NCLEX Practice

Nursing staff members are sitting in the lounge taking their morning break. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) tells the group that she thinks that the unit secretary has acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) and proceeds to tell the nursing staff that the secretary probably contracted the disease from her husband, who is supposedly a drug addict. The registered nurse should inform the UAP that making this accusation has violated which legal tort? 1. Libel 2. Slander 3. Assault 4. Negligence

2 Slander Rationale: Defamation is a false communication or a careless disregard for the truth that causes damage to someone's reputation, either in writing (libel) or verbally (slander). An assault occurs when a person puts another person in fear of a harmful or offensive contact. Negligence involves the actions of professionals that fall below the standard of care for a specific professional group. Test-Taking Strategy: Note the subject, the legal tort violated. Focus on the data in the question and eliminate options 3 and 4 first because their definitions are unrelated to the data. Recalling that slander constitutes verbal defamation will direct you to the correct option from the remaining options.

The nurse is reading a health care provider's (HCP's) progress notes in the client's record and reads that the HCP has documented "insensible fluid loss of approximately 800 mL daily." The nurse makes a notation that insensible fluid loss occurs through which type of excretion? 1. Urinary output 2. Wound drainage 3. Integumentary output 4. The gastrointestinal tract

3 Integumentary output Rationale: Insensible losses may occur without the person's awareness. Insensible losses occur daily through the skin and the lungs. Sensible losses are those of which the person is aware, such as through urination, wound drainage, and gastrointestinal tract losses. Test-Taking Strategy: Note that the subject of the question is insensible fluid loss. Note that urination, wound drainage, and gastrointestinal tract losses are comparable or alike in that they can be measured for accurate output. Fluid loss through the skin cannot be measured accurately; it can only be approximated.

The nurse manager has implemented a change in the method of the nursing delivery system from functional to team nursing. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is resistant to the change and is not taking an active part in facilitating the process of change. Which is the best approach in dealing with the UAP? 1. Ignore the resistance. 2. Exert coercion on the UAP. 3. Provide a positive reward system for the UAP. 4. Confront the UAP to encourage verbalization of feelings regarding the change.

4 Confront the UAP to encourage verbalization of feelings regarding the change. Rationale: Confrontation is an important strategy to meet resistance head-on. Face-to-face meetings to confront the issue at hand will allow verbalization of feelings, identification of problems and issues, and development of strategies to solve the problem. Option 1 will not address the problem. Option 2 may produce additional resistance. Option 3 may provide a temporary solution to the resistance, but will not address the concern specifically. Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word, best. Options 1 and 2 can be eliminated first because of the words ignore in option 1 and coercion in option 2. From the remaining options, select the correct option over option 3 because the correct option specifically addresses problem-solving measures.

Which client is at risk for the development of a sodium level at 130 mEq/L (130 mmol/L)? 1. The client who is taking diuretics 2. The client with hyperaldosteronism 3. The client with Cushing's syndrome 4. The client who is taking corticosteroids

1 . The client who is taking diuretics Rationale: The normal serum sodium level is 135 to 145 mEq/L (135 to 145 mmol/L). A serum sodium level of 130 mEq/L (130 mmol/L) indicates hyponatremia. Hyponatremia can occur in the client taking diuretics. The client taking corticosteroids and the client with hyperaldosteronism or Cushing's syndrome are at risk for hypernatremia. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the causes of a sodium level of 130 mEq/L (130 mmol/L). First, determine that the client is experiencing hyponatremia. Next, you must know the causes of hyponatremia to direct you to the correct option. Also, recall that when a client takes a diuretic, the client loses fluid and electrolytes.

The nurse calls the healthcare provider (HCP) regarding a new medication prescription because the dosage prescribed is higher than the recommended dosage. The nurse is unable to locate the HCP, and the medication is due to be administered. Which action should the nurse take? 1. Contact the nursing supervisor. 2. Administer the dose prescribed. 3. Hold the medication until the HCP can be contacted. 4. Administer the recommended dose until the HCP can be located.

1 Contact the nursing supervisor. Rationale: If the HCP writes a prescription that requires clarification, the nurse's responsibility is to contact the HCP. If there is no resolution regarding the prescription because the HCP cannot be located or because the prescription remains as it was written after talking with the HCP, the nurse should contact the nurse manager or nursing supervisor for further clarification as to what the next step should be. Under no circumstances should the nurse proceed to carry out the prescription until obtaining clarification. Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate options 2 and 4 first because they are comparable or alike and are unsafe actions. Holding the medication can result in client injury. The nurse needs to take action. The correct option clearly identifies the required action in this situation.

