NET + n10-008

Which of the following is the European equivalent of the Synchronous Optical Networking (SONET) standard in the United States? A. SDH B. OC-3 C. E-3 D. ATM

A. Synchronous Digital Hierarchy (SDH) is the European equivalent of SONET. Optical carrier 3 (OC-3) is one of the SONET data rates. E-3 is the European equivalent of the T-3 connection in the United States. Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) is a cell-switched protocol that is designed to carry voice, data, and video traffic by splitting it into uniform 53-byte cells.

Which of the following statements about single-mode fiber-optic cable are true? (Choose all that apply.) A. Single-mode cables use an LED light source, whereas multimode cables use a laser. B. Single-mode cables can span longer distances than multimode cables. C. Single-mode cables have a smaller core filament than multimode cables. D. Single-mode cables have a smaller bend radius than multimode, making them easier to install. E. Single-mode fiber-optic cables require a ground, whereas multimode cables do not.

B, C. Single-mode cables have a smaller core filament and can span longer distances than multimode cables. Single-mode cables also use a laser light source, have a larger bend radius, and do not require a ground

At which of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layers do switches and bridges perform their basic functions? A. Physical B. Data link C. Network D. Transport

B. Switches and bridges are involved in Local Area Network (LAN) communications only and therefore primarily at the data link layer. They are not primarily associated with the physical, network, or transport layers, although some switches include network layer routing capabilities

In which IPv4 class is the address 127.0.0.1 found? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. None of the above

D. Address 127.0.0.1 is the designated IPv4 local loopback address, and as such, it is reserved. It falls between Class A, which has first octet values from 1 to 126, and Class B, which has first octet values of 128 to 191.

Which of the following Internet Protocol (IPv4) address classes identifies multicast addresses? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D E. Class E

D. Class D addresses are used for multicast transmissions. Class A, Class B, and Class C addresses are used for unicast transmissions. Class E is for experimental use only.

Which of the following signal types is carried by copper cable? A. Fiber optic B. Microwave C. Infrared D. Electrical

D. Copper cables use electrical signals to transmit data. Fiber optic is a cable type, not a signal type. Microwave signals cannot be transmitted over copper cable. Infrared signals are used only for wireless networks.

Which of the following connector types was typically associated with a T-connector attached to the computer? A. RJ45 B. MT-RJ C. 8P8C D. BNC E. F

D. Thin Ethernet networks use a type of coaxial cable that runs from each computer to the next one, forming a bus topology. To connect the cable to the network computers, each network interface adapter has a T-connector attached to it, with two additional male BNC connectors, to which you connect two lengths of network cabling.

A T-3 leased line connection runs at 44.736 megabits per second (Mbps). How many separate channels does a T-3 provide? A. 24 B. 64 C. 128 D. 512 E. 672

E. A T-3 leased line connection is the equivalent of 28 T-1 connections. Each T-1 consists of 24 channels, so a T-3 has a total of 672 channels (28 × 24).

Which of the following twisted pair cable types are rated for 1000 megabit-per-second (Mbps) Gigabit Ethernet using two wire pairs? (Choose all that apply.) A. Category 3 (CAT3) B. Category 5 (CAT5) C. Category 5e (CAT5e) D. Category 6 (CAT6) E. Category 6a (CAT6a) F. None of the above

F. All twisted pair Gigabit Ethernet implementations require all four wire pairs to achieve 1000 Mbps transfer rates.

Which of the following is the best definition of a subinterface? A. A logical network interface created from a physical network interface B. One of the ports on a physical network interface adapter with multiple ports C. A physical network interface connected to a subnet D. One of the IP addresses associated with a network interface that has multiple IP addresses

A. A subinterface is a logical (or virtual) network interface associated with a specific physical network interface. Devices (such as routers) can use multiple subinterfaces to connect to different subnets using a single physical network interface adapter. A subinterface is a logical device, so it is not one port on a physical network interface adapter or a physical adapter connected to a subnet. A subinterface is a complete logical interface, not just an IP address.

Convert the binary mask 11111111.11111111.11100000.00000000 into its equivalent decimal value. What is the decimal representation of this mask? A. 255.255.224.0 B. 255.255.240.0 C. 255.255.248.0 D. 255.255.252.0

A. The decimal value for 11111111 is 255, the value for 11100000 is 224, and the value for 00000000 is 0, so the mask is 255.255.224.0.

Which of the following pairs of well-known ports are the default values you would use to configure a POP3 email client? A. 110 and 25 B. 143 and 25 C. 110 and 143 D. 80 and 110 E. 25 and 80

A. The default port for the Post Office Protocol (POP3) is 110. The default port for the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP), the other protocol used by email clients, is 25. Port 143 is the default for the Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP), a different email mailbox protocol that clients never use with POP3. Port 80 is the default for the Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP), which is not used by POP3 email clients

Which of the following is the correct subnet mask for an IPv4 network with the address 172.16.0.0/20? A. 255.255.224.0 B. 255.255.240.0 C. 255.255.248.0 D. 255.255.255.224 E. 255.255.255.240

B. The address given uses 20 bits to identify the network, leaving 12 bits for the host identifier. In binary form, therefore, the subnet mask value would be 11111111 11111111 11110000 00000000. The decimal value for 11111111 is 255, and the decimal value for 11110000 is 240. Therefore, the subnet mask is 255.255.240.0.

Which of the following components does the port number in a transport layer protocol header identify? A. A transport layer protocol B. An application C. A gateway D. A proxy server

B. The port numbers specified in a transport layer protocol header identify the application that generated the data in the packet or the application that will receive the data. Port numbers do not identify transport layer protocols, gateways, or proxy servers.

Alice has been asked to design her company's Internet Protocol (IPv4) addressing scheme. The company has been assigned a Class C network address of 192.168.30.0. Alice's director wants 4 subnets with 28 hosts per subnet. How many bits are required for subnets? How many bits are required for hosts? What will the new subnet mask be for this network? A. 3 subnet bits, 5 host bits, and subnet mask 255.255.255.240 B. 4 subnet bits, 3 host bits, and subnet mask 255.255.255.248 C. 3 subnet bits, 5 host bits, and subnet mask 255.255.255.224 D. 5 subnet bits, 3 host bits, and subnet mask 255.255.255.192

C. In this scenario, the last byte of the IP address assigned to the company must be subdivided into 3 subnet bits and 5 host bits. The 3 subnet bits will give Alice up to 8 subnets, with 5 host bits for up to 30 hosts per subnet. The new subnet mask is 255.255.255.224. The 224 is the decimal equivalent of the binary value 11100000, which represents the 3 subnet bits and the 5 host bits.

Which of the following protocols does the Ping utility use to exchange messages with another system? A. UDP B. TCP C. ICMP D. IGMP

C. Ping uses the Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) to exchange messages with other systems. ICMP is also used to return error messages to sending systems. The User Datagram Protocol (UDP) and the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) are both transport layer protocols that carry application layer data; Ping does not use either one. The Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) is used to create multicast groups; Ping does not use it.

Which of the following is not a technology typically used for a personal area network (PAN)? A. Bluetooth B. Z-Wave C. NFC D. SDWAN

D. A Software-Defined Wide Area Network (SDWAN) is a technology that automates the configuration of WAN routers based on the current mix of traffic. It is therefore not suitable for use on a PAN. Bluetooth, Z-Wave, and near-field communication (NFC) are all short-range wireless technologies that are capable of providing communications between PAN devices.

Which of the following Wide Area Network (WAN) services provides the fastest transfer rate? A. T-1 B. E-1 C. T-3 D. OC-1

D. An OC-1 connection provides the fastest transfer rate at 51.84 Mbps. An E-1 connection is 2.048 Mbps. A T-3 is 44.736 Mbps, and a T-1 is 1.544 Mbps.

Which of the following tools do cable installers use to connect bulk cable runs to wall plates and patch panels? A. A crimper B. A splicer C. A pigtail D. A punchdown block tool

D. Installers use a punchdown block tool to connect the ends of bulk cable runs to jacks in wall plates and patch panels. A crimper or crimping tool is a jawed device that enables installers to squeeze the two halves of an RJ-45 or RJ-11 connector together, securing the connector to the cable. Installers use a splicing tool to splice two cable segments together. There is no tool called a pigtail

Which of the OSI model layers is responsible for syntax translation and compression or encryption? A. Data link B. Network C. Session D. Presentation E. Application

D. The presentation layer provides a syntax translation service that enables two computers to communicate, despite their use of different bit-encoding methods. This translation service also enables systems using compressed or encrypted data to communicate with each other

Wavelength division multiplexing is a fiber-optic technique for carrying multiple signals on a single network medium. There are several types of this technique, including Coarse Wavelength Division Multiplexing (CWDM), Dense Wavelength Division Multiplexing (DWDM), and Bidirectional Wavelength Division Multiplexing (BWDM, or just WDM). Which of the following is not one of the ways in which these types of multiplexing differ? A. They use different wavelength spacings. B. They carry different numbers of channels on a single medium. C. They provide different amounts of signal amplification. D. None of the above.

D. The types of wavelength division multiplexing use different spacing of the wavelengths they carry, which enables them to fit different numbers of channels on a single medium. WDM (or BWDM) carries two wavelengths for bidirectional communication. CWDM can carry up to 16 channels and DWDM 40 or 80 (depending on the spacing used). Various amplification technologies (including EFDA and Raman) can expand the amounts of usable wavelength in each type.

The secured version of the Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTPS) uses a different well-known port from the unsecured version. Which of the following ports is used by HTTPS by default? A. 25 B. 80 C. 110 D. 443

D. The well-known port for HTTPS is 443. Port 25 is for the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP), port 80 is for unsecured HTTP, and port 110 is for the Post Office Protocol (POP3).

Which of the following topologies is used by the majority of new Ethernet networks installed today? A. Bus B. Virtual ring C. Mesh D. Hierarchical star

D. Virtually all of the new Ethernet networks installed today use the star or the hierarchical star topology, with one or more switches functioning as a cabling nexus

Which layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model do not have protocols in the TCP/IP suite exclusively dedicated to them? (Choose all that apply.) A. Physical B. Data link C. Network D. Transport E. Session F. Presentation G. Application

E, F. In the TCP/IP suite, the functions of the session layer are primarily implemented in the transport layer protocols: Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP). The presentation layer functions are often implemented in application layer protocols, although some functions, such as encryption, can also be performed by transport or network layer protocols.

Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model provides an entrance point to the protocol stack for applications? A. Physical B. Data link C. Network D. Transport E. Session F. Presentation G. Application

G. The application layer provides an entry point for applications to access the protocol stack and prepare information for transmission across a network. All other layers of the OSI model reside below this layer and rely on this entry point.

The protocols at which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model use port numbers to identify the applications that are the source and the destination of the data in the packets? A. Application B. Presentation C. Transport D. Network

. Transport layer protocols, such as Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP), have header fields that contain the port numbers of the applications that generated the data in the packet and which will receive it. The application, presentation, and network layers do not use port numbers.

Which of the following statements about a wired Local Area Network (LAN) is true? A. Wired LANs support only the star topology. B. Wired LANs support only the star and bus topologies. C. Wired LANs support only the star and ring topologies. D. Wired LANs can support ring, bus, or star topologies.

A wired LAN is a group of computers within a small area, connected by a common network medium. A wired LAN can be configured using a ring, bus, or star topology.

Which of the following are connector types used with coaxial cables? (Choose all that apply.) A. BNC B. F-type C. N-type D. ST E. RJ-11

A, B, C. BNC connectors are used for coaxial Thin Ethernet networks, and N-type connectors with Thick Ethernet. F-type connectors are used for coaxial cable television installations. Straight Tip (ST) connectors are used with fiber-optic cable, and RJ-11 connectors are used for telephone installations

Which of the following statements about the differences between fiber-optic Angled Physical Contact (APC) and Ultra-Physical Contact (UPC) connectors are true? (Choose all that apply.) A. APCs should only be joined to other APCs. B. APCs generate more insertion loss that UPCs. C. UPCs generate more return loss than APCs. D. UPCs use a green connector boot or body.

A, B, C. Joining an APC to a UPC creates a mismatched connection that generates an extremely high rate of insertion loss (attenuation). APCs do generate more insertion loss than UPCs and less return loss (reflection). It is APCs, not UPCs, that use green boots or bodies on the connectors.

Which of the following layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model typically have dedicated physical hardware devices associated with them? (Choose all that apply.) A. Physical B. Data link C. Network D. Transport E. Session F. Presentation G. Application

A, B, C. The physical layer of the OSI model is associated with hubs, cables, and network interface adapters. The data link layer is associated with bridges and switches. The network layer is associated with routers. The transport, session, presentation, and application layers are typically not associated with dedicated hardware devices.

Which of the following statements about fiber-optic cabling are true? (Choose all that apply.) A. There are two main fiber-optic cable types: single-mode and multimode. B. Fiber-optic cable is typically used to span long distances. C. Fiber-optic cables use IBM Data Connector (IDC) connectors. D. Fiber-optic cables often use Straight Tip (ST) and Subscriber Connector (SC) connectors. E. Single-mode fiber-optic cable uses a laser light source and a glass core. F. Multimode fiber-optic cable uses a Light-Emitting Diode (LED) light source.

A, B, D, E, F. Fiber-optic cable comes in two types: multimode and single-mode. Fiberoptic cables vary in light source (LED or laser), cable grade (glass or plastic), and size of the core conductor. Single-mode uses a higher-grade glass conductor with a laser light source. Multimode fiber uses an LED light source. Both types can use either ST or SC connectors to physically connect end devices to a fiber-optic network. Fiber-optic cable is used to extend networks over long distances. Fiber-optic cables do not use IDC connectors, which are intended for use with Shielded Twisted Pair (STP) cable.

