b. Guanine c. Uracil d. Cytosine

C

Identify the nucleated blood cell: a. Lymph b. Neu c. Baso d. Mono

A

40y/o develops intermittent spiking fevers after trip to Western Africa. Based on the morphology of the erythrocytes and the heavy invasion with ring form trophozoites, the dx of malaria could be made. With particular focus on the sickle form gametocyte, which Plasmodium sp. is represented? a. P. vivax b. P. falciparum c. P. malariae d. P. ovale

B

52 y/o male has urine glucose as part of 3 hour GTT Time Serum Urine Fasting 82 neg 1/2 hr 120 neg 1 hr 190 neg 2 hr 115 1+ 3 hr 95 trace a. serum levels must exceed the thresh lev b4 glucose is filtered by the renal glom b. serum levels must exceed the thresh lev b4 reabsorption of glucose is exceeded c. tested patient probably has renal glucosuria d. tested patient probably has diabetes mellitus

B

A 9mo boy from Israel has gradually lost the ability to sit up and develops seizures. He as an increased amount of phospholipid called GM2-ganglioside in his neurons, and he lacks the enzyme hexosaminidase A in his leukocytes. These findings suggest: a. Neimann-Pick b. Tay-Sachs c. phenylketonuria d. Hurler's

B

A CBC is performed. The WBC is elevated and a manual diff is required. RBC is "Normal". Which histogram represents normal? a. b. c. d.

B

A D- mom gives birth to a baby that tests as D- in the IS phase. What step is next? a. Calc dose for RhIg b. Perform weak D c. Administer 1 dose of RhIg d. Perform a Kleihauer-Betke stain

B

A clean catch urine is submitted to the lab for routine UA and culture. The routine UA is done first, and the specimen is then sent to micro for culture. The specimen should: a. be centrifuged and the supernatant cultured b. be rejected due to poss contam from UA c. not be cultured if no bacteria are seen d. be immediately processed for culture regardless of UA results

B

A condition in which erythrocyte protoporphyrin is increased is: a. acute intermittent porphyria b. iron deficiency anemia c. porphyria cutanea tarda d. acute porphyric attack

B

A deficiency in which of the following coag factors will produce an abnormal PT test result, but will not affect the aPTT test result? a. X b. VII c. V d. II

B

A dilution commonly used for a routine sperm count is: a. 1:2 b. 1:20 c. 1:200 d. 1:400

B

A gram neg diplococcus that grows on Mod TM medium can be further confirmed as Neisseria gonorrhoeae if it is: a. oxidase pos, glucose pos, maltose pos b. oxidase pos, glucose pos, maltose neg c. oxidase pos, glucose neg, maltose pos d. oxidase neg, glucose pos, maltose neg

B

Coag factors affected by coumarin drugs are: a. VII, IX, and X b. I, II, V, and VII c. II, VII, IX, and X d. II, V, and VII

C

2y/o treated for upper resp. a few weeks ago, showed bruising and labs Hgb = 13.5 RBC = 3.9*10^12 WBC = 8.0*10^9 Plate = 5*10^9 BM ratio = 3:1 Mega = increased a. Glanzmann thrombasthenia b. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome c. Immune (idopathic) thrombocytopenic purpura d. Thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura

C

55 y/o white male labs RBC 3.7 x 10 WBC 5.8 x 10 Serum Iron 220 ug/dl MCV 86 fl TIBC 300 ug/dl MCH 26 pg Hct 32% MCHC 32% Serum Ferritin 2800 ng/mL Prussian Blue stain of BM indicates elevated iron stores a. Sideroblastic anemia b. anemia of chronic disease c. Hemocromotosis d. Megoblastic anemia

C

6mo. African American who experiences vomiting and diarrhea after milk ingestion and has failed to gain weight: pH 5.0 Protein neg Glucose neg Ketone Neg Blood Neg Bilirubin Neg Nitrite Neg Uro 0.1 Clinitest 2+ a. Diabetes mellitus b. Lactose intolerance c. Galactosemia d. CF

C

7 day old colony with a gray-yellow, velvety mold and a black staining perimeter. Although characteristic of a colony of chomomycosis, what ID of fungi that produces the sharply pointed end of the phialide from which clusters of elliptical conidia are formed? a. Cladophialophora carrionii b. Phialophora richardsiae c. Exophiala jeanselmei d. Fonsecaea pedrosoi

C

A 300ug dose of RhIg can suppress immunization up to a maximum of _____ mL of D-positive whole blood: a. 15mL b. 20mL c. 25mL d. 30mL

D

From the IgG molecule, which region is the heavy chain: a b c d

a

Identify the crystal: a. Leucine b. Cholesterol c. Bilirubin d. Cystine

B

Identify the nucleated blood cell: a. Baso b. Neutrophil c. Eos d. Mono

B

In the sweat test, the sweating stimulant is introduced to the skin by application of: a. filter paper moistened with pilocarpine nitrate b. an electric current c. copper electrodes d. filter paper moistened in DI water