The nurse reviews a client's laboratory report and notes that the client's serum phosphorus (phosphate) level is 1.8 mg/dL (0.45 mmol/L). Which condition most likely caused this serum phosphorus level? 1. Malnutrition 2. Renal insufficiency 3. Hypoparathyroidism 4. Tumor lysis syndrome

1 Malnutrition Rationale: The normal serum phosphorus (phosphate) level is 3.0 to 4.5 mg/dL (0.97 to 1.45 mmol/L). The client is experiencing hypophosphatemia. Causative factors relate to malnutrition or starvation and the use of aluminum hydroxide-based or magnesium-based antacids. Renal insufficiency, hypoparathyroidism, and tumor lysis syndrome are causative factors of hyperphosphatemia. Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words, most likely. Focus on the subject, a serum phosphorus level of 1.8 mg/dL (0.45 mmol/L). First, you must determine that the client is experiencing hypophosphatemia. From this point, think about the effects of phosphorus on the body and recall the causes of hypophosphatemia in order to answer correctly.

The nurse is assessing a client with a suspected diagnosis of hypocalcemia. Which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect to note in the client? 1. Twitching 2. Hypoactive bowel sounds 3. Negative Trousseau's sign 4. Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes

1 Twitching Rationale: The normal serum calcium level is 9 to 10.5 mg/dL (2.25 to 2.75 mmol/L). A serum calcium level lower than 9 mg/dL (2.25 mmol/L) indicates hypocalcemia. Signs of hypocalcemia include paresthesias followed by numbness, hyperactive deep tendon reflexes, and a positive Trousseau's or Chvostek's sign. Additional signs of hypocalcemia include increased neuromuscular excitability, muscle cramps, twitching, tetany, seizures, irritability, and anxiety. Gastrointestinal symptoms include increased gastric motility, hyperactive bowel sounds, abdominal cramping, and diarrhea. Test-Taking Strategy: Note that the three incorrect options are comparable or alike in that they reflect a hypoactivity. The option that is different is the correct option.

Potassium chloride intravenously is prescribed for a client with hypokalemia. Which actions should the nurse take to plan for preparation and administration of the potassium? Select all that apply. 1. Obtain an intravenous (IV) infusion pump. 2. Monitor urine output during administration. 3. Prepare the medication for bolus administration. 4. Monitor the IV site for signs of infiltration or phlebitis. 5. Ensure that the medication is diluted in the appropriate volume of fluid. 6. Ensure that the bag is labeled so that it reads the volume of potassium in the solution.

1, 2, 4, 5, 6 Rationale: Potassium chloride administered intravenously must always be diluted in IV fluid and infused via an infusion pump. Potassium chloride is never given by bolus (IV push). Giving potassium chloride by IV push can result in cardiac arrest. The nurse should ensure that the potassium is diluted in the appropriate amount of diluent or fluid. The IV bag containing the potassium chloride should always be labeled with the volume of potassium it contains. The IV site is monitored closely because potassium chloride is irritating to the veins and there is risk of phlebitis. In addition, the nurse should monitor for infiltration. The nurse monitors urinary output during administration and contacts the health care provider if the urinary output is less than 30 mL/hour. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the preparation and administration of potassium chloride intravenously. Think about this procedure and the effects of potassium. Note the word bolus in option 3 to assist in eliminating this option.

The nurse is reviewing laboratory results and notes that a client's serum sodium level is 150 mEq/L (150 mmol/L). The nurse reports the serum sodium level to the health care provider (HCP) and the HCP prescribes dietary instructions based on the sodium level. Which acceptable food items does the nurse instruct the client to consume? Select all that apply. 1. Peas 2. Nuts 3. Cheese 4. Cauliflower 5. Processed oat cereals

1, 2, 4; Peas; Nuts; Cauliflower Rationale: The normal serum sodium level is 135 to 145 mEq/L (135 to 145 mmol/L). A serum sodium level of 150 mEq/L (150 mmol/L) indicates hypernatremia. On the basis of this finding, the nurse would instruct the client to avoid foods high in sodium. Peas, nuts, and cauliflower are good food sources of phosphorus and are not high in sodium (unless they are canned or salted). Peas are also a good source of magnesium. Processed foods such as cheese and processed oat cereals are high in sodium content. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, foods acceptable to be consumed by a client with a sodium level of 150 mEq/L (150 mmol/L). First, you must determine that the client has hypernatremia. Select peas and cauliflower first because these are vegetables. From the remaining options, note the word processed in option 5 and recall that cheese is high in sodium. Remember that processed foods tend to be higher in sodium content.

