Network +
A client has asked you to provide their local office with the BEST solution for a wireless network based on their requirements. The client has stated that their users will need a wireless network that provides a maximum of 54 Mbps of bandwidth and operates in the 2.4GHz frequency band. Which of the following wireless network types should you install to meet their needs?
802.11g provides transmission over short distances at up to 54 Mbps in the 2.4 GHz band. It is backward compatible with 802.11b (which only operates at 11 Mbps). While an 802.11ac network would be the fastest solution, it does not operate in the 2.4 GHz frequency band. 802.11a operates in the 5 GHz frequency band at up to 54 Mbps. Wireless networks utilize three different frequency bands: 2.4 GHz, 5 GHz, and 6 GHz. The 2.4 GHz frequency band is used by 802.11b, 802.11g, and 802.11n. The 5 GHz frequency band is used by 802.11a, 802.11n, 802.11ac, and 802.11ax. The 6 GHz frequency band is used by Wi-Fi 6E under the 802.11ax standard.
Which type of network device operates at layer 1 of the OSI model and requires connected devices to operate at half-duplex using CSMA/CD?
: A hub is a network hardware device for connecting multiple Ethernet devices together and making them act as a single network segment. A hub operates at the physical layer (Layer 1) of the OSI model. All devices connected by a hub are in a single collision domain and a single broadcast domain, therefore they must use half-duplex for communication and CSMA/CD. A switch is networking hardware that connects devices on a computer network by using packet switching to receive and forward data to the destination device. A switch operates at the data link layer (Layer 2) of the OSI model and makes switching decisions based upon MAC addresses. Each switchport on a switch is a separate collision domain, but all switchports are in a common broadcast domain. A switch is networking hardware that connects devices on a computer network by using packet switching to receive and forward data to the destination device. A switch operates at the data link layer (Layer 2) of the OSI model and makes switching decisions based upon MAC addresses. Each switchport on a switch is a separate collision domain, but all switchports are in a common broadcast domain. A router is networking hardware that connects computer networks and forwards data packets between those networks. A router operates at the network layer (Layer 3) of the OSI model and makes routing decisions based upon IP addresses. Each switchport on a router is a separate collision domain and a separate broadcast domain.
Your company is experiencing slow network speeds of about 54Mbps on their wireless network. You have been asked to perform an assessment of the existing wireless network and recommend a solution. You have recommended that the company upgrade to an 802.11n or 802.11ac wireless infrastructure to obtain higher network speeds. Which of the following technologies allows an 802.11n or 802.11ac network to achieve a speed greater than 54 Mbps?
: One way 802.11n and 802.11ac networks achieve superior throughput and speeds by using multiple-input multiple-output (MIMO) and multi-user MIMO (MU-MIMO), respectively. MIMO uses multiple antennas for transmission and reception, which results in higher speeds than 802.11a and 802.11g networks, which can only support up to 54 Mbps of throughput. Wireless N and Wireless AC networks also utilize the 5 GHz frequency band, allowing them to achieve speeds greater than 54 Mbps. WPA2 is a wireless encryption standard and can be used with Wireless G, N, AC, or AX. Using WPA2 does not increase the speed of the wireless network. Power over Ethernet (POE) is a technology that lets network cables carry electrical power. POE is defined in the IEEE 802.3af. PoE does not affect the speed of a wireless network. Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP) is the name of a protocol that can control multiple Wi-Fi wireless access points at once. This can reduce the amount of time spent on configuring, monitoring, or troubleshooting a large network. LWAPP does not affect the speed of a wireless network.
Which of the following technologies combines the functionality of a firewall, malware scanner, and other security appliances into one device?
A Unified Threat Management (UTM) appliance enforces a variety of security-related measures, combining the work of a firewall, malware scanner, and intrusion detection/prevention. A UTM centralizes the threat management service, providing simpler configuration and reporting than isolated applications spread across several servers or devices. An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a device or software application that monitors a network or system for malicious activity or policy violations. Any malicious activity or violation is typically reported to an administrator or collected centrally using a security information and event management system. Unlike an IPS, which can stop malicious activity or policy violations, an IDS can only log these issues and not stop them. An intrusion prevention system (IPS) conducts the same functions as an IDS but can also block or take actions against malicious events. A Syslog server is a server that collects diagnostic and monitoring data from the hosts and network devices across a given network.