In the 100Base-TX specification, which of the following are the functions of the Fast Link Pulse (FLP) signals exchanged by switches and network interface adapters? (Choose all that apply.) A. The FLP signals verify the integrity of the connection (or link) between the devices. B. The FLP signals enable the devices to negotiate the speed of the link between them. C. The FLP signals indicate when a collision has occurred. D. The devices use FLP signals to detect bad frames.

A, B. FLP signals are an enhancement of the Normal Link Pulse (NLP) signals defined in the 10Base-T standard, which verify the integrity of the link. In 100Base-TX, the FLP signals retain that function, but they also enable multispeed devices to negotiate the speed at which they will operate. FLP signals do not indicate collisions or bad frames.

Which of the following protocols operate at the application layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model? (Choose all that apply.) A. HTTP B. SNMP C. ICMP D. IGMP E. UDP

A, B. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) and Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) operate at the application layer. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) and Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) both operate at the network layer. User Datagram Protocol (UDP) operates at the transport layer

Which of the following protocols generate messages that are carried directly within Internet Protocol (IPv4) datagrams, with no intervening transport layer protocol? (Choose all that apply.) A. ICMP B. IGMP C. SMTP D. SNMP

A, B. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) and Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) are unusual in that they generate messages that are encapsulated directly within IP datagrams. Nearly all of the other TCP/IP protocols, including Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) and Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP), are encapsulated within one of the transport layer protocols—User Datagram Protocol (UDP) or Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)—which is encapsulated in turn within an IP datagram.

When two workstations access the Internet using the same Port Address Translation (PAT) router, which of the following does the router assign to each workstation? (Choose all that apply.) A. A unique port number B. A common public IPv4 address C. A common port number D. A unique public IPv4 address

A, B. Unlike network address translation, port address translation uses a single public IPv4 address for all of the client workstations. Instead of assigning each workstation a unique address, PAT assigns each workstation a unique port number.

Which of the following components are typically used only for telephone cable installations, and not for data networking? (Choose all that apply.) A. 66 blocks B. 110 blocks C. 25 pair UTP cables D. 100 pair UTP cables

A, C, D. Voice telephone networks do not have performance requirements as strict as those of data networks, so they are less liable to suffer from crosstalk and other types of interference. As a result, installers often use larger UTP cables for telephone connections. UTP cables are available in configurations containing 25 wire pairs and 100 wire pairs in a single sheath, which enables installers to service multiple users with a single cable. The punchdown blocks for UTP data networks with 8P8C connectors are called 110 blocks. The older standard for punchdown blocks is the 66 block. Rarely used for data networking, 66 blocks are still found in many telephone service installations

Which two of the following constructs provide roughly the same function? (Choose two that apply.) A. SIP trunk B. CSU/DSU C. VoIP gateway D. Smartjack E. VPN concentrator

A, C. A Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) trunk provides a connection between the private and public domains of a unified communications network. A Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) gateway provides a connection between an IP network and the Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN). Both of these provide a conduit between a subscriber's private network and the network furnished by a service provider. A Channel Service Unit/Data Service Unit (CSU/DSU) is a device that provides a router on a private network with access to a leased line. A smartjack provides signal conversion, diagnostic testing, and other capabilities to leased line subscribers. A Virtual Private Network (VPN) concentrator is a type of router that enables multiple client systems to access a network from remote locations.

On an Ethernet network using the star topology, which of the following devices can function as the cabling nexus that forms the figurative center of the star? (Choose all that apply.) A. Hub B. Router C. Switch D. Access Point

A, C. A hub or a switch can function as the cabling nexus at the center of an Ethernet star topology. Each of the devices on the network is connected by a cable to a hub or switch. Routers are used to connect networks to each other; they cannot function as the center of a star topology

Which of the following statements about single-mode and multimode fiber-optic cables are true? A. Single-mode cables can span longer distances than multimode cables. B. Single-mode cables are more resistant to electromagnetic interference than multimode cables. C. Single-mode cables are more difficult to install than multimode cables. D. Single-mode cables have a much larger core diameter than multimode cables.

A, C. Single-mode cables are capable of spanning longer distances than multimode because they have a narrower core diameter, reducing signal dispersion rates. Because the core consists of fewer (typically one or two) strands, single-mode cables are less flexible than multimode and cannot bend around corners as easily, making them more difficult to install. Because they use light impulses rather than electricity, all fiber-optic cables are completely immune to electromagnetic interference

Which of the following network topologies are used by Wireless Local Area Networks (WLANs)? (Choose all that apply.) A. Ad hoc B. Bus C. Infrastructure D. Star

A, C. WLANs can use the ad hoc topology, in which devices communicate directly with each other, or the infrastructure topology, in which the wireless devices connect to an access point. The bus and star topologies are used by wired networks only.

Which of the following are characteristics of an internal cable installation? (Choose all that apply.) A. An internal cable installation uses bulk spools of cabling with no connectors attached for most cable runs. B. An internal cable installation uses only prefabricated cables with connectors attached for all cable runs. C. An internal cable installation uses solid wire conductors for all cable runs, regardless of distance. D. An internal cable installation uses stranded wire conductors for short cable runs and solid core for longer cable runs. E. In an internal cable installation, cables are typically not run through walls or ceilings. F. In an internal cable installation, cables are typically run through walls or ceilings.

A, D, F. The use of bulk cable with no connectors, wall plates, and rack-mounted patch panels are all characteristics of an internal wiring installation. Internal installations typically cover large geographic areas that require cabling through walls, ceilings, and around other obstacles, making the cabling difficult to move. Solid core wiring is used for longer cable runs, whereas shorter cable runs such as connections from node to wall plate use prefabricated stranded core cables with connectors attached.

Which of the following coaxial cable types are still in general use? (Choose all that apply.) A. RG-6 B. RG-8 C. RG-58 D. RG-59

A, D. RG-6 and RG-59 are 75 ohm cables that are still used for cable television and similar connections. RG-8 and RG-58 are 50 ohm cables that were formerly used for Thick Ethernet and Thin Ethernet, respectively, but are no longer in general use.

Which of the following are mechanisms by which IPv6 traffic can be transmitted on an IPv4 network through the use of tunneling? (Choose all that apply.) A. Teredo B. IPsec C. ICMPv6 D. 6to4

A, D. Teredo and 6to4 are both tunneling protocols that were intended as transitional mechanisms, enabling the encapsulation of IPv6 datagrams within IPv4 packets. IPsec uses tunneling, but it is not used for the encapsulation of IPv6 traffic. Internet Control Message Protocol v6, like its ICMPv4 equivalent, enables routers and hosts to transmit informational and error messages; it does not use tunneling.

Which of the following are Ethernet cable types that must be configured in a bus topology? (Choose all that apply.) A. RG-8 B. RG-10 C. RG-14 D. RG-58

A, D. The first version of DIX Ethernet (Version 1) supported RG-8 thick coaxial cable in a bus topology. Version 2 added support for thin coaxial cable (RG-58) but was still limited to a bus topology. RG-10 and RG-14 are not Ethernet cable types

Which of the following IPv4 addresses is available for use on a network device? A. 1.0.0.1 B. 127.98.127.0 C. 234.9.76.32 D. 240.65.8.124

A. 1.0.0.1 is a legitimate address that falls into Class A. Option B, 127.98.127.0, falls into the range of addresses reserved for use as loopback addresses (127.0.0.1 to 127.255.255.255). Option C, 234.9.76.32, falls into Class D, which is reserved for use as multicast addresses. Option D, 240.65.8.124, is a Class E address; that class is reserved for experimental use.

Which of the following Ethernet physical layer options does not use the star topology? A. 10Base2 B. 10Base-T C. 100Base-TX D. 1000Base-T

A. 10Base2 is the physical layer specification for Thin Ethernet, which uses coaxial cable in a bus topology. 10Base-T, 100Base-TX, and 1000Base-T all use twisted pair cable in a star topology

Which of the following telecommunications components is all but obsolete and is found only in old, analog telephone installations? A. 66 block B. 110 block C. Patch panel D. Smartjack

A. A 66 block is a type of punchdown block for telephone systems that was first introduced in 1962. By the year 2000, nearly all commercial telephone installations had begun using 110 blocks instead; 110 blocks are still in use, as are smartjacks and patch panels.

Which of the following is the default subnet mask for an IPv4 Class A network? A. 255.0.0.0 B. 255.255.0.0 C. 255.255.255.0 D. 255.255.255.255

A. A Class A address uses only the first octet as the network identifier, which yields a binary subnet mask of 11111111 00000000 00000000 00000000. In decimal form, the subnet mask is 255.0.0.0. The 255.255.0.0 mask is for Class B addresses, and 255.255.255.0 is for Class C addresses. Option D, 255.255.255.255, is the broadcast address for the current network.

Which of the following topologies requires the installation of terminating resistors at two locations? A. Bus B. Star C. Ring D. Mesh

A. A bus topology requires terminating resistors at each end of the bus, to remove signals as they reach the end of the cable and prevent them from reflecting back in the other direction and interfering with newly transmitted signals. Star, ring, and mesh topologies do not require terminating resistors

An electrician installing a new light fixture accidentally severs one of the LAN cables running through the dropped ceiling space. With which topology would the severed cable cause the greatest amount of disturbance to the network? A. Bus B. Star C. Logical ring D. Mesh

A. A cable break in a bus topology would split the network into two halves, preventing the nodes on one side of the break from communicating with those on the other. In addition, both halves of the network would be left with one unterminated end, which would prevent the computers on each side of the break from communicating effectively. A cable break in a star or logical ring topology would only interrupt the connection of a single computer to the network. The mesh topology is not often used for LANs, but redundant network connections are a characteristic of mesh networks, which means that a single cable break would have no effect on the network.

Which of the following tools do cable installers use to add connectors such as RJ-45 and RJ-11 to twisted pair cabling? A. A crimper B. A splicer C. A pigtail D. A patch

A. A crimper or crimping tool is a jawed device that has a set of dies in it. Installers use a crimper to squeeze the two halves of an RJ-45 or RJ-11 connector together, with the wires inside securing the connector to the cable. Installers use a splicing tool to splice two cable segments together. There is no tool called a pigtail or a patch.

Which of the following devices operates only at the physical layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model? A. Hub B. Bridge C. Switch D. Router

A. A hub functions only at the physical layer by forwarding all incoming signals out through all of its ports. Bridges and switches operate at the data link layer by selectively propagating incoming data. Routers operate at the network layer by connecting local area networks (LANs) and propagating only the traffic intended for another network, based on IP addresses

The default mask for a IPv4 Class B network is 255.255.0.0. How many subnet bits do you need to create 600 subnets with 55 hosts per subnet, and what is the new subnet mask for the network? A. 10 subnet bits with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192 B. 9 subnet bits with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.128 C. 10 subnet bits with a subnet mask of 255.255.224.0 D. 11 subnet bits with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192

A. A standard Class B address with a mask of 255.255.0.0 has 16 bits that can be used for subnets and hosts. To get 600 subnets, you must use 10 of the available bits, which gives you up to 1024 subnets. This leaves 6 host bits, which gives you up to 62 hosts per subnet, which exceeds the requirement of 55 requested by the client. Using 9 bits would give you only 510 subnets, while 11 bits would give you 2046 subnets but leave you only 5 bits for a maximum of 30 hosts, which is not enough.

Alice has constructed a five-node failover cluster in which all five servers are connected to a hard disk array using a dedicated Fibre Channel network. Which of the following terms describes this network arrangement? A. SAN B. PAN C. WAN D. MAN

A. A storage area network (SAN) is a network that is dedicated to carrying traffic between servers and storage devices. A Personal Area Network (PAN) provides communication among devices associated with a single person, such as smartphones. A Wide Area Network (WAN) is a network that connects devices or networks at different geographic locations. A Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) is a type of WAN that connects devices within a limited geographic area.

An Ethernet network interface adapter provides functions that span which two layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model? A. Physical and data link B. Data link and network C. Network and transport D. Transport and application

A. An Ethernet network interface adapter functions at the data link layer by encapsulating network layer data for transmission over the network. It provides physical layer functions by providing the connection to the network medium and generating the appropriate signals for transmission. Network interface adapters do not operate at the network, transport, or application layer.

Which of the following IPv6 address types is the functional equivalent of an IPv4 APIPA address? A. Link local B. Global unicast C. Site local D. Anycast

A. An IPv6 link local address is automatically assigned to each interface. Like Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA), it provides communication on the local network only. Global unicast addresses are routable; they are the functional equivalent of IPv4 registered addresses. Site local addresses are the equivalent of private IPv4 addresses. Anycast addresses are designed to transmit to any one host in a multicast group.

Which of the following twisted pair cable types is rated for both a 10-megabit-per-second (Mbps) data rate (using two pairs) and a 100 Mbps data rate (using four pairs)? A. Category 3 (CAT3) B. Category 5 (CAT5) C. Category 5e (CAT5e) D. Category 6 (CAT6)

A. CAT3 cable was originally intended for use in voice-grade telephone networks but was later certified for use in data networks. CAT3 cable can support data transfer rates from 4 Mbps up to 100 Mbps (using the now-deprecated 100Base-T4 and 100VG-AnyLAN standards). Although this type of cable could run at 100 Mbps, it was seldom used at speeds greater than 10 Mbps. CAT5 cable was the primary replacement for CAT3, supporting data rates up to 100 Mbps. CAT5e and CAT6 are rated for data rates up to 1 Gbps, as on Gigabit Ethernet networks. CAT6 can even support 10 Gbps transfer rates over shorter distances.

Which of the following is the primary application layer protocol used by web browsers to communicate with web servers? A. HTTP B. HTML C. SMTP D. FTP

A. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is the primary protocol used for web client/server communications. Hypertext Markup Language (HTML) is a coding language used to create web content. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) and File Transfer Protocol (FTP) can both be used in web communications, but neither is the primary protocol.