B

Necator americanus is a parasite assoc with which of the following conditions? a. Beef tapeworm infection b. Hookworm infection c. Whipworm infection d. Fish tapeworm infection

B

The anticoag of choice for routine coag procedures is: a. sodium oxalate b. sodium citrate c. heparin d. sodium fluoride

B

The area of the immunoglobulin molecule referred to as the hinge region is located between which domains? a. Vh and Vl b. CH1 and CH2 c. CH2 and CH3 d. CH3 and Vl

B

The average bone marrow cellularity in a normal adult is: a. 30 b. 50 c. 65 d. 70

B

Arterial blood collected in a hep syringe, but exposed to room air would cause what changes? pO2 pCO2 pH a. elevated decreased elevated b. decreased elevated decrease c. unchanged elevated unchanged d. decreased decreased decreased

A

Cells used for the transport of O2 and CO2 are: a. erythrocytes b. granulocytes c. lymphocytes d. thrombocytes

A

Clinical resistance to penicillin dosages appears to correlate with beta-lactamase production in: a. N. gonorrhoeae b. N. meningitditis c. S. agalactiae d. S. pyogenes

A

From these test results, it can be concluded that Patient #3 has: HBsAG anti-HBC IgM anti-HAV IgM Patient #1 - - + Patient #2 + + - Patient #3 - + - a. recent acute hep A b. acute hep B c. acute hep C d. chronic hep B

B

Hives and itching are symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions? a. febrile b. allergic c. circulatory overload d. bacterial

B

How many doses of RhIg should be administered if the calculated amount of fetal whole blood volume in maternal circulation was 28 mL? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

B

Amebic cyst observed in stool specimen from a patient with low-grade, intermittent diahhrea. Distinctive cytoplasmic vacuole and "ball in socket" nucleus. a. Iodamoeba butschii b. Entamoeba harmanni c. Chilomastix mesnili d. Endolimax nana

A

An anaerobic gram negative rod isolated from a blood culture following bowel surgery grew smooth, white, nonhemolytic colonies. A gram stain showed a pale, bipolar-staining rod with rounded ends. Bile stimulated growth of the organism and catalase was produced. The isolate was not inhibited by colistin, kanamycin, or vancomycin; indole was not produced. The most likely identification of this isolate is: a. Bacterioides fragilis b. Prevotella melaninogenica c. Fusobacterium nucleatum d. C. diff

A

An automated leukocyte count is 22.5x10^3/uL. The differential reveals 200 normoblasts/100 leukocytes. What is the acutal leukocyte count per microliter? a. 7500 b. 11,500 c. 14,400 d. 22,300

A

An electrolyte panel consists of: a. K, Na, Cl, CO2 b. K, Na, Cl, Glucose c. K, Na, Cl, Creatinine d. K, Na, Cl, BUN

A

Antibodies involved in WAHA are often assoc. with which blood group system? a. Rh b. I c. P d. Duffy

A

Antibodies to which of the following immunoglobulins is known to have produced anaphylactic reactions following blood transfusions? a. IgA b. IgD c. IgE d. IgG

A

A 50 y/o woman has been receiving busulfan for three years for chronic myelogenous leukemia becomes anemic. Thrombocytopenia Many peroxidase-neg blasts in periph blood BM hypercellular in blast transformation Markedly increased BM TdT a. ALL b. acute myelocytic leukemia c. acute myelomonocytic leukemia d. busulfan toxicity

A

A 68 y/o man arrives in the ER with a glucose level of 722mg/dL and serum acetone of 4+ undiluted. An arterial blood gas from this patient is likely to indicate: a. Low pH b. High pH c. Low pO2 d. High pO2

A

A completely sickled cell is most commonly seen in which of these conditions? a. Homo HbSS b. Hetero HbSA c. Double Hetero HbSC d. HbS with Beta thalassemia

A

A cytokine can be described as: a. A soluble protein that regulates the immune response b. A chemical messenger that is only produced by lymphocytes c. A substance that acts alone to influence an immune response d. An antibody that reacts with lymphocytes

A

A diff was performed on an asymptomatic patient. The diff included 60% neutrophils: 55 of which had 2 lobes and 5 were not seg. There were no other abnormalities. This is consistant with: a. Pelger-Huet b. May-Hegglin c. Alder-Reilly d. Chediak-Higashi

A

A hemophiliac male and a normal female can produce: a. female carrier b. male carrier c. male hemophiliac d. normal female

A

A hospitalized patient has a decreased serum copper level and increased urine copper level. This is MOST consistent with? a. Wilson's b. Addison's c. Parathyroid d. Not Clinically sig.

