N230 Ch 29 NCLEX practice
The nurse determines that the patient understood medication instructions about the use of a spacer device when taking inhaled medications after hearing the patient state what as the primary benefit? "I will pay less for medication because it will last longer." "More of the medication will get down into my lungs to help my breathing." "Now I will not need to breathe in as deeply when taking the inhaler medications." "This device will make it so much easier and faster to take my inhaled medications."
"More of the medication will get down into my lungs to help my breathing." A spacer assists more medication to reach the lungs, with less being deposited in the mouth and the back of the throat. It does not affect the cost or increase the speed of using the inhaler.
The nurse is teaching a patient how to self-administer ipratropium (Atrovent) via a metered dose inhaler (MDI). Which instruction given by the nurse is most appropriate to help the patient learn the proper inhalation technique? "Avoid shaking the inhaler before use." "Breathe out slowly before positioning the inhaler." "Using a spacer should be avoided for this type of medication." "After taking a puff, hold the breath for 30 seconds before exhaling."
"Breathe out slowly before positioning the inhaler." It is important to breathe out slowly before positioning the inhaler. This allows the patient to take a deeper breath while inhaling the medication, thus enhancing the effectiveness of the dose. The inhaler should be shaken well. A spacer may be used. Holding the breath after the inhalation of medication helps keep the medication in the lungs, but 30 seconds will not be possible for a patient with COPD.
The physician has prescribed salmeterol (Serevent) for a patient with asthma. In reviewing the use of dry powder inhalers (DPIs) with the patient, what instructions should the nurse provide? "Close lips tightly around the mouthpiece and breathe in deeply and quickly." "To administer a DPI, you must use a spacer that holds the medicine so that you can inhale it." "You will know you have correctly used the DPI when you taste or sense the medicine going into your lungs." "Hold the inhaler several inches in front of your mouth and breathe in slowly, holding the medicine as long as possible."
"Close lips tightly around the mouthpiece and breathe in deeply and quickly." The patient should be instructed to tightly close the lips around the mouthpiece and breathe in deeply and quickly to ensure the medicine moves down deeply into the lungs. Dry powder inhalers do not require spacer devices. The patient may not taste or sense the medicine going into the lungs.
The nurse teaches a 33-year-old male patient with asthma how to administer fluticasone (Flovent HFA) by metered-dose inhaler (MDI). Which statement by the patient to the nurse indicates correct understanding of the instructions? "I should not use a spacer device with this inhaler." "I will rinse my mouth each time after I use this inhaler." "I will feel my breathing improve over the next 2 to 3 hours." "I should use this inhaler immediately if I have trouble breathing."
"I will rinse my mouth each time after I use this inhaler." Fluticasone (Flovent HFA) may cause oral candidiasis (thrush). The patient should rinse the mouth with water or mouthwash after use or use a spacer device to prevent oral fungal infections. Fluticasone is an inhaled corticosteroid, and it may take 2 weeks of regular use for effects to be evident. This medication is not recommended for an acute asthma attack.
Which statement made by the patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) indicates a need for further teaching regarding the use of an ipratropium inhaler? "I can rinse my mouth following the two puffs to get rid of the bad taste." "I should wait at least 1 to 2 minutes between each puff of the inhaler." "Because this medication is not fast-acting, I cannot use it in an emergency if my breathing gets worse." "If my breathing gets worse, I should keep taking extra puffs of the inhaler until I can breathe more easily."
"If my breathing gets worse, I should keep taking extra puffs of the inhaler until I can breathe more easily." The patient should not just keep taking extra puffs of the inhaler to make breathing easier. Excessive treatment could trigger paradoxical bronchospasm, which would worsen the patient's respiratory status. Rinsing the mouth after the puffs will eliminate a bad taste. Waiting 1 to 2 minutes between each puff will facilitate the effectiveness of the administration. Ipratropium is not used in an emergency for COPD.
Although a diagnosis of cystic fibrosis is most often made before age 2, an 18-year-old patient at the student health center with a history of frequent lung and sinus infections has clinical manifestations consistent with undiagnosed cystic fibrosis (CF). Which information would be accurate for the nurse to include when teaching the patient about a scheduled sweat chloride test? "Sweat chloride greater than 60 mmol/L is consistent with a diagnosis of CF." "If sweating occurs after an oral dose of pilocarpine, the test for CP is positive." "The test measures the amount of sodium chloride in your postexercise sweat." "If the sweat chloride test is positive on two occasions, genetic testing will be necessary."