Which of the following best describes why IPv6 hosts exchange ICMPv6 Router Solicitation and Router Advertisement messages with routers? A. To obtain the prefix needed to generate a link-local address B. To learn the IPv6 address of the nearest router C. To perform address conflict detection for its link-local address D. To encapsulate IPv4 packets and transmit them over the router

A. ICMPv6 hosts generate Router Solicitation messages and transmit them to the All Routers multicast address. Routers respond using Router Advertisement messages, which contain the prefix information that the host uses to generate a link-local address. Hosts do not have to learn the address of the nearest router, because they can use the All Routers multicast. Address conflict detection comes after the host has created a link-local address and does not use Router Solicitation and Router Advertisement messages. Hosts do not use Router Solicitation and Router Advertisement messages to encapsulate IPv4 packets.

Ed has been hired to design a company's network. The company has an assigned Class C network address of 192.168.30.0. Ed's client wants the network to be configured with 10 subnets, each with 14 hosts. Is this configuration possible with the given address, and if so, how many subnets and hosts can Ed create on the network? A. Yes, this will work. By using 4 subnet bits, it is possible for Ed to create up to 16 subnets. He can then use the remaining 4 host bits to create 14 hosts on each subnet. B. No, this will not work. A Class C address cannot be subnetted to create 8 subnets. C. No, this will not work. Although there are sufficient bits available to create 10 subnets, there are not enough bits left over for Ed to create 14 hosts per subnet. D. Yes, this will work. Ed can create 10 subnets with 14 hosts per subnet. By using 3 subnet bits, he can create 10 subnets, which leaves 5 bits to create up to 30 hosts per subnet.

A. In this scenario, the company has a Class C Internet Protocol (IPv4) address, which consists of 24 network bits and 8 host bits. The company wants 10 subnets and 14 hosts per subnet, so Ed must subdivide the 8 host bits into subnet and host bits. He can allocate 4 of the 8 host bits for subnets, enabling him to create up to 16 subnets. This leaves 4 bits for host addresses, enabling Ed to create 14 hosts per subnet.

In which of the following ways does a vSwitch (virtual switch) differ from a physical switch? A. Virtual switches have an unlimited number of ports, whereas physical switches have a specific number. B. Physical switches typically support the creation of VLANs, whereas virtual switches do not. C. Virtual switches cannot forward traffic to the host server running them, whereas physical switches can forward traffic to all connected computers. D. Physical switches always include layer 3 functionality, whereas virtual switches do not.

A. It is true that virtual switches can have unlimited ports, whereas physical switches are limited to the number of physical ports in the device. Both virtual and physical switches can support Virtual Local Area Networks (VLANs). Virtual switches can forward traffic to the host server. Physical switches do not always include layer 3 (routing) functionality

Ralph has been hired by a client to install cabling to connect two existing networks. The two networks are in different buildings approximately 1000 feet apart. The cable type must support Gigabit Ethernet data rates of 1000 megabits per second (Mbps) and provide a high level of resistance to electromagnetic interference (EMI). Your client wants the most economical cabling solution that meets their needs. Which of the following cable types best meets the needs of this client? A. Multimode fiber-optic cable B. Shielded Twisted Pair (STP) cable C. Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) cable D. Thin coaxial cable E. Single-mode fiber-optic cable

A. Multimode fiber-optic cable best meets the client's needs. Fiber-optic cable supports the required 1000 Mbps data rate and can connect networks that are more than 1000 feet apart. Fiber-optic cable is immune to EMI. Although both multimode and singlemode fiber would meet the corporation's general needs, multimode is best in this scenario because it is less expensive than single-mode fiber. Twisted pair wiring (STP or UTP) meets the data rate and cost requirements but does not support connections longer than 100 meters. Thin coaxial cable does not support the data rate or distances longer than 185 meters

Ralph has been asked to create some new patch cables that will be used to connect patch panel ports to the network switches. He has been told to use the T568B pinout standard for all of the cable connectors. Ralph gathers the materials and the tools needed to complete the task, but he is not sure about the T568B pinout. Which of the following pinouts must Ralph use when creating the patch cables? A. White/orange, orange, white/green, blue, white/blue, green, white/brown, brown B. White/green, green, white/orange, blue, white/blue, orange, white/brown, brown C. White/orange, orange, white/green, green, white/blue, blue, white/brown, brown D. White/brown, white/green, white/orange, blue, white/blue, orange, green, brown

A. Option A is the T568B pinout that Ralph should use when attaching connectors to the cables. Option B is the T568A pinout, which would also work but that Ralph has been instructed not to use. Options C and D are both incorrect and can result in excessive amounts of crosstalk.

What field in the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) Option subheader specifies the size of the largest segment a system can receive? A. MSS B. Window C. MMS D. WinMS

A. The Maximum Segment Size (MSS) field in the TCP Options subheader specifies the size (in bytes) of the largest segment a system can receive. The Window field indicates the amount of data (in bytes) that the receiver can accept. There are no MMS or WinMS fields in a TCP header

Which of the following cable types is used for Thick Ethernet network segments? A. RG-8 B. RG-58 C. RJ-45 D. RJ-11

A. The cable type used for Thick Ethernet segments is a coaxial cable called RG-8. RG-58 is used exclusively on Thin Ethernet segments. RJ-45 is a connector type used in twisted pair cabling for data networks. RJ-11 is a connector type used in twisted pair cabling for telecommunications networks.

Which of the following cabling topologies was used by the first Ethernet networks? A. Bus B. Ring C. Star D. Mesh

A. The first Ethernet networks used a physical layer implementation commonly known as Thick Ethernet or 10Base5. The network used coaxial cable in a bus topology. Later Ethernet standards use twisted pair cable in a star topology. Ethernet has never used a ring or mesh topology

Which of the following components is responsible for providing a virtualized hardware environment and running virtual machines? A. Hypervisor B. Virtual server C. vSwitch (virtual switch) D. VPN concentrator

A. The hypervisor is the hardware or software component responsible for managing virtual machines and providing the virtualized hardware environment on which they run. Virtual servers and virtual switches are components that are part of the virtual network infrastructure enabled by the hypervisor. A Virtual Private Network (VPN) concentrator is a type of router that enables multiple remote clients to connect to a network; it has nothing to do with virtual networking.

Which of the following best describes the function of the network medium? A. The network medium provides the physical connection between networked computers. B. The network medium provides the protocol used to transmit data between end systems. C. The network medium passes data packets between two routers. D. The network medium processes electrical or light signals and converts them to data.

A. The network medium provides the physical connection between networked computers. This connection can be made through a copper-based, fiber-optic, or wireless medium. The network medium is not a protocol, and it does not pass data packets; it only carries signals. The network medium does not process electrical or light pulses and convert them to data; it carries only the signals generated by transceivers.

Alice is a network administrator designing a new Local Area Network (LAN). She needs to determine the type of cabling and the network topology to implement. Which layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model apply to cabling and topology elements? A. Physical and data link layers B. Data link and network layers C. Network and transport layers D. Transport and application layers

A. The physical layer defines the mechanical and electrical characteristics of the cables used to build a network. The data link layer defines specific network (LAN or WAN) topologies and their characteristics. The physical layer standard that Alice will implement is dependent on the data link layer protocol she selects. The network, transport, and application layers are not concerned with cables and topologies.

Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model is responsible for transmitting signals over the network medium? A. Physical B. Data link C. Network D. Transport E. Session F. Presentation G. Application

A. The physical layer of the OSI model defines the functions specific to the network medium and the transmission and reception of signals. All of the other layers are implemented in software and do not physically send or receive signals.

Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model defines the medium, network interfaces, connecting hardware, and signaling methods used on a network? A. Physical B. Data link C. Network D. Transport E. Session F. Presentation G. Application

A. The physical layer of the OSI model defines the standards for the physical and mechanical characteristics of a network, such as cabling (copper and fiber), connecting hardware (hubs and switches), and signaling methods (analog and digital). All of the other layers are not involved in the mechanical characteristics of the network.

What is the term for the combination of an IPv4 address and a port number, as in the following example: 192.168.1.3:23? A. Socket B. OUI C. Well-known port D. Network address E. Domain

A. The term for an IPv4 address and port number in combination is socket. An Organizationally Unique Identifier (OUI) identifies a manufacturer of networking hardware. A well-known port is a port number assigned to a specific application. A network address is the network identifier part of an IP address. A domain is a group of computers and other resources.

Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR) is a standard for IPv4 addressing that includes the ability to create subnets using any number of IP address bits, rather than using 8-bit blocks. Which of the following terms describes this ability? A. VLSM B. APIPA C. VLAN D. EUI-64

A. Variable-length subnet masking (VLSM) describes the process of subnetting an IPv4 network address by assigning an arbitrary number of host bits as subnet bits, providing administrators with great flexibility over the number of subnets created and the number of hosts in each subnet. Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is the process by which a DHCP client assigns itself an IP address when no DHCP servers are accessible. Virtual Local Area Networks (VLANs) are logical structures used to create separate broadcast domains on a large, switched network. Extended Unique Identifier-64 (EUI-64) is an addressing method used to create IPv6 link local addresses out of media access control (MAC) addresses.

Which type of network connects Local Area Networks (LANs) in distant locations? A. WAN B. LAN C. MAN D. CAN

A. WANs (Wide Area Networks) connect LANs that are geographically distant. A LAN (Local Area Network), as the name implies, is a group of computers, not other LANs, and it is contained within a small area. MANs (Metropolitan Area Networks) connect LANs in a single metropolitan area; they are not confined to a small area. A MAN is typically larger than a LAN but smaller than a WAN. A Campus Area Network (CAN) typically includes a group of adjacent buildings, such as those of a corporation or university

In the punchdown process for Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) cable, which of the following is the last step that you perform when connecting bulk cables to jacks in wall plates and patch panels? A. Cut off the excess wire that protrudes past the contacts. B. Press the bare wire down between the two metal contacts that hold it in place. C. Strip some of the insulating sheath off the cable end to expose the wires. D. Insert the wires into the appropriate contacts in the jack. E. Strip a small amount of insulation off each wire. F. Separate the twisted wire pairs at the ends.

A. You use a punchdown block tool to connect the ends of bulk cable runs to jacks in wall plates and patch panels. The steps of the process are as follows: 1. Strip some of the sheath off the cable end to expose the wires. 2. Separate the twisted wire pairs at the ends. 3. Strip a small amount of insulation off each wire. 4. Insert the wires into the appropriate contacts in the jack. 5. Press the bare wire down between the two metal contacts that hold it in place. 6. Cut off the excess wire that protrudes past the contacts. You must repeat the process of punching down for both ends of your internal cable runs.

Which of the following is an example of a hybrid topology? A. A workstation with two network interface cards, one of which is connected to a star network and one to a bus network B. Four Ethernet switches connected using a bus topology C. Four workstations, each with a separate network connection to each of the other three D. Four Ethernet switches, each with a separate network connection to each of the other three

B . A hybrid topology is a network that uses two or more of the basic topologies, connected together so that each workstation can communicate with all of the other workstations. Connecting four switches to a bus topology combines four-star networks in such a way that the workstations are all interconnected. Connecting a single workstation to a star and a bus network enables that workstation to access both networks, but it does not enable other workstations to access both topologies. Four workstations, each with a separate connection to the other three, is a mesh network topology, not a hybrid. Four connected switches expands the star topology, but it does not create a hybrid topology

On a TCP/IP network, which layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model contain protocols that are responsible for encapsulating the data generated by an application, creating the payload for a packet that will be transmitted over a network? (Choose all that apply.) A. Physical B. Data link C. Network D. Transport E. Session F. Presentation G. Application

B, C, D. Before the payload data generated by an application can be transmitted over a TCP/ IP network, the system must encapsulate it by applying protocol headers and footers at three layers of the OSI model. The data link layer applies a header and footer to create an Ethernet frame. The network layer applies a header to create an IP datagram. The transport layer applies a TCP or UDP header to create a segment or datagram. The other model layers are involved in the payload transmission process, but they do not encapsulate the payload.

Which of the following twisted pair cable types support both 10-megabit-per-second (Mbps) and 100 Mbps data rates, using only two pairs? (Choose all that apply.) A. Category 3 (CAT3) B. Category 5 (CAT5) C. Category 5e (CAT5e) D. Category 6 (CAT6)

B, C, D. CAT5 cable was the original cable standard intended for transfer rates up to 100 Mbps. CAT5e and CAT6 support 100 Mbps and are also rated for data rates up to 1000 Mbps. All three of these standards also support the 10 Mbps transfer rate. CAT3 can support both 10 and 100 Mbps, but it requires four pairs for 100 Mbps.

Which Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) standards for Ethernet support 10-megabit-per-second (Mbps) communications, and what are the correct segment limitations for each standard? (Choose all that apply.) A. 10Base2; segment maximum is 100 meters B. 10Base2; segment maximum is 185 meters C. 10Base5; segment maximum is 500 meters D. 100Base5; segment maximum is 500 meters E. 10Base-T; segment maximum is 100 meters F. 10Base-T segment maximum is 328 meters

B, C, E. The three IEEE 10 Mbps standards for Ethernet are 10Base2, 10Base5, and 10Base-T. 10Base2 is limited to 185-meter segments; 10Base5 is limited to 500-meter segments; and 10Base-T is limited to 100-meter segments. The other options are not valid

Which of the following connector types are typically associated with Ethernet networks? (Choose all that apply.) A. F-type B. BNC C. RJ-45 D. DB-9 E. N-type

B, C, E. Thin Ethernet networks use BNC connectors. Thick Ethernet networks use N-type connectors. All Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) Ethernet networks use RJ-45 connectors. F-type connectors are used with coaxial cable, typically for cable television installations. DB-9 connectors are commonly used for serial communications ports.

Which of the following are types of circuits offered by frame relay services? (Choose all that apply.) A. SRV B. PVC C. SVC D. UPC

B, C. Frame relay services offer permanent virtual circuits (PVCs) and switched virtual circuits (SVCs). SRV is a resource record type in the Domain Name System (DNS), and an Ultra-Physical Contact (UPC) is a type of fiber-optic cable connector.