A

A leukocyte count and diff on a 40 y/o caucasian man revealed: WBC 5.2 Diff: seg 22% Lymph 55% Mono 20% Eos 2% Baso 1% a. relative lymphocytosis b. absolute lymphocytosis c. relative neutrophilia d. leukopenia

A

A one molal solution is equivalent to: a. a solution containing one mole of solute per kg of solvent b. 1000mL of solution containing one mole of solute c. a solution containing one gram-equiv weight of solute in 1L of solution d. a one liter solution containing 2 moles of solute

A

A patient admitted for ongoing fever: RBC = 3.56 WBC = 57.5 Platelet = 375000 Diff: 3 blast, 10 myelocytes, 6 meta, 12 bands, 64 segs, 4 lymph and 1 mono LAP score = 155 a. Leukemoid Reaction b. CML c. Genetic translocation (9:22) d. Paroxsymal Noc. Hemo

A

A patient has 2 sep UA reports A B SG 1.004 1.017 pH 5.5 7.0 Protein neg trace Glucose neg neg Blood neg neg Microscopic Rare epi Occ. gran casts Rare hyaline mod epi cells a. the protein, glucose and micro of A are false neg b/c of the SG b. The protein, glucose are false + in B due to SG c. The micro of A is false neg b/c of pH d. the micro of B is false + b/c of pH

A

A solution of gamma globulins containing anti-Rh (D) is given to an Rh (D) negative mother to: a. Prevent fetal cells from initially sensitizing the mother b. Neutralize any of the childs antibody that may have passed the placental barrier c. Neutralize any natural maternal antibodies present d. Prevent greater antibody response in a prev. sensitized mother.

A

A test area of urine reagent strip is impregnated with only sodium nitroprusside. This section will react with: a. acetoacetic (diacetic) acid b. leukocyte esterase c. beta-hydroxybutyric acid d. ferric chloride

A

Absorption of Vit B12 requires the presence of: a. intrinsic factor b. gastrin c. secretin d. folic acid

A

Acute DIC is characterized by: A. hypfibrinogenemia B. thrombocytosis C. negative D-dimer D. shortened thrombin time

A

Acute intravascular hemolysis as the result of a blood transfusion is most assoc. with which of the following? a. Transfusion of ABO incompatible RBC b. Allergic reaction c. Passively transfused antibodies to HLA antigens d. TA-GVHD

A

All stages of neutrophils are most likely to be seen in the peripheral blood smear of a patient with: a. chronic granulocytic leukemia b. myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia c. erythroleukemia d. acute granulocytic leukemia

A

How many grams of sulfosalicylic acid (MW=254) are required to prepare 1L of 3% (w/v) solution? a. 3 b. 30 c. 254 d. 300

B

How many milliliters of a 3% solution can be made if 6g of a solute are available? a. 100 b. 200 c. 400 d. 600

B

According to the Michaelis-Menton kinetics theory, when a reaction is performed in zero-order kinetics: a. The sub concentration is very low and the reaction rate is depend on the sub concentration b. The sub concentration is in excess and the reaction rate is depend on the enzyme concentration c. The enzyme concentration is in excess and the reaction rate is depend on the sub concentration d. The sub concentration is equal and the reaction rate is depend on the enzyme concentration

B

All of the following are causes of hypernatremia EXCEPT: a. Excess water loss b. Low aldosterone production c. Decreased water intake d. Increased sodium intake or retention

B

All of the following are directly involved in the production of semen, EXCEPT: a. Prostate b. Pit gland c. Sem vesicles d. Bulb gland

B

All of the terms below are a measure of central tendency, EXCEPT a. Mean b. Molarity c. Median d. Mode

B

Although ABO compatibility is preferred, ABO incompatible product may be administered when transfusing: a Single Donor Plasma b. Cryo c. FFP d. Granulocytes

B

An antibiotic that inhibits cell wall synthesis: a. chloramphenicol b. penicillin c. sulfonamide d. colistin

B

An antibiotic used to suppress or kill contaminating fungi in media is: a penicillin b cycloheximide c streptomycin d amphotericin B

B

An autopsy performed on an 8-year-old child revealed Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome. Blood and throat cultures taken just prior to death were positive for which organism? a Neisseria gonorrhoeae b Neisseria meningitidis c Haemophilus influenzae d Klebsiella pneumoniae

B

An unusual number of methicillin resistant S. areus were isolated in the lab in the past month. Which of the following is the most likely explanation: a. incubation of the susceptibility plates at 35C b. deterioration of the methicillin discs c. inoculation of plates 10 min after standardizing the inoculum d. standardization of the inoculum to a 0.5 McFarland turbidity standard

B

Anti-Sda is strongly suspected if: a. the patient has been previously transfused b. the agglutinates are mixed field and refractile c. the patient is group A or B d. only a small number of panel cells are reactive

B

Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) are both elevated in which of the following diseases? a. Muscular distrophy b. viral hep c. pulminary emboli d. infectious mono

B

At what frequency should quality control testing be performed on each lot of AHG to be in compliance with the FDA's current good mfg practices? a. At the beginning of each shift b. Each day of use c. Only at the time of receipt d. By each new user