The charge nurse is planning the assignment for the day. Which factors should the nurse remain mindful of when planning the assignment? Select all that apply. 1. The acuity level of the clients 2. Specific requests from the staff 3. The clustering of the rooms on the unit 4. The number of anticipated client discharges 5. Client needs and workers' needs and abilities

1, 5 The acuity level of the clients; Client needs and workers' needs and abilities Rationale: There are guidelines that the nurse should use when delegating and planning assignments. These include the following: ensure client safety; be aware of individual variations in work abilities; determine which tasks can be delegated and to whom; match the task to the delegatee on the basis of the nurse practice act and appropriate position descriptions; provide directions that are clear, concise, accurate, and complete; validate the delegatee's understanding of the directions; communicate a feeling of confidence to the delegatee and provide feedback promptly after the task is performed; and maintain continuity of care as much as possible when assigning client care. Staff requests, convenience as in clustering client rooms, and anticipated changes in unit census are not specific guidelines to use when delegating and planning assignments. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, guidelines to use when delegating and planning assignments. Read each option carefully and use Maslow's Hierarch y of Needs theory. Note that the correct options

The nurse is preparing to care for a client with a potassium deficit. The nurse reviews the client's record and determines that the client is at risk for developing the potassium deficit because of which situation? 1. Sustained tissue damage 2. Requires nasogastric suction 3. Has a history of Addison's disease 4. Uric acid level of 9.4 mg/dL (559 μmol/L)

2 Requires nasogastric suction Rationale: The normal serum potassium level is 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L (3.5 to 5.0 mmol/L). A potassium deficit is known as hypokalemia. Potassium-rich gastrointestinal fluids are lost through gastrointestinal suction, placing the client at risk for hypokalemia. The client with tissue damage or Addison's disease and the client with hyperuricemia are at risk for hyperkalemia. The normal uric acid level for a female is 2.7 to 7.3 mg/dL (0.16 to 0.43 mmol/L) and for a male is 4.0 to 8.5 mg/dL(0.24 to 0.51 mmol/L). Hyperuricemia is a cause of hyperkalemia. Test-Taking Strategy: Note that the subject of the question is potassium deficit. First recall the normal uric acid levels and the causes of hypokalemia to assist in eliminating option 4. For the remaining options, note that the correct option is the only one that identifies a loss of body fluid.

The nurse provides instructions to a client with a low potassium level about the foods that are high in potassium and tells the client to consume which foods? Select all that apply. 1. Peas 2. Raisins 3. Potatoes 4. Cantaloupe 5. Cauliflower 6. Strawberries

2, 3, 4, 6; Raisins; Potatoes; Cantaloupe; Strawberries Rationale: The normal potassium level is 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L (3.5 to 5.0 mmol/L). Common food sources of potassium include avocado, bananas, cantaloupe, carrots, fish, mushrooms, oranges, potatoes, pork, beef, veal, raisins, spinach, strawberries, and tomatoes. Peas and cauliflower are high in magnesium. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, foods high in potassium. Read each food item and use knowledge about nutrition and components of food. Recall that peas and cauliflower are high in magnesium.

The nurse manager is discussing the facility protocol in the event of a tornado with the staff. Which instructions should the nurse manager include in the discussion? Select all that apply. 1. Open doors to client rooms. 2. Move beds away from windows. 3. Close window shades and curtains. 4. Place blankets over clients who are confined to bed. 5. Relocate ambulatory clients from the hallways back into their rooms.

2, 3, 4; Move beds away from windows; Close window shades and curtains; Place blankets over clients who are confined to bed. Rationale: In this weather event, the appropriate nursing actions focus on protecting clients from flying debris or glass. The nurse should close doors to each client's room and move beds away from windows, and close window shades and curtains to protect clients, visitors, and staff from shattering glass and flying debris. Blankets should be placed over clients confined to bed. Ambulatory clients should be moved into the hallways from their rooms, away from windows. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, protecting the client in the event of a tornado. Visualize each of the actions in the options to determine if these actions would assist in protecting the client and preventing an accident or injury.

