Mod 5 Ch 42-46

2. A patient has a serum cholesterol level of 270 mg/dL. The patient asks the nurse what this level means. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. "You have a high risk for coronary artery disease." b. "You have a moderate risk for coronary artery disease." c. "You have a low risk for coronary artery disease." d. "You have no risk for coronary artery disease."

ANS: A A value of 270 mg/dL for serum cholesterol puts the patient at high risk.

4. The nurse is caring for an African-American patient who has been taking a beta blocker to treat hypertension for several weeks with only slight improvement in blood pressure. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss a. adding a diuretic medication. b. changing to an ACE inhibitor. c. decreasing the beta blocker dose. d. doubling the beta blocker dose.

ANS: A African Americans do not respond well to beta blockers and ACE inhibitors, but do tend to respond to diuretics and calcium channel blockers. Changing to an ACE inhibitor or altering the beta blocker dose are not indicated. Hypertension in African-American patients can be controlled by combining beta blockers with diuretics.

8. The nurse is assessing a patient who takes warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse notes a heart rate of 92 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 88/78 mm Hg. To evaluate the reason for these vital signs, the nurse will assess the patient's a. gums, nose, and skin. b. lung sounds and respiratory effort. c. skin turgor and oral mucous membranes. d. urine output and level of consciousness.

ANS: A An increased heart rate followed by a decreased systolic pressure can indicate a fluid volume deficit caused by internal or external bleeding. The nurse should examine the patient's mouth, nose, and skin for bleeding. These vital signs do not indicate a pulmonary problem. Skin turgor and mucous membranes as well as urine output and level of consciousness may be assessed to determine the level of fluid deficit, but finding the source of blood loss is more important. Signs of gastrointestinal bleeding should also be assessed.

9. A patient who has recently had a myocardial infarction (MI) will begin taking clopidogrel (Plavix) to prevent a second MI. Which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order as adjunctive therapy for this patient? a. Aspirin b. Enoxaparin sodium (Lovenox) c. Ticagrelor (Brilinta) d. Warfarin (Coumadin)

ANS: A Aspirin is often used with clopidogrel to inhibit platelet aggregation to increase the effectiveness of this drug. Enoxaparin is used to prevent venous thrombosis. Ticagrelor is similar to clopidogrel and is not used along with clopidogrel. Warfarin is used to prevent thrombosis.

10. A patient who has stable angina pectoris is given nitroglycerin to use as needed. In addition to pharmacotherapy, the nurse will give the patient which instruction? a. Avoid extremes in weather. b. Begin a rigorous exercise program. c. Drink glass of red wine daily. d. Seek medical care at first sign of pain.

ANS: A Avoiding extreme weather conditions is important to help prevent anginal attacks. Patients should be instructed to avoid strenuous exercise; avoid alcohol, which can enhance hypotensive effects of nitrates; and use nitroglycerin at the first sign of pain.

3. A patient begins taking cholestyramine (Questran) to treat hyperlipidemia. The patient reports abdominal discomfort and constipation. The nurse will provide which instruction to the patient? a. Increase fluid and slowly increase fiber intake. b. Stop taking the medication immediately. c. Take an over-the-counter laxative. d. Take the medication on an empty stomach.

ANS: A Cholestyramine can cause gastrointestinal upset and constipation, and these symptoms can be reduced with increased fluids and foods high in fiber. Stopping the medication is not indicated. Over-the-counter laxatives are not recommended until other methods have been tried. Giving the medication on an empty stomach will not relieve the discomfort.

4. A patient has been taking cholestyramine (Questran) to treat hyperlipidemia type II. The patient reports abdominal cramping and constipation. The patient's serum low- density lipoprotein (LDL) has decreased from 170 mg/dL to 110 mg/dL, and triglycerides have not changed from 150 mg/dL since beginning the medication. The provider changes the medication to colesevelam HCl (Welchol).The patient asks the nurse why the medication was changed, and the nurse will explain that colesevelam HCl is ordered for which reason? a. It has fewer side effects. b. It has more convenient dosing. c. It provides greater LDL reduction. d. It provides greater triglyceride reduction.

ANS: A Colesevelam is similar to cholestyramine but has fewer gastrointestinal side effects. This patient has demonstrated good results with the bile acid sequestrant, so the provider needs to offer a preparation with fewer adverse effects. Both drugs are given twice daily.

4. A patient who has received heparin after previous surgeries will be given enoxaparin sodium (Lovenox) after knee-replacement surgery. The patient asks how this drug is different from heparin. The nurse will explain that enoxaparin a. decreases the need for laboratory tests. b. has a shorter half-life than heparin. c. increases the risk of hemorrhage. d. may be taken orally instead of subcutaneously.

ANS: A Enoxaparin is a low-molecular-weight heparin, which produces more stable responses at lower doses, thus reducing the need for frequent lab monitoring. It has a longer half-life than heparin. It decreases the risk of hemorrhage because it is more stable at lower doses. It is given subcutaneously.

6. A patient begins taking nicotinic acid (Niacin) and reports dizziness and flushing of the skin. The nurse will perform which action? a. Contact the provider to discuss decreasing the dose. b. Counsel the patient to increase fluid intake. c. Request an order for renal function tests. d. Schedule the medication to be taken with meals.

ANS: A Flushing of the skin and dizziness are common side effects of nicotinic acid, but with careful drug titration and concomitant use of aspirin, these effects can be minimized. Increasing fluid intake or taking with food does not alter these adverse effects. Nicotinic acid can affect liver enzymes not renal function.

10. The nurse notes a blood pressure of 160/90 mm Hg in a patient taking a thiazide diuretic. The patient reports taking an herbal medication that a friend recommended. Which herbal product is likely, given this patient's blood pressure? a. Ginkgo b. Hawthorne c. Licorice d. St. John's wort

ANS: A Increased blood pressure can result when ginkgo is used in combination with a thiazide diuretic. Hawthorne can potentiate hypotension. Licorice can increase potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. St. John's wort is not listed as an herbal alert substance with thiazide diuretics.