You are working as a network technician running new unshielded twisted pair cables from the intermediate distribution frame to the individual offices on the same floor. The cable comes in 1000 foot spools. Which of the following tools should you use to break the cable into shorter distances?
A cable snip or cable cutter is used to cut copper cables into shorter lengths from a longer spool of wound cable. A cable crimper is used to join the internal wires of a twisted pair cable with metallic pins houses inside a plastic connector, such as an RJ-45 connector. A cable stripper is a hand-held tool that is used to remove the insulation or outer sheath from copper cables such as UTP, STP, or coaxial cables. A punchdown tool is used to insert wires into insulation displacement connectors on patch panels, keystone modules, or punchdown blocks.
What type of cloud model would allow the sharing of resources by multiple organizations to create a service that benefits all of its members?
A community cloud in computing is a collaborative effort in which infrastructure is shared between several organizations from a specific community with common concerns, whether managed internally or by a third party and hosted internally or externally. Community Cloud is a hybrid form of private cloud. They are multi-tenant platforms that enable different organizations to work on a shared platform. Community Cloud may be hosted in a data center, owned by one of the tenants, or by a third-party cloud services provider and can be either on-site or off-site. A public cloud contains services offered by third-party providers over the public Internet and is available to anyone who wants to use or purchase them. They may be free or sold on-demand, allowing customers to pay only per usage for the CPU cycles, storage, or bandwidth they consume. A private cloud contains services offered either over the Internet or a private internal network and only to select users instead of the general public. A hybrid cloud is a cloud computing environment that uses a mix of on-premises, private cloud, and third-party public cloud services with orchestration between these platforms. This typically involves a connection from an on-premises data center to a public cloud.
Dion Worldwide has recently built a network to connect four offices around the world together. Each office contains a single centralized switch that all of the clients connect to within that office. These switches are then connected to two of the other locations using a direct fiber connection between each office. The office in New York connects to the London office, the London office connects to the Hong Kong office, the Hong Kong office connects to the California office, and the California office connects to the New York office. Which of the following network topologies best describes the Dion Worldwide network?
A hybrid topology is a kind of network topology that is a combination of two or more network topologies, such as mesh topology, bus topology, and ring topology. A star topology is a network topology where each individual piece of a network is attached to a central node, such as a switch. A bus topology is a network topology in which nodes are directly connected to a common network media, such as a coaxial cable, known as the bus. A ring topology is a network topology in which each node connects to exactly two other nodes, forming a single continuous pathway for signals through each node to form a circular ring. The WAN connections are using a ring network topology, but each office is using a star topology. Therefore, the best description of this combined network is a hybrid topolog
Jason is a network manager leading a project to deploy a SAN. He is working with the vendor's support technician to set up and configure the SAN on the enterprise network. To begin SAN I/O optimization, what should Jason provide to the vendor support technician?
A network diagram is a visual representation of network architecture. It maps out the structure of a network with a variety of different symbols and line connections. This information will be important when deploying a Storage Area Network (SAN) on the enterprise network. A baseline is a process for studying the network at regular intervals to ensure that the network is working as designed. Asset management is used to record and track an asset throughout its life cycle, from procurement to disposal. Access to the datacenter will only be required if the vendor's support technician will be physically working in the datacenter and not performing a remote installation.
You are trying to select the BEST network topology for a new network based on the following requirements. The design must include redundancy using a minimum of two cables to create the network. The network should not be prone to congestion, therefore each device must wait for its turn to communicate on the network by passing around a token. Which of the following topologies would BEST meet the client's requirements?