Which of the following IPv4 addresses are you unable to assign to a network host? (Choose all that apply.) A. 1.1.1.1 B. 229.6.87.3 C. 103.256.77.4 D. 9.34.0.1

B, C. IPv4 addresses with first byte values from 224 to 239 are Class D addresses, which are reserved for use as multicast addresses. Therefore, you cannot assign 229.6.87.3 to a host. Option C, 103.256.77.4, is an invalid address because the value 256 cannot be represented by an 8-bit binary value. The other options, 1.1.1.1 and 9.34.0.1, are both valid IPv4 addresses.

Which of the following remote access connection technologies can support the simultaneous transmission of voice and data traffic over the Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN)? (Choose all that apply.) A. Dial-up modem connection B. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) C. Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) D. Synchronous Optical Network (SONET) E. Cable television (CATV) network

B, C. ISDN and DSL are both remote access technologies that enable users to transmit voice and data simultaneously. To do this, DSL splits the lower analog frequency (voice) range from the higher digital frequency (data) range, whereas ISDN provides multiple data channels (called B channels) that allow for both voice and data transmissions. Broadband cable television networks can often support simultaneous voice and data communications, but they use Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) to carry voice traffic over the Internet, not the PSTN. Dial-up connections and SONET do not support the simultaneous transmission of voice and data.

Some switches can perform functions associated with two layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model. Which two of the following layers are often associated with network switching? (Choose all that apply.) A. Physical B. Data link C. Network D. Transport E. Session F. Presentation G. Application

B, C. The primary function of a switch is to process packets based on their media access control (MAC) addresses, which makes it a data link layer device. However, many switches can also perform routing functions based on IP addresses, which operate at the network layer.

What are the two main factors that affect DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) transmission rates? A. Signal termination B. Distance to the nearest central office C. Line conditions

B, C. There are two factors that affect DSL transmission rates. The first is the distance to the nearest central office, and the second is the condition and quality of the line. For DSL to achieve higher data rates, the site must be close to the central office and use good-quality lines for signal transmission. The other options are not factors relating to DSL transmission.

Which of the following connector types are associated with fiber-optic cables? (Choose all that apply.) A. RJ11 B. ST C. F D. LC E. MT-RJ

B, D, E. Fiber-optic cable connectors all function on the same basic principles, but there are a variety of form factors from which to choose, including Straight Tip (ST), Local Connector (LC), and Mechanical Transfer-Registered Jack (MT-RJ). RJ-11 is a twisted pair cable connector, and F connectors are for coaxial cable.

Which of the following statements are true about coaxial cable? (Choose all that apply.) A. Coaxial cable has three conductors within the same sheath. B. Coaxial cable has two conductors within the same sheath. C. Coaxial cable has a copper core that carries light pulse signals. D. Coaxial cable has a copper core that carries electrical signals. E. Coaxial cable has an insulating outer sheath made of braided strands. F. Coaxial cable has an insulating sheath made of either PVC or Teflon.

B, D, F. Coaxial cable has two conductors within the same sheath that share a common axis. These conductors are surrounded by an outer insulating sheath of either PVC or Teflon. Copper cables carry electrical signals. Only fiber-optic cables carry light pulse signals

Which of the following are examples of Virtual IP (VIP) addresses? (Select all that apply.) A. An IP address assigned to a host workstation by a DHCP server B. A public IP address substituted for a host's own private IP address by a NAT router C. An IP address assigned to a host workstation by APIPA D. An IP address assigned to a virtual NIC

B, D. A virtual IP address is an address that does not correspond to a physical network interface. Network Address Translation (NAT) uses virtual public IP addresses as substitutes for the private IP addresses associated with the client hosts. A network interface in a virtual machine is virtual as well, so the IP address associated with that interface must also be virtual. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) both can assign IP addresses to physical network interfaces; these addresses are therefore not virtual.

Which of the following network types are typically wireless? (Choose all that apply.) A. WAN B. PAN C. SAN D. WLAN

B, D. Personal area networks (PANs) connect devices associated with a single person, such as smartphones, and are nearly always wireless. Wireless Local Area Networks (WLANs) are wireless by definition. Wide Area Networks (WANs) typically span long distances and are typically wired, at least in part. Storage area networks (SANs) require high performance levels and are nearly always wired.

Which of the following cable types are typically used in newly constructed Local Area Network (LAN) installations? (Choose all that apply.) A. Single-mode fiber optic B. Multimode fiber optic C. Coaxial D. Unshielded twisted pair

B, D. The main cable types used in LANs today are multimode fiber optic and unshielded twisted pair. Single-mode fiber optic is used primarily for long-distance Wide Area Network (WAN) connections, and coaxial cable is no longer used for LANs.

Which of the following are not valid IPv4 addresses in the private address space defined by RFC 1918? (Choose all that apply.) A. 10.16.225.1 B. 172:33:19:7 C. 192.168.254.77 D. 10.255.255.255 E. 172.15.2.9

B, E. RFC 1918 defines the private address space as the following ranges: ■ 10.0.0.0-10.255.255.255 ■ 172.16.0.0-172.31.255.255 ■ 192.168.0.0-192.168.255.255 Option B, 172:33:19:7, and Option E, 172.15.2.9, both fall outside the specified private Class B range, and are therefore not valid private addresses.

Which of the following Ethernet specifications calls for CAT8 UTP cable exclusively? A. 10GBase-T B. 40GBase-T C. 100Base-TX D. 1000Base-SX

B. 40GBase-T is a 40-gigabits-per-second (Gbps) Ethernet specification that calls for 4-pair CAT8 twisted pair cabling for lengths up to 30 meters. 10GBase-T and 100Base-TX do not require CAT8 cable, and 1000Base-SX is a fiber optic standard.

Ed has been assigned the IPv4 network address 192.168.2.32/28 for the computers in his department. Which of the following ranges of addresses can Ed use to configure the TCP/IP clients on his computers? A. 192.168.2.32 to 192.168.2.55 B. 192.168.2.33 to 192.168.2.46 C. 192.168.2.33 to 192.168.2.40 D. 192.168.2.1 to 192.168.2.254

B. A /28 address leaves 4 bits for the host identifier. To calculate the number of hosts, Ed uses 24 -2=14. The first address on the subnet is therefore 192.168.2.33, and the fourteenth is 192.168.2.46

Which of the following is the device that provides the interface between a Local Area Network (LAN) and a Wide Area Network (WAN)? A. QSFP B. CSU/DSU C. SIP trunk D. IDS/IPS

B. A Channel Service Unit/Data Service Unit (CSU/DSU) is a device that provides a LAN router on a private network with access to a leased line WAN connection. Quad Small Formfactor Pluggable (QSFP) is a standard for a type of modular transceiver, often used on fiberoptic installations. A Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) trunk provides a connection between the private and public domains of a unified communications network, such as a LAN and the Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN). An intrusion detection system/intrusion prevention system (IDS/IPS) is a network hardware or software security appliance that detects malicious activity and attempts to block it.

Which type of network is typically confined to a small area, such as a single room, floor, or building? A. WAN B. LAN C. MAN D. CAN

B. A Local Area Network (LAN), as the name implies, is a group of computers contained within a small geographic area. WANs (Wide Area Networks) connect LANs that are geographically distant. MANs (Metropolitan Area Networks) are not confined to a small area; they are typically larger than a LAN but smaller than a WAN. A Campus Area Network (CAN) typically includes a group of adjacent buildings, such as those of a corporation or university.

Which of the following best describes the function of a demarcation point or demarc? A. The vertical cross-connect that links horizontal networks together B. The place where an outside service enters the building C. A switch or hub that connects the computers in a particular work area together, forming a horizontal network D. The place in a telecommunications room where a patch panel is located

B. A demarcation point, or demarc, is the place where an outside telecommunications service meets a customer's private network, which is typically where the service enters the building. The demarc is also the place where the responsibility of the network administrator ends. If a problem occurs outside the demarc, it is up to the service provider to fix it. Inside the demarc, it is the network administrator's problem.

Which of the following is the range of IPv4 addresses that Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) assigns to DHCP clients that cannot access a DHCP server? A. 10.0.0.0 to 10.0.255.255 B. 169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255 C. 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.0.255 D. 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.255.255

B. According to RFC 3927, when a DHCP client cannot access a DHCP server, APIPA assigns it an address on the 169.254/16 network, the range of addresses for which is 169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255.

To which class does the following IPv4 address belong: 190.126.14.251? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D

B. All Class B addresses have first octet values between 128 and 191. The first octet range of a Class A address is 1 to 126, and the Class C first octet range is 192 to 223. Class D addresses have a first octet range of 224 to 239.

Dense Wave Division Multiplexing (DWDM) is a signaling technology that has become a popular choice in the construction of which of the following types of provider links? A. Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) B. Metro-optical C. Satellite D. Cable

B. DWDM has become a popular technology in the construction of metro-optical networks because it addresses some of the scalability and cost restrictions of other optical technologies, such as Synchronous Optical Networks (SONETs). DSL, satellite, and cable providers do not typically use DWDM.

Network Address Translation (NAT) operates at which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model? A. Data link B. Network C. Transport D. Application

B. NAT works by modifying IP addresses, which are a network layer element. The data link layer is concerned only with communications on the local subnet and is not involved with NAT processing. Because NAT modifies only the IP packet headers, it works with any transport layer protocol. NAT also works with most TCP/IP applications because it operates below the application layer of the OSI model.

Alice is a network consultant who has been contracted to evaluate a network design created many years ago, to determine if the design is still viable. The network will support 20 workstations, scattered throughout the building, to run an inventory database application. The two most distant computers are 150 meters apart. The primary goal for the network design is to connect all 20 workstations to a single LAN running at 10 megabits per second (Mbps). The two secondary goals are to provide sufficient fault tolerance for a single cable break to occur without affecting the entire network and to provide resistance to the electromagnetic interference (EMI) generated by machinery in the building. The earlier design calls for a Thin Ethernet LAN with all of the computers connected to a single coaxial cable segment. Which of the following statements about the proposal is true? A. The solution achieves neither the primary goal nor either of the secondary goals. B. The solution achieves the primary goal but neither of the secondary goals. C. The solution achieves the primary goal and one of the secondary goals. D. The solution achieves the primary goal and both of the secondary goals.

B. Although the design calls for an archaic technology, a Thin Ethernet network runs at 10 Mbps and can support 20 workstations over a maximum distance of 185 meters, thus achieving the primary goal. However, Thin Ethernet uses copper-based coaxial cable, which is susceptible to EMI, and it uses a bus topology, which is not tolerant of a cable break. Therefore, the solution does not achieve either of the secondary goals.

Ed has been hired by a private company to connect two remote sites with a Wide Area Network (WAN). Each of these sites has more than 200 users, and they all need to constantly transfer files across the WAN. One of the sites has a customer database that is accessed by both sites at all hours of the day. Access to the database and other information is time sensitive and constant. The company estimates that their aggregate bandwidth needs to be approximately 40 Mbps. Management says that they need to guarantee access to this information and that money is not a factor in the WAN implementation. Which WAN technology should Ed recommend for this scenario? A. A standard modem-to-modem connection B. A T-3 dedicated leased line C. A cable television (CATV) connection D. An ADSL (Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line) connection

B. For this scenario, the best of the options given is a dedicated leased line connection. This is because the bandwidth requirements are constant, and the data transfer rates are high. To support the 40 Mbps data rate, Ed should recommend a T-3 dedicated leased line, running at 44.735 Mbps. Standard modem connections, CATV, and ADSL connections are all too slow.

Ed has been hired by a private company to connect two remote sites with a Wide Area Network (WAN). Each of these sites has more than 200 users, and they all need to constantly transfer files across the WAN. One of the sites has a customer database that is accessed by both sites at all hours of the day. Access to the database and other information is time sensitive and constant. The company estimates that their aggregate bandwidth needs to be approximately 40 Mbps. Management says that they need to guarantee access to this information and that money is not a factor in the WAN implementation. Which WAN technology should Ed recommend for this scenario? A. A standard modem-to-modem connection B. A T-3 dedicated leased line C. A cable television (CATV) connection D. An ADSL (Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line) connection

B. For this scenario, the best of the options given is a dedicated leased line connection. This is because the bandwidth requirements are constant, and the data transfer rates are high. To support the 40 Mbps data rate, Ed should recommend a T-3 dedicated leased line, running at 44.735 Mbps. Standard modem connections, CATV, and ADSL connections are all too slow.

Which of the following technologies can replace leased lines, such as T-1s, by multiplexing signals as packets switched through virtual circuits in a cloud? A. E-1s B. Frame relay C. ATM D. PPP

B. Frame relay is a packet switching service that uses a single leased line to replace multiple leased lines by multiplexing traffic through a cloud. The service can create virtual circuits connecting the subscriber's network to multiple destinations, eliminating the need for a dedicated leased line to each remote site. An E-1 is the European equivalent to a T-1 leased line, which does not replace multiple T-1s. Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) is a cell-switching WAN technology, and Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) is a protocol that provides a data link layer connection between two end systems. Neither is a replacement for multiple T-1s.

Specify the layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model at which the Internet Protocol (IP) operates and whether it is connection-oriented or connectionless. A. Network; connection-oriented B. Network; connectionless C. Transport; connection-oriented D. Transport; connectionless

B. IP is a connectionless protocol that operates at the network layer of the OSI model. There are no connection-oriented protocols at this layer. The protocols at the transport layer include Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), which is connection-oriented, and User Datagram Protocol (UDP), which is connectionless.