9. The nurse is admitting a patient who has been taking minoxidil (Loniten) to treat hypertension. Prior to beginning therapy with this medication, the patient had a blood pressure of 170/95 mm Hg and a heart rate of 72 beats per minute. The nurse assesses the patient and notes a blood pressure of 130/72 mm Hg and a heart rate of 78 beats per minute, and also notes a 2.2-kg weight gain since the previous hospitalization and edema of the hands and feet. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss which intervention? a. Adding hydrochlorothiazide to help increase urine output b. Adding metoprolol (Lopressor) to help decrease the heart rate c. Increasing the dose of minoxidil to lower the blood pressure d. Restricting fluids to help with weight reduction

ANS: A Minoxidil is a direct-acting vasodilator which can cause sodium and water retention. Combining this drug with a diuretic can help reduce edema by increasing urine output. If the patient were tachycardic, a beta blocker might be added. It is not necessary to increase the minoxidil dose or to restrict fluids.

3. The nurse is teaching a patient about taking hydrochlorothiazide. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I may need extra sodium and calcium while taking this drug." b. "I should eat plenty of fruits and vegetables while taking this medication." c. "I should take care when rising from a bed or chair when I'm on this medication." d. "I will take the medication in the morning to minimize certain side effects."

ANS: A Patients do not need extra sodium or calcium while taking thiazide diuretics. Thiazide diuretics can lead to hypokalemia, so patients should be counseled to eat fruits and vegetables that are high in potassium. Patients can develop orthostatic hypotension and should be counseled to rise from sitting or lying down slowly. Taking the medication in the morning helps to prevent nocturia-induced insomnia.

12. The nurse has just begun administering intravenous streptokinase (Streptase). The nurse assesses vital signs and notes a temperature of 37° C, a heart rate of 70 beats per minute, and a blood pressure of 88/58 mm Hg. The nurse will contact the provider to a. request an adjustment of the streptokinase dose. b. request an order for aminocaproic acid (Amicar). c. request epinephrine to prevent anaphylaxis. d. report potential hemorrhage in this patient.

ANS: A Patients receiving streptokinase may experience hypotension when it is first administered and may require an adjustment in dosage. Aminocaproic acid is used to stop bleeding. Epinephrine is given for anaphylaxis, which is characterized by difficulty breathing. A patient with hemorrhage would typically also have tachycardia.

9. A patient, who has intermittent claudication, has been taking 400 mg of pentoxifylline (Trental) three times daily with meals for 2 weeks. The patient calls the clinic and reports mild flushing, occasional gastrointestinal upset, and continued pain in both legs. How will the nurse advise the patient? a. "Expect side effects to diminish as drug effects increase in several weeks." b. "Notify the provider of the continued pain and request increasing the dose." c. "Take a daily aspirin tablet to enhance the effects of pentoxifylline." d. "Take the medication 1 hour before or 2 hours after a meal."

ANS: A Patients should be counseled that the desired therapeutic effects may take to 3 months. This patient's side effects are mild and therefore do not warrant discontinuing the drug. This patient is receiving the maximum recommended dose. Aspirin is not indicated. Taking the medication with meals and not on an empty stomach minimizes gastrointestinal effects.

11. A patient will begin taking rosuvastatin calcium (Crestor) to treat hyperlipidemia. The patient asks the nurse how to take the medication for best effect. Which statement by the nurse is correct? a. "Increase your fluid intake while taking this medication." b. "Stop taking the medication if you develop muscle aches." c. "Take the medication with food to improve absorption." d. "You may increase dietary fat while taking this medication."

ANS: A Patients taking antihyperlipidemics should be advised to increase fluid intake. It is not necessary to take with food. Patients should never stop taking a statin without consulting the provider. Patients should continue a low-fat diet while taking statins.

10. A patient is taking clopidogrel bisulfate (Plavix). When teaching this patient about dietary restrictions while taking this medication, the nurse will instruct the patient to avoid excessive consumption of which food? a. Garlic b. Grapefruit c. Green, leafy vegetables d. Red meats

ANS: A Patients taking this drug may experience increased bleeding when taken with garlic. There is no restriction for grapefruit as there is with many other medications. Green, leafy vegetables should be restricted in patients taking warfarin. Red meats are not contraindicated.

16. The nurse is preparing to administer a first dose of clopidogrel (Plavix) to a patient. As part of the history, the nurse learns that the patient has a previous history of peptic ulcers, diabetes, and hypertension. The nurse understands it will be necessary to notify the provider and obtain an order for a. a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) medication. b. frequent serum glucose monitoring. c. increased antihypertensive medications. d. nonsteroidal antiinflammatory medications.

ANS: A Patients with a previous history of peptic ulcer are at increased risk for gastric bleeding and should take a PPI or histamine2 blocker to prevent this. There is no indication for increased glucose monitoring or an increase in antihypertensive drugs. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs are contraindicated.

12. A patient has been taking spironolactone (Aldactone) to treat heart failure. The nurse will monitor for a. hyperkalemia. b. hypermagnesemia. c. hypocalcemia. d. hypoglycemia.

ANS: A Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic and can cause hyperkalemia.

5. The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) and notes bruising and petechiae on the patient's extremities. The nurse will request an order for which laboratory test? a. International normalized ratio (INR) b. Platelet level c. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) d. Vitamin K level

ANS: A The INR is the test used most frequently to report prothrombin time results in patients taking warfarin. Warfarin is not an antiplatelet drug, so platelet levels are not indicated. PTT and aPTT are used to monitor heparin therapy. Vitamin K is an antidote for warfarin; levels are not routinely checked.