B

Basophils' primary role involves: a. Phagocytosis b. allergic reactions c. Long term immunity d. Fighting parasitic infections

B

Beer's law states that concentration is directly proportional to which of the following? a. Light transmitted b. Absorbance c. Incident light d. Absorptivity coefficient

B

Blood pCO2 may be determined by: a. potentimetric measurement of pH resulting from concentration of dissolved CO2 b. calculations of blood pO2 and totol CO2 concentrations c. measurement of CO2 saturated hemoglobin d. measurement of CO2 consumed at the cathode

B

Calcium concentration in the serum is regulated by: a. insulin b. Parathyroid hormone c. thyroxine d. Vit C

B

Carbon dioxide is predominately found in blood in the form of: a. Bound CO2 b. Bicarb ions c. Sodium carbonate d. pCO2

B

Children who have throat or skin infections with Group A beta-hemolytic strep can develop: a. acute pyelonephritis b. acute glomerulonephritis c. chronic glomerulonephritis d. nephrosis

B

Chocolate agar base containing vanco, colistin, nystain, and trimethoprim is also known as: a. EMP b. Mod. TM c. Columbia CNA d. KV-laked

B

Concerning antigen-antibody reactions, the prozone effect causes: a. False + b. False - c. No reaction d. MF

B

Each of the following bacterial species are commonly assoc. with wound infections following a dog bite, EXCEPT? a. Staphylococcus intermedius b. Bordetella bronchiseptica c. Pasturella multicida d. Capnocytophaga cynodegmi

B

Electrophoretic separation of hemoglobin fundamentally relies on: a. Weight differences of molecules b. Electrical charge differences of molecules c. Concentration differences of molecules d. Shape variations of molecules

B

Elevation of the lymphocyte percentage above 47% is: a. absolute lymphocytosis b. relative lymphocytosis c. relative neutrophilic leukocytosis d. absolute neurophilic leukocytosis

B

Enterobacteriacea member H2S neg Lysine + Ornithine neg Citrate + Phenylalanine neg Urea + Motility Neg a. Enterobacter cloacae b. Klebsiella pneumoniae c. Escherichia coli d. Yersinia enterocolitica

B

Enzyme-multiplied immunoassay technique differ from all other types in that? a. Lysozyme is the only enzyme used to label the hapten molecule b. No separation of bound and free antigen is req. c. Inhibition of the enzyme label is accomplished with polyethylene glycol d. Antibody absorption to polystyrene tubes precludes competition to labeled and free antigen

B

Erythropoietin acts to a. shorten the replication time of the granulocytes b. stimulate RNA synthesis of erythroid cells c. increase CSF produced by the B-lymphs d. decrease the release of marrow retics

B

Esterase stains are used to help diff. which of the following? a. Myeloblasts from Lymphoblasts b. Monoblasts from myeloblasts c. Monoblasts from lymphoblasts d. Erythroblasts from lymphoblasts

B

Examine the red cells in the image. Which of the following tests are necessary to confirm the condition suggested by the morphology? a. Serum Vit B12 and folate b. Hemoglobin electrophoresis for HbS c. Hemoglobin electrophoresis for Hb Bart's d. Column chromotography for elevated Hb A2

B

A KB stain of postpartum blood film revealed 0.3% fetal cells. What is the est. vol (mL) of the FMH expressed as whole blood? a. 5 b. 15 c. 25 d. 35

B - Fetal cell % = Number of fetal cells*100/ Total RBC

What is the corrected WBC if the WBC is 14,460 and there were 47 nucleated RBC per 100 WBC? a. 6796 b. 9837 c. 10165 d. 21256

B 14460*(100/147)=9837

When performing a manual white blood count, 236 cells were counted on one and 224 cells were counted on another. A 1/20 dilution of 1% HC1 was used and the area counted on each was 4 sq. mm. Twenty five RBC in the diff were observed per 100 WBC. What is the correct WBC/uL? a. 8500 b. 9200 c. 9575 d. 12425

B 236+224/2=230*10/4=11500 11500*100/25+100=9200

What is the molarity of H2SO4 (GMW = 98) that has a specific gravity of 1.21 and an assay weight of 68% w/v? a. 0.84M b. 8.4M c. 1.68M d. 16.8M

B moles of solute/liter of solution

All of the following are present in normal BM EXCEPT a. Siderocytes b. Siderblast c. Ringed sideroblast d. Hemosiderin

C

A 1 - 2 mm translucent, non pigmented colony, isolated from an anaerobic culture of a lung abscess after 72 hours, was found to fluoresce brick red under UV light. A gram stain of the organism revealed coccobacillus that had the following: growth in bile neg vanco resistant catalase neg esculin neg indole neg glucose, lactose, sucrose pos a. Bacteroides ovatus b. Bacteroides fragilis c. Prevotella melaninogenica d. Porphyromonas asaccharolytica