A ring topology is a local area network (LAN) in which the nodes (workstations or other devices) are connected in a closed-loop configuration. Ring topologies aren't used heavily in local area networks anymore, but they are still commonly found in wide area network connections as an FDDI ring. An FDDI ring is a Fiber Distributed Data Interface ring, which allows for a network that can communicate up to 120 miles in range, uses a ring-based token network as its basis, and uses two counter-rotating token ring topologies to comprise the single network. This provides redundancy for the network because if one cable is broken or fails, the other can maintain the network operations. The token is used to control which device can communicate on the network, preventing congestion or collisions. A mesh topology connects every node directly to every other node. This creates a highly efficient and redundant network, but it is expensive to build and maintain. A star topology connects all of the other nodes to a central node, usually a switch or a hub. A star topology is the most popular network topology in use on local area networks. A bus topology uses a single cable which connects all the included nodes and the main cable acts as a backbone for the entire network.
A technician has finished configuring AAA on a new network device. However, the technician cannot log into the device with LDAP credentials but can with a local user account. What is the MOST likely reason for the problem?
AAA through RADIUS uses a Server Secret Key (a shared secret key). A secret key mismatch could cause login problems. A shared secret is a text string that serves as a password between hosts.
You work for Dion Training as a physical security manager. You are concerned that the physical security at the entrance to the company is not sufficient. To increase your security, you are determined to prevent piggybacking. What technique should you implement first?
An access control vestibule, or mantrap, is a device that only allows a single person to enter per authentication. This authentication can be done by RFID, a PIN, or other methods. Once verified, the mantrap lets a single person enter through a system, such as a turnstile or rotating door. CCTV will not stop piggybacking, but it could be used as a detective control after an occurrence. Wearing security badges is useful, but it won't stop piggybacking by a skilled social engineer. RFID badges may be used as part of your entry requirements, but it won't stop a determined piggyback who follows an employee into the building after their authenticated RFID access has been performed.
When a criminal or government investigation is underway, what describes the identification, recovery, or exchange of electronic information relevant to that investigation?
By process of elimination, you can easily answer this question. Data transport is the transport of data, while the first responder is the first person to arrive on the scene. Encryption is a method of putting data into a tunnel so that it is completely secure. This leaves us with eDiscovery. eDiscovery is the term that refers to the process of evidence collection through digital forensics. eDiscovery is conducted during an incident response.
Your company wants to create highly available datacenters. Which of the following will allow the company to continue maintaining an Internet presence at all sites if the WAN connection at their own site goes down?
If a WAN link goes down, BGP will route data through another WAN link if redundant WAN links are available. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is a standardized exterior gateway protocol designed to exchange routing and reachability information between autonomous systems (AS) on the Internet. The protocol is often classified as a path vector protocol but is sometimes also classed as a distance-vector routing protocol. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is a link-state routing protocol that was developed for IP networks and is based on the Shortest Path First (SPF) algorithm. OSPF is an Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP), therefore it will not help be able to reroute the organization's WAN connections. The Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) is a computer networking protocol that provides for automatic assignment of available Internet Protocol routers to participating hosts. This increases the availability and reliability of routing paths via automatic default gateway selections on an IP subnetwork. VRRP is used for your internal clients and will not affect the routing of traffic between WANs or autonomous systems. Load balancing refers to the process of distributing a set of tasks over a set of resources, with the aim of making their overall processing more efficient. Load balancing can optimize the response time and avoid unevenly overloading some compute nodes while other compute nodes are left idle. A load balancer would work at one site, but would not allow routing of the WAN connections at all the other sites since they rely on autonomous systems and BGP is used to route traffic between autonomous systems.
A workstation is connected to the network and receives an APIPA address but cannot reach the VLAN gateway of 10.10.100.254. Other PCs in the VLAN subnet can communicate with the VLAN gateway and access websites on the Internet. Which of the following is the MOST likely the source of this connectivity problem?
