NASM practice test 6

How much fluid is recommended for rehydration after an intense training session or event? 12 to 15 ounces of fluid 1.25 times the amount of body weight lost during the activity Twice the amount of body weight lost during the activity 2 to 3 liters of fluid

1.25 times the amount of body weight lost during the activity

How many calories are in 1 gram of protein? 2 6 4 9

4

What are the two divisions of the skeletal system? Upper and lower Anterior and posterior Axial and appendicular Osteoclasts and osteoblasts

Axial and appendicular

Which of the following is the best example of a complete protein source? Grains Beans Dairy foods Legumes

Dairy foods

What is the concept used to describe the action of muscles that have the ability to contract automatically in anticipation of movement? Synergist function Antagonist function Feedback Feed-forward

Feed-forward

Which of the following force couples is accurately linked to the movement created by their combined action? Deltoid and rotator cuff functioning to create shoulder adduction The gastrocnemius and soleus functioning to create ankle dorsiflexion Upper trapezius and serratus anterior functioning to create downward rotation of the scapula Internal and external obliques functioning to create trunk rotation

Internal and external obliques functioning to create trunk rotation

Why is third-party verification important? It shows which supplements to trust. It is required for a supplement to be put on the market. It provides unbiased testing for a product. It sets regulations regarding illegal ingredients.

It provides unbiased testing for a product.

Which subsystem is responsible for providing both frontal plane mobility and stabilization of the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex? Posterior oblique subsystem Deep longitudinal subsystem Anterior oblique subsystem Lateral subsystem

Lateral subsystem

The B vitamins have a primary role in what? Hydration Muscle contraction Macronutrient metabolism Cancer prevention

Macronutrient metabolism

What is adaptive thermogenesis? Adaptations to exercise due to changes in energy intake Changes in energy intake due to changes in energy expenditure Metabolic adaptations and changes in energy expenditure due to changes in energy intake Increased heat production due to changes in energy expenditure

Metabolic adaptations and changes in energy expenditure due to changes in energy intake

Which type of lipids are considered to be heart-healthy and associated with reduced inflammation? Omega-6 fatty acids Monounsaturated fats Omega-3 fatty acids Polyunsaturated fats

Omega-3 fatty acids

What term is used to describe the concept of how the functioning of one body segment can impact other areas of the body? Regional interdependence Biomechanics Osteokinematics Kinesiology

Regional interdependence

What movement term is used to describe the concept of adducting the shoulder blades so that they become closer together? Scapular protraction Scapular retraction Scapular depression Scapular elevation

Scapular retraction

The upper trapezius works with what muscle as a force couple to create upward rotation of the scapula? Rhomboids Serratus anterior Deltoid Rotator cuff muscles

Serratus anterior

What are the three pathways through which the body can produce ATP? The ATP-PC system, digestion, and oxidative phosphorylation The ATP-PC system, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation Ketosis, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation Phosphorylation, glycolysis, and the electron transport chain

The ATP-PC system, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation

Which of the following examples describes a muscle that is functioning as an antagonist? The serratus anterior being active during shoulder flexion The infraspinatus being active during shoulder external rotation The transversus abdominus being active during hip extension The biceps brachii being active during elbow extension

The biceps brachii being active during elbow extension

What is explained by the sliding filament theory? The Z-lines moving farther apart The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction The lengthening of a sarcomere after a muscle contraction The actin pulling the myosin toward the center of the sarcomere

The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction

Which of the following best describes the role of micronutrients in the body? They are the primary energy source during short, high-intensity training. They provide some calories, and they are required for the regulation of muscle protein synthesis and glucose metabolism. They regulate various metabolic processes, including energy metabolism. They are the primary source of energy for all physiologic processes.

They regulate various metabolic processes, including energy metabolism.

What step height is used for the YMCA 3-minute step test? Select one: a. 12 inches b. 16 inches c. 14 inches d. 10 inches

a. 12 inches

Which type of nerve receptor senses pain? Select one: a. Nociceptor b. Mechanoreceptor c. Neurotransmitter d. Action potential

a. Nociceptor

A hypertensive client is taking a beta-blocker medication. What is the most appropriate method to monitor exercise intensity? Select one: a. Metabolic Equivalent (MET) Incorrect b. The talk test c. Haskell's 220-minus-age formula d. The Tanaka formula

b. The talk test

Which of the following blood pressure readings would classify an individual as having stage 1 hypertension? Select one: a. 124/80 mm Hg b. 143/92 mm Hg c. 135/80 mm Hg d. 118/78 mm Hg

c. 135/80 mm Hg

Circuit training is best described as what? Select one: a. Taking two modalities and combining them into one exercise movement, such as placing the hands on a balance tool while performing a suspended crunch b. Exercises that are performed back-to-back with no rest between each movement c. A full-body program that incorporates high-intensity aerobic conditioning, muscular strength, and endurance training movements d. A system of handing straps that allows the user to use their own body weight to load exercise movements

c. A full-body program that incorporates high-intensity aerobic conditioning, muscular strength, and endurance training movements