14. A patient is receiving a thrombolytic medication. The patient calls the nurse to report having bloody diarrhea. The nurse will anticipate administering which medication? a. Aminocaproic acid (Amicar) b. Enoxaparin sodium (Lovenox) c. Protamine sulfate d. Vitamin K

ANS: A The antithrombolytic drug aminocaproic acid is used to treat hemorrhage. Nurses giving thrombolytic drugs should monitor patients for bleeding from the mouth and rectum. Enoxaparin is given for disseminated intravascular coagulation. Protamine sulfate is an antidote for heparin. Vitamin K is an antidote for warfarin.

8. The nurse administers a dose of digoxin (Lanoxin) to a patient who has heart failure and returns to the room later to reassess the patient. Which finding indicates that the medication is effective? a. Decreased dyspnea b. Decreased urine output c. Increased blood pressure d. Increased heart rate

ANS: A The patient should show improvement in breathing and oxygenation. Urine output should increase. Blood pressure and heart rate will decrease.

2. A nursing student asks why the anticoagulant heparin is given to patients who have disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) and are at risk for excessive bleeding. The nurse will explain that heparin is used in this case for which reason? a. To decrease the risk of venous thrombosis b. To dissolve blood clots as they form c. To enhance the formation of fibrous clots d. To preserve platelet function

ANS: A The primary use of heparin for patients with DIC is to prevent venous thrombosis, which can lead to pulmonary embolism or stroke. Heparin does not break down blood clots, enhance the formation of fibrous clots, or preserve platelet function.

15. The nurse is caring for a 70-year-old patient who has recently begun taking amlodipine (Norvasc) 5 mg/day to control hypertension. The nurse notes mild edema of the patient's ankles, a blood pressure of 130/70 mm Hg, and a heart rate of 80 beats per minute. The patient reports flushing and dizziness. The nurse will notify the provider and a. ask to decrease the dose to 2.5 mg/day. b. discuss twice daily dosing. c. request an order for a diuretic. d. suggest adding propranolol to the regimen.

ANS: A This patient is experiencing side effects of the medication. Elderly patients often require lower doses, so the nurse should ask about a dose reduction. Older adults generally require 2.5 to 5.0 mg/day. Twice daily dosing is not recommended. Unless edema persists, a diuretic is not indicated.

11. A patient experiences a blood clot in one leg, and the provider has ordered a thrombolytic medication. The patient learns that the medication is expensive and asks the nurse if it is necessary. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. "The drug will decrease the likelihood of permanent tissue damage." b. "This medication also acts to prevent future blood clots from forming." c. "You could take aspirin instead of this drug to achieve the same effect." d. "Your body will break down the clot, so the drug is not necessary."

ANS: A Thrombolytic medications are given primarily to prevent permanent tissue damage caused by compromised blood flow to the affected area. Thrombolytics do not prevent clots from forming. Aspirin prevents, but does not dissolve, clots. Although the body will break down the clot, the drug is needed to prevent tissue damage due to active ischemia.

6. A patient who takes digoxin to treat heart failure will begin taking a vasodilator. The patient asks the nurse why this new drug has been ordered. The nurse will explain that the vasodilator is used to a. decrease ventricular stretching. b. improve renal perfusion. c. increase cardiac output. d. promote peripheral fluid loss.

ANS: A Vasodilators are given to decrease venous blood return to the heart, resulting in decreased cardiac filling and decreased ventricular stretching, in turn reducing preload, contractility, and oxygen demand on the heart.

1. The nurse teaches a patient about antihypertensive medication. Which statements by the patient indicate understanding of the teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "I should be careful when I stand up from a chair." b. "I should not add extra salt to my foods." c. "If I have side effects, I should stop taking the drug immediately." d. "If my blood pressure returns to normal, I can stop taking this drug." e. "I may need to take a combination of drugs, including diuretics." f. "I will not need to make lifestyle changes since I am taking a medication."

ANS: A, B, E The patient receiving an antihypertensive medication should be warned to rise slowly to avoid orthostatic hypotension. Patients should be counseled to continue to make lifestyle changes, including decreasing sodium. Often, more than one medication is required. Patients should not stop taking the drug abruptly to avoid rebound hypertension and will not stop the drug when blood pressure returns to normal.

6. The nurse is preparing to care for a Native-American patient who has hypertension. The nurse understands that which antihypertensive medication would be most effective in this patient? a. Acebutolol (Sectral) b. Captopril (Capoten) c. Carteolol HCl (Cartrol) d. Metoprolol (Lopressor)

ANS: B Captopril is an angiotensin II inhibitor. Native-American patients do not respond well to beta blockers. Acebutolol, carteolol, and metoprolol are all beta blockers.

18. The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving clopidogrel (Plavix). The patient calls the nurse to report flulike symptoms. The nurse notes a heart rate of 76 beats per minute, a blood pressure of 110/76 mm Hg, and a respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute. The nurse suspects that the patient is experiencing which condition? a. Anaphylaxis b. An expected drug side effect c. Hemorrhage d. Possible myocardial infarction

ANS: B Flulike symptoms are a side effect of clopidogrel. The patient has normal vital signs. Anaphylaxis is characterized by respiratory distress and hypotension. Hemorrhage is characterized by tachycardia and hypotension.

5. The nurse is caring for a patient who develops marked edema and a low urine output as a result of heart failure. Which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient? a. Digoxin (Lanoxin) b. Furosemide (Lasix) c. Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) d. Spironolactone (Aldactone)

ANS: B Furosemide is a loop diuretic and is given when the patient's condition warrants immediate removal of body fluid, as in heart failure. Digoxin improves cardiac function but does not remove fluid quickly. The other diuretics may be used when immediate fluid removal is not necessary.