If the switchport is configured for 802.1q trunking instead of as an access host port, the workstation will be unable to reach the DHCP server through the port and will fall back to using an APIPA address. APIPA is not configured on the VLAN's switch, it is configured by default on client and server devices, such as the workstation in this scenario. A small form-factor pluggable (SFP) transceiver is used on routers as a hot-pluggable network interface module, they are not used in workstations. The workstation's OS update status is unlikely to cause the network connectivity issue, but a network interface driver might. Therefore, the most likely cause of this issue is the switchport was configured as a trunking port instead of an access port.
You are configuring a point-to-point link between two routers and have been assigned an IP of 77.81.12.14/30. What is the network ID associated with this IP assignment?
In classless subnets using variable length subnet mask (VLSM), the network ID is the first IP address associated within an assigned range. In this example, the CIDR notation is /30, so each subnet will contain 4 IP addresses. Since the IP address provided is 77.81.12.14/30, the network ID is 77.81.12.12/30, the first router is 77.81.12.13/30, the second router is 77.81.12.14/30, and the broadcast address is 77.81.12.15/30.
What is the network ID associated with the host located at 192.168.0.123/29?
In classless subnets using variable-length subnet mask (VLSM), the network ID is the first IP address associated within an assigned range. In this example, the CIDR notation is /29, so each subnet will contain 8 IP addresses. Since the IP address provided is 192.168.0.123, it will be in the 192.168.0.120/29 network.
You have just finished installing a new web application and need to connect it to your Microsoft SQL database server. Which port must be allowed to enable communications through your firewall between the web application and your database server?
Microsoft SQL uses ports 1433, and is a proprietary relational database management system developed by Microsoft that is fully compatible with the structured query language (SQL). MySQL uses ports 3306 and is an open-source relational database management system that is fully compatible with the structured query language (SQL). SQLnet uses ports 1521 and is a relational database management system developed by Oracle that is fully compatible with the structured query language (SQL). Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) uses port 3389 and is a proprietary protocol developed by Microsoft which provides a user with a graphical interface to connect to another computer over a network connection.
Which of the following technologies could be used to ensure that users who log in to a network are physically in the same building as the network they are attempting to authenticate on? (SELECT TWO)
Network Access Control is used to identify an endpoint's characteristics when conducting network authentication. The GPS location of the device will provide the longitude and latitude of the user, which could be compared against the GPS coordinates of the building. Port security enables an administrator to configure individual switch ports to allow only a specified number of source MAC addresses to communicate using a given switchport. This would not help to locate the individual based on their location, though. Geo-IP, or geolocation and country lookup of a host based on its IP address, would identify the country of origin of the user, but not whether they are within the building's confines. Geo-IP is also easily tricked if the user logs in over a VPN connection.
A third-party vendor has just released patches to resolve a major vulnerability. There are over 100 critical devices that need to be updated. What action should be taken to ensure the patch is installed with minimal downtime?
Patches should always be tested first. Once successfully tested, deployment to the production environment can then be accomplished.
You just heard of a new ransomware attack that has been rapidly spreading across the internet that takes advantage of a vulnerability in the Windows SMB protocol. To protect your network until Microsoft releases a security update, you want to block the port for SMB at your firewall to prevent becoming a victim of this attack. Which of the following ports should you add to your blocklist?
Server Message Block (SMB) uses ports 139 and 445, and is a network file sharing protocol that runs on top of the NetBIOS architecture in Windows environments. When the WannaCry ransomware was spreading rapidly across the internet, you could help protect your organization's network by blocking ports 139 and 445 at your firewall to prevent your machines from getting infected over the internet. Network Time Protocol (NTP) uses port 123 and is a networking protocol for clock synchronization between computer systems over packet-switched, variable-latency data networks. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) uses port 143 and is an Internet standard protocol used by email clients to retrieve email messages from a mail server over a TCP/IP connection. System Logging Protocol (Syslog) uses port 514 and is a way network devices can use a standard message format to communicate with a logging server. It was designed specifically to make it easy to monitor network devices. Devices can use a Syslog agent to send out notification messages under a wide range of specific conditions.