"Sweat chloride greater than 60 mmol/L is consistent with a diagnosis of CF." The diagnostic criteria for CF involve a combination of clinical presentation, sweat chloride testing, and genetic testing to confirm the diagnosis. The sweat chloride test is performed by placing pilocarpine on the skin and carried by a small electric current to stimulate sweat production. This takes about 5 minutes, and the patient feels a slight tingling or warmth. The sweat is collected on filter paper or gauze and then analyzed for sweat chloride concentrations (for about 1 hour). Values above 60 mmol/L for sweat chloride are consistent with the diagnosis of CF. However, a second sweat chloride test is recommended to confirm the diagnosis, unless genetic testing identifies a CF mutation. Genetic testing is used if the results from a sweat chloride test are unclear.
A patient has been receiving oxygen per nasal cannula while hospitalized for COPD. The patient asks the nurse whether oxygen use will be needed at home. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse? "Long-term home oxygen therapy should be used to prevent respiratory failure." "Oxygen will not be needed until or unless you are in the terminal stages of this disease." "Long-term home oxygen therapy should be used to prevent heart problems related to COPD." "You will not need oxygen until your oxygen saturation drops to 88% and you have symptoms of hypoxia."
"You will not need oxygen until your oxygen saturation drops to 88% and you have symptoms of hypoxia." . Long-term oxygen therapy in the home will not be considered until the oxygen saturation is less than or equal to 88% and the patient has signs of tissue hypoxia, such as cor pulmonale, erythrocytosis, or impaired mental status. PaO2 less than 55 mm Hg will also allow home oxygen therapy to be considered.
Which test result identifies that a patient with asthma is responding to treatment? An increase in CO2 levels A decreased exhaled nitric oxide A decrease in white blood cell count An increase in serum bicarbonate levels
A decreased exhaled nitric oxide Nitric oxide levels are increased in the breath of people with asthma. A decrease in the exhaled nitric oxide concentration suggests that the treatment may be decreasing the lung inflammation associated with asthma and adherence to treatment. An increase in CO2 levels, decreased white blood cell count, and increased serum bicarbonate levels do not indicate a positive response to treatment in the asthma patient.
The patient has an order for each of the following inhalers. Which one should the nurse offer to the patient at the onset of an asthma attack? Albuterol (Proventil) Salmeterol (Serevent) Beclomethasone (Qvar) Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent)
Albuterol (Proventil) Albuterol is a short-acting bronchodilator that should be given initially when the patient experiences an asthma attack. Salmeterol (Serevent) is a long-acting β2-adrenergic agonist, which is not used for acute asthma attacks. Beclomethasone (Qvar) is a corticosteroid inhaler and not recommended for an acute asthma attack. Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent) is an anticholinergic agent that is less effective than β2-adrenergic agonists. It may be used in an emergency with a patient unable to tolerate short-acting β2-adrenergic agonists (SABAs).
A 45-year-old man with asthma is brought to the emergency department by automobile. He is short of breath and appears frightened. During the initial nursing assessment, which clinical manifestation might be present as an early manifestation during an exacerbation of asthma? Anxiety Cyanosis Bradycardia Hypercapnia
Anxiety An early manifestation during an asthma attack is anxiety because the patient is acutely aware of the inability to get sufficient air to breathe. He will be hypoxic early on with decreased PaCO2 and increased pH as he is hyperventilating. If cyanosis occurs, it is a later sign. The pulse and blood pressure will be increased.
A male patient with COPD becomes dyspneic at rest. His baseline blood gas results are PaO2 70 mm Hg, PaCO2 52 mm Hg, and pH 7.34. What updated patient assessment requires the nurse's priority intervention? Arterial pH 7.26 PaCO2 50 mm Hg Patient in tripod position Increased sputum expectoration
Arterial pH 7.26 The patient's pH shows acidosis that supports an exacerbation of COPD along with the worsening dyspnea. The PaCO2 has improved from baseline, the tripod position helps the patient's breathing, and the increase in sputum expectoration will improve the patient's ventilation.