4. The nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a patient who has heart failure. The patient reports nausea, vomiting, and a headache. The nurse notes a respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute, a heart rate of 58 beats per minute, and a blood pressure of 120/78 mm Hg. What will the nurse do next? a. Administer the next dose as ordered since these are mild side effects. b. Hold the dose and notify the provider of possible digoxin toxicity. c. Reassure the patient that these are common, self-limiting side effects. d. Request an order for an antiemetic and an analgesic medication.

ANS: B Nausea, vomiting, and headache are common signs of digoxin toxicity as is a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. The nurse should hold the dose and notify the provider.

15. A patient asks the nurse why nitroglycerin is given sublingually. The nurse will explain that nitroglycerin is administered by this route for which reason? a. To avoid hypotension b. To increase absorption c. To minimize gastrointestinal upset d. To prevent hepatotoxicity

ANS: B Nitroglycerin is given sublingually to avoid first-pass metabolism by the liver, which would occur if the drug is swallowed. It does not prevent hypotension. Gastrointestinal upset and hepatotoxicity usually do not occur.

7. A patient has been taking atorvastatin (Lipitor) for several months to treat hyperlipidemia. The patient reports muscle weakness and tenderness. The nurse will counsel the patient to a. ask the provider about switching to simvastatin. b. contact the provider to report these symptoms. c. start taking ibuprofen to combat these effects. d. stop taking the medication immediately.

ANS: B Patients taking statins should report immediately any muscle aches or weakness, which can lead to rhabdomyolysis, a muscle disintegration that can become fatal. All statins carry this risk, so changing to another statin is not indicated. Ibuprofen may be useful, but notifying the provider is essential. Patients should not abruptly discontinue statins without discussing this with the provider.

13. The nurse is caring for a patient who will begin taking captopril (Capoten) for hypertension. The nurse reviews the patient's laboratory test results and notes increased BUN and creatinine. Which action will the nurse take? a. Administer the captopril and monitor vital signs. b. Contact the provider to discuss changing to fosinopril (Monopril). c. Obtain an order for intravenous fluids to improve urine output. d. Request an order to add hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL).

ANS: B Patients who have renal insufficiency will not require a decrease in dose with fosinopril, as they would with other angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors. If captopril is given, it should be given in a reduced dose. Increased IV fluids are not indicated.

8. The nurse is performing an assessment on a patient who will begin taking propranolol (Inderal) to treat hypertension. The nurse learns that the patient has a history of asthma and diabetes. The nurse will take which action? a. Administer the medication and monitor the patient's serum glucose. b. Contact the provider to discuss another type antihypertensive medication. c. Request an order for renal function tests prior to administering this drug. d. Teach the patient about the risks of combining herbal medications with this drug.

ANS: B Patients with chronic lung disease are at risk for bronchospasm with beta blockers, especially those like propranolol which are non-selective. Beta blockers, with the exception of carvedilol, also decrease the efficacy of many oral antidiabetic medications. The nurse should discuss a change in medications to one that does not carry this risk.

3. A patient has been receiving intravenous heparin. When laboratory tests are drawn, the nurse has difficulty stopping bleeding at the puncture site. The patient has bloody stools and is reporting abdominal pain.The nurse notes elevated partial thromboplastin time (PTT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). Which action will the nurse perform? a. Ask for an order for oral warfarin (Coumadin). b. Obtain an order for protamine sulfate. c. Request an order for vitamin K. d. Suggest that the patient receive subcutaneous heparin.

ANS: B Protamine sulfate is given as an antidote to heparin when patient's clotting times are elevated. Oral warfarin will not stop the anticoagulant effects of heparin. Vitamin K is used as an antidote for warfarin. Administering heparin by another route is not indicated when there is a need to reverse the effects of heparin.

13. The nurse is caring for a postoperative patient who is receiving alteplase tPA (Activase) after developing a blood clot. The nurse notes a heart rate of 110 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg. The nurse will perform which action? a. Ask the patient about itching or shortness of breath. b. Assess the surgical dressing for bleeding. c. Evaluate the patient's urine output and fluid intake. d. Recheck the patient's vital signs in 15 minutes.

ANS: B Tachycardia and hypotension indicate bleeding. The nurse should check the patient's surgical dressing to assess for bleeding. These signs do not indicate anaphylaxis. They may indicate dehydration, but bleeding is the more likely cause of fluid volume deficit. The nurse should continue to evaluate vital signs, but it is imperative that the nurse assess the patient to explore the potential cause.

3. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has increasing dyspnea and is being evaluated for heart failure (HF). Which test will be ordered to help differentiate between dyspnea due to lung dysfunction and dyspnea due to HF? a. Atrial natriuretic hormone (ANH) level b. Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) level c. Cardiac enzymes d. Electrocardiogram (ECG)

ANS: B The BNP is used to differentiate that dyspnea is due to HF and not lung dysfunction. The other tests will all be a part of the diagnostic workup but do not help with this distinction.

15. The nurse is assessing a patient prior to administering thrombolytic therapy. Which is an important assessment for this patient? a. Determining whether the patient has a history of diabetes b. Finding out about a history of renal disease c. Assessing which medications are taken for discomfort d. Assessing whether the patient eats green, leafy vegetables

ANS: C Patients who take aspirin or nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) should be monitored closely for excessive bleeding when given thrombolytics. There are no contraindications or precautions for patients with diabetes or renal disease. Foods rich in vitamin K are of concern for patients taking warfarin.

12. The nurse is preparing to administer an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor to a patient who has hypertension. The nurse notes peripheral edema and swelling of the patient's lips. The patient has a blood pressure of 160/80 mm Hg and a heart rate of 76 beats per minute. What is the nurse's next action? a. Administer the dose and observe carefully for hypotension. b. Hold the dose and notify the provider of a hypersensitivity reaction. c. Notify the provider and request an order for a diuretic medication. d. Request an order for serum electrolytes and renal function tests.