The registered nurse is planning the client assignments for the day. Which is the most appropriate assignment for an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? 1. A client requiring a colostomy irrigation 2. A client receiving continuous tube feedings 3. A client who requires urine specimen collections 4. A client with difficulty swallowing food and fluids

3 A client who requires urine specimen collections Rationale: The nurse must determine the most appropriate assignment based on the skills of the staff member and the needs of the client. In this case, the most appropriate assignment for the UAP would be to care for the client who requires urine specimen collections. The UAP is skilled in this procedure. Colostomy irrigations and tube feedings are not performed by UAPs because these are invasive procedures. The client with difficulty swallowing food and fluids is at risk for aspiration. Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words, most appropriate, and note the subject, an assignment to the UAP. Eliminate option 4 first because of the words difficulty swallowing. Next, eliminate options 1 and 2 because they are comparable or alike and are both invasive procedures and as such a UAP can not perform these procedures.

The nurse is caring for a client with heart failure. On assessment, the nurse notes that the client is dyspneic, and crackles are audible on auscultation. What additional manifestations would the nurse expect to note in this client if excess fluid volume is present? 1. Weight loss and dry skin 2. Flat neck and hand veins and decreased urinary output 3. An increase in blood pressure and increased respirations 4. Weakness and decreased central venous pressure (CVP)

3 An increase in blood pressure and increased respirations Rationale: A fluid volume excess is also known as overhydration or fluid overload and occurs when fluid intake or fluid retention exceeds the fluid needs of the body. Assessment findings associated with fluid volume excess include cough, dyspnea, crackles, tachypnea, tachycardia, elevated blood pressure, bounding pulse, elevated CVP, weight gain, edema, neck and hand vein distention, altered level of consciousness, and decreased hematocrit. Dry skin, flat neck and hand veins, decreased urinary output, and decreased CVP are noted in fluid volume deficit. Weakness can be present in either fluid volume excess or deficit. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, fluid volume excess. Remember that when there is more than one part to an option, all parts need to be correct in order for the option to be correct. Think about the pathophysiology associated with a fluid volume excess to assist in directing you to the correct option. Also, note that the incorrect options are comparable or alike in that each includes manifestations that reflect a decrease.

The nurse employed in a hospital is waiting to receive a report from the laboratory via the facsimile (fax) machine. The fax machine activates and the nurse expects the report, but instead receives a sexually oriented photograph. Which is the most appropriate initial nursing action? 1. Call the police. 2. Cut up the photograph and throw it away. 3. Call the nursing supervisor and report the incident. 4. Call the laboratory and ask for the name of the individual who sent the photograph.

3 Call the nursing supervisor and report the incident. Rationale: Ensuring a safe workplace is a responsibility of an employing institution. Sexual harassment in the workplace is prohibited by state and federal laws. Sexually suggestive jokes, touching, pressuring a co-worker for a date, and open displays of or transmitting sexually oriented photographs or posters are examples of conduct that could be considered sexual harassment by another worker. If the nurse believes that he or she is being subjected to unwelcome sexual conduct, these concerns should be reported to the nursing supervisor immediately. Option 1 is unnecessary at this time. Options 2 and 4 are inappropriate initial actions. Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words, most appropriate initial. Remember that using the organizational channels of communication is best. This will assist in directing you to the correct option.

The nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who is receiving high doses of a diuretic. On assessment, the nurse notes that the client has flat neck veins, generalized muscle weakness, and diminished deep tendon reflexes. The nurse suspects hyponatremia. What additional signs would the nurse expect to note in a client with hyponatremia? 1. Muscle twitches 2. Decreased urinary output 3. Hyperactive bowel sounds 4. Increased specific gravity of the urine

3 Hyperactive bowel sounds Rationale: The normal serum sodium level is 135 to 145 mEq/L (135 to 145 mmol/L). Hyponatremia is evidenced by a serum sodium level lower than 135 mEq/L (135 mmol/L). Hyperactive bowel sounds indicate hyponatremia. The remaining options are signs of hypernatremia. In hyponatremia, muscle weakness, increased urinary output, and decreased specific gravity of the urine would be noted. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the data in the question and the subject of the question, signs of hyponatremia. It is necessary to know the signs of hyponatremia to answer correctly. Also, think about the action and effects of sodium on the body to answer correctly. Remember that increased bowel motility and hyperactive bowel sounds indicate hyponatremia.

