Network + v2 - B.2.7 Practice Test: CompTIA Network+ N10-009 (Ver. 1)

A company is planning to deploy a new network segment that requires very high bandwidth data transfers for video editing and production. The network segment will connect several high-performance workstations to a central server. The distance between the workstations and the server is approximately 200 meters. Considering the requirements and distance, which Ethernet standard should the company consider for this deployment? 10 GbE using unshielded copper cable 10 GbE using fiber optic cable Gigabit Ethernet using hubs Gigabit Ethernet using Cat 5e cabling

Correct Answer: 10 GbE using fiber optic cable Explanation The correct answer is 10 GbE using fiber optic cable because the scenario requires very high bandwidth data transfers, which 10 GbE supports, and the distance is beyond the maximum recommended length for copper cabling in high-speed networks. Fiber optic cable can support longer distances without signal degradation, making it the best choice for this scenario. 10 GbE using unshielded copper cable is incorrect because 10 GbE can only run at reduced distances over unshielded copper cable. The distance of approximately 200 meters exceeds the capability of unshielded copper cable for 10 GbE. Gigabit Ethernet using Cat 5e cabling is incorrect because, although Gigabit Ethernet supports up to 100 meters over Cat 5e cabling, it may not meet the very high bandwidth requirements for video editing and production specified in the scenario. Gigabit Ethernet using hubs is incorrect because Gigabit Ethernet does not support hubs; it is implemented only using switches. This choice would not be technically feasible for the deployment. References 2.1.2 Ethernet Standards 2.1.3 Media Access Control and Collision Domains 2.1.4 100BASE-TX Fast Ethernet Standards 2.1.5 Gigabit Ethernet Standards 2.1.6 Fiber Ethernet Standards 2.1.8 Lab: Reconnect to an Ethernet Network 2.2.7 Lab: Connect to an Ethernet Network 3.1.2 Modular Transceivers 3.1.5 Ethernet Frame Format

You are a network technician for a small consulting firm. One of your responsibilities is to manage the intranet site and configuration. You recently had to update the site's IP mapping due to a server upgrade. A user is having an issue with connecting to the intranet site now. When the user attempts to connect through their web browser, they receive a message that the page cannot be displayed. If you type in the IP address, the page loads fine. Which of the following commands should you use to fix this issue? ipconfig /displaydns ipconfig /registerdns :ipconfig /release :ipconfig /flushdns

Correct Answer :ipconfig /flushdns Explanation In this scenario, the best option is to run the ipconfig /flushdns command. This will remove all entries from the device's DNS resolver cache and force the computer to update the DNS mappings the next time the user attempts to connect to the intranet site. ipconfig /registerdns refreshes all DHCP leases and re-registers DNS names. This command would not fix this user's issue. ipconfig /displaydns displays the contents of the DNS resolver cache. This command would not fix this user's issue. ipconfig /release clears the current IP configuration. This command would not fix this user's issue. References 4.4.1 ipconfig 4.4.2 ifconfig and ip 4.4.5 Lab: IPv4 Troubleshooting Tools 4.4.6 Lab: IPv4 Troubleshooting tools for Linux 4.4.7 Lab: Use IPv4 Test Tools 6.4.6 Lab: Troubleshoot Address Pool Exhaustion 6.4.9 Lab: Troubleshoot IP Configuration 1 6.4.10 Lab: Troubleshoot IP Configuration 2 6.4.11 Lab: Troubleshoot IP Configuration 3 6.6.1 Client DNS Issues 6.6.2 Name Resolution Issues 9.4.10 Applied Live Lab: Analyze Network Attacks

You are a network field engineer setting up a remote site to mirror the corporate office for failover purposes. You must configure.

You can configure physical switches to support Virtual Local Area Networks (VLANs), which logically separate network segments. However, these must be set up manually on the switch. Running the show MAC address-table command with various switches can show the existing MAC addresses set up in the table and narrow them down to dynamic or static. Ensuring the correct placement on the physical switch itself is critical. This procedure allows a technician to verify that the proper configuration has been implemented. Based on the MAC Address Table, VLAN 30 has the MAC Address 015d.3e16.9c34. VLAN 20 has the MAC Addresses 000d.6516.d692 and 000d.6510.b33f. VLAN 10 has the MAC Addresses 0009.5b44.9d2c, 0011.adb3.6f12, and 001a.2266.d104. 0009.5b44.9d2c 015d.3e16.9c34

SSIiD and Roaming Aggressiveness Lab: You are a network technician working for local ISP . Your daily tasks entail setting up

All Access Points (APs) must broadcast the same SSID into a single Extended Service Set (ESS),. You can avoid Adjacent Channel Interference in ESS environments by keeping as much distance between channels for overlapping APs. More than two channels apart is a good practice. Since the Lobby AP overlaps with machine shops and the Office, these must all be more than two channels apart. Any combinations are possible. However, wireless sources or other interference outside your control may sometimes limit the channel options in any area. Thus, only specific channel options are available for each service area in our example, and they must not cause interference with one another. Wireless clients in isolated areas will benefit from a low roaming aggressiveness setting. They do not expect to switch channels often, so a low roaming aggressiveness will only scan for new connections when the signal strength of the current AP is low. A medium roaming aggressiveness is recommended in an environment with several APs within the client's range. The highest roaming aggressiveness setting is usually reserved for critical devices that must always use the strongest connection. We can determine that Machine Shop #1 can only use channel 6 to prevent overlapping the Office and Lobby due to the channels available in those service areas. Because of the limitations in initial channel choice and the channel choices of overlapping service areas, you can determine that the Lobby will require channel 1 to avoid interference. The Office will require channel 11 to avoid conflicting with its overlapping APs. Machine shops #1 and #2 and the Warehouse require channels 6, 11, and 11, respectively. Channel 11 works in the case of the Warehouse. as the Warehouse AP does not overlap with he Lobby or Office.

A network engineer is tasked with upgrading an office network to support higher data transfer speeds for a company that specializes in graphic design. The office is currently wired with Cat 5e cabling. The engineer decides to implement Gigabit Ethernet to meet the company's needs. Which of the following standards should the engineer use for the upgrade? 1000BASE-T 100BASE-TX 1000BASE-TX 1000BASE-FX

Correct Answer: 1000BASE-T Explanation The correct answer is 1000BASE-T because it is the specified standard for Gigabit Ethernet over copper wire, working over Cat 5e or better, which matches the current cabling in the office. This standard supports 1 Gbps speeds, suitable for the high data transfer needs of a graphic design company. 1000BASE-TX is incorrect because 1000BASE-TX is not a standard for Gigabit Ethernet over copper wire for such implementations. 1000BASE-FX is incorrect because 1000BASE-FX refers to a fiber optic cable standard. The scenario specifies that the office is currently wired with Cat 5e cabling, indicating a copper wire implementation. 100BASE-TX is incorrect because it refers to a Fast Ethernet standard that supports speeds of 100 Mbps. The scenario requires an upgrade to support higher data transfer speeds, making Gigabit Ethernet (1 Gbps) the appropriate choice. References 2.1.2 Ethernet Standards 2.1.3 Media Access Control and Collision Domains 2.1.4 100BASE-TX Fast Ethernet Standards 2.1.5 Gigabit Ethernet Standards 2.1.6 Fiber Ethernet Standards 2.1.8 Lab: Reconnect to an Ethernet Network 2.2.7 Lab: Connect to an Ethernet Network 3.1.2 Modular Transceivers 3.1.5 Ethernet Frame Format

A network administrator is configuring a new network segment that will connect to an existing network. The existing network has an MTU of 1500 bytes. The administrator wants to ensure that data packets are not fragmented when passing between the new and existing network segments. What MTU setting should the network administrator configure for the new network segment to prevent fragmentation? 1500 bytes 1400 bytes It doesn't matter; fragmentation is unavoidable. 1600 bytes

Correct Answer: 1500 bytes Explanation By setting the MTU of the new network segment to 1500 bytes, the same as the existing network, the administrator ensures that packets can pass between the two segments without requiring fragmentation, assuming no other lower MTU links are in the path. Setting the MTU to 1400 bytes would unnecessarily reduce the packet size, potentially leading to inefficient use of network resources. Packets from the existing network with an MTU of 1500 bytes would still need to be fragmented to pass through the new segment. Setting the MTU to 1600 bytes would not prevent fragmentation when packets move from the new segment to the existing one, as packets larger than 1500 bytes would need to be fragmented to fit the existing network's MTU. Proper MTU configuration can prevent unnecessary fragmentation. Matching the MTU sizes of interconnected network segments is a common practice to avoid fragmentation. References 5.1.5 Fragmentation

You used the dig command in a Linux terminal window to produce the following output: ; <<>> DiG 8.2 <<>> westsim111.com;;res options:init recurs defnam dnsrch;;got answer:;;->>HEADER<<-opcode:QUERY, status: NOERROR, id:4;;flags: qr rd ra; QUERY:1, ANSWER:1, AUTHORITY:2, ADDITIONAL:0;;QUERY SECTION:;; westsim111.com, type = A, class = IN ;;ANSWER SECTION:westsim111.com. 7h33m IN A 76.141.43.129;;AUTHORITY SECTION:westsim111.com. 7h33m IN NS dns1.deriatct111.com. westsim111.com. 7h33m IN NS dns2.deriatct222.com.;;Total query time: 78 msec;;FROM: localhost.localdomain to SERVER:default -- 202.64.49.150;;WHEN: Tue Feb 16 23:21:24 2005;;MSG SIZE sent: 30 rcvd:103 What is the IP address of the DNS server that performed this name resolution? 202.64.49.150 16.23.21.24 192.168.1.100 76.141.43.129

Correct Answer: 202.64.49.150 Explanation When you use the dig command to perform a manual DNS lookup, a range of information is provided to you. The IP address of the DNS server that performed the name resolution is shown at the bottom area of the output on the end of the ;;FROM line. The IP address shown in the answer section denotes the resolved IP address for the domain or host that the resolution was requested for. In this case, that address is 76.141.43.129. The other two answers are invalid. References 6.6.4 dig

A university is setting up a new wireless network for its library, which will serve students, faculty, and guests. The estimated maximum simultaneous connections at any given time are expected to be around 150. The university also wants to ensure that there is capacity for at least 50% growth over the next five years and to accommodate network infrastructure devices. What is the minimum number of hosts each subnet must support? 128 1024 256 512

Correct Answer: 512 Explanation The current need is for approximately 150 connections. Accounting for 50% growth, the future need is 150 + (150 * 0.5) = 225 connections. Adding some capacity for network infrastructure devices, let's round up to 230. The next highest power of 2 that can accommodate this number is 512, making it the minimum number of hosts each subnet must support to ensure future growth and infrastructure needs are met. 256 would not provide enough capacity for the expected growth and additional network devices. 128 is not sufficient even for the current estimated maximum connections, let alone future growth. 1024 exceeds the necessary capacity for the foreseeable future, potentially leading to inefficient use of IP address space. References 4.3.4 IPv4 Address Scheme Design

Your company is launching a temporary marketing campaign and wants to direct traffic from promo.company.com to a third-party server hosting the campaign content. The third-party server is identified by the hostname campaign.hostingprovider.com. What DNS record should you create for promo.company.com to achieve this redirection? A CNAME record for promo.company.com aliasing campaign.hostingprovider.com An AAAA record for promo.company.com pointing to the IPv6 address of campaign.hostingprovider.com An MX record directing promo.company.com to campaign.hostingprovider.com An A record pointing to the IP address of campaign.hostingprovider.com