ANS: B The patient has signs of angioedema which indicates a hypersensitivity reaction. The nurse should hold the dose and notify the provider. Giving the dose will make the reaction more serious. These are not signs of edema, so a diuretic is not indicated. Electrolytes and renal function tests are not indicated.

14. The nurse is caring for a patient who experiences a rapid rise in blood pressure. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss administering which medication? a. Amlodipine (Norvasc) b. Nifedipine (Procardia) c. Nifedipine extended release (Procardia XL) d. Verapamil (Calan)

ANS: B The short-acting nifedipine is used to treat rapid rises in blood pressure but cannot be used for out-patient treatment at high dosages because of an increased risk for sudden cardiac death. The other drugs are not used for rapid rise in BP.

18. The nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a patient who has a serum digoxin level of 2.5 ng/mL. The patient takes 0.25 mg of digoxin per day. What action will the nurse take? a. Administer the next dose as ordered. b. Notify the provider of digoxin toxicity. c. Request an order to decrease the digoxin dose. d. Suggest that the patient may need an increased digoxin dose.

ANS: B The therapeutic range of digoxin is between 0.5 and 2 mg/mL. This patient's level is high, indicating toxicity. The nurse should not give the next dose or request a change in dose.

1. A patient has congestive heart failure and has been taking digoxin (Lanoxin) for 9 years. The patient is admitted with signs and symptoms of digoxin toxicity. Which signs and symptoms are associated with digoxin toxicity? (Select all that apply.) a. Dysuria b. Vomiting c. Tachycardia d. Yellow haloes in the visual field e. Diarrhea f. Insomnia

ANS: B, D, E Vomiting, yellow haloes in the visual field, and diarrhea are classic signs of digoxin toxicity. Bradycardia, not tachycardia, will likely be noted.

5. The nurse understands that a medication such as carvedilol (Coreg) may not be effective in an African-American patient because of its effects on a. cardiac contractility. b. heart rate. c. renin release. d. vascular resistance.

ANS: C African Americans are more likely to be susceptible to low-renin hypertension. Beta blockers reduce heart rate, contractility, and renin release, and there is a greater hypotensive response in patients with higher renin levels. Changes in heart rate, contractility, and vascular resistance explain why there is some response in this group.

11. A patient who has recently begun taking captopril (Capoten) to treat hypertension calls a clinic to report a persistent cough. The nurse will perform which action? a. Instruct the patient to go to an emergency department because this is a hypersensitivity reaction. b. Reassure the patient that this side effect is nothing to worry about and will diminish over time. c. Schedule an appointment with the provider to discuss changing to an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB). d. Tell the patient to stop taking the drug immediately since this is a serious side effect of this drug.

ANS: C An angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, such as captopril, can cause a constant, irritated cough. The cough will stop with discontinuation of the drug, and many patients can switch to an ARB medication. It does not indicate a hypersensitivity reaction. The cough will not diminish while still taking the drug. The patient does not need to stop taking the drug immediately.

3. A patient has a blood pressure of 155/95 mm Hg. The nurse understands that this patient's risk of cardiovascular disease is _____ greater than normal. a. two times b. three times c. four times d. six times

ANS: C Cardiovascular disease (CVD) risk doubles with each increase of 20/10 mm Hg above normal, starting at 115/75 mm Hg. This patient's blood pressure is 40/20 above normal, which increases the risk four times. A blood pressure of 135/85 would be two times greater. The patient's risk would still be four times greater with a blood pressure of 155/70 or 130/95, since systolic and diastolic blood hypertension are each powerful predictors of CVD.

9. A patient has begun taking spironolactone (Aldactone) in addition to a thiazide diuretic. With the addition of the spironolactone, the nurse will counsel this patient to a. continue taking a potassium supplement daily. b. recognize that abdominal cramping is a transient side effect. c. report decreased urine output to the provider. d. take these medications at bedtime.

ANS: C Caution must be used when giving potassium-sparing diuretics to patients with poor renal function, so patients should be taught to report a decrease in urine output. Patients taking potassium-sparing diuretics are at risk for hyperkalemia, so they should not take potassium supplements. Abdominal cramping should be reported to the provider. The medications should be taken in the morning for patients who sleep during the night.

7. The nurse is caring for an 80-year-old patient who has just begun taking a thiazide diuretic to treat hypertension. What is an important aspect of care for this patient? a. Encouraging increased fluid intake b. Increasing activity and exercise c. Initiating a fall risk protocol d. Providing a low potassium diet

ANS: C Older patients experience a higher risk of orthostatic hypotension when taking antihypertensive medications. Fall risk also increases with a need for increased trips to the bathroom. A fall risk protocol should be implemented. Increasing fluids and activity and limiting potassium are not indicated.

11. The nurse is teaching a patient about the use of a transdermal nitroglycerin patch. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "I will apply the patch as needed when I experience anginal pain." b. "I will remove the old patch and replace it with a new one at bedtime each day." c. "I should rotate sites when changing the patch to prevent skin irritation." d. "When I am symptom-free, I may stop using the patch on a regular basis."

ANS: C Patients should be taught to rotate application sites when using the transdermal nitroglycerin. Transdermal nitroglycerin is not used as needed. Patients should remove the patch at bedtime to provide an 8- to 12-hour nitrate-free interval. Patients should use the patch even when symptom-free unless otherwise instructed by the provider.

10. A patient will begin taking simvastatin (Zocor) to decrease serum cholesterol. When teaching the patient about this medication, the nurse will counsel the patient to take which action? a. Return to the clinic annually for laboratory testing. b. Take care when rising from a sitting to standing position. c. Take the medication in the evening for best effect. d. Use ibuprofen as needed for muscle aches and pain.