C

What is the main function of the hexose monophosphate shunt in RBC? a. Regulate levels of 2,3 DPG b. Protect Hb from oxidation via NADH c. Provide ATP d. Provide NADPH and reduced glutathione to prevent oxidation of hemoglobin

D

A 24 hr urine from a man who had no evidence of kidney impairment was sent to the lab for hormone determination. The volume was 600mL, but there was some question as to the completeness of the 24 hour collection. The next step would be: a. Perform the hormone determination since 600mL is normal 24 hr urine volume b. check the creatinine level, if less than 1g do the procedure c. report the hormone determination in mg/dL in case the specimen was incomplete d. check the creatinine level, if it is greater that 1g do the procedure

C

A HbA1C result for a diabetic patient is 6.0%. What conclusion can be made re: this patients carb mgmt? a. Inconclusive b. Not following diet c. compliant with diet d. critical and patient needs treated

C

A UA is performed on a 27 y/o SG 1.008 Micro pH 5.0 WBC 20-30 Protein 2+ RBC 30-55 Glu neg Cast Ket neg Hyaline 5-7 Bili neg RBC 2-5 Blood 3+ Blood 2-3 Nitrite neg waxy 1-3 Leuk pos Uro 0.1 Uric acid crystals mod a. yeast b. bacterial cystitis c. glomerulonephritis d. pyelonephritis

C

A beta-hemolytic strep which is bacitracin resistant and CAMP pos is: a. group A and B b. Group A c. Group B d. beta-hemolytic Group D

C

A blood smear shows 80 NRC per 100 leukocytes. The total leukocyte count is 18*10^3. The true white count is: a. 17.2 b. 9.0 c. 10.0 d. 13.4

C

A cercaria is capable of penetrating the skin of a human who might be swimming in contaminated water. These cercaria in turn enter the circulation, and mature in the portal vascular system where they develop into mature flukes. The female fluke occupy the gynecophoral cavity of the male fluke. Select the genus that represents the parts of the life cycle as described: a. Clonorchis b. Fasciola c. Schistosoma d. Paragonimus

C

A chemical reaction that is utilized by many different analytical methods involves: a. Fluorometry b. Glucose oxidase c. The reduction of NAD to NADH d. UV spectrophotometry

C

A diff on a 40 y/o Caucasian male: WBC diff seg 20% Lymph 58% Mono 20% Eos 2% a. absolute lymphocytosis b. relative neutrophilia c. absolute neutropenia d. leukopenia

C

A male patients urea nitrogen is 15mg/dL and his creatinine is 5mg/dL. If this patient is not undergoing dialysis, what conclusion would you draw? a. Labs are normal b. Early stage renal disease c. One of the values has an error d. Muscle deterioration

C

A patient has a normal PT and a prolonged aPTT using a kaolin activator. The aPTT corrects to normal when the incubation time is increased. These finding suggest: a. hemophila A (VII deficiency) b. Hageman factor (XII) c. Fletcher factor defic. (prekallikrein) d. Factor V defic

C

A patient has the following test results: ANA + 1:320 compliment decreased ASO 50 Todd units RA pos a. Rheumatic fever b. RA c. Lupus erythematosus d. Glomerulonephritis

C

A patient has the following values: RBC 6.5 HGB 14.0 HCT 42.0 MCV 65 MCH 21.5 MCHC 33 a. Iron deficiency b. pregnancy c. thalassemia minor d. beta thalassemia major

C

A patient presents with an elevation of unconjugated bilirubin, normal serum ALP, normal liver enzymes, and no bilirubin in the urine. This would suggest? a. Viral infection of the liver b. Chemical damage to the liver c. Increased rate of hemolysis d. Obstruction of the common bile duct.

C

A patient received 2 units of RBC and had a delayed hemolytic trans reaction. Pretrans records indicate a neg antibody screen. Repeat testing of the pretrans specimen detected and antibody at the AHG phase. What is the most likely explanation for the original results? a. Red cells were overwashed b. Centrifugation time was prolonged c. Patients serum was ommitted from the original testing d. antiglobulin reagent was neutralized

C

A rosette test to screen for FMH is indicated in all of the following, EXCEPT? a. A weak D+ infant b. A D+ infant c. A D+ mother d. A D- mother

C

A stat microscopic UA is reported as: WBC 10-13 RBC 2-6 Hyaline 5-7 Bacteria 1+ The centrifuge tube was not discarded and the urine sed was reevaluated microscopically 5 hrs after the above results were reported. A second tech reported the results with the same results, except 2+ bacteria and no hyaline casts were found. The most probable explanation of the second techs findings is: a. sed was not aggitated b4 prepping slide b. cast dissolved due to decrease in pH c. cast dissolved due to increase of pH d. casts were never present in this specimen

C

A technologist decides to make a 1:20 dilution of CSF. After making the dilution and changing the chambers, the number of cells that are observed in each large square of the hemocytometer is >100. What should the technologist do to obtain the most accurate count? a. Count all four corner squares b. Make a smaller dilution c. Make a larger dilution d. No dilution is necessary

C

A technologist pipetted 200ul of serum in a test tube and added 5 mL of saline to the tube. What is the ratio of serum to the total volume? a. 1:2.5 b. 1:25 c. 1:26 d. 1:50

C

A thin, anaerobic, gram negative bacillus with tapered ends isolated from an empyema was found to be indole positive, lipase negative, and inhibited by 20% bile. Colonies were described as "speckled" or resembling "ground glass" and fluoresced weakly when exposed to ultraviolet light. The most probable identification of this isolate would be: a. Bacteroides sp. b. Prevotella sp. c. Fusobacterium sp. d. Eikenella sp.