Correct Answer: A CNAME record for promo.company.com aliasing campaign.hostingprovider.com Explanation A CNAME record is the correct choice for aliasing one domain to another. This allows promo.company.com to resolve to the same address as campaign.hostingprovider.com without needing to know the IP address. An A record pointing to the IP address of campaign.hostingprovider.com is incorrect because directly using an A record would require knowing and updating the IP address, which is less flexible than using a CNAME record. An MX record directing promo.company.com to campaign.hostingprovider.com is incorrect because MX records are used for mail exchange purposes, not for redirecting web traffic. An AAAA record for promo.company.com pointing to the IPv6 address of campaign.hostingprovider.com is incorrect because an AAAA record is for IPv6 addresses, and the scenario does not specify needing an IPv6 address nor does it focus on IP address resolution. References 6.5.5 Host Address and Canonical Name Records 6.5.14 Lab: Create CNAME Records

An enterprise network has been experiencing erratic performance issues that have been difficult to diagnose. Network administrators have noticed that certain routes within the network become intermittently unavailable, leading to packet loss and increased latency. This behavior is sporadic and does not correlate with any specific network changes or patterns of usage. Upon closer examination, it was observed that the issues coincide with rapid changes in the status of one of the network interfaces, which alternates between up and down states frequently. What is the most likely cause of the intermittent route availability and the associated network performance issues? A flapping interface Incorrect subnet masking Insufficient routing table memory Inadequate bandwidth

Correct Answer: A flapping interface Explanation The correct answer is a flapping interface. A flapping interface, which frequently changes its state from up to down and back again, can cause significant disruption in a network. Each time the interface status changes, routing protocols must adjust the network topology information and propagate these changes throughout the network. This can lead to temporary route unavailability, increased routing protocol traffic to manage the topology changes, and, consequently, packet loss and increased latency as the network attempts to converge on a new topology. The erratic performance issues described, including intermittent route availability, are characteristic of the problems caused by a flapping interface. While inadequate bandwidth can lead to network congestion and increased latency, it does not directly cause routes to become intermittently unavailable. Bandwidth limitations typically result in consistent performance degradation rather than the sporadic issues described in the scenario. Incorrect subnet masking can lead to routing and addressing issues, but these problems would be constant and not intermittent. Incorrect subnet masking would not cause the network performance issues to coincide with rapid changes in the status of a network interface. Insufficient memory for the routing table could lead to dropped routes and network instability. However, this would more likely result in consistent network issues rather than the intermittent problems that correlate with the rapid status changes of a network interface, as described in the scenario. References 5.2.1 Dynamic Routing Protocols

You are a network administrator for a large corporation. Recently, you've noticed that after a power outage, several network devices did not recover their previous configurations, leading to network instability and downtime. Upon investigation, you discover that the running configurations were not saved as the startup configurations on these devices. To prevent this issue from recurring, what should you implement? A reliance on user reports to identify which devices fail to recover after a power outage A policy that requires all changes to be saved as both running and startup configurations A complete network redesign to avoid using devices with separate running and startup configurations Manual checks of each device's configuration after every change

Correct Answer: A policy that requires all changes to be saved as both running and startup configurations Explanation The correct solution is to implement a policy that requires all changes to be saved as both running and startup configurations. Implementing a policy that mandates all configuration changes to be saved as both running and startup configurations ensures that devices can recover their configurations after a restart or power outage, thus preventing network instability and downtime. Manual checks are not scalable or reliable for ensuring configurations are saved correctly across numerous devices. A complete network redesign is an extreme and unnecessary measure for addressing the issue of configurations not being saved correctly. Relying on user reports is reactive and can lead to unnecessary downtime; proactive measures are needed to ensure configurations are saved correctly. References 8.1.1 Configuration Management 8.1.2 Network Device Backup Management 8.1.3 Live Lab: Backup and Restore Network Appliances

An IT manager notices an unusual pattern of network traffic late at night when the office is usually empty. The traffic analysis shows repeated attempts to connect to various ports on servers hosting the company's financial databases. The source of the traffic is traced back to a few IP addresses that do not belong to the company's network. The IT manager suspects that these attempts might be part of a reconnaissance effort to identify vulnerabilities. What type of attack is MOST likely being attempted in this scenario, and what should be the IT manager's immediate response? A denial of service (DoS) attack; the IT manager should increase the server's resources. A spoofing attack; the IT manager should implement stronger authentication mechanisms. A port scanning attack; the IT manager should implement or strengthen firewall rules to block unauthorized scans. A port scanning attack; the IT manager should implemen

Correct Answer: A port scanning attack; the IT manager should implement or strengthen firewall rules to block unauthorized scans. Explanation The correct answer is a port scanning attack; the IT manager should implement or strengthen firewall rules to block unauthorized scans. The scenario describes repeated attempts to connect to various ports on servers, especially during off-hours, which is indicative of a port scanning attack. This type of attack is used to identify open ports and services that could be exploited. The IT manager's immediate response should be to implement or strengthen firewall rules to block unauthorized scans and monitor for further suspicious activity. A denial of service (DoS) attack aims to make a service unavailable by overwhelming it with traffic. The scenario describes attempts to connect to ports, not overwhelming traffic, making DoS an unlikely type of attack in this context. A phishing attack involves deceiving individuals into revealing sensitive information through emails or fake websites. The scenario does not mention deceptive communications, making phishing an unlikely type of attack. A spoofing attack involves disguising the attacker's identity or forging information. While the scenario mentions traffic from unknown IP addresses, the focus is on port scanning, not identity forgery or information manipulation. Strengthening authentication mechanisms would not directly address the issue of unauthorized port scans. References 6.1.2 Transmission Control Protocol 6.1.3 TCP Handshake and Teardown 6.1.7 Lab: Explore Three-Way Handshake in Wireshark

During a routine audit, a network administrator finds a DHCP server distributing IP addresses on the network that they did not configure. This server is assigning IP addresses that conflict with the company's official IP address scheme, causing network connectivity issues for several departments. What is the MOST likely explanation for this situation? A rogue DHCP server introduced to the network A DHCP server update causing temporary issues A misconfigured official DHCP server A temporary DHCP server for network testing

Correct Answer: A rogue DHCP server introduced to the network Explanation The presence of an unauthorized DHCP server distributing IP addresses not in line with the company's official scheme is indicative of a rogue DHCP server. This server can cause network disruptions and poses a security risk by potentially being used for malicious activities. A misconfigured official DHCP server would likely have been detected earlier by the network administrator during configuration or routine checks. Temporary servers for network testing would typically be set up and monitored by the network administrator or IT department, and their impact would be known and managed. Updates to DHCP servers are controlled and would not typically result in the distribution of conflicting IP addresses without prior knowledge and planning by the IT department. References 9.4.2 Rogue DHCP 9.4.3 Setting Up DHCP Snooping 9.4.6 Lab: Discover a Rogue DHCP Server 9.4.7 Lab: Configure DHCP Snooping 12.3.11 Lab: Enable Wireless Intrusion Prevention

A network administrator notices unusual network traffic patterns and sporadic communication issues within the corporate network. Upon closer inspection using network monitoring tools, the administrator observes multiple ARP reply packets being broadcasted across the network, all indicating the same MAC address for different IP addresses, including the default gateway. What type of attack is most likely occurring? Phishing Attack SQL Injection DDoS Attack ARP Spoofing

Correct Answer: ARP Spoofing Explanation The scenario describes a situation where multiple ARP reply packets are being broadcasted, all associating different IP addresses with the same MAC address. This is indicative of ARP spoofing, where an attacker sends unsolicited ARP replies to associate their MAC address with the IP addresses of other hosts (including the default gateway) to intercept or redirect traffic. A Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack aims to overwhelm a target with excessive traffic, causing service disruption. The symptoms described in the scenario do not match those of a DDoS attack, which typically does not involve ARP spoofing. Phishing attacks involve deceiving individuals into providing sensitive information through fraudulent communication, such as emails or websites. This scenario does not describe such activities but focuses on network traffic anomalies. SQL Injection is a code injection technique used to attack data-driven applications by inserting malicious SQL statements into an entry field. The scenario described does not involve database interactions or code injections. References 9.3.1 On-Path Attacks

During a network upgrade, a network administrator decides to replace a hub with an Ethernet bridge to improve network performance. Which of the following outcomes should the administrator expect after the replacement? An increase in the number of broadcast domains A reduction in the overall network security A decrease in the network's data transfer speeds An increase in the number of collision domains

Correct Answer: An increase in the number of collision domains Explanation The correct answer is an increase in the number of collision domains. Replacing a hub with an Ethernet bridge will segment the network into separate collision domains for each connected device or network segment, reducing collisions and potentially improving network performance. An Ethernet bridge does not increase the number of broadcast domains; it operates at the Data Link layer and affects collision domains. Broadcast domains are segmented by routers at the Network layer. Replacing a hub with a bridge is likely to improve network security because it reduces the ability of devices to sniff traffic not intended for them, unlike hubs which broadcast all traffic to all ports. Replacing a hub with a bridge is expected to improve or maintain network data transfer speeds by reducing collisions, not decrease them. References 3.2.2 Bridges

During a routine network performance review, you observe that an interface on a core switch is showing a high number of discards. This interface is critical for the operation of several business applications. What should be your initial step in investigating and resolving the high discard rate? Analyze traffic patterns and check for high load conditions or misconfigurations. Decrease the MTU size on all devices connected to the network. Immediately replace the core switch to prevent potential downtime. Disable and re-enable the interface to reset the error counters.

Correct Answer: Analyze traffic patterns and check for high load conditions or misconfigurations. Explanation The first step in addressing a high number of discards on an interface is to analyze traffic patterns and check for potential high load conditions or configuration issues that might be causing the discards. This could involve reviewing the types of traffic passing through the interface, checking for any misconfigured settings (such as ACLs or MTU sizes), and identifying any patterns that correlate with the increase in discards. This approach helps in pinpointing the root cause of the problem without taking drastic measures that might disrupt network operations. Replacing the core switch is a significant and potentially unnecessary action that should only be considered after simpler causes have been ruled out and the issue persists. Decreasing the MTU size on all devices could lead to increased fragmentation and potentially more problems without necessarily addressing the cause of the high discard rate. Disabling and re-enabling the interface might temporarily clear the counters but does not address the underlying issue causing the high number of discards. References 3.4.4 Interface Error Counters

A telecommunications company wants to offer its customers customized network services, such as optimized routing for gaming and high-priority bandwidth for video conferencing. Which SDN feature enables this level of service customization? Physical network upgrades Traditional network firewalls Application-aware forwarding Static routing protocols

Correct Answer: Application-aware forwarding Explanation Application-aware forwarding is an SDN feature that allows the network to identify and prioritize traffic based on the type of application, such as gaming or video conferencing. This capability enables the network to dynamically adjust routing and bandwidth allocation to meet the specific requirements of each service, offering customers a customized and optimized experience. Physical network upgrades can improve overall network capacity but do not provide the granular control or dynamic adaptability required for customized service delivery. Static routing protocols do not offer the flexibility needed to dynamically prioritize traffic based on application type. Traditional network firewalls are focused on security and do not have the capability to identify and prioritize traffic based on specific application needs. References 14.4.4 Software-Defined Networking

When troubleshooting a software issue reported by a user who is unfamiliar with technical terms, which type of question is MOST effective to begin the diagnostic process? answer Asking if they have experienced this issue before Correct Answer: Asking them to describe what they were doing when the issue occurred Incorrect answer: Asking if they have tried rebooting their computer Asking for the error code displayed on the screen

Correct Answer: Asking them to describe what they were doing when the issue occurred Explanation Asking them to describe what they were doing when the issue occurred is the correct answer. This is an open question that encourages the user to provide a detailed account of their actions leading up to the problem. It allows the troubleshooter to gather valuable context about the issue without requiring the user to use technical terms. This approach can help identify patterns or specific actions that may be contributing to the problem. Asking for the error code displayed on the screen is not the most effective initial question, especially for users who are unfamiliar with technical terms. It assumes that an error code is always displayed, which might not be the case. Additionally, it does not encourage the user to provide a broad context of the problem. Asking if they have experienced this issue before can provide useful information about the recurrence of the problem. However, it is a closed question that limits the user's response to a simple yes or no. It does not allow the user to provide detailed information about the issue at hand. Asking if they have tried rebooting their computer, while a common troubleshooting step, is a closed question that expects a yes or no answer. It does not facilitate the collection of detailed information about the problem itself. Starting the diagnostic process with this question might overlook the opportunity to understand the issue more comprehensively. References 1.4.2 Identify the Problem 1.4.3 Identify Problem Symptoms

In a large corporate office with multiple floors, the IT department is tasked with deploying a new Wi-Fi network using the 5 GHz band to support high-density usage. They aim to minimize channel overlap while ensuring robust coverage. Given the availability of more non-overlapping channels in the 5 GHz band compared to the 2.4 GHz band, what strategy should the IT department employ for channel assignment? Assign different non-overlapping channels to adjacent access points and reuse channels where possible with sufficient physical separation. Limit the deployment to only three access points per floor to avoid channel overlap. Use only channels 36, 40, 44, and 48 for all access points to avoid interference. Assign the same channel to all access points to simplify the network configuration.