An 87-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department for treatment of a fractured arm. On physical assessment, the nurse notes old and new ecchymotic areas on the client's chest and legs and asks the client how the bruises were sustained. The client, although reluctant, tells the nurse in confidence that her son frequently hits her if supper is not prepared on time when he arrives home from work. Which is the most appropriate nursing response? 1. "Oh, really? I will discuss this situation with your son." 2. "Let's talk about the ways you can manage your time to prevent this from happening." 3. "Do you have any friends who can help you out until you resolve these important issues with your son?" 4. "As a nurse, I am legally bound to report abuse. I will stay with you while you give the report and help find a safe place for you to stay."

4 "As a nurse, I am legally bound to report abuse. I will stay with you while you give the report and help find a safe place for you to stay." Rationale: The nurse must report situations related to child or elder abuse, gunshot wounds and other criminal acts, and certain infectious diseases. Confidential issues are not to be discussed with nonmedical personnel or the client's family or friends without the client's permission. Clients should be assured that information is kept confidential, unless it places the nurse under a legal obligation. Options 1, 2, and 3 do not address the legal implications of the situation and do not ensure a safe environment for the client. Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words, most appropriate. Focus on the data in the question and note that an 87-year-old woman is receiving physical abuse by her son. Recall the nursing responsibilities related to client safety and reporting obligations. Options 1, 2, and 3 should be eliminated because they are comparable or alike in that they do not protect the client from injury.

The nurse employed in a long-term care facility is planning assignments for the clients on a nursing unit. The nurse needs to assign four clients and has a licensed practical (vocational) nurse and 3 unlicensed assistive personnel (UAPs) on a nursing team. Which client would the nurse most appropriately assign to the licensed practical (vocational) nurse? 1. A client who requires a bed bath 2. An older client requiring frequent ambulation 3. A client who requires hourly vital sign measurements 4. A client requiring abdominal wound irrigations and dressing changes every 3 hours

4 A client requiring abdominal wound irrigations and dressing changes every 3 hours Rationale: When delegating nursing assignments, the nurse needs to consider the skills and educational level of the nursing staff. Giving a bed bath, assisting with frequent ambulation, and taking vital signs can be provided most appropriately by UAP. The licensed practical (vocational) nurse is skilled in wound irrigations and dressing changes and most appropriately would be assigned to the client who needs this care. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, assignment to a licensed practical (vocational) nurse, and note the strategic words, most appropriately. Recall that education and job position as described by the nurse practice act and employee guidelines need to be considered when delegating activities and making assignments. Options 1, 2, and 3 can be eliminated because they are noninvasive tasks that the UAP can perform.

The nurse has received the assignment for the day shift. After making initial rounds and checking all of the assigned clients, which client should the nurse plan to care for first? 1. A client who is ambulatory demonstrating steady gait 2. A postoperative client who has just received an opioid pain medication 3. A client scheduled for physical therapy for the first crutch-walking session 4. A client with a white blood cell count of 14,000 mm3 (14Â109/L) and a temperature of 38.4°C

4 A client with a white blood cell count of 14,000 mm3 (14Â109/L) and a temperature of 38.4°C Rationale: The nurse should plan to care for the client who has an elevated white blood cell count and a fever first because this client's needs are the priority. The client who is ambulatory with steady gait and the client scheduled for physical therapy for a crutch-walking session do not have priority needs. Waiting for pain medication to take effect before providing care to the post-operative client is best. Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word, first, and use principles related to prioritizing. Recalling the normal white blood cell count is 5000-10,000 mm3 (5-10 Â 109/L) and the normal temperature range 97.5 °F to 99.5 °F (36.4 °C to 37.5 °C) will direct you to the correct option.

The nurse is assigned to care for four clients. In planning client rounds, which client should the nurse assess first? 1. A postoperative client preparing for discharge with a new medication 2. A client requiring daily dressing changes of a recent surgical incision 3. A client scheduled for a chest x-ray after insertion of a nasogastric tube 4. A client with asthma who requested a breathing treatment during the previous shift

4 A client with asthma who requested a breathing treatment during the previous shift Rationale: Airway is always the highest priority, and the nurse would attend to the client with asthma who requested a breathing treatment during the previous shift. This could indicate that the client was experiencing difficulty breathing. The clients described in options 1, 2, and 3 have needs that would be identified as intermediate priorities. Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word, first. Use the ABCs—airway, breathing, and circulation —to answer the question. Remember that airway is always the highest priority. This will direct you to the correct option.