ANS: C Simvastatin is given in the evening. Laboratory tests are performed every 3 to 6 months, not annually. Statins do not cause postural hypotension. Patients taking statins should report muscle aches and weakness immediately.

5. The nurse is caring for a patient who is taking digoxin to treat heart failure. The patient's electrocardiogram shows a ventricular dysrhythmia. The nurse will notify the provider and will anticipate an order for which medication? a. Digoxin immune Fab (Digibind) b. Furosemide (Lasix) c. Phenytoin (Dilantin) d. Potassium

ANS: C The antidysrhythmics phenytoin and lidocaine are effective in treating digoxin-induced ventricular dysrhythmias. Digoxin immune Fab is used to treat severe digitalis toxicity, characterized by bradycardia, nausea, and vomiting. Unless a potassium deficit is present, giving potassium could worsen the dysrhythmia.

7. The nurse is teaching a patient who will begin taking furosemide. The nurse learns that the patient has just begun a 2-week course of a steroid medication. What will the nurse recommend? a. Consume licorice to prevent excess potassium loss. b. Report a urine output greater than 600 mL/24 hours. c. Obtain an order for a potassium supplement. d. Take the furosemide at bedtime.

ANS: C The interaction of furosemide and a steroid drug can result in an increased loss of potassium. Patients should take a potassium supplement. Patients should avoid licorice while taking furosemide, partially due to the hypokalemic effects of both substances. Urine output greater than 600 mL/24 hours is normal. Patients should take furosemide in the morning to avoid nocturia.

8. The nurse provides teaching to a patient who will begin taking simvastatin (Zocor) to treat hyperlipidemia. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "I may have diarrhea as a result of taking this medication." b. "I may stop taking this medication when my lipid levels are normal." c. "I will need an annual eye examination while taking this medication." d. "I will increase my intake of vitamins A, D, and E while taking this medication.

ANS: C The statins can affect visual acuity, so patients should be counseled to have annual eye examinations for assessment of cataract formation. The bile acid sequestrants, not statins, cause diarrhea. Statin drug therapy is lifelong or until behavioral changes prove equally effective (uncommon). Bile acid sequestrants, not statins, decrease the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins.

1. The nurse is preparing to administer the first dose of hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) 50 mg to a patient who has a blood pressure of 160/95 mm Hg. The nurse notes that the patient had a urine output of 200 mL in the past 12 hours. The nurse will perform which action? a. Administer the medication as ordered. b. Encourage the patient to drink more fluids. c. Hold the medication and request an order for serum BUN and creatinine. d. Request an order for serum electrolytes and administer the medication.

ANS: C Thiazide diuretics are contraindicated in renal failure. This patient has oliguria and should be evaluated for renal failure prior to administration of the diuretic—especially in the absence of known renal failure for this patient. Drinking more fluids will not increase urine output in patients with renal failure.

4. The nurse is caring for a patient who is to begin receiving a thiazide diuretic to treat heart failure. When performing a health history on this patient, the nurse will be concerned about a history of which condition? a. Asthma b. Glaucoma c. Gout d. Hypertension

ANS: C Thiazides block uric acid secretion and elevated levels can contribute to gout. Patients with a history of gout should take thiazide diuretics with caution; they may need behavioral and/or pharmacologic changes to their gout treatment.

6. A patient who is taking warfarin has an international normalized ratio (INR) of 5.5. The nurse will anticipate giving a. fresh frozen plasma. b. intravenous iron. c. oral vitamin K. d. protamine sulfate.

ANS: C Vitamin K is an antagonist against warfarin, an oral anticoagulant. Patients with an INR of 5.5 should be given a low dose of oral vitamin K. Too much vitamin K may reduce the effectiveness of warfarin for up to 2 weeks. Fresh frozen plasma and intravenous iron are given for anemia caused by blood loss. Protamine sulfate is given for heparin overdose.

2. The nurse is preparing to administer doses of hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) and digoxin (Lanoxin) to a patient who has heart failure. The patient reports having blurred vision. The nurse notes a heart rate of 60 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 140/78 mm Hg. Which action will the nurse take? a. Administer the medications and request an order for serum electrolytes. b. Give both medications and evaluate serum blood glucose frequently. c. Hold the digoxin and notify the provider. d. Hold the hydrochlorothiazide and notify the provider.

ANS: C When thiazide diuretics are taken with digoxin, patients are at risk of digoxin toxicity because thiazides can cause hypokalemia. The patient has bradycardia and blurred vision, which are both signs of digoxin toxicity. The nurse should hold the digoxin and notify the provider. Serum electrolytes may be ordered, but the digoxin should not be given.

1. A patient with high cholesterol is ordered to take atorvastatin (Lipitor). What information will be included in the patient teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Dietary management is not a priority with this medication. b. The medication should be taken on an empty stomach. c. The medicine should be taken with a full glass of water. d. The patient should watch for body aches or gastrointestinal upset as side effects. e. The patient should have renal function tests frequently. f. The patient should have liver function tests frequently.

ANS: C, D, F This medication is most effective with careful monitoring of diet. Atorvastatin does not affect renal function.

19. A patient who has Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is given intravenous adenosine (Adenocard). The nurse will explain that the medication is effective because it a. controls atrial flutter. b. deepens myocardial excitability. c. prevents multifocal ventricular contractions. d. prolongs repolarization.

ANS: D Adenosine is a class III drug that prolongs repolarization by increasing the refractory period and prolonging the action potential to slow heart rate. It does not control atrial flutter, deepen myocardial excitability, or prevent multifocal contractions.

2. A patient is diagnosed with heart failure, and the prescriber has ordered digoxin. The patient asks what lifestyle changes will help in the management of this condition. The nurse will recommend which changes? a. Aerobic exercise and weight lifting 2 or 3 times weekly b. Changing from cigarette smoking to pipe smoking c. Consuming 2 teaspoons or less of salt every day d. Having no more than one alcoholic beverage per day

ANS: D Alcohol should either be completely avoided or restricted to no more than one per day. Mild exercise, such as walking, is recommended. All nicotine deprives the heart of oxygen. Salt should be limited to no more than one teaspoon per day.