Correct Answer: Assign different non-overlapping channels to adjacent access points and reuse channels where possible with sufficient physical separation. Explanation The correct answer is to assign different non-overlapping channels to adjacent access points and reuse channels where possible with sufficient physical separation. In the 5 GHz band, there are more non-overlapping channels available, allowing for a more flexible approach to channel assignment. The best strategy is to assign different non-overlapping channels to adjacent access points to minimize interference and reuse channels on different floors or areas with sufficient physical separation between them. This approach maximizes the efficient use of available channels while ensuring robust coverage and minimizing channel overlap. Assigning the same channel to all access points to simplify the network configuration would lead to significant co-channel interference, especially in a high-density environment, and is not advisable. While the 36, 40, 44, and 48 channels are non-overlapping, limiting the network to only these channels underutilizes the broader range of available non-overlapping channels in the 5 GHz band, potentially leading to unnecessary congestion. Limiting the deployment to only three access points per floor to avoid channel overlap might not provide adequate coverage for a large corporate office, especially in high-density usage scenarios. It also underutilizes the capability of the 5 GHz band to support more access points with non-overlapping channels. References 12.4.3 Channel Overlap Issues

You are setting up a wireless network in your small office using an older router that supports IEEE 802.11b. You notice that the Wi-Fi signal is interfering with other wireless devices in the office. To minimize interference, you decide to configure the router to use one of the recommended non-overlapping channels. Which channel should you choose? Channel 6 Channel 13 Channel 9 Channel 3

Correct Answer: Channel 6 Explanation To minimize interference in the 2.4 GHz band, it is recommended to use one of the non-overlapping channels: 1, 6, or 11. Channel 6 is the correct choice among the options provided, as it is one of the three non-overlapping channels that can help reduce co-channel interference with other devices. Channel 3 overlaps with channels 1 through 5, leading to potential interference. Channel 9 overlaps with channels 7 through 11, which can cause interference with other devices operating on those channels. Channel 13 is incorrect for two reasons: first, it is not one of the recommended non-overlapping channels (1, 6, 11), and second, in some regions like the Americas, Channel 13 is not available for use. References 12.1.3 IEEE 8021b/g and 2.4GHz Channel Bandwidth

You are an IT manager at a medium-sized company and are tasked with implementing a new asset management system. After conducting research, you decide to use Lansweeper to automatically compile an asset information database. During the implementation, you realize that some of the hardware assets, specifically routers and switches, are not being correctly identified by the system. What should be your first step to resolve this issue? Check the Lansweeper documentation for troubleshooting guidance. Manually enter all asset information into the database, bypassing Lansweeper. Ignore the issue, assuming it will resolve itself over time. Replace all routers and switches with newer models.

Correct Answer: Check the Lansweeper documentation for troubleshooting guidance. Explanation The correct answer is to check the Lansweeper documentation and support for troubleshooting guidance. When facing issues with an inventory management system like Lansweeper not correctly identifying certain assets, the first step should be to consult the product's documentation and support resources. This can provide specific troubleshooting steps or guidance on how to resolve the issue without resorting to more drastic measures. Replacing all routers and switches with newer models is a costly and unnecessary first step without first attempting to troubleshoot the issue. Ignoring the issue is not a productive approach and can lead to inaccuracies in the asset inventory, affecting configuration and change management. Manually entering all asset information into the database is time-consuming and negates the benefits of using an automated system like Lansweeper. References 8.1.5 Asset Inventory Documentation

You're working late when you receive a report that a critical server has suddenly gone offline, impacting several key applications. Initial checks show that the server is not responding to any network requests. You recall that there was a brief power outage earlier in the day. What should be your initial troubleshooting step? Reboot all network devices in the data center. Check the server's power supply and UPS status. Increase the server's memory allocation. Immediately replace the server's network card.

Correct Answer: Check the server's power supply and UPS status. Explanation The correct answer is to check the server's power supply and UPS status. Given the recent power outage, the first step should be to check the server's power supply and the status of any Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) units it may be connected to. This can help determine if the server went offline due to power issues, which is a likely scenario given the context. Rebooting all network devices in the data center is a drastic measure that could cause additional disruptions. It's better to isolate the issue with the specific server first. Immediately replacing the server's network card without first verifying that the server has power and is operational goes beyond the initial troubleshooting steps needed. Power issues should be ruled out first. Increasing the server's memory allocation does not address the immediate problem of the server being offline, which is more likely related to the power outage rather than a lack of resources. References 3.4.1 Hardware Failure Issues

A network administrator is tasked with improving the efficiency of a corporate network that consists of two segments: Segment A, which is heavily utilized by data-intensive applications, and Segment B, which is used primarily for light office work. The administrator notices that when Segment A is under heavy load, it significantly impacts the performance of Segment B. To address this issue, the administrator is considering installing an Ethernet bridge between the two segments. Which of the following outcomes should the network administrator expect after installing an Ethernet bridge between Segment A and Segment B? The Ethernet bridge will enable Segment A to use IP addresses from Segment B. The Ethernet bridge will prevent traffic from Segment A from impacting the performance of Segment B. The Ethernet bridge will increase the bandwidth available to Segment B. The Ethernet bridge will

Correct Answer: The Ethernet bridge will prevent traffic from Segment A from impacting the performance of Segment B.

You are a network technician at a large office. One morning, an employee reports that their computer cannot connect to the Internet. Upon arriving at their desk, you notice the Ethernet cable running from the computer to the wall jack is tightly pinched by the leg of the desk. The employee mentions moving their desk the previous day. What should be your first course of action? Replace the Ethernet cable with a new one. Check the network adapter's functionality in Device Manager. Conduct a physical inspection of the Ethernet cable. Update the network adapter drivers on the computer.

Correct Answer: Conduct a physical inspection of the Ethernet cable. Explanation Given the visible circumstance of the cable being pinched, the first course of action should be to physically inspect the cable for any visible damage. The pinching could have damaged the internal wiring, affecting connectivity. This step is logical given the context and could potentially save time if the cable is indeed damaged and needs replacement. Updating the network adapter drivers is a software-related troubleshooting step that does not directly address the physical issue observed (the pinched cable). This action might be necessary later but is not the first step given the scenario. Replacing the Ethernet cable might eventually be the necessary action if damage is confirmed upon inspection. However, immediately replacing it without inspection assumes damage without verification, which could lead to unnecessary resource use if the cable is not actually damaged. Checking the network adapter's functionality in Device Manager is a step for investigating potential software or hardware issues with the network adapter itself. While important in some scenarios, it does not address the immediate concern of potential physical damage to the cable. References 2.6.9 Cable Troubleshooting Strategies

You are configuring a network that includes a mix of devices, some of which support jumbo frames and others that do not. You need to ensure optimal performance while maintaining compatibility across the network. What is the BEST approach to configuring the MTU settings on your devices? Configure all devices to use the standard MTU of 1500 bytes. Configure all devices to use the maximum jumbo frame size supported by any device on the network. Configure devices that support jumbo frames to use the maximum size available and leave others at their default settings. Identify the highest MTU supported by all devices and configure each device to use this MTU.

Correct Answer: Configure devices that support jumbo frames to use the maximum size available and leave others at their default settings. Explanation Identifying the highest MTU supported by all devices and configuring each device to use this MTU is the correct answer. This approach ensures that all devices can communicate efficiently without the need for fragmentation and reassembly, which can degrade performance. It maintains compatibility by using an MTU size that is supported by all devices on the network. While configuring all devices to use the standard MTU of 1500 bytes ensures compatibility, it may not provide optimal performance for devices that support and can benefit from jumbo frames. Configuring all devices to use the maximum jumbo frame size supported by any device on the network could lead to issues with devices that do not support the chosen jumbo frame size, causing fragmentation or even communication failures. Configuring devices that support jumbo frames to use the maximum size available and leaving others at their default settings can cause compatibility issues and performance degradation due to the need for fragmentation and reassembly when jumbo frame-enabled devices communicate with those using the standard MTU. References 3.3.2 Maximum Transmission Unit 3.3.7 Lab: Enable Jumbo Frame Support 5.1.5 Fragmentation

A network administrator is monitoring a large network with multiple SNMP agents. They notice that the SNMP monitor is receiving a high volume of trap messages, indicating various notable events from different devices. What action should the administrator take to ensure that the SNMP monitor can effectively manage and respond to these trap messages? Configure the SNMP agents to send trap messages only for critical events. Switch to using community strings for device authentication. Disable all trap messages to reduce the load on the SNMP monitor. Increase the polling interval for all SNMP agents.

Correct Answer: Configure the SNMP agents to send trap messages only for critical events. Explanation The correct answer is to configure the SNMP agents to send trap messages only for critical events. By configuring SNMP agents to send trap messages only for critical events, the administrator can reduce the volume of trap messages received by the monitor, allowing it to focus on significant alerts that require attention, thus improving the effectiveness of network monitoring and management. Disabling all trap messages would prevent the SNMP monitor from receiving alerts about significant events, potentially leading to overlooked issues. Increasing the polling interval would reduce the frequency of regular information updates from the SNMP agents but would not directly affect the volume of trap messages, which are event-driven. Switching to using community strings for device authentication is a security configuration aspect and does not address the issue of managing a high volume of trap messages. References 8.3.1 SNMP Agents and Monitors 8.3.4 Monitoring a Switch with SNMP 8.3.5 Configuring SNMP Trap

A small business has recently upgraded its wireless network to 802.11n to improve connectivity and support a growing number of wireless devices. The business uses a variety of devices, including some that only support older Wi-Fi standards. The network administrator has noticed that the network's performance is not as high as expected, especially during peak hours. What action can the network administrator take to improve the network's performance without excluding older devices? Configure the network to operate in HT mixed mode. Enable spatial multiplexing on all access points. Disable channel bonding across the network. Switch the entire network to operate only in the 2.4 GHz band.

Correct Answer: Configure the network to operate in HT mixed mode. Explanation The correct answer is to configure the network to operate in HT mixed mode. Configuring the network to operate in HT mixed mode is the best approach to improve performance while ensuring compatibility with older devices. HT mixed mode allows 802.11n devices to achieve better performance than they would under legacy modes while still accommodating older devices by transmitting additional legacy identification and collision avoidance frames. This mode strikes a balance between performance and compatibility. Switching the entire network to operate only in the 2.4 GHz band could lead to increased interference, especially in environments with many other networks, thus potentially worsening performance. Enabling spatial multiplexing can improve bandwidth by using multiple antennas to transmit different data streams. However, it requires devices that support MIMO, which older devices may not, and does not directly address the issue of supporting a mix of device standards. Disabling channel bonding would reduce the network's bandwidth, likely leading to lower performance, especially for bandwidth-intensive tasks. Channel bonding, especially in the 5 GHz band, can significantly improve performance by increasing the available bandwidth. References 12.1.4 IEEE 802.11n, MIMO, and Channel Bonding

You are a network administrator tasked with setting up a new router for your company's branch office. You need to configure the router before it can be connected to the company's network. You have a laptop with terminal emulator software installed. Which of the following methods should you use to initially configure the router? Connect your laptop to the router's wireless network and configure it using a web interface. Use an SSH connection over the Internet to remotely access the router's command line interface. Connect your laptop to the router's console port using a console cable and configure it through the terminal emulator. Send configuration commands to the router via email and wait for it to automatically configure itself.