The nurse, who has administered a first dose of oral prednisone to a patient with asthma, writes on the care plan to begin monitoring for which patient parameters? Apical pulse Daily weight Bowel sounds Deep tendon reflexes
Daily weight Corticosteroids such as prednisone can lead to weight gain. For this reason, it is important to monitor the patient's daily weight. The drug should not affect the apical pulse, bowel sounds, or deep tendon reflexes.
When teaching the patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) about smoking cessation, what information should be included related to the effects of smoking on the lungs and the increased incidence of pulmonary infections? Smoking causes a hoarse voice. Cough will become nonproductive. Decreased alveolar macrophage function Sense of smell is decreased with smoking.
Decreased alveolar macrophage function The damage to the lungs includes alveolar macrophage dysfunction that increases the incidence of infections and thus increases patient discomfort and cost to treat the infections. Other lung damage that contributes to infections includes cilia paralysis or destruction, increased mucus secretion, and bronchospasms that lead to sputum accumulation and increased cough. The patient may already be aware of respiratory mucosa damage with hoarseness and decreased sense of smell and taste, but these do not increase the incidence of pulmonary infection.
The nurse evaluates that nursing interventions to promote airway clearance in a patient admitted with COPD are successful based on which finding? Absence of dyspnea Improved mental status Effective and productive coughing PaO2 within normal range for the patient
Effective and productive coughing Airway clearance is most directly evaluated as successful if the patient can engage in effective and productive coughing. Absence of dyspnea, improved mental status, and PaO2 within normal range for the patient show improved respiratory status but do not evaluate airway clearance.
The nurse is assigned to care for a patient who has anxiety and an exacerbation of asthma. What is the primary reason for the nurse to carefully inspect the chest wall of this patient? Allow time to calm the patient. Observe for signs of diaphoresis. Evaluate the use of intercostal muscles. Monitor the patient for bilateral chest expansion.
Evaluate the use of intercostal muscles. The nurse physically inspects the chest wall to evaluate the use of intercostal (accessory) muscles, which gives an indication of the degree of respiratory distress experienced by the patient. The other options may also occur, but they are not the primary reason for inspecting the chest wall of this patient.
When admitting a patient with a diagnosis of asthma exacerbation, the nurse will assess for what potential triggers (select all that apply)? Exercise Allergies Emotional stress Decreased humidity Upper respiratory infections
Exercise Allergies Emotional stress Upper respiratory infections Although the exact mechanism of asthma is unknown, there are several triggers that may precipitate an attack. These include allergens, exercise, air pollutants, upper respiratory infections, drug and food additives, psychologic factors, and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).
Nursing assessment findings of jugular venous distention and pedal edema would be indicative of what complication of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? Acute respiratory failure Secondary respiratory infection Fluid volume excess resulting from cor pulmonale Pulmonary edema caused by left-sided heart failure
Fluid volume excess resulting from cor pulmonale Cor pulmonale is a right-sided heart failure caused by resistance to right ventricular outflow resulting from lung disease. With failure of the right ventricle, the blood emptying into the right atrium and ventricle would be slowed, leading to jugular venous distention and pedal edema.
Which position is most appropriate for the nurse to place a patient experiencing an asthma exacerbation? Supine Lithotomy High Fowler's Reverse Trendelenburg
High Fowler's The patient experiencing an asthma attack should be placed in high Fowler's position and may need to lean forward to allow for optimal chest expansion and enlist the aid of gravity during inspiration. The supine, lithotomy, and reverse Trendelenburg positions will not facilitation ventilation.
When planning teaching for the patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), the nurse understands that what causes the manifestations of the disease? An overproduction of the antiprotease α1-antitrypsin Hyperinflation of alveoli and destruction of alveolar walls Hypertrophy and hyperplasia of goblet cells in the bronchi Collapse and hypoventilation of the terminal respiratory unit
Hyperinflation of alveoli and destruction of alveolar walls In COPD there are structural changes that include hyperinflation of alveoli, destruction of alveolar walls, destruction of alveolar capillary walls, narrowing of small airways, and loss of lung elasticity. An autosomal recessive deficiency of antitrypsin may cause COPD. Not all patients with COPD have excess mucus production by the increased number of goblet cells.