17. A patient who is taking clopidogrel (Plavix) and aspirin is preparing for orthopedic surgery. The nurse will consult with the surgeon and provide which instruction to the patient? a. Continue taking aspirin and stop taking clopidogrel 2 weeks prior to surgery. b. Continue taking clopidogrel and stop taking aspirin 5 days prior to surgery. c. Continue both medications to prevent thromboembolic events during surgery. d. Stop taking both medications 7 days prior to surgery.

ANS: D Because both drugs can prolong bleeding time, patients should discontinue the drugs 7 days prior to surgery.

12. The nurse is teaching a patient about sublingual nitroglycerin administration. What information will the nurse include when teaching this patient? a. Call 911 if pain does not improve after three doses. b. If pain persists after one dose, administer a second dose. c. Swallow the tablet with small sips of water. d. Take the first tablet while sitting or lying down.

ANS: D Because nitroglycerin can cause hypotension, patients should be cautioned to take them while sitting or lying down. If pain is not better or has worsened 5 minutes after the first dose, patients should call 911. The tablets must dissolve under the tongue and should not be swallowed.

8. The nurse is caring for a patient who has metabolic alkalosis and is experiencing fluid overload. The provider orders acetazolamide (Diamox). The patient reports right-sided flank pain after taking this medication. The nurse suspects that this patient has developed which condition? a. Gout b. Hemolytic anemia c. Metabolic acidosis d. Renal calculi

ANS: D Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, such as acetazolamide, are used to treat patients who are in metabolic alkalosis and need a diuretic. They can cause electrolyte imbalance, metabolic acidosis, hemolytic anemia, and renal calculi. This patient has right-sided flank pain, which occurs with renal calculi.

1. A patient who has atrial fibrillation is taking digoxin. The nurse expects which medication to be given concurrently to treat this condition? a. Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) b. Inamrinone (Inocor) c. Milrinone (Primacore) d. Warfarin (Coumadin)

ANS: D Digoxin is given for atrial fibrillation to restore a normal heart rhythm. To prevent thromboemboli, warfarin is given concurrently. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic medication. Inamrinone and milrinone are inotropic agents that would be used instead of digoxin.

5. A patient is admitted to the hospital, and the provider orders gemfibrozil (Lopid) 600 mg twice daily, 30 minutes prior to meals. The nurse learns that the patient takes warfarin (Coumadin) once daily. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss a. decreasing the dose of gemfibrozil. b. giving the warfarin at noon. c. increasing the dose of warfarin. d. ordering frequent INR levels.

ANS: D Gemfibrozil is highly protein-bound and competes for receptor sites with drugs such as warfarin. The anticoagulant dose should be decreased, and the INR should be closely monitored. Decreasing the dose of gemfibrozil is not recommended. Giving the warfarin at a different time of day does not change this drug interaction. The warfarin dose should be decreased not increased.

13. A patient who uses transdermal nitroglycerin reports having headaches. The nurse will counsel the patient to perform which action? a. Call 911 when this occurs. b. Notify the provider. c. Reapply the patch three times daily. d. Take acetaminophen as needed.

ANS: D Headaches are one of the most common side effects of nitroglycerin, but they may become less frequent; acetaminophen is generally recommended for pain. The headaches are not an emergency, and the patient does not need to call 911 or notify the provider. The patch is applied once daily.

17. A patient who has begun taking nifedipine (Procardia) to treat variant angina has had a recurrent blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg or less. The nurse will anticipate that the provider will a. add digoxin to the drug regimen. b. change to a beta blocker. c. order serum liver enzymes. d. switch to diltiazem (Cardizem).

ANS: D Hypotension is a common effect of calcium channel blockers and is more common with nifedipine. It is less common with diltiazem, so the provider may order that drug. Adding digoxin, changing to a beta blocker, or ordering serum liver enzymes are not indicated.

7. The nurse performs a medication history and learns that the patient takes a thiazide diuretic and digoxin (Lanoxin). The nurse will question the patient to ensure that the patient is also taking which medication? a. Cortisone b. Lidocaine c. Nitroglycerin d. Potassium

ANS: D If a patient is taking digoxin and a potassium-wasting diuretic such as thiazide, the patient should also take a potassium supplement to prevent hypokalemia that could result in digoxin toxicity. It is not necessary to take cortisone, lidocaine, or nitroglycerin unless the patient has symptoms that warrant these drugs.

1. The nurse is caring for a postoperative patient. The nurse will anticipate administering which medication to this patient to help prevent thrombus formation caused by slow venous blood flow? a. Alteplase (Activase) b. Aspirin c. Clopidogrel (Plavix) d. Low-molecular-weight heparin

ANS: D Low-molecular-weight heparin is an anticoagulant, which is used to inhibit clot formation and is used prophylactically to prevent postoperative deep vein thrombosis. Alteplase is a thrombolytic, which is used to break down clots after they form; alteplase is contraindicated in any patient with recent surgery. Aspirin and clopidogrel are antiplatelet drugs and are used to prevent arterial thrombosis.

7. The nurse is teaching a patient who will begin taking warfarin (Coumadin) for atrial fibrillation. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "I should eat plenty of green, leafy vegetables while taking this drug." b. "I should take a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) instead of acetaminophen for pain or fever." c. "I will take cimetidine (Tagamet) to prevent gastric irritation and bleeding." d. "I will tell my dentist that I am taking this medication."

ANS: D Patients taking warfarin should tell their dentists that they are taking the medication because of the increased risk for bleeding. Patients should avoid foods high in vitamin K, which can decrease the effects of warfarin. Patients should not take NSAIDs or cimetidine (Tagamet) because they can displace warfarin from protein-binding sites.