Correct Answer: Connect your laptop to the router's console port using a console cable and configure it through the terminal emulator. Explanation The current answer is to connect your laptop to the router's console port using a console cable and configure it through the terminal emulator. For initial configuration of network devices like routers, a direct connection to the device's console port using a console cable is the standard method. This allows network administrators to access the command line interface (CLI) directly through terminal emulator software on their laptop, enabling them to configure the device even if it has no network connectivity or initial configuration. This method is secure and reliable for initial setups. Connecting your laptop to the router's wireless network and configuring it using a web interface is incorrect because the router likely does not have wireless capabilities enabled or configured out of the box. Initial configuration often requires direct physical access. Using an SSH connection over the Internet to remotely access the router's command line interface is incorrect as SSH connections require network access and initial configuration, which the new router does not have until it is set up. Send configuration commands to the router via email and waiting for it to automatically configure itself is incorrect because routers do not automatically configure themselves based on received emails. Configuration requires direct interaction, typically through a CLI accessed via a console port for initial setup. References 13.3.5 Console Connections and Out-of-Bound Management

A network administrator notices an unusual spike in network traffic and a significant slowdown in network performance. Upon investigation, the administrator discovers that multiple IP addresses are sending a large volume of requests to a single server within her network. The server is responsible for handling email services, and due to the overwhelming amount of requests, legitimate emails are being delayed, and users are experiencing significant disruptions. What type of attack is most likely occurring in this scenario? Fingerprinting attack Spoofing attack Denial of Service (DoS) attack Footprinting attack

Correct Answer: Denial of Service (DoS) attack Explanation The scenario describes a situation where a server is overwhelmed with a large volume of requests, leading to a slowdown in network performance and disruptions to legitimate services. This is indicative of a Denial of Service (DoS) attack, where the goal is to make a service unavailable to its intended users by overwhelming it with traffic or requests. A Footprinting attack involves gathering information about a network's configuration and topology, not overwhelming it with traffic. A Spoofing attack involves disguising the attacker's identity or forging the source of information to appear legitimate, which is not described in the scenario. A Fingerprinting attack is focused on identifying specific device and OS types and versions, not on disrupting services through excessive requests. References 9.2.2 Attack Types 9.2.3 Distributed DoS Attacks and Botnets 9.2.5 Lab: Analyze a DoS Attack 9.2.6 Lab: Analyze a DDoS Attack 12.3.11 Lab: Enable Wireless Intrusion Prevention

A multinational corporation with headquarters in New York and branches in London, Singapore, and Sydney is looking to ensure secure, reliable, and efficient connectivity between its global offices and its cloud infrastructure. The company's IT strategy includes the use of mission-critical applications that require high bandwidth and low latency. Which cloud connectivity option should the company prioritize? Public Internet with standard encryption Incorrect answer: Client-to-site VPN model Direct connect or private link through colocation Internet-based VPN connectivity

Correct Answer: Direct connect or private link through colocation Internet-based VPN connectivity Explanation For a multinational corporation that requires secure, reliable, and efficient connectivity for mission-critical applications with high bandwidth and low latency, a direct connect or private link through colocation is the best option. This method provides a dedicated, high-speed connection to the cloud provider's data center, ensuring low latency and high bandwidth, which are crucial for the performance of mission-critical applications. Colocation also offers enhanced security compared to internet-based connections. Internet-based VPN connectivity, while cost-effective and easy to set up, may suffer from poor performance due to latency and bandwidth throttling, making it unsuitable for mission-critical applications. The client-to-site VPN model is designed for individual hosts or users to securely access the cloud, not for interconnecting global offices with high performance and security requirements. Using the public Internet with standard encryption does not provide the necessary bandwidth and latency guarantees for mission-critical applications, and it is less secure than a direct connect or private link. References 14.3.4 Cloud Connectivity Options

You are a contractor that has agreed to implement a new remote access solution based on a Windows Server 2022 system for a client. The customer wants to purchase and install a smart card system to provide a high level of security to the implementation. Which of the following authentication protocols are you MOST likely to recommend to the client? MS-CHAP CHAP PPP EAP

Correct Answer: EAP Explanation Of the protocols listed, only EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol) provides support for smart card authentication. Microsoft Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol (MS-CHAP) and Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) use a three-way handshake for authentication purposes. These protocols do not support the use of smart cards. Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) is a remote access protocol that uses usernames and passwords for authentication. PPP does not support the use of smart cards. References 10.4.5 Extensible Authentication Protocol and IEEE 802.1X 10.4.6 Port Guards 10.4.7 Lab: Harden a Switch

Your company has recently expanded its operations and opened a new branch office. As the IT manager, you are tasked with setting up the network infrastructure for this new location. The office will connect to the company's main data center via the Internet for access to centralized resources. You need to select a router that will manage the traffic between the branch office's local area network (LAN) and the wide area network (WAN) internet access efficiently. Which type of router would be most suitable for this purpose? Virtual router Edge router Core router Wireless router

Correct Answer: Edge router Explanation An edge router is the most suitable choice for managing traffic between a branch office's LAN and the WAN internet access. It is specifically designed to serve as the boundary between internal networks and external networks, handling data entering and exiting the network. This makes it ideal for connecting the branch office to the company's main data center over the internet. Core routers are used within the backbone of the Internet or within large enterprise networks to route traffic within the network core. They are not designed for direct connection to external networks, making them less suitable for the described scenario. While a wireless router provides Wi-Fi connectivity, its primary function is not to manage traffic between a LAN and WAN. In a business environment, especially for connecting a branch office to a main data center, a more robust solution like an edge router is needed. Virtual routers can be used in various scenarios, including as part of a virtualized network infrastructure. However, for the specific task of managing traffic between a branch office's LAN and the WAN with a physical connection, a physical edge router is more appropriate. Virtual routers are more suited for environments where routing capabilities need to be dynamically adjusted or where physical space and hardware are limited. References 5.3.1 Edge Routers

A telecommunications company is planning to upgrade its network infrastructure in a suburban area. The company wants to provide high-speed internet access but must consider the existing copper wiring infrastructure and the cost implications of completely replacing it. They are debating between implementing a Fiber to the Curb (FTTC) solution and a Fiber to the Premises (FTTP) solution. The area consists of single-family homes spread out over a large area, each approximately 300 meters from the local point of presence. Which solution should the company choose to balance high-speed access with cost considerations? FTTC with ADSL FTTP with PON FTTC with VDSL FTTP with direct fiber

Correct Answer: FTTC with VDSL Explanation Given the scenario, FTTC with VDSL is the most suitable choice. It allows the company to extend the fiber link from the point of presence to a communications cabinet servicing multiple subscribers while retaining the existing copper wiring for the last mile. VDSL can provide high-speed internet access over these distances, making it a cost-effective solution without the need for completely replacing the copper wiring with fiber. FTTP with PON would provide the highest speed and best quality of service by running fiber all the way to the premises. However, it would also be the most expensive option due to the need to replace the entire copper infrastructure with fiber, which may not be justified given the cost considerations. FTTC with ADSL would not provide sufficient speed improvements over the existing infrastructure, as ADSL speeds are generally lower than VDSL, especially over distances of 300 meters. FTTP with direct fiber would offer the best performance but at a significantly higher cost due to the need to run individual fiber lines to each home, making it less cost-effective for the scenario described. References 13.1.3 Fiber to the Curb and Fiber to the Premises

Your organization is planning to host a conference at its headquarters, expecting a large number of guests who will require internet access. To accommodate this, you need to decide which network security zone to connect the guests' devices to. Which of the following zones would be MOST appropriate for this purpose? Private client network Guest Private server administrative networks Public server network

Correct Answer: Guest Explanation The correct answer is Guest. The guest zone is specifically designed to accommodate unmanaged devices, providing them with internet access while imposing certain restrictions and monitoring to maintain network security. This zone is typically untrusted, meaning it is isolated from the organization's critical internal resources to prevent unauthorized access. Connecting guests to this zone ensures that they have the access they need without compromising the security of the organization's more sensitive or critical network zones. Private server administrative networks are highly secure zones intended for critical servers and infrastructure, subject to strict security policies and continuous monitoring. Allowing guest access to this zone would pose a significant security risk. The private client network is designed for devices that require access to both the organization's internal resources and public networks. While it has security policies and monitoring in place, it is meant for trusted devices and not suitable for unmanaged guest devices. The public server network is for devices that are fully managed by the organization but accept connections from unmanaged public clients. It is not intended to provide general internet access to guests and could expose critical services to unnecessary risk. References 12.3.5 Bring Your Own Device Issues 12.3.8 Lab: Create a Guest Network for BYOD

You are a network administrator tasked with configuring a mixed environment of Cisco and non-Cisco devices to ensure that all devices can discover information about each other. You need to choose a discovery protocol that will work across all devices in your network. Which protocol should you configure on all devices? IEEE Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP) Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)

Correct Answer: IEEE Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP) Explanation The correct answer is IEEE Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP). LLDP is a standards-based discovery protocol that can operate across devices from different vendors, including both Cisco and non-Cisco devices. This makes it the ideal choice for a mixed environment where interoperability is required. CDP is a proprietary protocol developed by Cisco and, while it may be supported on some non-Cisco devices through licensing, it is not universally supported across all vendors. SNMP is used for network management and monitoring, not specifically for device discovery in the same way that CDP or LLDP are used. BGP is a routing protocol used to exchange routing information between autonomous systems on the Internet and is not used for device discovery within a local network. References 8.2.4 Discovery Protocols

You are a network technician troubleshooting a connectivity issue in your company's network. After identifying the problem and establishing a theory of probable cause, you have successfully tested your theory and determined the cause of the issue. You have just finished establishing a detailed plan of action to resolve the problem, which includes replacing a faulty network switch that has been causing intermittent connectivity issues for several users. What is the next step you should take according to the CompTIA Network+ troubleshooting methodology? Implement the solution by replacing the faulty network switch. Document the problem and the solution in the company's knowledge base. Verify full system functionality by asking users if they are still experiencing issues. Establish a new theory of probable cause for the connectivity issue.