C

A urine screen test for porphobilinogen is +. The MOST likely disease state is: a. lead poisoning b. porphyria cutanea tarda c. acute porphyria attack d. erythrocytic protophyria

C

A urine screening test for porphobilinogen is positive. The MOST likely disease state is: a. lead poisoning b. porphyria cutanea tarda c. acute porphyria attack d. erythrocytic protophyria

C

According to AABB standards, 90% of all Platelet Pheresis units tested shall contain how many platelets per uL? a. 5.5*10^10 b. 6.5*10^10 c. 3.0*10^11 d. 5.0*10^11

C

All of the following are possible medical complications for an individual dx with metabolic syndrome, EXCEPT: a. Fatty liver disease b. Renal disease c. Brain tumor d. Sleep apnea

C

Which of the following statements is TRUE for specific gravity measured but the urine chem strip method? a. High concentrations of protein in the urine do not increase the readings b. An alk pH would not affect the SG c. The urine chem strip method is not affected by the presence of xray contrast media in the urine specimen d. They urine chem strip method is based on the fact that light is refracted in proportion to the amount of total solids dissolved in the urine

C

Which of the following statements re: the periph blood smear shown in the photo is TRUE? a. This area is acceptable for a manual diff b. This area is unacceptable for scanning for blast, parasites, fibrin and platelet clumps c. This area is unacceptable for evaluating RBC morph because its too thin d. This area is acceptable for eval. RBC morph

C

Which of the following terms describes a graft between genetically unidentical individuals belonging to the same species? a. autograft b. isograft c. allograft d. xenograft

C

Which one of the following organisms could be used as the positive QC for lecithinase on egg yolk agar: a. B. fragilis b. Fusobacterium necrophorum c. C. perfringens d. C. sporogenes

C

Which substance is used in the Jendrassik-Grof method to accelerate the reaction of unconjugated bilirubin with the diazo reagent? a. NADH b. N-butanol c. Caffeine-benzoate d. Acetic acid

C

Which two inclusions can sometimes be seen in seg. neutrophils? a. Baso stip and Dohle b. auer rods and toxic gran c. toxic gran and Dohle d. auer rods and baso stip

C

Which would be affected by allowing a urine specimen to remain at RT for 3 hr b4 analysis? a. Occult blood b. SG c. pH d. protein

C

In a moderately bloody specimen, 250 cells are counted in 1 primary square, the dilution is 1:100. What is the count? a. 2.5*10^3 b. 2.5*10^4 c. 2.5*10^5 d. 2.5*10^6

C (250*100)/(1*0.1)

What is the GFR for a patient with a serum creatinine of 2mg/dL, if the urine creatinine was 124mg/dL and the urine vol. was 2.2L/24hrs? a. 9.5 mL/min b. 13.6 c. 95 d. 136

C 124*(2200/24*hour/60)/2=94.7

Calc. the red cell indices: RBC = 3.19 x 10^12 Hb = 11.3 Hct = 35% a. MCV = 99, MCH = 38, MCHC = 34 b. MCV = 109, MCH = 36,MCHC = 34 c. MCV = 110, MCH = 35, MCHC = 32 d. MCV = 105, MCH = 38,MCHC = 32

C MCV= 35/3.19=10.97*10=109.7 or 110 MCH = 11.3/3.19 = 3.54*10 = 35.4 MCHC = 11.3/35=0.32*100 = 32

A 10 y/o boy was admitted to the ER with a dx of appendicitis. The labs were: Patient Ref % seg neutr 75 16-60 WBC 200*10^3 5.0-10.0 During surgery the appendix appeared normal; an enlarged node was removed and cultured. Small gram neg rods were isolated from blood agar and MAC. The organisms grew better at RT. The organism is most likely: a. Prevotella melaninogenica b. Shigella sonnei c. Listeria monocytogenes d. Yersinina enterocolitica

D

A 30 y/o man has a painful right knee and a slightly enlarged spleen: HGB 15 Ab. neut count 10 Platlet count 900 Uncorrected retic 1% Cell Morph Normal RC indices slight increase in bands rare meta and myeloctyte giant and bizarre platelets a. congenital spherocytosis b. RA with reactive thrombocytosis c. myelofibrosis d. idiopathic thrombocythemia