The nurse employed in an emergency department is assigned to triage clients coming to the emergency department for treatment on the evening shift. The nurse should assign priority to which client? 1. A client complaining of muscle aches, a headache, and history of seizures 2. A client who twisted her ankle when rollerblading and is requesting medication for pain 3. A client with a minor laceration on the index finger sustained while cutting an eggplant 4. A client with chest pain who states that he just ate pizza that was made with a very spicy sauce

4 A client with chest pain who states that he just ate pizza that was made with a very spicy sauce Rationale: In an emergency department, triage involves brief client assessment to classify clients according to their need for care and includes establishing priorities of care. The type of illness or injury, the severity of the problem, and the resources available govern the process. Clients with trauma, chest pain, severe respiratory distress or cardiac arrest, limb amputation, and acute neurological deficits, or who have sustained chemical splashes to the eyes, are classified as emergent and are the number-1 priority. Clients with conditions such as a simple fracture, asthma without respiratory distress, fever, hypertension, abdominal pain, or a renal stone have urgent needs and are classified as a number-2 priority. Clients with conditions such as a minor laceration, sprain, or cold symptoms are classified as non-urgent and are a number-3 priority. Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word, priority. Use the ABCs—airway, breathing, and circulation —to direct you to the correct option. A client experiencing chest pain is always classified as Priority 1 until a myocardial infarction has been ruled out.

A nursing graduate is attending an agency orientation regarding the nursing model of practice implemented in the health care facility. The nurse is told that the nursing model is a team nursing approach. The nurse determines that which scenario is characteristic of the team-based model of nursing practice? 1. Each staff member is assigned a specific task for a group of clients. 2. A staff member is assigned to determine the client's needs at home and begin discharge planning. 3. A single registered nurse (RN) is responsible for providing care to a group of 6 clients with the aid of an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). 4. An RN leads 2 licensed practical nurses (LPNs) and 3 UAPs in providing care to a group of 12 clients.

4 An RN leads 2 licensed practical nurses (LPNs) and 3 UAPs in providing care to a group of 12 clients. Rationale: In team nursing, nursing personnel are led by a registered nurse leader in providing care to a group of clients. Option 1 identifies functional nursing. Option 2 identifies a component of case management. Option 3 identifies primary nursing (relationship-based practice). Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, team nursing. Keep this subject in mind and select the option that best describes a team approach. The correct option is the only one that identifies the concept of a team approach.

The nurse is giving a bed bath to an assigned client when an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) enters the client's room and tells the nurse that another assigned client is in pain and needs pain medication. Which is the most appropriate nursing action? 1. Finish the bed bath and then administer the pain medication to the other client. 2. Ask the UAP to find out when the last pain medication was given to the client. 3. Ask the UAP to tell the client in pain that medication will be administered as soon as the bed bath is complete. 4. Cover the client, raise the side rails, tell the client that you will return shortly, and administer the pain medication to the other client.

4 Cover the client, raise the side rails, tell the client that you will return shortly, and administer the pain medication to the other client. Rationale: The nurse is responsible for the care provided to assigned clients. The appropriate action in this situation is to provide safety to the client who is receiving the bed bath and prepare to administer the pain medication. Options 1 and 3 delay the administration of medication to the client in pain. Option 2 is not a responsibility of the UAP. Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words, most appropriate, and use principles related to priorities of care. Options 1 and 3 are comparable or alike and delay the administration of pain medication, and option 2 is not a responsibility of the UAP. The most appropriate action is to plan to administer the medication.

A nursing instructor delivers a lecture to nursing students regarding the issue of client's rights and asks a nursing student to identify a situation that represents an example of invasion of client privacy. Which situation, if identified by the student, indicates an understanding of a violation of this client right? 1. Performing a procedure without consent 2. Threatening to give a client a medication 3. Telling the client that he or she cannot leave the hospital 4. Observing care provided to the client without the client's permission

4 Observing care provided to the client without the client's permission Rationale: Invasion of privacy occurs with unreasonable intrusion into an individual's private affairs. Performing a procedure without consent is an example of battery. Threatening to give a client a medication constitutes assault. Telling the client that the client cannot leave the hospital constitutes false imprisonment. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, invasion of privacy. Noting the words without the client's permission will direct you to this option.