Correct Answer: Implement the solution by replacing the faulty network switch. Explanation According to the CompTIA Network+ troubleshooting methodology, after establishing a plan of action to resolve the problem, the next step is to implement the solution. In this scenario, the plan of action involves replacing a faulty network switch that has been identified as the cause of the connectivity issues. Therefore, the correct next step is to proceed with the implementation of this solution. Documenting the problem and the solution is an important step in the troubleshooting process, but it comes after the solution has been implemented and the system's full functionality has been verified. It is not the immediate next step after establishing a plan of action. Verifying full system functionality is an important step, but it comes after implementing the solution. Establishing a new theory of probable cause is a step that would be taken if the initial theory was not confirmed during testing or if the implemented solution did not resolve the problem. Since the scenario indicates that a plan of action has already been established based on a confirmed cause, establishing a new theory is not the appropriate next step. References 1.4.1 Network Troubleshooting Methodology 1.4.7 Implement the Solution 1.4.10 Lab: Troubleshooting Methodology

A security analyst is conducting a security audit and needs to monitor network traffic for any suspicious activities. The analyst requires a method that allows for the real-time analysis of traffic without introducing a point of failure in the network. Which setup would best suit the security analyst's requirements? Implementing SPAN/port mirroring on the core switch Using an Active TAP to monitor the traffic Installing a Passive TAP but only during off-hours Setting up a software-based sniffer on his workstation

Correct Answer: Implementing SPAN/port mirroring on the core switch Explanation Implementing SPAN/port mirroring on the core switch would allow the security analyst to monitor a copy of the network traffic in real-time without introducing a point of failure. This method is suitable for security analysis as it provides visibility into the traffic without affecting the network's operation. While setting up a software-based sniffer on the workstation can capture traffic, it may not capture all network traffic, especially if the security analyst's workstation is not strategically placed within the network topology. An Active TAP introduces a potential point of failure due to its reliance on power, which contradicts the security analyst's requirement to avoid introducing a point of failure. Installing a Passive TAP only during off-hours would limit the security analyst's ability to monitor traffic in real-time and potentially miss suspicious activities occurring during peak hours. References 8.5.1 Packet Capture 8.5.6 Lab: Configure Port Mirroring 10.4.8 Port Mirroring

During a routine network upgrade, a junior network technician accidentally connects two ports on the same switch with a patch cable, creating a potential for a network loop. The next day, employees start complaining about slow internet speeds and intermittent disconnections. As the senior network administrator, you are tasked with resolving the issue. Which of the following actions should you take first to address the problem? Inspect the physical connections on the switches for any improper configurations that could have introduced a loop. Increase the DHCP lease time to reduce the number of DHCP requests on the network. Implement Quality of Service (QoS) rules to prioritize critical business applications. Upgrade the firmware on all network switches to the latest version.

Correct Answer: Inspect the physical connections on the switches for any improper configurations that could have introduced a loop. Explanation Given the timing of the network issues following a routine upgrade and the potential for a network loop created by the accidental connection, the first step should be to inspect the physical connections. Identifying and removing the looped connection can resolve the broadcast storm causing the network slowdowns and disconnections. While implementing QoS rules can help manage bandwidth and prioritize traffic, it does not address the root cause of the problem, which is likely a network loop. The issue will persist until the loop is resolved. Upgrading firmware is generally a good practice for maintaining network security and performance but is unlikely to resolve a network loop issue caused by a physical misconfiguration. Increasing the DHCP lease time may reduce the number of DHCP requests, but it does not address the underlying issue of a network loop. The network performance problems will continue until the loop is identified and corrected. References 3.4.5 MAC Address Table 3.4.6 Network Loop and Broadcast Storm Issues 3.4.9 Lab: Switching Loop

An online education platform, EduNet, hosts live webinars for students worldwide. During a webinar, multiple instructors from different locations need to access a server hosted in EduNet's private network to upload and share educational materials. EduNet's network uses a single public IP address and has implemented Port Address Translation (PAT) to manage connections. Which of the following issues is EduNet least likely to encounter due to using PAT in this scenario? A decrease in the quality of the webinar stream due to bandwidth limitations Instructors being unable to access the server because it is on a private network Instructors experiencing difficulty in establishing a connection to the server at the same time The public IP address being easily identifiable and targeted for cyber attacks

Correct Answer: Instructors being unable to access the server because it is on a private network Explanation Instructors being unable to access the server because it is on a private network is the correct answer. PAT allows multiple external connections to be mapped to internal addresses through a single public IP address, facilitating access to services hosted on a private network. Therefore, instructors should not have issues accessing the server solely because it is on a private network. While PAT allows multiple connections through a single public IP address, network congestion or improper configuration could potentially cause connection difficulties, making this a possible issue. Having a single public IP address does make it identifiable, potentially increasing the risk of being targeted for attacks, making this a possible issue. Bandwidth limitations affecting the quality of the webinar stream could be a concern with multiple simultaneous connections, making this a possible issue. References 5.3.3 Port Address Translation

You are setting up a new office network and have decided to implement structured cabling to ensure a tidy and efficient network infrastructure. After running Ethernet cables from each workstation to your central networking room, you're now at the stage where you need to terminate these cables to make them easily connectable to your network switch. You remember that using a specific device can simplify future network modifications, such as moving a workstation to a different location or adding new devices to the network. Which device should you use to terminate the Ethernet cables from the workstations for easy connectivity and future modifications? Into a patch panel Into a wireless access point Into the network switch Into a power distribution unit

Correct Answer: Into a patch panel Explanation The correct answer is into a patch panel. Using a patch panel to terminate the Ethernet cables from the workstations is the most efficient and organized method. A patch panel allows for easy cable management and simplifies future moves, adds, and changes (MACs) by allowing reconfiguration of connections without the need to reterminate cables. This setup keeps the central networking room organized and makes it easier to manage the network infrastructure. Terminating the cables directly into the network switch is not advisable for a large setup or when future modifications are anticipated. It can lead to a disorganized cable management system and make it difficult to manage changes without disrupting the existing setup. A power distribution unit (PDU) is used for distributing electrical power and has nothing to do with network cable termination. Using a PDU for this purpose is not applicable. A wireless access point (WAP) is used to provide wireless network connectivity and is not used for terminating wired Ethernet cables. Terminating cables into a WAP does not apply to this scenario and would not achieve the desired connectivity for wired workstations. References 2.3.3 Patch Panels 2.3.8 Lab: Connect Patch Panel Cables 1 2.3.9 Lab: Connect Patch Panel Cables 2

During a security audit, you discover that two devices on your network have been configured with the same MAC address. What should be your immediate action to address this security concern? Change the network topology to a more secure configuration. Increase the encryption level on the network to protect data transmissions. Update the security software on all devices on the network. Isolate the devices from the network to prevent potential spoofing attacks.

Correct Answer: Isolate the devices from the network to prevent potential spoofing attacks. Explanation Discovering two devices with the same MAC address during a security audit raises concerns about potential MAC address spoofing, which could be indicative of a security threat. The immediate action should be to isolate the devices from the network to prevent any potential spoofing attacks or other malicious activities. This allows for a thorough investigation into why the devices were configured with the same MAC address and to rectify the situation securely. While updating security software is generally a good practice, it does not directly address the issue of duplicate MAC addresses or the potential security risks associated with them. Changing the network topology might improve overall network security but does not specifically address the immediate concern of duplicate MAC addresses and the potential for spoofing attacks. Increasing encryption on the network helps protect data transmissions but does not resolve the issue of duplicate MAC addresses or mitigate the risk of spoofing attacks associated with them. References 4.6.2 Duplicate IP and MAC Address Issues

During a network audit, it was discovered that the distribution layer switches in a company's three-tiered network hierarchy are nearing their end of life and need to be replaced. The current switches are layer 2 only, and the company has been experiencing issues with network bottlenecks and inefficient traffic management. What type of switches should the company consider purchasing to replace the old distribution layer switches? Wireless access points Layer 2 only switches with higher throughput Basic unmanaged switches Layer 3 capable switches

Correct Answer: Layer 3 capable switches Explanation To address the issues of network bottlenecks and inefficient traffic management, the company should consider purchasing layer 3 capable switches for the distribution layer. Layer 3 switches can perform routing functions in addition to switching, allowing for better traffic management, implementation of routing policies, and alleviation of bottlenecks through more efficient paths. While layer 2 only switches with higher throughput might temporarily alleviate some bottlenecks, they would not address the core issue of inefficient traffic management that layer 3 capabilities can provide. Basic unmanaged switches offer limited functionality and no ability to configure traffic policies or routing, which would not solve the company's issues with traffic management. Wireless access points are used to provide wireless connectivity at the access layer and would not be suitable for replacing distribution layer switches or addressing the company's traffic management and bottleneck issues. References 5.5.2 Three-Tiered Network Hierarchy

You are setting up a small office network with several computers, a printer, and a network storage device. All devices are connected to a single switch. You want to ensure that each device can communicate with the others on the network. To facilitate this communication, you need to consider the type of addressing that is used at the Data Link layer. What type of address is used at the Data Link layer to ensure each device can communicate with the others on the same network segment? Hostnames configured by the network administrator IP addresses assigned by a DHCP server Port numbers assigned by the network applications MAC addresses that are unique to each network interface

Correct Answer: MAC addresses that are unique to each network interface Explanation The correct answer is MAC addresses that are unique to each network interface. MAC (Media Access Control) addresses are used at the Data Link layer to uniquely identify each network interface on a local network segment. These hardware addresses are essential for allowing devices to communicate with one another within the same broadcast domain, such as the one created by the switch in the scenario. IP addresses operate at the Network layer, not the Data Link layer. While they are crucial for routing packets across different network segments, they are not the addresses used for device communication within the same network segment at the Data Link layer. Hostnames are human-readable labels assigned to devices on a network, typically resolved to IP addresses at the Application layer. They are not used for direct device communication at the Data Link layer. Port numbers are used at the Transport layer to differentiate between different services or applications running on a device. They are not used for identifying devices at the Data Link layer and are not relevant to the communication between devices on the same network segment. References 1.2.1 Open Systems Interconnection Model 1.2.4 Layer 2 - Data Link 1.2.8 OSI Model Summary 1.3.3 Data Link Layer Functions 1.3.8 Lab: Explore a Single Location in a Lab 4.1.2 Layer 2 vs Layer 3 Addressing and Forwarding 13.1.1 Wide Area Networks and the OSI Model

As a network administrator, you've been tasked with updating the firmware on a critical router. You've identified the correct firmware version to address a known vulnerability. What should you do before proceeding with the firmware update? Perform the update immediately to minimize the window of vulnerability. Make a backup of the router's current configuration. Explain the details of the vulnerability you found to all users. Wait for a more convenient time to perform the update to minimize disruption.

Correct Answer: Make a backup of the router's current configuration. Explanation Making a backup ensures that you can restore the router's configuration if the update process encounters issues, maintaining network stability and functionality. While addressing vulnerabilities promptly is important, ensuring the ability to recover from a failed update is crucial. While transparency is important, detailing vulnerabilities to all users may not be necessary and could cause unnecessary concern. Delaying the update increases the risk of exploitation; preparations such as backups can minimize disruption while addressing the vulnerability promptly. References 8.1.6 Lifecycle Management 8.1.12 Lab: Update Firmware

A network specialist reviews the organization's cellular technology and discovers that the current contract uses a service that provides a low-power version of the Long Term Evolution (LTE) or 4g cellular standard and currently has a limited data rate between 20-100 kbps. What baseband radio technology service is the organization now using for cellular service? NB-IoT IoT PACS LTE-M

Correct Answer: NB-IoT Explanation Narrowband-IoT (NB-IoT) refers to a low-power version of the Long Term Evolution (LTE) or 4G cellular standard. The signal occupies less bandwidth than regular cellular. This means that data rates are limited (20-100 kbps), but most sensors send small packets with low latency rather than making large data transfers. A physical access control system (PACS) is a network of monitored locks, intruder alarms, and video surveillance cameras. The term Internet of Things (IoT) describes the global network of personal devices, home appliances, home control systems, vehicles, and other items equipped with sensors, software, and network connectivity. LTE Machine Type Communication (LTE-M) is a low-power system but supports higher bandwidth (up to about 1 Mbps). References 11.2.1 IoT Devices 11.2.3 IoT Networks 11.2.4 IoT Network Security 11.2.5 Lab: Scan for IoT Devices

You are developing a web application that requires users to submit sensitive information through a form. To ensure the security of the data transmission, you decide to use HTTP for the communication between the client and the server. Is this the best practice for securing the data transmission? No, because HTTPS should be used instead of HTTP for encrypting data transmission. Yes, because HTTP headers can be customized to include encryption. Yes, because HTTP is designed to securely transmit sensitive information. No, because HTTP is a stateless protocol and does not encrypt data.