The administrator would like to use the strongest encryption level possible using PSK without utilizing an additional authentication server. What encryption type should be implemented?
Since he wishes to use a pre-shared key and not require an authentication server, WPA personal is the most secure choice. If WPA2 Personal were an option, it would be more secure, though. WPA2 Enterprise is incorrect since the requirement was for a PSK, whereas WPA2 Enterprise requires a RADIUS authentication server to be used with individual usernames and passwords for each client. MAC filtering does not use a password or preshared key. WEP uses a pre-shared key to secure a wireless network, but WPA uses a stronger encryption standard than WEP.
Michael, a system administrator, is troubleshooting an issue remotely accessing a new Windows server on the local area network using its hostname. He cannot remotely access the new server, but he can access another Windows server using its hostname on the same subnet. Which of the following commands should he enter on his workstation to resolve this connectivity issue?
Since this is a Windows-based network, the client is likely attempting to connect to the servers using NetBIOS. NetBIOS stores a local cached name table in the LMHOSTS file on each client. If the entry in the client file is pointing to the wrong IP, this could cause the connectivity issues described. Therefore, the system administrator should enter the "nbtstat -R" command to purge and reload the cached name table from the LMHOST file on their Windows workstation. The nslookup command is used to query the domain name system (DNS) to obtain information about host addresses, mail exchanges, nameservers, and related information. The nslookup command has an interactive and non-interactive mode. The ipconfig command is used on Windows devices to display the current TCP/IP network configuration and refresh the DHCP and DNS settings on a given host. The route command is used to create, view, or modify manual entries in the network routing tables of a computer or server.
Which type of wireless network utilizes the 2.4 GHz frequency band and reaches speeds of up to 54 Mbps?
The 802.11g (Wireless G) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps. The 802.11a (Wireless A) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps. The 802.11b (Wireless B) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 11 Mbps. The 802.11n (Wireless N) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 108 Mbps or a 5.0 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 600 Mbps. Wireless N supports the use of multiple-input-multiple-output (MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. Wireless N supports channel bonding by combining two 20 MHz channels into a single 40 MHz channel to provide additional bandwidth. The 802.11ac (Wireless AC or Wi-Fi 5) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 3.5 Gbps. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. The 802.11ax (Wireless AX or Wi-Fi 6) standard utilizes 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz frequencies to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 9.6 Gbps. Wireless AC uses orthogonal frequency-division multiple access (OFDMA) to conduct multiplexing of the frequencies transmitted and received to each client to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. Wireless AC also has a version called Wi-Fi 6E that supports the 6GHz frequency instead of the 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz frequencies used in Wi-Fi 6.
A technician just completed a new external website and set up an access control list on the firewall. After some testing, only users outside the internal network can access the site. The website responds to a ping from the internal network and resolves the proper public address. What can the technician do to fix this issue while causing internal users to route to the website using its internal IP address?
The Domain Name System (DNS) uses port 53 and is a hierarchical and decentralized naming system for computers, services, or other resources connected to the Internet or a private network. Split Domain Name System (Split DNS) is an implementation in which separate DNS servers are provided for security and privacy management for internal and external networks. This can provide a security and privacy management mechanism by logical or physical separation of DNS information for network-internal access and access from an insecure, public network like the Internet. Under this configuration, there are two sets of DNS information, and the results are provided based upon the source address of the requester (internal or external). Dynamic NAT is a many-to-one mapping of a private IP address or subnets inside a local area network to a public IP address or subnet outside the local area network. The traffic from different zones and subnets over trusted (inside) IP addresses in the LAN segment is sent over a single public (outside) IP address. A DMZ (demilitarized zone), a type of screened subnet, is a physical or logical subnetwork that contains and exposes an organization's external-facing services to an untrusted, usually larger, network such as the Internet. An access control list (ACL) is a list of permissions associated with a system resource (object). A firewall is configured with an access control list to filter network traffic based on the assigned rules.