20. The nurse provides teaching for a patient who has a ventricular dysrhythmia who is prescribed acebutolol (Spectral) 200 mg twice daily. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "Diuretics may decrease the effectiveness of this drug." b. "Dizziness, nausea, and vomiting indicate a severe reaction." c. "I should eat fruits and vegetables to increase potassium intake." d. "I should not stop taking this drug abruptly to avoid palpitations."

ANS: D Patients who stop taking this drug abruptly can experience palpitations. Diuretics do not decrease drug effectiveness. Dizziness and nausea and vomiting are common side effects.

10. The nurse is teaching a patient who has hypertension about long-term management of the disease and a beta blocker. The patient reports typically consuming 1 to 2 glasses of wine each evening with meals. How will the nurse respond? a. "Beta blockers and wine cause a reflex hypertension." b. "Four to 6 ounces of wine is considered safe with these medications." c. "Wine in moderation helps you relax and get better blood pressure control." d. "Wine increases the hypotensive effects of the beta blocker."

ANS: D Patients who take beta blockers should avoid all alcohol because it increases the hypotensive effects. It does not cause reflex hypertension.

2. A patient has a blood pressure of 135/85 mm Hg on three separate occasions. The nurse understands that this patient should be treated with a. a beta blocker. b. a diuretic and a beta blocker. c. a diuretic. d. lifestyle changes.

ANS: D Prehypertension is defined as a systolic pressure of 120 to 139 and a diastolic pressure between 80 and 89. Drug therapy is recommended if the blood pressure is greater than 20/10 over the goal, which would be140/90. Prehypertension is generally treated first with lifestyle changes.

9. A patient who has heart failure receives digoxin (Lanoxin) and an angiotension-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. The patient will begin taking spironolactone (Aldactone). The patient asks why the new drug is necessary. The nurse will tell the patient that spironolactone will be given for which reason? a. To enhance potassium excretion b. To increase cardiac contractility c. To minimize fluid losses d. To provide cardioprotective effects

ANS: D Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that blocks production of aldosterone, causing improved heart rate variability and decreased myocardial fibrosis. It is given in congestive heart failure for its cardioprotective effects. Spironolactone does not directly alter cardiac contractility but may slightly decrease contractility if fluid volume is decreased. It is a mild diuretic but is not given in this instance to minimize fluid losses.

1. A female patient has serum lipid levels performed, which reveal a total cholesterol of 285 mg/dL, triglycerides of 188 mg/dL, a low-density lipoprotein (LDL) of 175 mg/dL, and a high-density lipoprotein (HDL) of 40 mg/dL. The patient's blood pressure is 138/72 mm Hg. The nurse may expect the provider to order which medication for this patient? a. Amlodipine and atorvastatin (Caduet) b. Colestipol HCl (Colestid) c. Fenofibrate (TriCor) d. Niacin and lovastatin (Advicor)

ANS: D The combination drug of niacin and lovastatin is indicated for hypercholesterolemia and mixed dyslipidemia. Niacin raises HDL, so would be helpful in this patient who has low HDL. Combination drugs are used to enhance the antihyperlipidemic effect. Amlodipine and atorvastatin in combination are used for patients with hyperlipidemia and elevated blood pressure. Colestipol HCl is used to reduce cholesterol and LDL levels but has no effect on HDL or triglycerides. Fenofibrate is used to treat type IV and V hyperlipidemia, characterized by elevated very-low-density lipoprotein and triglycerides.

6. The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving furosemide (Lasix) and an aminoglycoside antibiotic. The nurse will be most concerned if the patient reports which symptom? a. Dizziness b. Dysuria c. Nausea d. Tinnitus

ANS: D The interaction of furosemide and an aminoglycoside can produce ototoxicity in the patient. Tinnitus is a sign of ototoxicity. Dizziness can occur as a result of diuretic therapy but not necessarily as a result of this combination. Dysuria and nausea are not common signs of these drugs interacting.

14. A patient is ordered to receive a nitrate to relieve stable angina. What side effect(s) will the nurse anticipate in a patient receiving this medication? a. Nausea and vomiting b. Increased blood pressure c. Pruritus and skin rash d. Pounding headache

ANS: D The pounding headache is related to vasodilation of the cerebral vessels. Nitrates decrease blood pressure.

11. The nurse is caring for a patient who is taking hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) and digoxin (Lanoxin). Which potential electrolyte imbalance will the nurse monitor for in this patient? a. Hypermagnesemia b. Hypernatremia c. Hypocalcemia d. Hypokalemia

ANS: D Thiazide diuretics can cause hypokalemia, which enhances the effects of digoxin and can lead to digoxin toxicity. Thiazides can cause hypercalcemia.

16. A patient who has been taking nitroglycerin for angina has developed variant angina, and the provider has added verapamil (Calan) to the patient's regimen. The nurse will explain that verapamil is given for which purpose? a. To facilitate oxygen use by the heart b. To improve renal perfusion c. To increase cardiac contractility d. To relax coronary arteries

ANS: D Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker and is used to relax coronary artery spasm in patients with variant angina. It does not facilitate coronary muscle oxygen use, improve renal function, or increase cardiac contractility.

1. A patient is diagnosed with borderline hypertension and states a desire to make lifestyle changes to avoid needing to take medication. The nurse will recommend which changes? a. Changing from weight bearing exercise to yoga b. Decreased fluid intake and increased potassium intake c. Stress reduction and increased protein intake d. Weight reduction and decreased sodium intake

ANS: D Weight loss decreases the stress on the heart and the afterload. Decreasing salt intake decreases the amount of retained fluid. Changing to yoga from weight-bearing exercise, limiting fluids, and increasing potassium are not indicated. Stress reduction is recommended, but increasing protein is not.