A 68-year-old patient with bronchiectasis has copious thick respiratory secretions. Which intervention should the nurse add to the plan of care for this patient? Use the incentive spirometer for at least 10 breaths every 2 hours. Administer prescribed antibiotics and antitussives on a scheduled basis. Increase intake to at least 12 eight-ounce glasses of fluid every 24 hours. Provide nutritional supplements that are high in protein and carbohydrates.
Increase intake to at least 12 eight-ounce glasses of fluid every 24 hours. Adequate hydration helps to liquefy secretions and thus make it easier to remove them. Unless there are contraindications, the nurse should instruct the patient to drink at least 3 liters of fluid daily. Although nutrition, breathing exercises, and antibiotics may be indicated, these interventions will not liquefy or thin secretions. Antitussives may reduce the urge to cough and clear sputum, increasing congestion. Expectorants may be used to liquefy and facilitate clearing secretions.
The nurse evaluates that a patient is experiencing the expected beneficial effects of ipratropium (Atrovent) after noting which assessment finding? Decreased respiratory rate Increased respiratory rate Increased peak flow readings Decreased sputum production
Increased peak flow readings Ipratropium is a bronchodilator that should result in increased peak expiratory flow rates (PEFRs).
When teaching the patient with bronchiectasis about manifestations to report to the health care provider, which manifestation should be included? Increasing dyspnea Temperature below 98.6° F Decreased sputum production Unable to drink 3 L low-sodium fluids
Increasing dyspnea The significant clinical manifestations to report to the health care provider include increasing dyspnea, fever, chills, increased sputum production, bloody sputum, and chest pain. Although drinking at least 3 L of low-sodium fluid will help liquefy secretions to make them easier to expectorate, the health care provider does not need to be notified if the patient cannot do this one day.
While teaching a patient with asthma about the appropriate use of a peak flow meter, what should the nurse instruct the patient to do? Keep a record of the peak flow meter numbers if symptoms of asthma are getting worse. Use the flow meter each morning after taking medications to evaluate their effectiveness. Increase the doses of the long-term control medication if the peak flow numbers decrease. Empty the lungs and then inhale quickly through the mouthpiece to measure how fast air can be inhaled.
Keep a record of the peak flow meter numbers if symptoms of asthma are getting worse. It is important to keep track of peak flow readings daily, especially when the patient's symptoms are getting worse. The patient should have specific directions as to when to call the physician based on personal peak flow numbers. Peak flow is measured by exhaling into the flow meter and should be assessed before and after medications to evaluate their effectiveness.
The nurse is evaluating if a patient understands how to safely determine whether a metered dose inhaler (MDI) is empty. The nurse interprets that the patient understands this important information to prevent medication underdosing when the patient describes which method to check the inhaler? Place it in water to see if it floats. Keep track of the number of inhalations used. Shake the canister while holding it next to the ear Check the indicator line on the side of the canister
Keep track of the number of inhalations used. It is no longer appropriate to see if a canister floats in water or not since this is not an accurate way to determine the remaining inhaler doses. The best method to determine when to replace an inhaler is by knowing the maximum puffs available per MDI and then replacing it after the number of days when those inhalations have been used. (100 puffs/2 puffs each day = 50 days)
The nurse supervises a team including another registered nurse (RN), a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN), and unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) on a medical unit. The team is caring for many patients with respiratory problems. In what situation should the nurse intervene with teaching for a team member? LPN/LVN obtained a pulse oximetry reading of 94% but did not report it. RN taught the patient about home oxygen safety in preparation for discharge. UAP report to the nurse that the patient is complaining of difficulty breathing. LPN/LVN changed the type of oxygen device based on arterial blood gas results.
LPN/LVN changed the type of oxygen device based on arterial blood gas results. It is not within the LPN scope to change oxygen devices based on analysis of lab results. It is within the scope of practice of the RN to assess, teach, and evaluate. The LPN provides care for stable patients and may adjust oxygen flow rates depending on desired oxygen saturation levels of stable patients. The UAP may obtain oxygen saturation levels, assist patients with comfort adjustment of oxygen devices, and report changes in patient's level of consciousness or difficulty breathing.