An administrator has configured a new 250 Mbps WAN circuit, but a bandwidth speed test shows poor performance when downloading larger files. The download initially reaches close to 250 Mbps but begins to drop and show spikes in the download speeds over time. The administrator checks the interface on the router and sees the following: DIONRTR01# show interface eth 1/1 GigabitEthernet 1/1 is up, line is up Hardware is GigabitEthernet, address is 000F.33CC.F13A Configured speed auto, actual 1Gbit, configured duplex fdx, actual fdx Member of L2 VLAN 1, port is untagged, port state is forwarding Which of the following actions should be taken to improve the network performance for this WAN connection?
The WAN interface (eth 1/1) is currently untagged and is being assigned to the default VLAN (VLAN 1). If there are numerous devices in the default VLAN, the VLAN may be overloaded or oversubscribed leading to a reduction in the network performance. To solve this issue, you would assign the WAN interface to a VLAN with less traffic or to its own VLAN. By adding an 802.1q tag (VLAN tag) to the interface, you can assign it to its own individual VLAN and eliminate potential overloading or oversubscription issues. The interface is already set to full-duplex (fdx) and it operating in full-duplex (fdx). Therefore, the issue is not a duplexing mismatch. The configuration shows that the interface is already using a GigabitEthernet, so you do not need to replace the transceiver with a 1000Base-T module. Also, the physical layer is working properly and a link is established, as shown by the output "GigabitEthernet 1/1 is up", showing the current transceiver is functioning properly at 1 Gbps. While issuing the shutdown command and then re-enabling the interface could clear any errors, based on the interface status shown we have no indications that errors are being detected or reported.
An additional network segment is urgently needed for QA testing on the external network. A software release could be impacted if this change is not immediate. The request comes directly from management and was just approved through the emergency change management process. Which of the following should the technician do?
The best answer is to make the change, document the requester, and document all the network changes. All changes to the enterprise network should be approved through the normal change management processes. If there is an urgent need, there is an emergency change management process that can be used for approval. This is known as an emergency change approval board (ECAB). An ECAB can be executed extremely quickly to gain approval, and then the documentation can be completed after the change is made when using the emergency change management processes.
Which of the following ports is used by LDAP by default?
The lightweight directory access protocol (LDAP) is a protocol used to access and update information in an X.500-style network resource directory. LDAP uses port 389. The service location protocol (SLP) is a protocol or method of organizing and locating the resources (such as printers, disk drives, databases, e-mail directories, and schedulers) in a network. This is an alternative protocol to LDAP in newer networks. SLP uses port 427. The remote desktop protocol (RDP) is a protocol used for the remote administration of a host using a graphical user interface. RDP operates over TCP port 3389. The domain name system (DNS) protocol is the protocol used to provide names for an IP address based on their mappings in a database using TCP/UDP port 53.
You are troubleshooting a network connectivity issue on a student's workstation at Dion Training. You check the details for the 802.11ac wireless network interface card and it reports the current RSSI level is -95 dB. Which of the following issues would cause this RSSI level?
The received signal strength indication (RSSI) is an estimated measure of the power level that a radio frequency client device is receiving from a wireless access point. If the RSSI is -90dB to -100dB, this indicates an extremely weak connection and insufficient wireless coverage in which the area the device is operating. The service set identifier (SSID) is a natural language name used to identify a wireless network. If you are manually configuring a wireless network and the incorrect SSID is entered, the device will be unable to connect to the network. Encryption protocols are used to protect WEP, WPA, and WPA2 wireless networks. WEP wireless networks utilize the RC4 encryption protocol. WPA wireless networks utilize the TKIP encryption protocol. WPA2 wireless networks utilize the AES encryption protocol, but they also can support the TKIP encryption protocol, as well. If the wrong encryption protocol is used, the wireless client and the wireless access point will be unable to communicate. The passphrase in a wireless network serves as the password or network security key. If the incorrect passphrase was entered, you will receive an error such as "Network security key mismatch" and the wireless device will be unable to communicate with the wireless access point.
Which of the following terms represents the maximum amount of data, as measured in time, that an organization is willing to lose during an outage?