Correct Answer: No, because HTTPS should be used instead of HTTP for encrypting data transmission. Explanation The correct answer is "No, because HTTPS should be used instead of HTTP for encrypting data transmission." HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) is essentially HTTP with encryption. It uses TLS (Transport Layer Security) or SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) to encrypt the data transmitted between the client and the server. This ensures that sensitive information, such as personal details and payment information, is securely transmitted and protected from eavesdroppers. HTTP, on the other hand, transmits data in plain text, making it susceptible to interception and tampering. HTTP does not inherently secure or encrypt the data. It transmits data in plain text, which can be intercepted by unauthorized parties. "No, because HTTP is a stateless protocol and does not encrypt data" is misleading. While it's true that HTTP is a stateless protocol and does not encrypt data, the reason for not using HTTP for sensitive data transmission is not its statelessness but its lack of encryption. Simply customizing HTTP headers does not provide encryption. Encryption requires a secure protocol like HTTPS, which incorporates TLS/SSL. References 6.1.6 Common TCP and UDP Ports 7.2.1 Hyper Text Transfer Protocol

Your manager has asked you to implement a wired network infrastructure that will accommodate failed connections. You don't have a large budget, so you decide to provide redundancy for only a handful of critical devices. Which of the following network topologies should you implement? Full mesh Bus Star Partial mesh

Correct Answer: Partial mesh Explanation In a partial mesh topology, only some redundant paths exist. A partial mesh topology is more practical and less expensive than a full mesh topology. In a full mesh topology, every device has a point-to-point connection with every other device. This provides full redundancy, but it's expensive and impractical. A star topology connects network devices to the network with a single patch cable. A patch cable failure makes the connected device unavailable. A bus topology has a single point of failure. If there's a break in the network media, the network becomes unavailable. References 1.1.5 Mesh Topology

A network engineer is tasked with optimizing the data transfer between a data center and a remote office. The connection between these locations includes various network devices and links with differing MTU capabilities. The engineer notices that when large files are transferred from the data center to the remote office, the transfer rate is lower than expected. The engineer suspects that MTU mismatches along the path might be causing excessive fragmentation. To address this issue, which of the following steps should the engineer take first? Decrease the MTU on the remote office's router to the smallest possible value to avoid any potential mismatches. Increase the MTU on the data center's router to the largest possible value to maximize packet size. Perform an MTU path discovery to identify the smallest MTU along the path and adjust settings accordingly. Replace all network devices along the path

Correct Answer: Perform an MTU path discovery to identify the smallest MTU along the path and adjust settings accordingly. Explanation Performing an MTU path discovery helps the engineer identify the smallest MTU supported along the entire path, which is crucial for adjusting the MTU settings to avoid fragmentation. This step is essential for optimizing data transfer rates without causing packet loss or excessive fragmentation. Increasing the MTU on the data center's router to the largest possible value might lead to packets that are too large for other devices along the path, causing fragmentation or packet drops. Decreasing the MTU on the remote office's router to the smallest possible value can lead to inefficient use of network bandwidth due to the overhead associated with a higher number of smaller packets. Replacing all network devices along the path with ones that support a uniform, high MTU is not always practical or cost-effective. It also doesn't guarantee the elimination of fragmentation if there are other limiting factors along the path, such as third-party networks. References 3.3.2 Maximum Transmission Unit 3.3.7 Lab: Enable Jumbo Frame Support 5.1.5 Fragmentation

An IT administrator wants to perform a comprehensive security audit on their network. The administrator needs to identify both TCP and UDP services running across all devices. Which approach should the IT administrator take to achieve a thorough scan using Nmap? Perform a TCP SYN scan (-sS) only. Use the -A switch to automatically scan both TCP and UDP ports. Perform a UDP scan (-sU) only. Perform separate TCP connect scans (-sT) and UDP scans (-sU).

Correct Answer: Perform separate TCP connect scans (-sT) and UDP scans (-sU). Explanation For a comprehensive audit that covers both TCP and UDP services, performing separate scans for each protocol is the most thorough approach. This allows the admin to tailor the scan options for each protocol type, ensuring a detailed and comprehensive audit. A TCP SYN scan (-sS) only would miss any services running on UDP ports. The -A switch enhances the scan with OS detection, version detection, script scanning, and traceroute, but it does not automatically scan both TCP and UDP ports unless specified. A UDP scan (-sU) only would miss any services running on TCP ports. References 7.2.9 Lab: Scan for Web Services with Nmap 8.2.2 Nmap 8.2.3 Nmap Port Scanning

You are the network administrator for a medium-sized company. Recently, you've noticed that the performance of the network firewall has significantly decreased. Upon investigation, you discover that the current configuration of the firewall has deviated from the baseline configuration that was documented six months ago. You suspect this configuration drift might be the cause of the performance issues. What should be your next step to address this issue? Immediately revert the firewall's configuration to the baseline configuration. Ignore the deviation and monitor the firewall's performance for another month. Update the baseline configuration to match the current configuration of the firewall. Perform testing to compare the current configuration with the baseline to identify which configuration performs better.

Correct Answer: Perform testing to compare the current configuration with the baseline to identify which configuration performs better. Explanation The correct answer is to perform testing to compare the current configuration with the baseline to identify which configuration performs better. Before making any changes, it's important to perform testing to understand the impact of the deviation from the baseline configuration. This will help in determining whether the current configuration is causing the performance issues or if reverting to the baseline configuration (or possibly updating it) would be more beneficial. Ignoring the deviation could lead to further degradation of the network's performance and potentially compromise network security. Immediately reverting to the baseline configuration without testing might not solve the performance issues and could disrupt network operations if the current configuration was implemented to address other concerns. Updating the baseline configuration to match the current one without understanding the implications of the changes could institutionalize a potentially flawed configuration. References 8.1.1 Configuration Management

A software developer is working at a coffee shop when a friendly stranger strikes up a conversation about technology. During the chat, the stranger offers the developer a USB drive, claiming it contains a beta version of an innovative software tool that could be useful for their work. The software developer is tempted by the offer but recalls a recent security training session at their company. How should the software developer respond to the stranger's offer of the USB drive in the safest way possible? Take the USB drive and give it to the developer's company's IT department for evaluation. Politely decline the offer, citing company policy. Accept the USB drive and use it immediately to see if the software is beneficial. Accept the USB drive but plan to scan it with antivirus software before using it.

Correct Answer: Politely decline the offer, citing company policy. Explanation The safest approach is to decline offers of unsolicited or unauthorized devices and software, especially from strangers. This response minimizes the risk of introducing malware or other security threats into the software developer's or his company's systems. It aligns with best practices for information security and adheres to most company policies regarding device and software usage. Accepting the USB drive and using it immediately to see if the software is beneficial is risky because the USB drive could contain malware or be part of a social engineering attack aimed at compromising the software developer's computer or company data. While scanning the USB drive with antivirus software is a precaution, it may not detect all forms of malware, especially sophisticated or new variants. This approach still poses a risk. Although involving the IT department is a cautious step, accepting the USB drive in the first place could pose a risk. It's safer to decline the offer outright, as the IT department may also prefer not to expose their systems to potential threats. References 9.5.1 Social Engineering Attacks

During a routine inspection of your company's server room, you notice that several racks are equipped with lockable front and rear doors, but many of these doors are left open during business hours. Additionally, some racks have unused slots that are not covered with blanking plates. You are concerned that these practices may be affecting the server room's overall cooling efficiency. What would be the most effective recommendation to address these concerns? Suggest removing the lockable doors entirely to enhance airflow through the racks. Propose the use of external fans to direct cooler air towards the open racks. Recommend the installation of blanking plates in all unused rack slots to improve airflow and cooling efficiency. Advise the IT staff to keep the lockable doors closed at all times to improve security.

Correct Answer: Recommend the installation of blanking plates in all unused rack slots to improve airflow and cooling efficiency. Installing blanking plates in all unused rack slots is a straightforward and effective way to improve airflow and cooling efficiency within the server room and is the correct answer for this scenario. Blanking plates prevent the mixing of hot and cold air, ensuring that cool air is directed through active equipment and not wasted on empty spaces. This measure, combined with keeping the lockable doors closed, can significantly enhance cooling efficiency. While keeping the lockable doors closed improves security, it does not directly address the issue of unused slots affecting cooling efficiency. Removing the lockable doors entirely could compromise security and would not effectively address the issue of unused slots. Using external fans to direct cooler air towards the racks is a less efficient solution compared to improving internal airflow management with blanking plates. References 2.5.1 Rack Systems

You are concerned about the security of your IoT devices. You have read about vulnerabilities that could allow hackers to gain unauthorized access to your smart home devices, such as your smart locks and security cameras. Which of the following measures should you prioritize to enhance the security of your IoT devices? Connecting all devices to a high-capacity external storage Using proprietary operating systems for your devices Increasing the battery life of the devices Regularly updating the firmware of the devices

Correct Answer: Regularly updating the firmware of the devices Explanation Regularly updating the firmware of IoT devices is crucial for security. Manufacturers often release firmware updates to patch known vulnerabilities, improve device functionality, and enhance security features. By keeping the firmware of your smart locks, security cameras, and other IoT devices up to date, you can protect against unauthorized access and reduce the risk of hacking. Increasing the battery life of the devices is important for ensuring they remain operational, but it does not directly enhance security against hacking or unauthorized access. Connecting all devices to a high-capacity external storage might be useful for data management but does not address the security vulnerabilities of the devices themselves. Using proprietary operating systems for his devices might limit some compatibility and flexibility, and it does not guarantee enhanced security. Security depends more on how up-to-date and well-maintained the system and its applications are, rather than whether the operating system is proprietary. References 11.2.1 IoT Devices 11.2.3 IoT Networks 11.2.4 IoT Network Security 11.2.5 Lab: Scan for IoT Devices

Your organization is in the process of upgrading its data center to improve energy efficiency and enhance remote management capabilities. As part of this upgrade, you are evaluating different Power Distribution Units (PDUs) to find one that best meets your needs. The new PDUs must be able to distribute power effectively to all devices in the racks while also offering advanced features such as remote monitoring and control of power outlets. Which of the following features should you prioritize when selecting a new PDU for your data center upgrade? A built-in firewall for network security An integrated network switch for data traffic management Remote power monitoring and control capabilities Built-in wireless access point for internet connectivity

Correct Answer: Remote power monitoring and control capabilities Explanation Remote power monitoring and control capabilities is the correct answer for this scenario. Remote power monitoring and control capabilities are essential for modern data centers looking to improve energy efficiency and enhance remote management. These features allow administrators to monitor power usage in real-time, remotely turn power to specific outlets on or off, and manage the power distribution efficiently from any location. This aligns with the goals of upgrading the data center to improve energy efficiency and enhance remote management capabilities. While internet connectivity is important for a data center, it is not a primary function of a PDU. PDUs are focused on power distribution and management, and networking needs are typically addressed by separate infrastructure. Integrating a network switch into a PDU complicates its primary function of power distribution and does not directly contribute to the efficiency or management capabilities of power distribution. Network security, while critical for data centers, is not a function of a PDU. Firewalls are separate network security devices or software and do not relate to the power distribution capabilities of PDUs. References 2.5.3 Power Management

After a major hurricane, a regional hospital's electronic health record (EHR) system goes offline due to power outages and infrastructure damage. The hospital's IT team is working around the clock to restore various systems. Given the critical nature of patient care and the need to access medical records, which of the following actions should be prioritized to align with the concept of a mission-essential function (MEF)? Restoring the hospital's public website to keep the community informed about the situation Restoring the electronic health record (EHR) system to ensure continuity of patient care Updating the hospital's social media pages to communicate with the public Conducting an audit of the IT systems to understand the extent of the damage