During an assessment of a 45-year-old patient with asthma, the nurse notes wheezing and dyspnea. The nurse interprets that these symptoms are related to what pathophysiologic change? Laryngospasm Pulmonary edema Narrowing of the airway Overdistention of the alveoli
Narrowing of the airway Narrowing of the airway by persistent but variable inflammation leads to reduced airflow, making it difficult for the patient to breathe and producing the characteristic wheezing. Laryngospasm, pulmonary edema, and overdistention of the alveoli do not produce wheezing.
When caring for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), the nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements after noting a weight loss of 30 lb. Which intervention should the nurse add to the plan of care for this patient? Order fruits and fruit juices to be offered between meals. Order a high-calorie, high-protein diet with six small meals a day. Teach the patient to use frozen meals at home that can be microwaved. Provide a high-calorie, high-carbohydrate, nonirritating, frequent feeding diet.
Order a high-calorie, high-protein diet with six small meals a day. Because the patient with COPD needs to use greater energy to breathe, there is often decreased oral intake because of dyspnea. A full stomach also impairs the ability of the diaphragm to descend during inspiration, thus interfering with the work of breathing. For these reasons, the patient with COPD should eat six small meals per day taking in a high-calorie, high-protein diet, with non-protein calories divided evenly between fat and carbohydrate. The other interventions will not increase the patient's caloric intake.
The nurse determines that a patient is experiencing common adverse effects from the inhaled corticosteroid beclomethasone (Beclovent) after what occurs? Hypertension and pulmonary edema Oropharyngeal candidiasis and hoarseness Elevation of blood glucose and calcium levels Adrenocortical dysfunction and hyperglycemia
Oropharyngeal candidiasis and hoarseness Oropharyngeal candidiasis and hoarseness are common adverse effects from the use of inhaled corticosteroids because the medication can lead to overgrowth of organisms and local irritation if the patient does not rinse the mouth following each dose.
When teaching the patient with cystic fibrosis about the diet and medications, what is the priority information to be included in the discussion? Fat soluble vitamins and dietary salt should be avoided. Insulin may be needed with a diabetic diet if diabetes mellitus develops. Pancreatic enzymes and adequate fat, calories, protein, and vitamins are needed. Distal intestinal obstruction syndrome (DIOS) can be treated with increased water.
Pancreatic enzymes and adequate fat, calories, protein, and vitamins are needed. The patient must take pancreatic enzymes before each meal and snack and adequate fat, calories, protein, and vitamins should be eaten. Fat-soluble vitamins are needed because they are malabsorbed with the excess mucus in the gastrointestinal system. Insulin may be needed, but there is no longer a diabetic diet, and this is not priority information at this time. DIOS develops in the terminal ileum and is treated with balanced polyethylene glycol electrolyte solution (MiraLAX) to thin bowel contents.
The nurse teaches pursed lip breathing to a patient who is newly diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The nurse reinforces that this technique will assist respiration by which mechanism? Loosening secretions so that they may be coughed up more easily Promoting maximal inhalation for better oxygenation of the lungs Preventing bronchial collapse and air trapping in the lungs during exhalation Increasing the respiratory rate and giving the patient control of respiratory patterns
Preventing bronchial collapse and air trapping in the lungs during exhalation The purpose of pursed lip breathing is to slow down the exhalation phase of respiration, which decreases bronchial collapse and subsequent air trapping in the lungs during exhalation. It does not affect secretions, inhalation, or increase the rate of breathing.
The nurse determines that the patient is not experiencing adverse effects of albuterol (Proventil) after noting which patient vital sign? Pulse rate of 72/minute Temperature of 98.4° F Oxygen saturation 96% Respiratory rate of 18/minute
Pulse rate of 72/minute Albuterol is a β2-agonist that can sometimes cause adverse cardiovascular effects. These would include tachycardia and angina. A pulse rate of 72 indicates that the patient did not experience tachycardia as an adverse effect.
The nurse is assisting a patient to learn self-administration of beclomethasone, two puffs inhaled every 6 hours. What should the nurse explain as the best way to prevent oral infection while taking this medication? Chew a hard candy before the first puff of medication. Rinse the mouth with water before each puff of medication. Ask for a breath mint following the second puff of medication. Rinse the mouth with water following the second puff of medication.