The recovery point objective (RPO) is the interval of time that might pass during a disruption before the quantity of data lost during that period exceeds the Business Continuity Plan's maximum allowable threshold or tolerance. The recovery time objective (RTO) is the duration of time and a service level within which a business process must be restored after a disaster to avoid unacceptable consequences associated with a break in continuity. The mean time to repair (MTTR) measures the average time it takes to repair a network device when it breaks. The mean time between failures (MTBF) measures the average time between when failures occur on a device.
Which of the following levels would a debugging condition generate?
The severity levels range from zero to seven, with zero being the most severe and seven being the least severe. Level 0 is used for an emergency and is considered the most severe condition because the system has become unstable. Level 1 is used for an alert condition and means that there is a condition that should be corrected immediately. Level 2 is used for a critical condition, and it means that there is a failure in the system's primary application and it requires immediate attention. Level 3 is used for an error condition, and it means that something is happening to the system that is preventing the proper function. Level 4 is used for warning conditions and it may indicate that an error will occur if action is not taken soon. Level 5 is used for notice conditions and it means that the events are unusual, but they are not error conditions. Level 6 is used for information conditions and it is a normal operational message that requires no action. Level 7 is used for debugging conditions and is just information that is useful to developers as they are debugging their networks and applications.
Which of the following levels would an error condition generate?
The severity levels range from zero to seven, with zero being the most severe and seven being the least severe. Level 0 is used for an emergency and is considered the most severe condition because the system has become unstable. Level 1 is used for an alert condition and means that there is a condition that should be corrected immediately. Level 2 is used for a critical condition, and it means that there is a failure in the system's primary application and it requires immediate attention. Level 3 is used for an error condition, and it means that something is happening to the system that is preventing the proper function. Level 4 is used for warning conditions and it may indicate that an error will occur if action is not taken soon. Level 5 is used for notice conditions and it means that the events are unusual, but they are not error conditions. Level 6 is used for information conditions and it is a normal operational message that requires no action. Level 7 is used for debugging conditions and is just information that is useful to developers as they are debugging their networks and applications.
Your company is currently using a 5 GHz wireless security system, so your boss has asked you to install a 2.4 GHz wireless network to use for the company's computer network to prevent interference. Which of the following can NOT be installed to provide a 2.4 GHz wireless network?
Wireless networks are configured to use either 2.4 GHz or 5.0 GHz frequencies, depending on the network type. 802.11a and 802.11ac both utilize a 5.0 GHz frequency for their communications. 802.11b and 802.11g both utilize a 2.4 GHz frequency for their communications. 802.11n and 802.11ax utilize either 2.4 GHz, 5.0 GHz, or both, depending on the Wi-Fi device's manufacturer. The 802.11b (Wireless B) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 11 Mbps. The 802.11g (Wireless G) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps. The 802.11n (Wireless N) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 108 Mbps or a 5.0 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 600 Mbps. Wireless N supports the use of multiple-input-multiple-output (MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. Wireless N supports channel bonding by combining two 20 MHz channels into a single 40 MHz channel to provide additional bandwidth. The 802.11ac (Wireless AC or Wi-Fi 5) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 5.5 Gbps. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds.
Dion Training is trying to connect two geographically dispersed offices using a VPN connection. You have been asked to configure their networks to allow VPN traffic into the network. Which device should you configure FIRST?
You should FIRST configure the firewall since the firewall is installed at the network's external boundary (perimeter). By allowing the VPN connection through the firewall, the two networks can be connected and function as a single intranet (internal network). After configuring the firewall, you will need to verify the router is properly configured to route traffic between the two sites using the site-to-site VPN connection. A modem modulates and demodulates electrical signals sent through phone lines, coaxial cables, or other types of wiring. A layer 2 switch is a type of network switch or device that works on the data link layer (OSI Layer 2) and utilizes MAC Address to determine the path through where the frames are to be forwarded. It uses hardware-based switching techniques to connect and transmit data in a local area network (LAN).