On an unmanaged network, which of the following virtual networking components have media access control (MAC) addresses assigned to them? A. Virtual switches B. Virtual NICs C. Hypervisors D. Virtual firewalls

B. Just like physical network interface cards (NICs), virtual NICs have 6 byte MAC addresses assigned to them, which enable them to be identified by data link layer protocols. Unlike physical NICs, however, it is typically an easy matter to modify a MAC address on a virtual NIC. Virtual switches, like physical switches, are not addressable devices, so they do not have MAC addresses on an unmanaged network. The hypervisor is the component on a host server that makes virtualization possible, so it does not require a MAC address. Virtual firewalls operate at the application layer, so they do not require data link layer MAC addresses. On a managed network, these devices have a MAC address to communicate with the management console, but addresses are not needed on an unmanaged network.

Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) is sometimes said to operate between two layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model. Between which two layers is it usually said to function? A. Physical and data link B. Data link and network C. Network and transport D. Transport and Session

B. MPLS is a data-carrying service that is often said to operate between the data link layer and the network layer. It is therefore sometimes called a layer 2.5 protocol. MPLS can be used to carry IP datagrams as well as Ethernet, Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM), and Synchronous Optical Network (SONET) traffic.

Which of the following is a wide area networking mechanism that assigns labels to packets and forwards them based on those labels, rather than addresses? A. Frame relay B. MPLS C. ATM D. PPPoE E. SDWAN

B. Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) is a data transfer mechanism that assigns labels to individual packets, and then routes the packets based on those labels. Frame relay, Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM), Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet (PPPoE), and a Software Defined Wide Area Network (SDWAN) do not assign labels to packets.

Which of the following services enables computers on a private IPv4 network to access the Internet using a registered IP address? A. DHCP B. NAT C. DNS D. NTP

B. Network Address Translation (NAT) is a service that enables computers with unregistered IP addresses to access the Internet by substituting a registered address in packets as they pass through a router. The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is an IP address allocation service. Domain Name System (DNS) resolves domain and hostnames into IP addresses, and Network Time Protocol (NTP) enables network devices to synchronize their time settings.

At which layer of the OSI model do you find the protocol responsible for the delivery of data to its ultimate destination on an internetwork? A. Data link B. Network C. Session D. Application

B. On a TCP/IP network, the Internet Protocol (IP) at the network layer is the protocol responsible for the delivery of data to its final destination. Data link layer protocols are only concerned with communication between devices on a Local Area Network (LAN) or between two points connected by a Wide Area Network (WAN) link. The session and application layers are not involved in the actual delivery of data

Which of the following port numbers is assigned to a Unix logging services program? A. 389 B. 514 C. 636 D. 993

B. Port number 514 is assigned to syslog, a Unix standard designed to facilitate the transmission of log entries generated by a device or process, such as the sendmail SMTP server, across an IP network to a message collector, called a syslog server. Port number 389 is assigned to the Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP). Port number 636 is assigned to LDAP over Secure Sockets Layer (SSL). Port number 993 is assigned to Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) over SSL.

Which of the following cable types is used for Thin Ethernet network segments? A. RG-8 B. RG-58 C. RJ-45 D. RJ-11

B. RG-58 coaxial cable is used exclusively for Thin Ethernet segments. RG-8 cable is used for Thick Ethernet segments. RJ-45 is a connector type used in twisted pair cabling for data networks. RJ-11 is a connector type used in twisted pair cabling for telecommunications networks

Which of the following is the IPv6 equivalent of Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA)? A. EUI-64 B. SLAAC C. APIPAv6 D. DHCPv6

B. Stateless Address Auto-Configuration (SLAAC) is the means by which IPv6 systems self-generate link-local addresses with the prefix fe80::/64, much as IPv4 systems use APIPA to generate addresses. IPv6 systems can use DHCPv6 to obtain stateful (not stateless) addresses. An Extended Unique Identifier (such as EUI-64) is the format for a media access control (MAC) address.

Which of the following 10 Gigabit Ethernet specifications calls for the use of copper cable? A. 10GBase-LR B. 10GBase-CX4 C. 10GBase-ER D. 10GBase-LX4 E. 10GBase-SR

B. The 10GBase-CX4 specification calls for the use of a twinaxial copper cable with segments no longer than 15 meters. The10GBase-LR, 10GBase-ER, 10GBase-LX4, and 10GBase-SR specifications all call for fiber-optic cable

Ralph has been instructed to use the network address 10.12.0.0/14 for the new network he is installing. What subnet mask value should he use when configuring his computers? A. 255.248.0.0 B. 255.252.0.0 C. 255.254.0.0 D. 255.255.248.0 E. 255.255.252.0 F. 255.255.254.0

B. The 14-bit prefix indicated in the network address will result in a mask with 14 ones followed by 18 zeroes. Broken into 8-bit blocks, the binary mask value is as follows: 11111111 11111100 00000000 00000000 Converted into decimal values, this results in a subnet mask value of 255.252.0.0

At which of the following layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model do the protocols on a typical local area network (LAN) use media access control (MAC) addresses to identify other computers on the network? A. Physical B. Data link C. Network D. Transport

B. The Ethernet (or IEEE 802.3) protocol at the data link layer uses MAC addresses to idenitify computers on the local network. MAC addresses are coded into the firmware of physical network interface adapters by the manufacturer. The physical layer deals with signals and is not involved in addressing. The IP protocol at the network layer has its own addressing system. The transport layer protocols are not involved in addressing.

Which of the following organizations is responsible for assigning the well-known port numbers used in transport layer protocol headers? A. Institute for Electronic and Electrical Engineers (IEEE) B. Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) C. Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) D. International Organization for Standardization (ISO)

B. The IANA assigns values for well-known port numbers. The IEEE publishes Ethernet standards, among many others. The IETF develops standards for Internet technologies. The ISO developed the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model.

Which of the following protocols is used to exchange directory service information? A. RDP B. LDAP C. SNMP D. SMB

B. The Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is an application layer protocol used for managing and accessing information stored in directory services. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is used to establish a graphical remote control session with another computer. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is used to carry information gathered by management agents distributed around a network to a central management server. Server Message Block (SMB) is the primary file sharing protocol used by Windows systems

Which of the following is not one of the primary components of the Network Function Virtualization (NFV) framework? A. VNF B. NFV ISG C. NFVI D. NFV-MANO

B. The NFV specification, published by the European Telecommunications Standards Instiute (ETSI), calls for three main components: virtualized network functions (VNFs), which are software-based implementations of standard network services, such as firewalls and load balancers; a Network Functions Virtualization Infrastructure (NFVI), which is the hardware/ software environment that hosts the VNFs; and a Network Functions Virtualization Management And Orchestration (NFV-MANO) framework, which includes the elements required to deploy and administer the NFVI and the VNFs. The Network Functions Virtualization Industry Specification Group (NFV ISG) is the group within ETSI that develops the NFV specifications; it is not one of the three components.

Which of the following is the U.S. standard for synchronous data transmissions that defines data rates designated by optical carrier levels, such as OC-3, OC-12, OC-48, and OC-192? A. SDH B. SONET C. ISDN D. DSL

B. The Synchronous Optical Networking (SONET) standard defines a base data transfer rate of 51.84 Mbps, which is multiplied at the various optical carrier levels. An OC-3 connection therefore runs at 155.52 Mbps, an OC-12 at 622.08 Mbps and so forth. The Synchronous Digital Hierarchy (SDH) is the European equivalent of SONET. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) is a service that combines voice and data services using the Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN), and Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) is a remote access technology that enables users to transmit voice and data simultaneously.

At which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model is there a protocol that adds both a header and footer to the information that is passed down from an upper layer, thus creating a frame? A. Physical B. Data link C. Network D. Transport E. Session F. Presentation G. Application

B. The only layer with a protocol (such as Ethernet) that adds both a header and a footer is the data link layer. The process of adding the headers and footers is known as data encapsulation. All other protocol layers that encapsulate data add just a header.

It is Ralph's first day working for a consultancy that does network cable installations. His new boss hands him a spool of Category 6 cable, a large plier-like device, and a bag of little clear plastic components and tells him to "get started on fives and tens." What is Ralph expected to do? A. Pull cable runs B. Create patch cables C. Attach keystone connectors D. Install a patch panel

B. The plier-like device is a crimper, which cable installers use to attach RJ45 connectors, like those in the bag, to lengths of bulk cable. This is the process of creating patch cables, which are used to connect computers to wall plates and patch panels to switches. The boss is telling Ralph to start making patch cables in 5-foot and 10-foot lengths. You do not use a crimper to attach keystone connectors, and the boss has not given Ralph the tools and components needed to pull cable runs or install a patch panel.

Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model would be responsible for converting a text file encoded using EBCDIC on the sending system into ASCII code, when required by the receiving system? A. Application B. Presentation C. Session D. Physical

B. The presentation layer of the OSI model is responsible for translating different kinds of syntax, including text-encoding systems, such as EBCDIC and ASCII. The application, session, and physical layers do not perform this function.

How many bits are allocated to the host identifier in an IPv4 address on the 10.72.0.0/17 network? A. 8 B. 15 C. 16 D. 17

B. The value after the slash in a Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR) address specifies the number of bits in the network identifier. An IPv4 address has 32 bits, so if 17 bits are allocated to the network identifier, 15 bits are left for the host identifier

Which of the following broadband WAN services provides equal amounts of upstream and downstream bandwidth? A. ADSL B. SDSL C. Satellite D. Cable

B. The word symmetric in Symmetric Digital Subscriber Line (SDSL) means that the service provides equal amounts of bandwidth in both directions. The asymmetric in Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL) means that the service provides more downstream bandwidth than upstream. Cable and satellite services are also asymmetric, providing more bandwidth downstream than upstream.

Which of the following cable types is typically configured in a star topology, uses eight copper conductors arranged in four pairs, and uses RJ-45 connectors? A. RG-8 B. Twisted pair C. RG-58 D. Fiber optic

B. There are two main types of twisted pair wiring used for data communications: Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) and Shielded Twisted Pair (STP). Both types can be used in a star topology. UTP and STP cables contain eight copper conductors twisted in four pairs. UTP and STP cables use RJ-45 connectors to connect end systems to switches, patch panels, and wall plates. RG-8 and RG-58 coaxial cable can only be used in a bus topology. Fiber-optic cable can be used in a star topology, but it uses either glass or plastic conductors and does not use RJ-45 connectors.

Which of the following statements best describes the difference between Type I and Type II virtualization? A. Type II virtualization requires the host computer to have a processor that supports hardware virtualization assistance; Type I virtualization does not. B. In Type I virtualization, the hypervisor runs directly on the physical computer hardware, whereas in Type II virtualization, a host operating system runs on the computer hardware and the hypervisor runs on top of the host OS. C. Type I virtualization supports up to 256 virtual machines, whereas Type II virtualization supports only 8. D. Type I virtualization requires a separate processor for each virtual machine, whereas in Type II virtualization, the VMs all share a single processor.

B. Type I virtualization does not require a host OS, whereas Type II virtualization does. Both Type I and Type II virtualization can use processors with hardware virtualization assistance, but only Type I requires it. The type of virtualization does not impose any limit on the number of virtual machines supported; any limitations are left to the individual implementation. Both Type I and Type II virtualization can share a single processor among virtual machines.

Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) assigns IPv4 addresses from which of the following classes to Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) clients that cannot contact a DHCP server? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D

B. When a DHCP client cannot access a DHCP server, APIPA assigns it a Class B address using the network address 169.254/16, which yields the address range 169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255.

Ralph has an IPv4 Class B network with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0. How many subnets can he create, and how many hosts can he create per subnet? A. 64 subnets and 2046 hosts B. 32 subnets and 2046 hosts C. 30 subnets and 1022 hosts D. 62 subnets and 1022 hosts

B. With a Class B subnet mask of 255.255.248.0, the binary form of the third and fourth bytes is 11111000 00000000. There are 5 subnet bits, providing up to 32 subnets and 11 host bits, providing up to 2046 hosts.

If you have an IPv4 network address of 192.168.1.32/27, what is the valid range of host addresses you can use for your workstations? A. 192.168.1.33 through 192.168.1.63 B. 192.168.1.33 through 192.168.1.62 C. 192.168.1.34 through 192.168.1.62 D. 192.168.1.34 through 192.168.1.63

B. With a network address of 192.168.1.32 and 27 mask bits, the subnet mask value is 1111111.11111111.11111111.11100000 in binary form, or 255.255.255.224 in decimal form. This leaves 5 bits for the host identifier. The valid range of host bits is therefore 00001 (1) through 11110 (30). This gives you a range of 192.168.1.32 + 1 (33) through 192.168.1.32 + 30 (62).

On which of the following virtual networking components can you create VLANs? A. Virtual NIC B. Virtual switch C. Virtual router D. Virtual firewall

B. You can create Virtual Local Area Networks (VLANs) on a virtual switch, just as you can create them on many physical switches. In most cases, virtual components function just like their physical counterparts. Virtual NICs are components of virtual machines and therefore do not provide functions spanning entire networks. Virtual routers function at the network layer and virtual firewalls at the application layer, so neither of these can host VLANs, which operate at the data link layer.

Which of the following types of Wide Area Network (WAN) connections commonly use Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet (PPPoE)? (Choose all that apply.) A. Leased lines B. SONET C. Cable broadband D. Digital Subscriber Line (DSL)

C, D. Cable broadband and DSL subscribers typically connect to ISP networks that run Ethernet, but Ethernet has no built-in authentication or encryption mechanisms. PPP has the ability to use external authentication and encryption protocols, so by encapsulating PPP within Ethernet frames, users are able to log on to the ISP network securely. Leased lines, such as T-1s, and Synchronous Optical Network (SONET) connections do not use Ethernet connections, so they have no need for PPPoE.

Which of the following cable connector types have been rendered nearly obsolete by Universal Serial Bus (USB) connections? (Choose all that apply.) A. BNC B. RJ-11 C. DB-9 D. DB-25

C, D. The DB-9 and DB-25 connectors were at one time ubiquitous on personal computers, providing peripheral connections to modems, printers, and other devices. They have since been largely eliminated in favor of USB. BNC connectors were used for Thin Ethernet networking, but they have been replaced by Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) cable with RJ-45 connectors. RJ-11 connectors are used for telephone connections.