Rinse the mouth with water following the second puff of medication. Because beclamethosone is a corticosteroid, the patient should rinse the mouth with water following the second puff of medication to reduce the risk of fungal overgrowth and oral infection.
The nurse is assigned to care for a patient in the emergency department admitted with an exacerbation of asthma. The patient has received a β-adrenergic bronchodilator and supplemental oxygen. If the patient's condition does not improve, the nurse should anticipate what as the most likely next step in treatment? IV fluids Biofeedback therapy Systemic corticosteroids Pulmonary function testing
Systemic corticosteroids Systemic corticosteroids speed the resolution of asthma exacerbations and are indicated if the initial response to the β-adrenergic bronchodilator is insufficient. IV fluids may be used, but not to improve ventilation. Biofeedback therapy and pulmonary function testing may be used after recovery to assist the patient and monitor the asthma.
The nurse is caring for a 48-year-old male patient admitted for exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The patient develops severe dyspnea at rest, with a change in respiratory rate from 26 breaths/minute to 44 breaths/minute. Which action by the nurse would be the most appropriate? Have the patient perform huff coughing. Perform chest physiotherapy for 5 minutes. Teach the patient to use pursed-lip breathing. Instruct the patient in diaphragmatic breathing.
Teach the patient to use pursed-lip breathing. Pursed-lip breathing (PLB) prolongs exhalation and prevents bronchiolar collapse and air trapping. PLB is simple and easy to teach and learn. It also gives the patient more control over breathing. Evidence from controlled studies does not support the use of diaphragmatic breathing in patients with COPD. Diaphragmatic breathing results in hyperinflation because of increased fatigue and dyspnea and abdominal paradoxical breathing rather than with normal chest wall motion. Chest physiotherapy (percussion and vibration) is used primarily for patients with excessive bronchial secretions who have difficulty clearing them. Huff coughing is a technique that helps patients with COPD to use a forced expiratory technique to clear secretions.
A patient with an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) needs to receive precise amounts of oxygen. Which equipment should the nurse prepare to use? Oxygen tent Venturi mask Nasal cannula Oxygen-conserving cannula
Venturi mask The Venturi mask delivers precise concentrations of oxygen and should be selected whenever this is a priority concern. The other methods are less precise in terms of amount of oxygen delivered.
Before discharge, the nurse discusses activity levels with a 61-year-old patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and pneumonia. Which exercise goal is most appropriate once the patient is fully recovered from this episode of illness? Slightly increase activity over the current level. Swim for 10 min/day, gradually increasing to 30 min/day. Limit exercise to activities of daily living to conserve energy. Walk for 20 min/day, keeping the pulse rate less than 130 beats/min.
Walk for 20 min/day, keeping the pulse rate less than 130 beats/min. The patient will benefit from mild aerobic exercise that does not stress the cardiorespiratory system. The patient should be encouraged to walk for 20 min/day, keeping the pulse rate less than 75% to 80% of maximum heart rate (220 - patient's age).
The nurse is caring for a patient with an acute exacerbation of asthma. Following initial treatment, what finding indicates to the nurse that the patient's respiratory status is improving? Wheezing becomes louder. Cough remains nonproductive. Vesicular breath sounds decrease. Aerosol bronchodilators stimulate coughing.
Wheezing becomes louder. The primary problem during an exacerbation of asthma is narrowing of the airway and subsequent diminished air exchange. As the airways begin to dilate, wheezing gets louder because of better air exchange. Vesicular breath sounds will increase with improved respiratory status. After a severe asthma exacerbation, the cough may be productive and stringy. Coughing after aerosol bronchodilators may indicate a problem with the inhaler or its use.
The nurse identifies the nursing diagnosis of activity intolerance for a patient with asthma. In patients with asthma, the nurse assesses for which etiologic factor for this nursing diagnosis? Work of breathing Fear of suffocation Effects of medications Anxiety and restlessness
Work of breathing When the patient does not have sufficient gas exchange to engage in activity, the etiologic factor is often the work of breathing. When patients with asthma do not have effective respirations, they use all available energy to breathe and have little left over for purposeful activity. Fear of suffocation, effects of medications or anxiety, and restlessness are not etiologies for activity intolerance for a patient with asthma.