What percentage of alpha-linolenic acid (ALA) converts to a biologically available form called eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA)? Select one: a. About 30% b. About 50% c. About 5-15% d. About 90%

c. About 5-15%

What might a Certified Personal Trainer do for someone in the precontemplation stage of change? Select one: a. Help them identify barriers to exercise b. Tell them to exercise with a friend c. Provide them with education and knowledge d. Encourage them to make plans to exercise

c. Provide them with education and knowledge

What are the two primary actions of the Golgi tendon organ? Select one: a. Sense the amount of isometric tendon force and speed of shortening b. Sense the change in muscle contraction and the speed of the nerve impulse c. Sense change in muscle-tendon tension and speed of tension change d. Sense the amount of eccentric tendon force and joint range of motion

c. Sense change in muscle-tendon tension and speed of tension change

What is the primary function of the local muscles of the core? Select one: a. Transfer load between the upper and lower extremities b. Generate large amounts of force during trunk movement c. Stabilize vertebral segments d. Move the trunk

c. Stabilize vertebral segments

What is the primary function of the large intestine? Absorption of food and passage of waste into the small intestine Digestion of food and passage of waste into the rectum Digestion of food and passage of waste into the small intestine Absorption of food and passage of waste into the rectum

Absorption of food and passage of waste into the rectum

Which scenario best demonstrates companionship support? Select one: a. Coordinating group events that are centered around physical activities b. Taking someone shopping to purchase attire for exercise c. Making time to talk to clients about how their exercise program is going d. Creating handouts for clients that cover topics about fitness and wellness

a. Coordinating group events that are centered around physical activities

What is the primary function of the global muscles of the core? Select one: a. Force production during dynamic whole-body movements b. Limiting strain on the vertebral discs c. Stabilize individual vertebral segments d. Limit excessive compression between vertebral segments

a. Force production during dynamic whole-body movements

What is defined as the state of elevated glucose in the bloodstream? Select one: a. Hyperglycemia b. Hypertension c. Hypoglycemia d. Hypotension

a. Hyperglycemia

What is the finished hand position when performing the ball cobra exercise? Select one: a. Thumbs pointing up b. Palms facing down c. Palms facing each other d. Thumbs pointing down

a. Thumbs pointing up

What best defines a Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q+)? Select one: a. A screening where the results indicate a need for medical clearance, when one is not, in fact, needed b. A detailed questionnaire designed to assess an individual's physical readiness to engage in structured exercise c. A screening tool used to evaluate the benefits and the risks associated with starting any type of exercise that is strenuous in nature d. A questionnaire with lists of questions that pertain to health history and habits, such as exercise history, eating behaviors, and general lifestyle

b. A detailed questionnaire designed to assess an individual's physical readiness to engage in structured exercise

Overactive hip flexors may lead to which of the following postural compensations? Select one: a. Posterior tilting of the pelvis and a decreased low-back arch b. Anterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch c. Anterior tilting of the pelvis and a decreased low-back arch d. Posterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch

b. Anterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch

What is the process in which neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles? Select one: a. Reciprocal inhibition b. Autogenic inhibition c. Stretch reflex d. Isometric contraction

b. Autogenic inhibition

Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the global muscles of the core? Select one: a. Medicine ball overhead throw b. Back extension c. Plank d. Dead bug

b. Back extension

What term would be used to describe the starting point of an individual's fitness level directly after an assessment has been conducted? Select one: a. Transformation phase b. Baseline value c. Set point d. Action phase

b. Baseline value

What condition is characterized by the narrowing of coronary arteries? Select one: a. Hypertension b. Ischemic heart disease c. Arrhythmia d. Heart valve problem

b. Ischemic heart disease

Identify a movement limitation for an individual who walks or runs on a treadmill if he or she presents with an anterior pelvic tilt. Select one: a. Limitations to hip extension may reduce low-back extension which can decrease ventilation. b. Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back. c. Limitations to hip flexion may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back. d. Limitations to hip flexion may reduce low-back extension which can decrease ventilation.

b. Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back.