D

A 31y/o returned from Africa. He presented as weak with weight loss, abdominal pain, and bloody diarrhea. CBC revealed EOS and anemia. A wet prep showed a 52um by 27 um parasite: a. Enterobius vermicularis b. Giardia duodenalis c. Ascaris lumbricoides d. Trichuris trichiura

D

A 65y/o woman experienced shaking, chills, and a fever of 103 approx 40 min following the transfusion of a second unit of RBC. The most likely explanation? a. Transfusion of bacterially contam. blood b. cong. heart failure due to fluid overload c. anaphylactic trans reaction d. severe febrile trans reaction

D

A GPC isolated from a blood culture has the following characteristics: Optichin neg Bacitracin neg Bile esculin neg Hip hydro pos catalase neg a. S. aureas b. S. pneumonia c. S pyogenes d. S agalactiae

D

A TSI tube inoculated with an organism gave the following reactions: Alk slant Acid Butt No H2S No gas Nonmotile a. Yersinia sp. b. Salmonella sp c. E coli d. Shigella

D

A batch of trichrome-stained slides for ova and parasite exam contains numerous minute crystals which totally obscure the micro field. Which of the following measures is the most appropriate remedial action? a. change the Schaudinns fixative, remove coverslip and restain b. change the acid alcohol and restain c. remove coverslip and remount using fresh Permount or similar medium d. change the iodine alcohol solution to obtain a strong tea colored solution, restain

D

A beta hemolytic, catalase +, GPC is coag neg by the slide of the coag test. Which of the following is the most appropriate action in the ID of this organism? a. report coag neg Staph b. report coag neg S. areus c. reconfirm the hemolytic reaction on a fresh 24 hr culture d. perform a tube coag test to confirm slide test

D

A colorimetric method calls for the use of 0.1mL serum, 0.5mL reagent, and 4.9mL of water. What is the dilution of the serum in the final solution? a. 1:5 b. 1:10 c. 1:50 d. 1:100

D

A gram stained sputum smear revealed 25-50 squam. epi cells and 10-25 PNM leukocytes per 100x field, as well as lancet shaped GPC, many GNR, and many GPC in pairs, clumps and long chains. The best course of action would be: a. inoculate appropriate media and incubate anerobically b. inoculate appropriate media and incubate aerobically c. call the Dr and notify him of this "life threatening" situation d. call the nursing station to request a new specimen

D

A morph feature common to HGB C disease is: a. macrocytosis b. spherocytosis c. rouleaux formation d. target cells

D

A patient has a high cold agglutination titer. Automated cell counter results reveal an elevated MCV, MCH, and MCHC. Individual erythrocytes appear normal on a stained smear, but agglutinates are noted. The appropriate course of action would be to: a. perform the RBC, HGB, and HCT using manual methods b. perform the RBC determination by a manual method, use the automated results for the HGB and HCT c. repeat the determinations using a microsample of diluted blood d. repeat the determinations using a prewarmed specimen

D

A patient with glomerulonephritis would present with the following serum results: a. creatinine decreased b. calcium increased c. phosphorous decreased d. BUN increased

D

A patient with historic AB+ required a type and screen. Gel Results Anti-A pos A1 Cells MF Anti-B pos B Cell MF Anti-D pos a. The back type is correct, the front is incorrect due to manufacturing defect b. An elderly O patient with a weak reaction in the back type due to compromised anti a and b productio c. The front type is correct, the back type can be ignore because its not strong d. The front type is correct and the back may be due to cold agglutinins. Prewarm and retest.

D

When combined antimicrobial drugs are clearly less effective than the most active drug alone, the condition is described as: a. minimal inhibitory concentration b. synergism c. minimum bacteriocidal concentration d. antagonism

D

A traveler is being evaluated for GI pain, fever, and diarrhea. The patient has recently returned from SE Asia. No history of sexual activity or IV drug use, but conditions of poor sanitation. If liver function test results were elevated and bilirubinurea was noted, what would the next logical test be: a. ELISA test for HBsAG b. Recombinant Immunoblot Assay for Hep C c. Western blot for HIV d. ELISA test for Hep A antigens in the stool

D

A unit of RBC is issued at 9am. At 9:10am the unit is returned to the blood bank? The container has NOT been entered, but the unit has NOT been refridgerated during this time. The best course of action is: a. culture the unit for bacterial contamination b. discard the unit if not used within 24 hours c. store the unit at RT d. record the return and place the unit back in inventory

D

A young man is experiencing difficulty breathing after fainting. The Dr orders and arterial blood gas which shows the following: pH 7.25 pCO2 62 pO2 70 HCO3 23 a. Met Alk b. Met Acid c. Resp alk d. Resp acid

D

Absorbance (A) of a solution may be converted to percent transmittance (%T) using the formula: a. 1+ log%T b. 2+ log%T c. 1-log%T d. 2-log%T