Correct Answer: Restoring the electronic health record (EHR) system to ensure continuity of patient care Explanation In the context of a hospital, the EHR system is a mission essential function (MEF) because it is critical to the hospital's primary mission of providing patient care. Restoring the EHR system should be prioritized to ensure that healthcare providers can access patient records and continue to deliver care effectively, especially in the aftermath of a disaster. An MEF is defined as a function that cannot be deferred and must be restored first after a disruption. While restoring the hospital's public website is important for communication, it is not as critical as ensuring the continuity of patient care, which directly impacts patient health and safety. Updating social media pages is a useful communication tool but does not directly affect the hospital's ability to provide essential medical services. Conducting an audit of the IT systems is important for understanding the extent of the damage and planning long-term recovery efforts, but it does not address the immediate need to restore critical functions that affect patient care. References 9.1.1 Common Security Terminology 9.1.2 Security Audits and Assessments

You are tasked with upgrading the network infrastructure of a multi-story office building. The project involves running new data cables vertically between floors to connect various network switches located in IT closets on each floor. The building does not have a centralized plenum space for HVAC systems, and instead, uses ductwork. You need to select the most appropriate type of data cable for this vertical installation to ensure compliance with fire safety standards and the building's architectural constraints. Which type of data cable should you choose for the vertical runs between floors in the multi-story office building? Untreated PVC jacketed cable Riser-rated CMR/MPR cable Untreated PVC jacketed cable Standard Ethernet cable without any specific rating

Correct Answer: Riser-rated CMR/MPR cable Explanation Riser-rated CMR/MPR cable is specifically designed for vertical runs between floors in buildings. It has certain fire safety features, such as being fire-stopped to prevent the spread of fire through the conduit or spaces like lift shafts. This makes it the most appropriate choice for the described installation, ensuring compliance with fire safety standards without the stricter requirements of plenum-rated cables, which are unnecessary in this scenario due to the absence of a centralized plenum space. Untreated PVC jacketed cables are not suitable for vertical runs between floors as they do not meet the necessary fire safety standards for such installations. They can emit toxic smoke and are not designed to prevent the spread of fire, posing a significant risk. While plenum-rated CMP/MMP cable meets the highest fire safety standards and could technically be used in this scenario, it is not the most cost-effective or necessary choice. Plenum-rated cables are specifically designed for use in plenum spaces, which this building does not have, making the extra expense unjustifiable. Standard Ethernet cables without any specific fire safety rating are not suitable for vertical runs between floors. These cables lack the necessary fire-retardant properties and fire-stopping capabilities required for safe use in such applications, making them a non-compliant and hazardous choice. References 2.2.5 Plenum and Riser-Rated Cable

Your software development team has released an update for your company's main product. However, shortly after deployment, you receive reports of significant performance issues from several clients. What is the most appropriate immediate action? Advise clients to purchase newer hardware to support the update. Reinstall the operating system. Roll back the update to the previous version for affected clients. Ignore the reports until more data is collected.

Correct Answer: Roll back the update to the previous version for affected clients. Explanation Rolling back the update restores functionality for affected clients while the development team investigates and addresses the performance issues, maintaining client satisfaction and product reliability. Recommending new hardware may not address the underlying issue with the update and could frustrate clients. Ignoring client reports can damage trust and fail to address potentially critical issues with the update. Reinstalling the operating system is an excessive measure that does not directly address issues with the product update. References 8.1.6 Lifecycle Management

Your company is expanding rapidly, and the HR department is struggling to keep up with the demands of managing employee information, payroll, and benefits. The HR team is looking for a solution that is easy to implement, requires minimal IT support, and can be accessed from anywhere by the team. Which cloud service model would BEST meet the HR department's needs? PaaS CDN SaaS IaaS

Correct Answer: SaaS Explanation Software as a Service (SaaS) is the most suitable cloud service model for the HR department's requirements. SaaS provides access to software applications over the Internet on a subscription basis. This model eliminates the need for installing, maintaining, and managing software and hardware, making it ideal for the HR team that seeks an easy-to-implement solution with minimal IT support. SaaS applications can be accessed from anywhere, providing the flexibility the HR team needs to manage employee information, payroll, and benefits efficiently as the company grows. IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) offers virtualized computing resources over the Internet. While it provides the infrastructure, the HR team would still need to set up, manage, and maintain any applications they use for HR tasks, which requires significant IT support and expertise. PaaS (Platform as a Service) provides a platform allowing customers to develop, run, and manage applications without the complexity of building and maintaining the infrastructure typically associated with developing and launching an app. However, it is more suited for developing custom applications rather than providing ready-to-use software solutions for HR tasks. CDN (Content Delivery Network) is a system of distributed servers that deliver web content and other web services to users based on their geographic locations. While it improves the performance and availability of web services, it does not offer software applications for HR management and thus does not meet the HR department's needs. References 14.2.3 Cloud Service Models

During a routine network maintenance check in a small office, you discover that one workstation is experiencing intermittent network connectivity issues. The user of this workstation reports that the connection drops several times a day but usually comes back on its own after a few minutes. You observe that the Ethernet cable connecting the workstation to the network switch is loosely hanging and occasionally brushes against the back of the desk. What is the MOST appropriate next step? Advise the user to avoid moving the desk to prevent the cable from brushing against it. Secure the cable and reseat it at both ends to ensure a firm connection. Replace the network switch as it might be faulty. Update the network adapter drivers immediately.

Correct Answer: Secure the cable and reseat it at both ends to ensure a firm connection. Explanation The intermittent nature of the connectivity issue, combined with the observation of the loosely hanging cable, suggests that the problem might be due to a loose connection. Reseating the cable at both ends ensures that any potential loose connections are corrected, and securing the cable prevents it from becoming loose again due to movement or other disturbances. This step directly addresses the observed issue and is a practical first action. Replacing the network switch is a significant and potentially costly action that should only be considered after ruling out simpler issues, such as cable connections. There is no indication in the scenario that the switch itself is faulty. Updating the network adapter drivers is a relevant step if there is reason to believe the issue is related to software or compatibility. However, given the physical circumstances described, it is not the most appropriate next step. Advising the user to avoid moving the desk does not address the root cause of the issue, which is the loose connection. While minimizing movement can prevent future issues, it does not resolve the current connectivity problem. References 2.6.9 Cable Troubleshooting Strategies

An organization is transitioning from a legacy multimode fiber network to a more modern infrastructure but wishes to reuse some of the existing fiber optic cables where possible. The current setup predominantly uses an older connector type known for its push-and-twist locking mechanism. For compatibility with new equipment, which connector type should the organization consider for adapters or replacements? Local Connector (LC) Mini-MT Subscriber Connector (SC) Straight Tip (ST)

Correct Answer: Straight Tip (ST) Explanation The correct answer is Straight Tip (ST). The Straight Tip (ST) connector is identified by its push-and-twist locking mechanism, which matches the description of the older connector type used in the organization's legacy multimode fiber network. For compatibility with new equipment, using adapters or replacements that accommodate the ST connector would be appropriate. The Subscriber Connector (SC) uses a push/pull design, not a push-and-twist locking mechanism. While SC connectors are common in fiber networks, they do not match the specific requirements of the scenario, which focuses on compatibility with an older connector type. The Local Connector (LC) is known for its small form factor and is widely used in modern Ethernet networks. However, it does not use a push-and-twist locking mechanism, making it an unsuitable direct replacement for the older connector type described. Mini-MT is not a recognized standard fiber optic connector and does not match the description of the older connector type with a push-and-twist locking mechanism. The scenario requires a solution that directly addresses the need for compatibility with the existing push-and-twist connectors. References 2.4.3 Fiber Optic Connector Types

You are experiencing slow Wi-Fi speeds and frequent disconnections in your home office. You notice that the issue worsens when your microwave oven is in use. Your Wi-Fi router and your laptop support the 802.11n standard. To improve your Wi-Fi connection, which of the following steps should you take? Move your home office closer to the kitchen where the microwave is located. Replace your microwave oven with a newer model. Increase the power output of the Wi-Fi router beyond the regulatory limits. Switch your Wi-Fi router to operate on the 5 GHz band instead of 2.4 GHz.

Correct Answer: Switch your Wi-Fi router to operate on the 5 GHz band instead of 2.4 GHz. Explanation The correct answer is to switch your Wi-Fi router to operate on the 5 GHz band instead of 2.4 GHz. Switching to the 5 GHz band can help avoid interference from the microwave oven, which operates in the 2.4 GHz frequency range. This change can lead to improved Wi-Fi speeds and fewer disconnections, as the 5 GHz band is less likely to experience interference from household appliances. Moving your home office closer to the kitchen is incorrect because proximity to the microwave oven, when in use, would likely increase interference, worsening the connection issues. Replacing your microwave oven with a newer model is incorrect because, while newer models might be more efficient, they still operate in the 2.4 GHz frequency range and can cause interference. Increasing the power output of your Wi-Fi router beyond regulatory limits is incorrect because it is illegal and could cause interference with other devices. Additionally, it does not address the fundamental issue of frequency band interference. References 12.2.2 Range and Signal Strength

You are setting up a new website and have updated the DNS records to point to the new server's IP address. However, when you try to access the website by its domain name, you are directed to the old server. What is the MOST likely cause of this issue? The website's SSL certificate is invalid. The HOSTS file on your computer has a static entry for the old server. The DNS records have not yet propagated. The new server's firewall is blocking incoming requests.

Correct Answer: The DNS records have not yet propagated. Explanation DNS record changes can take time to propagate throughout the Internet due to caching at various levels, including local resolvers and ISPs. If you are being directed to the old server shortly after making the change, it's likely that the DNS records have not fully propagated yet. While firewall issues can block access, they would not redirect you to the old server. A static entry in the HOSTS file could cause this issue, but it's less likely unless you have previously modified the HOSTS file for this specific domain. An invalid SSL certificate might cause security warnings but would not redirect you to the old server. References 6.5.1 Host Names and Domain Names 6.5.2 DNS Hierarchy 6.5.3 Name Resolution Using DNS 6.5.4 Resource Record Types 6.5.5 Host Address and Canonical Name Records 6.5.6 Mail Exchange, Service, and Text Records 6.5.7 Pointer Records 6.5.8 DNS Server Configuration 6.5.9 Internal vs External DNS 6.5.10 DNS Security 6.5.11 Lab: Configure DNS Addresses 6.5.12 Lab: Create Standard DNS Zones 6.5.13 Lab: Create Host Records 6.5.14 Lab: Create CNAME Records 6.5.15 Lab: Troubleshoot DNS Records 6.5.16 Configuring DNS Caching on Linux 6.5.17 Applied Live Lab: Configure DNS Records 6.6.1 Client DNS Issues 6.6.2 Name Resolution Issues 6.6.3 nslookup 6.6.4 dig 6.6.5 Lab: Explore nslookup 6.6.6 Lab: Use nslookup 6.6.7 Applied Live Lab: Report DNS Configuration

An IT support specialist is called to help a user, Jane, who is unable to access any websites by their domain names, although her colleagues do not experience this issue. The support specialist confirms that Jane's computer can ping known IP addresses. What should the IT support specialist check on Jane's computer to resolve the issue? The Ethernet cable connection The antivirus software for network blocking rules The web browser's homepage settings The DNS server addresses configured on Jane's computer

Correct Answer: The DNS server addresses configured on Jane's computer Explanation The correct answer would be to check the DNS server addresses configured on Jane's computer. Since only Jane is experiencing the issue and she can ping known IP addresses, the problem is likely with her computer's DNS configuration. The IT support specialist should check the DNS server addresses configured on her computer to ensure they are correct and match what is expected for the network. An issue with the Ethernet cable connection would likely prevent Jane from pinging IP addresses. The web browser's homepage settings would not affect the ability to resolve domain names to IP addresses. While antivirus software can block network traffic, it would typically affect more than just DNS resolution if it were blocking network connections. References 6.5.1 Host Names and Domain Names 6.5.2 DNS Hierarchy 6.5.3 Name Resolution Using DNS 6.5.4 Resource Record Types 6.5.5 Host Address and Canonical Name Records 6.5.6 Mail Exchange, Service, and Text Records 6.5.7 Pointer Records 6.5.8 DNS Server Configuration 6.5.9 Internal vs External DNS 6.5.10 DNS Security 6.5.11 Lab: Configure DNS Addresses 6.5.12 Lab: Create Standard DNS Zones 6.5.13 Lab: Create Host Records 6.5.14 Lab: Create CNAME Records

A global e-commerce company based in the United States plans to expand its operations into the European Union (EU). The company intends to store and process customer data collected from EU citizens. To ensure compliance with data protection laws, what must the company consider regarding data locality? The company must store and process EU citizens' data within the EU unless adequate protections are in place. The company should avoid collecting data from EU citizens to bypass data locality requirements. The company is only required to notify EU citizens about the data collection, without any specific data locality considerations. The company can store and process data anywhere, as long as it is encrypted.