What part of a SMART goal involves being able to track progress? Select one: a. Attainable b. Measurable c. Timely d. Specific

b. Measurable

Which of the following modality/exercise combinations provides the most demands on explosive power? Select one: a. Barbell squat b. Medicine ball chest pass c. Sandbag step-up d. Terra-Core push-up

b. Medicine ball chest pass

A client performs a heavy squat exercise followed by a set of squat jumps. What type of resistance training system is being used? Select one: a. Giant set b. Pyramid system c. Complex training d. Drop set

c. Complex training

Which of the following is characterized as a global muscle of the core on the posterior aspect of the body? Select one: a. Diaphragm b. Quadratus lumborum c. Erector spinae d. Multifidus

c. Erector spinae

Scoliosis refers to deviations of the spine in which plane of motion? Select one: a. Horizontal plane b. Sagittal plane c. Frontal plane d. Transverse plane

c. Frontal plane

Which of the following effects may be experienced with overtraining? Select one: a. Elevated levels of cortisol, which lead to an anabolic environment b. Lower levels of cortisol, which lead to an anabolic environment c. High levels of cortisol, which lead to a catabolic environment d. Low levels of cortisol, which lead to an environment that is catabolic

c. High levels of cortisol, which lead to a catabolic environment

During a squat, which muscle group isometrically contracts to prevent unnecessary thigh movement in the frontal plane? Select one: a. Hip flexors b. Hip internal rotators c. Hip abductors d. Hip extensors

c. Hip abductors

Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Hamstrings complex b. Gluteus maximus c. Hip flexors d. Gluteus medius

c. Hip flexors

Which of the following phases does not reflect the traditional components of cardiorespiratory training? Select one: a. Warm-up phase b. Cool-down phase c. Interval phase d. Conditioning phase

c. Interval phase

What is the ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1)? Select one: a. The point at which the body uses mostly protein as fuel for exercise b. The point at which the body switches to using mostly fat as fuel for exercise c. The point at which the body switches to using carbohydrates to provide at least half the fuel for exercise d. The point at which a person can no longer talk during exercise

c. The point at which the body switches to using carbohydrates to provide at least half the fuel for exercise

You have a client seeking weight loss. What is the most appropriate amount of rest recommended between each repetition of an SAQ exercise? Select one: a. 0 to 15 seconds b. 90 to 120 seconds c. 60 to 90 seconds d. 15 to 60 seconds

d. 15 to 60 seconds

What are the fat-soluble vitamins? Select one: a. A, B12, C, and D b. B12, B6, and C c. C, D, and K d. A, D, E, and K

d. A, D, E, and K

What mechanism is responsible for increasing the rate of heart conduction? Select one: a. Activation of the parasympathetic nervous system b. Activation of the intercalated discs c. Activation of sarcomeres d. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system

d. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system

What is the superior boundary of the core? Select one: a. Lumbar spine and gluteal muscles b. Abdominal muscles c. Pelvic floor and hip musculature d. Diaphragm

d. Diaphragm

What muscles work with the obliques will assist a client in completing a standing cable rotation movement? Select one: a. Latissimus dorsi b. Gluteus medius c. Rectus abdominis d. Erector spinae

d. Erector spinae

Which component of blood is primarily responsible for transporting oxygenated blood throughout the body? Select one: a. Plasma b. White blood cells c. Platelets d. Red blood cells

d. Red blood cells

A client is taking prescription beta-blockers for hypertension. Which exercise is the safest for him to perform? Select one: a. Knee-up b. Reverse crunch c. Floor bridge d. Standing cobra

d. Standing cobra

Proprioception is best described as which of the following statements? Select one: a. The resistance to the external disruptions to one's postural equilibrium b. The brain's positional awareness of the limbs, head, and trunk both at rest and in movement c. Awareness of the body's position as it moves through multiple planes of motion d. The body's ability to sense body position and limb movements

d. The body's ability to sense body position and limb movements

Which of the following describes attitude? Select one: a. A person's confidence in their ability to meet their goal b. The belief that an important person or persons will support a behavior c. A construct that captures motivational factors that influence behavior d. The degree to which a person has a favorable or unfavorable evaluation of a behavior

d. The degree to which a person has a favorable or unfavorable evaluation of a behavior

Which physiological systems comprise the human movement system (HMS)? Select one: a. These are not the physiological systems that comprise the HMS. b. The sight, hearing, and taste systems c. The vision, vestibular, and somatosensory systems d. The muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems

d. The muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems

What is cardiac output? Select one: a. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per beat or contraction b. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction c. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction d. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute

d. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute

Which regions of the spine demonstrate kyphotic curves? Select one: a. Thoracic and lumbar b. Cervical and sacral c. Cervical and thoracic d. Thoracic and sacral

d. Thoracic and sacral