Ralph is configuring a new email client on a workstation to use the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) and Post Office Protocol (POP3) email protocols. He wants both protocols to use encryption when communicating with the email server. Which of the following port numbers should Ralph use to secure the SMTP connection with Transport Layer Security (TLS) and the POP3 connection with Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) encryption? (Choose all that apply.) A. 110 B. 25 C. 587 D. 993 E. 995

C, E. SMTP with TLS uses port number 587. POP3 over SSL uses port number 995. Port numbers 25 and 110 are used for SMTP and POP3 without encryption. Port number 995 is used for Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) over SSL.

Which DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) technology can adjust its transmission speed based on line conditions? A. HDSL B. IDSL C. RADSL D. VDSL

C. Rate-Adaptive Digital Subscriber Line (RADSL) technology can adjust its rate of transmission based on line conditions. High-bit-rate Digital Subscriber Line (HDSL), Very highrate Digital Subscriber Line (VDSL), and Internet Digital Subscriber Line (IDSL) do not use rate adaptive transmission.

Ralph is a network consultant with a client who wants him to design the Local Area Network (LAN) for his company's new branch office. The site consists of a building with Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) cable already installed, which the client considered a major selling point when selecting the property. He wants Ralph to install the fastest possible LAN using the existing cable. After examining the site, Ralph notes that the cable is Category 5 (CAT5), installed using a star topology, and that the individual cable runs are all less than 100 meters long. Which of the following Ethernet physical layer specifications can Ralph use for the new network to provide the fastest transmission speeds without replacing the cable? A. 10GBase-T B. 100Base-TX C. 1000Base-T D. 1000Base-LX E. 1000Base-SX

C. 1000Base-T is the fastest Ethernet specification that can run on CAT5 UTP cable. 10GBase-T requires at least Category 5e (CAT5e) or Category 6 (CAT6) UTP cable. 100Base-TX can use CAT5 cable, but it runs at one-tenth the speed of 1000Base-T. 1000Base-LX and 1000Base-SX are fiber-optic specifications that cannot run on CAT5 UTP or any copper cable.

A T-3 leased line connection is the equivalent of how many T-1 connections? A. 7 B. 14 C. 28 D. 112

C. A T-3 leased line connection is the equivalent of 28 T-1 connections. Each T-1 consists of 24 channels, so a T-3 has a total of 672 channels (28 × 24), for an overall transfer rate of 44.736 Mbps.

Which of the following is the proper term for a computer with a hypervisor on which you can create virtual machines and other virtual components? A. Guest B. NAS C. Host D. SAN

C. A computer with a hypervisor, on which you can create virtual machines, is referred to as a host. The virtual machines themselves are called guests. Network Attached Storage (NAS) refers to a device containing shared drives that is connected to a network. A Storage Area Network (SAN) is a separate network dedicated to shared storage devices.

Ed is a software developer who has been given the task of creating an application that requires guaranteed delivery of information between end systems. At which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model does the protocol that provides the guaranteed delivery run, and what type of protocol must Ed use? A. Data link layer; connectionless B. Network layer; connection-oriented C. Transport layer; connection-oriented D. Application layer; connectionless

C. A connection-oriented transport layer protocol, such as Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), provides guaranteed delivery of data for upper layer applications. Connectionless protocols do not guarantee delivery of information and therefore are not a good choice. Guaranteed delivery of information is generally not a function of the data link, network, or application layer.

Which of the following best defines the concept of the dual stack? A. A computer with two network interface adapters B. A computer with two installed operating systems C. A computer with two sets of networking protocols D. A computer with connections to two different network segments

C. A dual stack is an IP implementation that includes both IPv4 and IPv6 protocol stacks, operating simultaneously. A computer with two network adapters or connections to two network segments is often called multihomed. A computer with two installed operating systems is called a dual-boot system

Which of the following cabling topologies provides the greatest number of redundant paths through the network? A. Star B. Ring C. Mesh D. Bus

C. A mesh topology is one in which every node is directly connected to every other node, therefore providing complete redundancy through the network. In a star topology, each node is connected to a central nexus, providing each with a single path to the rest of the network. In a ring topology, each node is connected to two other nodes, providing two possible paths through the network. In a bus topology, nodes are chained together in a line, providing no redundancy.

Which of the following statements is true about the differences between a peer-to-peer network and a client-server network? A. Peer-to-peer networks are inherently less secure than client-server networks. B. Peer-to-peer networks are illegal, while client-server networks are legal. C. On peer-to-peer networks, every workstation is capable of authenticating users. D. On a peer-to-peer network, all workstations must share their resources.

C. A peer-to-peer network calls for each workstation to maintain accounts for authenticating users that access their shared resources. On a client-server network, authentication is centralized. Peer-to-peer networks can be more difficult to administer than client-server networks, but they are not inherently less secure. Peer networks sharing copyrighted content on the Internet are illegal, but it is not illegal to share private resources on a peer-to-peer network. Workstations on a peer-to-peer network are not required to share their resources, but they are capable of it.

Which of the following devices often provides diagnostic testing capabilities at the demarcation point of a leased line Wide Area Network (WAN) service? A. SIP trunk B. Media converter C. Smartjack D. AAAA server

C. A smartjack is a device located at the demarcation point of a leased line that can provide additional functions, such as signal conversion, diagnostic testing, and other capabilities. A Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) trunk is a connection to a Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) service provider. A media converter is a local area networking device that connects different cable types to the same network. An AAAA server provides authentication, authorization, accounting, and auditing services for remote access servers.

Alice has been hired by a corporation to design the cabling for their network. The corporation just moved into two different floors of an older building: a retail space on the ground floor and an office space on the 43rd floor. The building has existing Category 5 (CAT5) Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) cable. Alice's client wants two separate Local Area Networks (LANs), one on each of the two floors, with a backbone network connecting them. They want a 1 gigabit-per- second (Gbps) data rate for each LAN but plan on migrating to 10 Gbps in the future. The two networks are approximately 200 meters apart. Which of the following solutions best meets the client's needs? A. Install Category 6 (CAT6) or Category 6a (CAT6a) UTP cable for the LANs. These cables run at 1 Gbps and provide a migration path to 10 Gbps. Use twisted pair cable for the backbone network. B. Use the existing CAT5 cabling for the LANs, since CAT5 runs at 1 Gbps. Use thick coaxial cable for the backbone network. C. Install CAT6 or CAT6a UTP cable for the LANs. These cables run at 1 Gbps and provide a migration path to 10 Gbps. Use multimode fiber-optic cable for the backbone network. D. Install CAT6 or CAT6a UTP cable for the LANs. These cables run at 1 Gbps and provide a migration path to 10 Gbps. Use the existing CAT5 cable for the backbone network.

C. Either CAT6 or CAT6a UTP cable will provide the currently required 1 Gbps data rate, with a migration path to 10 Gbps in the future. The backbone cabling connecting the two LANs needs to be fiber optic, since it exceeds the distance limitations of twisted pair and coaxial cable. CAT5 cable conceivably runs at 1 Gbps; however, it does not run at 10 Gbps.

On a TCP/IP network, flow control is a function implemented in protocols operating at which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model? A. Presentation B. Session C. Transport D. Network

C. Flow control is a process that adjusts the transmission rate of a protocol based on the capability of the receiver. If the receiving system becomes overwhelmed by incoming data, the sender dynamically reduces the transmission rate. In the TCP/IP protocol suite, Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is responsible for implementing flow control. TCP runs at the transport layer. None of the other layers listed have TCP/IP protocols that provide flow control.

Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model is responsible for the logical addressing of end systems and the routing of datagrams on a network? A. Physical B. Data link C. Network D. Transport E. Session F. Presentation G. Application

C. Network layer protocols (such as IP) contain headers that specify logical addresses for end system communication and route datagrams across a network. The physical layer defines standards for physical and mechanical characteristics of a network. The data link layer uses media access control (MAC) or hardware addresses, not logical addresses. The transport layer uses port numbers, not logical addresses. Session layer protocols create and maintain a dialogue between end systems. Presentation layer protocols are responsible for the formatting, translation, and presentation of information. The application layer provides an entry point for applications to access the protocol stack and prepare information for transmission across a network.

Which of the following is the default well-known port number for the Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) used for web client/server communications? A. 22 B. 20 C. 80 D. 443

C. Port 80 is the default well-known port for HTTP. Port 22 is for the Secure Shell (SSH) protocol, port 20 is for File Transfer Protocol (FTP), and port 443 is for secured HTTP.

To which of the following Internet connection types does a specification called DOCSIS apply? A. Dial-up modem B. DSL C. Cable broadband D. ISDN

C. The Data Over Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS) is a telecommunications standard that defines the manner in which data is to be transmitted over a cable television system. DOCSIS does not apply to dial-up modem, Digital Subscriber Line (DSL), or Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) connections.

Which of the following protocols appears on the network as a service that client computers use to resolve names into IP addresses? A. DHCP B. BOOTP C. DNS D. SNMP

C. The Domain Name System (DNS) is a protocol that computers on a TCP/IP use to resolve host and domain names into the IP addresses they need to communicate. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP) are both IP address allocation protocols, and Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) carries information gathered by agents to a central management console.

Identify the layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model that controls the addressing, transmission, and reception of Ethernet frames, and also identify the media access control method that Ethernet uses. A. Physical layer; Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) B. Physical layer; Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) C. Data link layer; CSMA/CD D. Data link layer; CSMA/CA

C. The Ethernet protocol that handles the addressing, transmission, and reception of frames operates at the data link layer. Each frame includes hardware addresses that identify the sending and receiving systems on the local network. Ethernet uses the CSMA/CD media access control method. Physical layer specifications include the transmission of signals in the form of electrical or light pulses to represent binary code, not frames. CSMA/CA is a data link layer media access control method used by wireless LAN protocols, but not Ethernet.

Which of the following physical layer transceiver module standards is the oldest and therefore the most obsolete? A. SFP B. SFP+ C. GBIC D. QSFP E. QSFP+

C. The Gigabit Interface Converter (GBIC) transceiver standard was first published in 1995 and defines a maximum data transfer rate of 1.25 Gbps. It was rendered all but obsolete by the Small Form-factor Pluggable (SFP) standard, introduced in 2001, which ran at the same maximum speed but was smaller in size. Subsequent variations on the standard, such as SFP+, Quad Small Form-factor Pluggable (QSFP), and QSFP+, defined devices with faster transfer rates

Which of the following is a common European alternative to the 110 punchdown block used in U.S. telecommunications installations? A. 66 block B. mGRE C. Krone LSA-Plus D. BIX

C. The Krone LSA-Plus is a proprietary telecommunications connector type commonly used in European installations. The 66 block is an outdated type of punchdown block for U.S. telephone systems. Multipoint Generic Routing Encapsulation (mGRE) is a technique for encapsulating network layer protocols; it is not a type of punchdown block. BIX (Building Industry Cross-connect) is a proprietary U.S. telecommunications connection system.

Which of the following is the Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) size for an Ethernet frame? A. 512 B. 1024 C. 1500 D. 1518

C. The MTU is the largest amount of data (in bytes) that a protocol operating at a given layer of the OSI model can transmit in one packet. The MTU does not include any header and footer fields supplied by that protocol. For Ethernet, the maximum frame size is 1518 bytes, which includes 18 bytes of header and footer fields. Therefore, the MTU for Ethernet is 1500 bytes. Protocols operating at other OSI model layers can have different MTUs. For example, the ty

Which of the following is an address that you can assign to a host on a private IPv4 network? A. 192.167.9.46 B. 172.16.255.255 C. 10.1.0.253 D. 225.87.34.1

C. The address 10.1.0.253 is a proper address in the private address range 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255. The address 192.167.9.46 falls outside the designated private IP address range, which is 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255, and is therefore not a viable address on a private network. 172.16.255.255 is a broadcast address, which you cannot assign to a host. 225.87.34.1 falls in the Class D multicast address range and cannot be assigned to a single host.

Which of the following is a valid IPv6 address? A. fe00::b491:cf79:p493:23ff B. 2001:0:49e6:39ff:8cf5:6812:ef56 C. fe00::c955:c944:acdd:3fcb D. 2001:0:44ef68:23eb:99fe:72bec6:ea5f

C. The address fe00::c955:c944:acdd:3fcb is correctly formatted for IPv6, with the double colon replacing three blocks of zeroes. Uncompressed, the address would appear as follows: fe00:0000:0000:0000:c955:c944:acdd:3fcb. Option A contains a nonhexadecimal digit. Option B contains only seven 16-bit blocks (and no double colon) instead of the eight required for 128 bits. Option D contains blocks larger than 16 bits.

Which of the following is the most accurate description of the subnetting process on an IPv4 network? A. You extend the IP address by adding bits for a subnet identifier. B. You borrow bits from the network identifier to create a subnet identifier. C. You borrow bits from the host identifier to create a subnet identifier. D. You create a subnet identifier by borrowing half of the bits from the network identifier and half from the host identifier.

C. You cannot extend the IPv4 address beyond its 32-bit size, and you cannot remove bits from the network identifier, or the packets will not be routed properly. You must therefore create a subnet by borrowing bits from the host identifier

What is the greatest number of host addresses you can create on a single subnet of a network with the following address: 172.16.0.0/20? A. 142 B. 144 C. 4,094 D. 4,096

C. The formula for calculating the number of hosts you can create using a host identifier of a given length is 2x -2, where x is the number of bits in the host identifier. You cannot create a host with an address of all zeroes or all ones, which is why you subtract 2. On a network that uses 20 bits for network identification, 12 bits are left for the host identifier. Using those 12 bits, you can create 212-2 or 4,094 host addresses.

Which of the following Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) control bits is set to 1 to initiate the termination of a session? A. SYN B. URG C. FIN D. END E. PSH

C. The termination phase of a TCP connection begins when either the client or the server sends a message containing the FIN control bit with a value of 1. The other control bits listed have nothing to do with the connection termination procedure, and there is no END bit.