D

All of the following are applications of real-time PCR, EXCEPT? a. Microbe ID b. Genotyping HLA components c. ID of DNA sequences d. Amplification of DNA for northern blot

D

Anti-RNA antibodies are often present in individuals having an anti-nuclear antibody immunofluorescent pattern that is: a. speckled b. rim c. diffuse d. nucleolar

D

Antisera Reaction Anti-C + Anti-D + Anti-E + Anti-c + Anti-e + a. R1R1 b. R1r' c. R0R" d. R1R2

D

Each of the following characteristics will differentiate between Listeria monocytogenes and Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae except: a. Hydrolysis of esculin b. Motility c. Catalase d. Fermentation of glucose

D

Elevation in conjugated bilirubin is most likely to be found in which of the following conditions: a. Transfusion reactions b. Erythroblastosis fetalis c. Cirrhosis of the liver d. Biliary obstruction

D

Genes of the MHC: a. Code for HLA-A, B, C only b. are linked to genes in the ABO system c. are the primary genetic sex determinants d. contribute to the coordination of cellular and humoral immunity

D

Haemophilus influenzae becomes resistant to ampicillin when the organism produces a(n): a. capsule of polysaccharide material b. affinity for the beta-lactam ring of the ampicillin c. requirement for hemin d. beta-lactamase

D

In a specimen collected for plasma glucose analysis, sodium fluoride: a. serves as a coenzyme of hexokinase b. prevents reactivity of non glucose reducing substances c. precipitates proteins d. inhibits glycolysis

D

In order for hemoglobin to combine reversibly with oxygen, the iron must be: a. complexed with haptoglobin b. freely circulating in the cytoplasm c. attached to transferrin d. in the ferrous state

D

In serum protein electrophoresis all of the following proteins reside in the band closest to the anodal end EXCEPT: a. Retinol-binding protein (RBP) b. Transthyretin c. Albumin d. Haptoglobin

D

In suspected cases of HDFN, what sig info can be obtained from the baby's blood smear? a. est. of WBC, RBC, and platelet count b. marked increase in immature neutrophils (left shift) c. a diff to estimate the absolute number of lymphs present d. determination of the presence of spherocytes and elevated numbers of NRBC

D

Isoimmunization to platelet antigen (HPA-1a) and the placental transfer of maternal antibodies would be expected to cause newborn: a. erythroblasts b. leukocytosis c. leukopenia d. thrombocytopenia

D

Magnesium carbonate is added in an iron binding capacity determination in order to: a. allow color to develop b. precipitate protein c. bind with hemoglobin iron d. remove excess unbound iron

D

Many microspherocytes, schistocytes and budding off of spherocytes can be seen on peripheral blood smears of patients with: a. hereditary spherocytosis b. DIC c. acquired autoimmune hemolytic anemia d. extensive burns

D

The function of N-acetyl-L-cysteine required in the NALC-NaOH reagent for acid fast digestion-decontamination procedure is to: a. inhibit growth of normal resp flora b. inhibit growth of fungi c. neutralize the sodium hyroxide d. liquefy the mucus

D

The nanometer is used as a measure of: a. absorbance b. % transmittance c. intensity of radiant energy d. wavelengths of radiant energy

D

These results are most consistent with: ALP marked increase ALT slight increase APT slight increase Gamma-Glut marked increase a. acute hep b. osteitis fibrosa c. chronic hep d. obstructive jaundice

D

Thiolycollate broth is stored at RT and in the dark so that: a. ureases are not formed b. the cysteine is not decomposed c. sunlight does not hydrolyze the glucose in the medium d. there is a decrease absorption of oxygen in the medium

D

This electrophoresis pattern is consitant with: Patient Ref Range Total protein 7.3 6.0-8.0 Albumin 4.2 3.6-5.2 Alpha 1 0.0 0.1-0.4 Alpha 2 0.9 0.4-1.0 Beta 0.8 0.5-1.2 Gamma 1.4 0.6-1.6 a. cirrhosis b. monoclonal gammopathy c. polyclonal gammopathy d. alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency

D

UA on 27 y/o SG 1.008 Micro pH 5.0 WBC 20-30 Protein 2+ RBC 30-55 Glu neg Cast Ket neg Hyaline 5-7 Bili neg RBC 2-5 Blood 3+ Coarse 2-3 Nitrite neg waxy 1-3 Leuk pos Uro 0.1 Uric acid crystals mod a. nephritic syndrome b. gout c. bilary obstruction d. chronic renal disease

D

What are the main functions of the DCT? a. Balance hydrogen ions and keep the body pH at 6.8 b. Control aldosterone production and ammonia reabsorption c. Excrete various antibiotics and uric acid d. Maintain water-electrolyte and acid-base balances

D

What is the MOST likely cause of the ABO discrepancy? Anti-A Neg A1 Cells Neg Anti-B Neg B cells 3+ a. Loss of antigen due to diease b. Acquired B c. Low immunoglobulin levels d. Weak subgroup of A

D