Which of the following statements explains the purpose of the twists in twisted pair cabling? A. The twists prevent collisions. B. The twists completely eliminate crosstalk and electromagnetic interference (EMI) in adjacent wire pairs. C. The twists prevent crosstalk in adjacent wire pairs and limit the effects of EMI on the signals carried over the cable. D. The twists extend the bend radius allowance of the cable.

C. The twists in a twisted pair cable prevent the signals on the different wires from interfering with each other (which is called crosstalk) and also provide resistance to outside electromagnetic interference. The twists have no effect on collisions. The twists cannot completely eliminate the effects of EMI. Twists have nothing to do with the bend radius allowance for the cable.

Which of the following combinations of attributes describes the cable used for a Thin Ethernet network? A. RJ-45, 50-ohm, 0.270-inch, coaxial cable with BNC connectors B. RG-59, 75-ohm, 0.242-inch, coaxial cable with F connectors C. RG-58, 50-ohm, 0.195-inch, coaxial cable with BNC connectors D. RG-8, 50-ohm, 0.405-inch, coaxial cable with N connectors E. RJ-6, 75-ohm, 0.242-inch, coaxial cable with BNC connectors

C. Thin Ethernet networks use a type of 50-ohm coaxial cable called RG-58, which is 0.195 inches in diameter and uses BNC connectors. 75-ohm coaxial cable with F connectors is used for cable television networks, and RG-8 coaxial is the cable that Thick Ethernet networks use.

Alice has been assigned the IPv4 network address 172.21.0.0/22 for the creation of a new department network in her company. How many host addresses does she have available to her? A. 510 B. 512 C. 1022 D. 1024

C. To calculate the number of host addresses available, Alice must determine the number of host bits in the address, which is 10, raise 2 to that power, and subtract 2 for the network and broadcast addresses, which are unusable for hosts. The formula is therefore 2x -2. 210-2=1022.

Alice has been instructed to create an IPv4 network with 8 subnets and 30 hosts per subnet. She has been assigned a Class C network address. Which of the following subnet masks will she have to use? A. 255.255.255.128 B. 255.255.255.192 C. 255.255.255.224 D. 255.255.255.240 E. 255.255.255.248 F. 255.255.255.252

C. To create a network with 8 subnets and 30 hosts per subnet, Alice would have to allocate 3 of the 8 bits in the last octet for subnet identifiers. This would result in a binary value of 11100000 for the last octet in the subnet mask, which converts to a decimal value of 224.

Which of the following twisted pair cable types can you use to construct a 10GBase-T network with 100-meter segments? (Choose all that apply.) A. CAT5 B. CAT5e C. CAT6 D. CAT6a E. CAT7 F. CAT8

D, E, F. Category 6a (CAT6a) twisted pair cable is a variant on CAT6 that enables you to create 10GBase-T networks with segments up to 100 meters long. Category 7 (CAT7) cable adds shielding both to the individual wire pairs and to the entire cable, for even greater resistance to crosstalk and noise. CAT7 supports 100-meter 10GBase-T segments as well. CAT8 cable supports bandwidth up to 2 GHz, making it even more suitable for 10GBase-T networks than CAT6a (500 MHz) or CAT7 (600 MHz). CAT5 and CAT5e are not suitable for use with 10GBase-T. You can use CAT6 for 10GBase-T, but it is limited to 55-meter segments

Which of the following devices typically operates at the network layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model? A. Proxy server B. Hub C. Network interface adapter D. Router

D. A router connects networks at the network layer of the OSI model. Proxy servers operate at the application layer. Network interface adapters operate at both the data link and the physical layers. Hubs are physical layer devices.

Which of the following terms describes a leased line subscription that provides access to only part of a T-1? A. E-1 B. B channel C. OC-1 D. Fractional T-1

D. A subscription to part of the T-1 leased line is called a fractional T-1 service. This service enables you to purchase some of the 24 DS0 channels in a T-1 connection. An E-1 is the European version of a T-1. A B channel is part of an Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) service, not a T-1. An OC-1 is a fiber-optic connection on the Synchronous Optical Network (SONET) service.

Ralph has been contracted to consult for a company that wants to update its legacy Ethernet network to Gigabit Ethernet. On examining the site, he discovers that the network is still using coaxial-based Thin Ethernet. What change in network topology must occur to upgrade the existing network to Gigabit Ethernet using Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) cable? A. Bus to Ring B. Ring to Star C. Star to Bus D. Bus to Star E. Star to Ring

D. All coaxial-based Ethernet networks, including Thin Ethernet, use a bus topology. All UTP-based Gigabit Ethernet networks use a star topology. Therefore, an upgrade from coaxial to UTP cable must include a change in topology from bus to star

Which of the following is not a type of fiber-optic connector? A. SC B. MTRJ C. ST D. BNC

D. Bayonet-Neill-Concelman (BNC) is a type of connector used with coaxial cable. Subscriber Connector (SC), Mechanical Transfer-Registered Jack (MT-RJ), and Straight Tip (ST) are all types of fiber-optic connectors

Which of the following Wide Area Network (WAN) technologies uses broadband signaling? A. Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) B. Synchronous Optical Network (SONET) C. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) D. Cable television (CATV)

D. CATV networks use broadband signaling, which enables many signals to occupy the same channel. DSL and ISDN do not use broadband signaling. SONET is a physical layer standard that defines fiber-optic connections.

Why does DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) technology support faster data transmissions than a standard Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) modem connection? A. DSL uses a separate control circuit that provides clear channels for data. B. DSL does not perform Cyclic Redundancy Check (CRC) functions and therefore has less overhead. C. DSL performs only a single analog-to-digital conversion. D. DSL uses a higher frequency range.

D. DSL technology provides higher data rates because it uses frequency ranges that are higher than the standard voice spectrum. DSL connections use 10 kHz and above, whereas the standard voice spectrum uses 300 Hz to 4 kHz. DSL does not use separate control circuits and does not perform CRC functions. Also, DSL technology is strictly digital and does not require an analog-to-digital conversion.

Ed is a network consultant who has been contracted to design the network for a new manufacturing plant. The plant consists of two buildings 150 meters apart: an office with 20 computers and a manufacturing facility that has 30 computers. The two most distant computers at the site are 225 meters apart. Ed's design calls for a Gigabit Ethernet network using fiber-optic cable. On receiving the proposal, the client asks Ed to justify the additional labor and expense of installing fiber-optic cable instead of Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP). Which of the following is not a valid reason for choosing fiber optic over UTP for this project? A. The 225-meter distance between the two most distant computers exceeds Ethernet's maximum cable segment length for UTP. B. Only fiber-optic cable can keep the two buildings electrically isolated. C. Fiber-optic cable is completely resistant to any electromagnetic interference generated by the equipment in the manufacturing plant. D. Fiber-optic cable provides a greater degree of tolerance to cable breaks than UTP.

D. Fiber-optic cable is not more tolerant of cable breaks than UTP. Some fiber-optic networks are fault tolerant, but the Ethernet fiber-optic specifications are not. UTP cables connecting a computer to a switch can be no longer than 100 meters, making 200 meters the maximum distance between two computers. Connecting two buildings with a copper based cable creates an electrical connection between them, which can be hazardous. Fiberoptic cable does not create an electrical connection. Fiber-optic cable is also unaffected by the EMI generated by manufacturing equipment.

Which of the following Wide Area Network (WAN) services typically uses a switched fabric that was called a cloud long before the term came into general use? A. ATM B. Fractional T-1 C. SONET D. Frame relay

D. Frame relay is a packet switching service that uses a single leased line to replace multiple leased lines by multiplexing traffic through a cloud. Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) uses a switched fabric, but it is not referred to as a cloud. A fractional T-1 is part of a leased line that connects two points, so there is no switching involved and no cloud. SONET is a physical layer standard that defines fiber-optic connections; it does not call for switching or use the term cloud.

If you want to allow both voice and data traffic to be transmitted across the same Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) connection, what type of device is required at the customer site? A. A signal terminator B. A Digital Subscriber Line Access Multiplexer (DSLAM) C. A coder/decoder (CODEC) device D. A splitter

D. In a DSL connection, a signal splitter is needed at the customer site to separate the lower frequency voice range from the higher frequencies used by data traffic. The higher frequency signals are handled at the central office by a DSLAM device. Lower frequency signals carrying voice traffic are handled at the central office by a CODEC device. A signal terminator is not required by DSL.

Which of the following best describes the function of a vSwitch (or virtual switch)? A. A vSwitch is a software product that enables a computer with multiple network adapters to function as a switch. B. A vSwitch is a feature in layer 3 switches that enables VLANs on the same switch to communicate with each other. C. A vSwitch is a feature in layer 3 switches that enables VLANs on different switches to communicate with each other. D. A vSwitch enables virtual machines (VMs) running on the same hypervisor to communicate with each other internally.

D. In most virtualization products, when you create multiple virtual machines on one host computer, they can communicate with each other internally using a built-in virtual switching capability. A computer with multiple network adapters can function as a router, but not as a switch. Layer 3 switches can provide virtual routers that connect VLANs together, but not virtual switches. The function that enables VLANs on different switches to communicate is called trunking, not virtual switching.

Ralph is an employee of a company that offers the option to telecommute from home. As a telecommuting employee, he needs to connect to the company network to access client information, transfer files, and send email through a Virtual Private Network (VPN) connection. Ralph is investigating the different Wide Area Network (WAN) services available for the remote connection before he implements one. His home is over 30 years old; the existing telephone wiring was not run through conduit, and the wiring seems to be deteriorating. Ralph has cable television (CATV) service, and his home is a so approximately 20,000 feet from the nearest telephone central office. He wants to implement the fastest remote connection service possible, but cost is a factor in the decision. Which WAN technology should Ralph implement? A. A dedicated leased line (fractional T-1) B. A standard modem-to-modem connection C. A DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) connection D. A broadband CATV connection

D. In this scenario, the best solution is for Ralph to use his existing CATV service for the remote connection. CATV offers faster data rates than standard modem-to-modem service and supports VPN connections. A dedicated fractional T-1 line is expensive and is not typically used for remote user connections. Since Ralph's telephone lines are not run through conduit and the distance to the central office is more than 18,000 feet, he probably cannot use DSL technology, because it requires good-quality lines and close proximity to a central office.

Which of the following protocols operates at the network layer of the OSI model, but does not encapsulate data generated by an upper layer protocol for transmission over the network? A. IP B. UDP C. ARP D. ICMP E. TCP

D. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) operates at the network layer by sending operational and error messages. It does not encapsulate upper layer protocol data. Internet Protocol (IP) operates at the network layer, but it does encapsulate transport layer protocol data. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP) are transport layer protocols that encapsulate upper layer protocol data. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) does not encapsulate upper layer protocol data, but it is a data link layer protocol.

Which of the following is not a protocol operating at the network layer of the OSI model? A. IP B. ICMP C. IGMP D. IMAP

D. Internet Protocol (IP), Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP), and Internet Group Message Protocol (IGMP) are all network layer protocols. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) is a mail protocol that operates at the application layer.

Which of the following is not a protocol that uses tunneling to establish secured links between TCP/IP systems? A. L2TP B. IPsec C. MGRE D. NAT

D. Network Address Translation (NAT) enables workstations on private networks to access the Internet by substituting a public IP address in packets generated with private addresses. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP), IPsec, and Multipoint Generic Routing Encapsulation (MGRE) are all protocols that encapsulate packets in an encrypted form within another protocol to secure the contents.

Which of the following server applications use two well-known port numbers during a typical transaction? A. NTP B. SNMP C. HTTP D. FTP

D. The File Transfer Protocol (FTP) uses two port numbers. It uses the first, port 21, for a control connection that remains open during the entire client/server session. The second port, 20, is for a data connection that opens only when the protocol is actually transferring a file between the client and the server. Network Time Protocol (NTP), Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP), and Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) all use a single port on the server.

A client on a TCP/IP network is attempting to establish a session with a server. Which of the following correctly lists the order of the TCP flags raised in the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) session establishment messages? A. SYN, ACK, SYN, ACK B. SYN, SYN, ACK, ACK C. SYN/ACK, SYN/ACK D. SYN, SYN/ACK, ACK

D. The TCP connection establishment exchange is a three-way handshake that uses TCP flags to specify the message type for each frame. The first frame contains a SYN flag from the client; the second frame contains the SYN and ACK flags from the server; and the last frame contains an ACK flag from the client.

Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model is responsible for dialogue control between two communicating end systems? A. Physical B. Data link C. Network D. Transport E. Session F. Presentation G. Application

E. The session layer is responsible for creating and maintaining a dialogue between end systems. This dialogue can be a two-way alternate dialogue that requires end systems to take turns transmitting, or it can be a two-way simultaneous dialogue in which either end system can transmit at will. No other layers of the OSI model perform dialogue control between communicating end systems

A maintenance worker, while replacing a light fixture in an office building, accidentally severs a network cable in the drop ceiling. The tenants use a variety of Local Area Network (LAN) technologies throughout the structure, but on that particular floor, there are three separate LANs: a 10-node Thin Ethernet LAN using coaxial cable in a bus topology, a 25-node Gigabit Ethernet LAN using twisted pair cable in a star topology, and a 5-node Fiber Distributed Data Interface (FDDI) LAN using multimode fiber-optic cable in a double ring topology. Without knowing which of the LANs the severed cable belongs to, what is the maximum number of computers that could be directly affected by the cable break? A. 0 B. 1 C. 5 D. 10 E. 25 F. 40

D. The Thin Ethernet LAN is the network most endangered by the cable break. If a bus network is severed, all of the workstations on it are affected because the cable segments are no longer terminated at one end. The Gigabit Ethernet network uses a star topology, which means that only the one computer using the severed cable could be disconnected from the network. A FDDI double ring network can survive a single cable break without any workstations being affected

Ed has been hired by a company to upgrade its network infrastructure. The current network is 10 Mbps Ethernet running on Category 5 (CAT5) twisted pair cable. There are 100 computers on the network, all of which have 10/100/1000 multispeed network interface adapters. The computers are all connected to hubs. Users are complaining that the network is too slow, and connections are sometimes dropped. Management wants to upgrade to the fastest Ethernet standard possible, using the existing cabling, and still keep costs to a minimum. Which of the following implementations should Ed recommend to the client? A. Upgrade to 100Base-TX and keep the existing hubs. B. Upgrade to 1000Base-T and keep the existing hubs. C. Upgrade to 100Base-FX and replace all of the hubs with switches. D. Upgrade to 1000Base-T and replace all of the hubs with switches. E. Upgrade to 100Base-SX and replace all of the hubs with switches.

D. The best solution in this scenario is to upgrade to 1000Base-T and replace the existing hubs with switches. 1000Base-T provides the fastest transfer speeds supported by the existing cable. Since users are complaining that the network is slow with the existing hubs, it makes sense to replace the shared hub environment with switches that offer dedicated bandwidth on each port. Any solution that does not replace the hubs would not address the users' complaints. 100Base-TX would provide a speed increase, but it runs at ~1/10 the speed of 1000Base-TX. Upgrading to 100Base-FX or 100Base-SX would require the cabling to be replaced with fiber optic, which would be very expensive.

Which of the following cable types and connectors are used to attach a television set to a cable television (CATV) network? A. A fiber-optic cable and a Straight Tip (ST) connector B. A coaxial cable and a Bayonet-Neill-Concelman (BNC) connector C. A twisted pair cable and an RJ-45 connector D. A coaxial cable and an F-type connector E. An AUI cable and a vampire tap connector F. A twinaxial cable and a Bayonet-Neill-Concelman (BNC) connector

D. The cable type and connector used to attach a television set to a CATV network is a coaxial cable with a screw-on F-type connector. Although CATV networks typically use fiber-optic cables and ST connectors for outdoor connections, they do not use fiber for internal connections to television sets. Coaxial cables with BNC connectors are most commonly used for Thin Ethernet LANs, not CATV network connections. Twisted pair cables and RJ-45 connectors are used for Ethernet LANs and telephone networks, but not CATV networks. AUI cables and vampire tap connectors are used for Thick Ethernet networks. Twinaxial cables are used for SATA 3.0 device and 100 Gbit Ethernet connections, but not for CATV connections.

In an internal UTP cable installation, each horizontal cable run connects a wall plate in the work area to a centralized cabling nexus in a telecommunications room. Which of the following is the correct term for this cabling nexus? A. Telepole B. Demarc C. Backbone D. Patch panel E. Fiber distribution panel

D. The cabling nexus in a telecommunications room is called a patch panel. A telepole is a tool used for installing cables. A backbone is a network that connects other Local Area Networks (LANs) together. A demarcation point, or demarc, is the location at which a telecommunication provider's service meets the customer's private network. A fiber distribution panel is used for fiber optic cable, not Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP), connections.

A company is moving their entire operation to a new building, and part of the plan is to increase the speed of their Internet access by installing a leased T-3 line to replace their existing broadband connection. The service provider they have selected sends a technician to install the leased line. Which of the following is the correct term for the location in the new building where the technician will terminate the T-3? A. Patch panel B. Switch C. Firewall D. Demarc

D. The demarc, or demarcation point, is the place where a service enters the building, and where the service provider's physical layer responsibility ends. The patch panel, the switch, and the firewall are all inside the network, and they are the responsibility of the subscriber.

Which of the following types of cable, when installed, sometimes employed a device called a vampire tap? A. Unshielded twisted pair B. Shielded twisted pair C. Multimode fiber optic D. Single-mode fiber optic E. Coaxial

E. Thick Ethernet installations used a type of coaxial cable called RG-8. To connect a node to the network, installers ran a separate cable called an Attachment Unit Interface (AUI) cable from the computer to the RG-8 and connected it using a device called a vampire tap that pierced the sheathing to make contact with the conductors within. All of the other cable types listed use different types of connectors.

Alice is a network consultant who has been contracted to upgrade an existing Ethernet network to Gigabit Ethernet. The network consists of 20 workstations with integrated 10Base-T/100Base-TX/ 1000Base-T network interface adapters. The network cabling is Category 5 (CAT5) Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP), installed when the building was constructed. All of the workstations are connected to a single 100Base-TX switch. Which of the following options would Alice find to be a valid upgrade path to Gigabit Ethernet? A. Replace the CAT5 cable with at least Category 5e (CAT5e) or Category 6 (CAT6), and leave the existing network interface adapters and switch in place. B. Install a 1000Base-T network interface card in each computer, and leave the existing cables and switch in place. C. Replace the CAT5 cable with at least CAT5e or CAT6, and replace the 100Base-T switch with a 1000Base-T switch. D. Replace the 100Base-TX switch with a 1000Base-T switch, and leave the existing cables and network interface adapters in place.

D. The multispeed network interface adapters in the computers can run at 1 Gbps speed using the existing CAT5 cable, but the 100Base-T switch must be replaced with a 1000Base-T switch. While the network might run better with a cable upgrade, it is not immediately necessary. Replacing the network interface adapters is not necessary because the existing multispeed adapters can run at 1 Gbps if they are connected to a 1000Base-T switch.

Which of the following hardware components is typically found at the demarcation point of a leased line, such as a T-1 or T-3? A. Terminator B. Punchdown block C. 110 block D. Smartjack E. CSU/DSU

D. The network interface device (NID) at the demarcation point of a leased line can be a simple RJ-45 jack, but many service providers install smartjacks, which can also provide signal conversion, diagnostic testing, and other capabilities. Punchdown blocks, 110 blocks, and Channel Service Unit/Data Service Units (CSU/DSUs) are all telecommunications components located inside the demarc, on the subscriber's private network.

Which of the following is not a port number used for Structured Query Language (SQL) communications? A. 1433 B. 1521 C. 3306 D. 3389

D. The port number 3389 is used by the Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) and is not involved in SQL communication. Port 1433 is used by SQL Server; 1521 is used by SQLnet; 3306 is used by MySQL.

At which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model are there TCP/IP protocols than can provide either connectionless or connection-oriented services to applications? A. Physical B. Data link C. Network D. Transport E. Session F. Presentation G. Application

D. There are two types of transport layer protocols: connection-oriented and connectionless. Connection-oriented protocols guarantee the delivery of data from source to destination by creating a connection between the sender and the receiver before any data is transmitted. Connectionless protocols do not require a connection between end systems in order to pass data. The physical layer does not use connectionless or connection-oriented protocols; it defines standards for transmitting and receiving information over a network. The data link layer provides physical addressing and final packaging of data for transmission. The network layer is responsible for logical addressing and routing. The session layer is responsible for creating and maintaining a dialogue between end systems. The presentation layer is responsible for the formatting, translation, and presentation of information. The application layer provides an entry point for applications to access the protocol stack and prepare information for transmission across a network.

A network interface adapter in a workstation has a hexadecimal MAC address of 001F9EFC7AD0. Which of the following would be the adapter's IPv6 link local address based on its EUI-64 value? A. FE80::001F:9EFF:FEFC:7AD0 B. FE80::FFFE:021F:9EFC:7AD0 C. FE80::FF00:1F9E:FC7A:D0FE D. FE80::021F:9EFF:FEFC:7AD0

D. To convert a MAC address to an Extended Unique Identifier (EUI-64), you split the 6-byte MAC address into two 3-byte halves and insert the 2-byte value FFFE in between, as follows: 001F9E FFFE FC7AD0 Then, you change the seventh bit in the first byte, the universal/local bit, from 0 to 1, indicating that this is a locally created address. This results in a binary first byte value of 00000010, which converts to 02 in hexadecimal. Finally, you add the IPv6 link local prefix FE80::/10, resulting in the following complete address: FE80::021F:9EFF:FEFC:7AD0 All of the other answers either insert the FFFE bytes in the wrong place or fail to change the universal/local bit.

In which of the following components can a virtual firewall be implemented? A. On a host operating system B. On a guest operating system C. In a dedicated virtual machine D. In a virtual switch E. All of the above

E. A virtual firewall is a service or appliance that performs the same functions as a physical network firewall: packet filtering and monitoring. In a virtual environment, firewalls can take the form of software components installed on a guest virtual machine or a hypervisor host system. A firewall can also be incorporated into a virtual switch.

Identify the organizations that developed the general cable type standards for voice and data communications that are currently in use and identify the document name. A. ANSI/TVA, document C568 B. TWA/ANSI/EIA, document T530-A C. EIA/ANSI/TWA, document 802.2 D. TDA/EIA/TIA, document 802.11 E. ANSI/TIA/EIA, document T568b

E. The three organizations that collectively developed the T568b document, which defines the standard for a structured cabling system for voice and data communications, are the American National Standards Institute (ANSI), the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA), and the Electronic Industries Association (EIA). All of the other options are not standards organizations or cabling standards.

What layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model is responsible for translating and formatting information? A. Physical B. Data link C. Network D. Transport E. Session F. Presentation G. Application

F. The presentation layer implements functions that provide formatting, translation, and presentation of information. No other layers of the OSI model translate and format application data.

Ed has been hired to install network cabling for a small private company with 15 employees who need to share files and printers. All of the employees are physically located within the same building in two separate office spaces directly adjacent to each other, sharing a common wall and door for access. Both offices have drop ceilings. The client wants a simple Gigabit Ethernet installation that is easy to troubleshoot. In addition, Ed's client wants to keep installation costs to a minimum. Which of the following combinations of topology, cable type, and installation method would best meet the needs of Ed's client? A. Star topology, fiber-optic cabling, and internal installation B. Bus topology, coaxial cabling, and external installation C. Bus topology, twisted pair cabling, and internal installation D. Star topology, coaxial cabling, and external installation E. Star topology, twisted pair cabling, and external installation

E. Because the company has few employees, a single location, and cost restrictions, the best solution is a star topology with prefabricated twisted pair cabling and an external installation method. The star topology uses a central switch. Prefabricated twisted pair cabling, with the connectors already attached, will keep the cost to a minimum. Since the employees are all located in the same building, with a common wall and a drop ceiling, the external installation method is the best choice. It is not possible to use a bus topology or coaxial cable for Gigabit Ethernet. Ed could use fiber-optic cable in a star topology for Gigabit Ethernet, but it is more difficult and expensive to install. An internal installation, which uses a combination of bulk cable and prefabricated cables, is more expensive than an external installation and is typically used for larger networks.

Which of the following organizations developed the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model? A. International Telecommunication Union (ITU-T) B. Comité Consultatif International Télégraphique et Téléphonique (CCITT) C. American National Standards Institute (ANSI) D. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) E. International Organization for Standardization (ISO)

E. ISO developed and published the OSI model to serve as a conceptual model for software and hardware developers. The ITU-T, formerly known as the CCITT, coordinates the development and advancement of international telecommunication networks and services. ANSI is a private organization that administers and coordinates a United States-based standardization and conformity assessment system. The IEEE publishes standards that define data link and physical layer standards. These standards are referred to collectively as the 802 series

Ralph has been hired to connect three Local Area Networks (LANs) together with redundant paths that form a fault-tolerant backbone. The LANs reside on different floors in the same building and are approximately 600 meters apart. Each LAN is currently configured in a star topology using twisted pair cabling. Each LAN includes wall plates and rack-mounted patch panels and switches. Building and fire codes allow cables to run through existing risers, ceilings, and walls, but a 50,000-watt radio station occupies one of the floors between the LANs. Which topology, cable type, and installation method are best suited for this network? A. Star topology, fiber-optic cabling, and internal installation B. Star topology, coaxial cabling, and external installation C. Mesh topology, fiber-optic cabling, and external installation D. Bus topology, twisted pair cabling, and internal installation E. Mesh topology, fiber-optic cabling, and internal installation F. Star topology, twisted pair cabling, and external installation

E. Ralph should use a mesh topology with redundant fiber-optic cable runs and an internal installation method. This will meet the requirements for connecting the LANs and providing redundancy and fault tolerance. Fiber-optic cable is immune to electromagnetic interference (EMI) and can span long distances. The internal installation method is most often used in larger networks, where end systems are geographically distant. The star topology will not fulfill the requirements since it provides no redundancy. Twisted pair cable cannot span distances more than 100 meters, and it is highly susceptible to EMI. Coaxial cable cannot span distances more than 500 meters, and it is also susceptible to EMI. The bus topology cannot use twisted pair cabling and does not support cable runs longer than 500 meters

Which of the following is a correct listing of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layers, in order, from top to bottom? A. Physical, data link, transport, network, session presentation, application B. Application, session, presentation, transport, network, data link, physical C. Presentation, application, transport, session, network, physical, data link D. Session, application, presentation, transport, data link, network, physical E. Application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical

E. The correct order of the OSI model layers, from top to bottom, is application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical.

What is the greatest number of subnets you can create with a Class A IPv4 address if you use a 14-bit subnet identifier? A. 256 B. 1,022 C. 1,024 D. 16,382 E. 16,384

E. The formula for calculating the number of subnets you can create using a subnet identifier of a given length is 2x , where x is the number of bits in the subnet identifier. Therefore, with a 14-bit subnet, you can conceivably create 214, or 16,384, subnets.

Which of the following cable connector types is not used with fiber-optic cable? A. Straight Tip (ST) B. Subscriber Connector (SC) C. Mechanical Transfer-Registered Jack (MT-RJ) D. F-type E. Fiber Local Connector (LC)

Which of the following cable connector types is not used with fiber-optic cable? A. Straight Tip (ST) B. Subscriber Connector (SC) C. Mechanical Transfer-Registered Jack (MT-RJ) D. F-type E. Fiber Local Connector (LC)