Correct Answer: The company must store and process EU citizens' data within the EU unless adequate protections are in place. Explanation According to GDPR and the principle of data sovereignty, personal data collected from EU citizens must be stored and processed within the EU or in a jurisdiction that offers an adequate level of data protection comparable to that of the EU. This requirement ensures that the data is protected according to EU standards, even when it is handled by companies based outside the EU. If the company wishes to transfer data outside the EU, it must ensure that adequate safeguards or specific conditions, such as obtaining explicit consent from the data subjects, are met. While encryption is an important security measure, it does not address the requirements of data locality and sovereignty under GDPR. Data must be stored and processed within the EU or in a jurisdiction with adequate data protection laws, regardless of encryption. Avoiding the collection of data from EU citizens is not a practical or compliant strategy for a company looking to expand its operations into the EU. The focus should be on complying with data protection laws, including data locality requirements, rather than bypassing them. Merely notifying EU citizens about data collection does not fulfill the requirements of data locality under GDPR. The regulation requires specific measures to ensure the protection of personal data, including considerations related to where the data is stored and processed. References 9.1.3 Regulatory Compliance

A network engineer is tasked with deploying a new fiber optic link in a data center. After installation, the engineer notices that the signal strength is lower than expected. The engineer suspects that the issue might be related to the components used in the fiber optic path. What is the most likely cause of the reduced signal strength in this scenario? The fiber optic cables are of a different type than specified. The connectors used have higher than expected loss. The data center's temperature is too high. The fiber optic cables are too long.

Correct Answer: The connectors used have higher than expected loss. Explanation In this scenario, if the signal strength is lower than expected, it's likely due to the connectors having higher loss than anticipated. Connectors are a common source of signal loss in fiber optic paths, and if they are not installed correctly or are of poor quality, they can contribute significantly to signal degradation. Length could be a factor, but fiber optic cables can transmit over long distances with minimal loss if all components are functioning correctly. While extreme temperatures can affect signal strength, data centers are typically climate-controlled to prevent such issues. Using a different type of fiber optic cable than specified could cause issues, but the scenario suggests that the components (connectors) are the focus of the problem. References 3.1.4 Transceiver Signal Strength Issues

A cybersecurity team is monitoring the network for suspicious activities when they notice multiple internal devices attempting to connect to a single external command and control (C2) server. These devices are also observed to be scanning various IP addresses on the Internet. What is the MOST likely explanation for this behavior, and what should be the immediate response? The devices are part of a legitimate network scanning activity authorized by the company; the immediate response should be to verify the scanning schedule and purpose. The devices are experiencing an on-path attack; the immediate response should be to secure communication channels. The devices are part of a botnet and are being used for reconnaissance activities; the immediate response should be to isolate the affected devices and begin remediation processes.

Correct Answer: The devices are part of a botnet and are being used for reconnaissance activities; the immediate response should be to isolate the affected devices and begin remediation processes. Explanation The observed behavior of multiple internal devices attempting to connect to a single external C2 server and scanning various IP addresses is indicative of botnet activity. In this scenario, the devices are likely compromised and being used for reconnaissance or other malicious activities under the control of a threat actor. The immediate response should be to isolate these devices to prevent further malicious activities and begin remediation processes to remove the malware and secure the devices. The devices are updating their software from a centralized server: Software updates typically do not involve scanning various IP addresses on the Internet. The connection to a single external server combined with scanning behavior is more indicative of malicious activity than routine software updates. The devices are experiencing an on-path attack: An on-path attack involves intercepting and possibly altering communications between two parties. The behavior described in the scenario, specifically the scanning of various IP addresses, does not align with the characteristics of an on-path attack. The devices are part of a legitimate network scanning activity authorized by the company: While internal network scanning can be part of legitimate security measures, the connection to an external C2 server suggests malicious control rather than authorized activity. Verification of scanning activities would not address the connection to a malicious external server. References 9.5.1 Social Engineering Attacks 9.5.3 Lab: Respond to Social Engineering Exploits

Your team has reported that their emails are not being sent to external recipients. After some investigation, you suspect that the issue might be due to the network firewall blocking SMTP ports. What should you check first to confirm her suspicion? The firewall configuration The email application's user permissions The email server's storage capacity The physical connection of the email server

Correct Answer: The firewall configuration Explanation You should first check the firewall configuration for any rules specifically blocking SMTP ports, as this could directly prevent emails from being sent to external recipients. Confirming this would directly address her suspicion of the issue being related to the firewall. The email server's storage capacity could affect email delivery but would not specifically block emails from being sent to external recipients due to firewall issues. The physical connection of the email server could cause broader connectivity issues but would not specifically block SMTP ports. The email application's user permissions could affect individual user access but would not block SMTP ports at the firewall level. References 1.3.5 Transport and Application Layer and Security Functions 5.4.1 Firewall Uses and Types 5.4.2 Firewall Selection and Placement 10.5.1 Security Rules and ACL Configuration 10.5.4 Misconfigured Firewall and ACL Issues 10.5.5 Creating Firewall ACLs 10.5.7 Lab: Configure a Security Appliance 10.5.8 Lab: Configure a Perimeter Firewall 14.3.5 Cloud Firewall Security

A company's IT department receives complaints from employees that they cannot access the company's internal web portal by its domain name, but accessing external websites works without any issues. The IT department confirms that the internal DNS server responsible for resolving the company's domain names is operational. What should the IT department check next to resolve the issue? The firewall settings blocking internal traffic The network cable connections of the complaining employees The external DNS server configuration The internal DNS server's zone files for the correct entries

Correct Answer: The internal DNS server's zone files for the correct entries Explanation The correct answer is to next check the internal DNS server's zone files for the correct entries. Since the issue is specific to accessing the company's internal web portal by its domain name, and external websites are accessible, the problem likely lies with the internal DNS server's configuration, specifically the zone files. These files need to contain the correct entries for the company's domain names to be resolved properly. The external DNS server configuration would not affect the resolution of internal domain names. If firewall settings were blocking internal traffic, it would likely affect more than just DNS resolution. Network cable connections being the issue would prevent all forms of network access, not just specific domain name resolution. References 6.5.3 Name Resolution Using DNS 6.5.9 Internal vs External DNS 6.5.12 Lab: Create Standard DNS Zones 6.5.13 Lab: Create Host Records 6.5.14 Lab: Create CNAME Records

A network administrator is tasked with enhancing the security of their company's network. The administrator decides to implement port security on the company's switches to prevent unauthorized devices from connecting to the network. After configuring port security, the network administrator notices that a particular port on a switch keeps getting disabled, even though the device connected to it is authorized. Which of the following would be the MOST likely reason for this issue? The device is connecting through a wireless connection, which is not supported by port security. The port is set to shutdown mode by default when a violation occurs. The port security is configured with a maximum of two MAC addresses. The MAC address of the device is not included in the static lock list.

Correct Answer: The port security is configured with a maximum of two MAC addresses. Explanation The correct answer is that the port security is configured with a maximum of two MAC addresses, and the device occasionally uses a different network adapter. If the device occasionally uses a different network adapter, it would present a different MAC address to the switch, potentially exceeding the configured maximum of two MAC addresses allowed for that port. This would trigger a security violation, causing the port to enter a violation state, which could lead to the port being disabled if it's in shutdown mode. This scenario aligns with the dynamic nature of sticky MACs and the behavior of port security when the number of permitted MAC addresses is exceeded. If the MAC address of the device was not included in a static lock list, it would not have been authorized to connect in the first place. The scenario implies the device is authorized but faces issues due to a changing MAC address. The port entering shutdown mode is a consequence of the violation (exceeding the allowed number of MAC addresses), not the cause of the device's connection issues. The scenario does not specify that the device is connecting wirelessly, and port security applies to wired connections at the port level. References 10.4.1 Network Access Control and Port Security 10.4.2 Lab: Secure Access to a Switch 10.4.3 Lab: Secure Access to a Switch 2 10.4.4 Lab: Disable Switch Ports - GUI 10.4.6 Port Guards 10.4.7 Lab: Harden a Switch 10.4.8 Port Mirroring

You are troubleshooting a network issue where a remote server is not responding to your web application's requests. You decide to use the ping command to check the connectivity to the server. After running the command ping 192.168.1.10, you receive a series of "Reply from 192.168.1.10" messages with varying RTT times. What can you infer about the network condition based on this output? The web application is incompatible with the remote server. The remote server is online, and there is a network path between her host and the server. The remote server's firewall is blocking her requests. There is a high level of packet loss between her host and the remote server.

Correct Answer: The remote server is online, and there is a network path between her host and the server. Explanation The "Reply from" messages indicate that the ping command successfully reached the remote server and received a response, confirming that the server is online and there is a network path between Alice's host and the server. The varying RTT times might indicate network congestion or varying network conditions, but connectivity is established. Receiving "Reply from" messages indicates that the ping requests are not being blocked by the server's firewall. While varying RTT times might suggest network congestion, the successful replies indicate that there is not a high level of packet loss, as the packets are successfully making the round trip. The ping command tests network connectivity, not compatibility between a web application and a server. References 4.4.3 arp 4.4.4 ping 4.4.5 Lab: IPv4 Troubleshooting Tools 4.4.7 Lab: Use IPv4 Test Tools 6.4.8 Lab: Explore DHCP Troubleshooting 6.4.10 Lab: Troubleshoot IP Configuration 2 6.4.11 Lab: Troubleshoot IP Configuration 3 6.5.15 Lab: Troubleshoot DNS Records 6.6.1 Client DNS Issues 6.6.2 Name Resolution Issues 9.4.10 Applied Live Lab: Analyze Network Attacks

A small tech startup is setting up its first office network. The network design is straightforward, consisting of a single router connecting the office to the Internet and several switches connecting various departments within the office. The company plans to add a few remote workers in the near future, who will connect to the office network via VPN. The startup's primary concern is ensuring that data packets take the shortest path possible to minimize latency, especially for real-time applications like VoIP and video conferencing. Given these requirements, which characteristic should the startup prioritize when selecting a distance vector routing protocol for their network? The route with the highest bandwidth The route with the fewest hops The route with the highest load balancing capability The route with the lowest administrative distance

Correct Answer: The route with the fewest hops Explanation The correct answer is the route with the fewest hops. Prioritizing the route with the fewest hops is the most suitable choice for the startup's requirements. Distance vector protocols, such as RIP (Routing Information Protocol), use hop count as a metric to determine the best path to a destination. In a simple network setup where minimizing latency for real-time applications is crucial, selecting the path with the fewest hops can effectively reduce the time data packets take to travel from source to destination, thereby minimizing latency. While selecting routes based on bandwidth can be important for optimizing network performance, it does not directly address the startup's primary concern of minimizing latency for real-time applications. High bandwidth does not necessarily equate to fewer hops or lower latency. Administrative distance is a measure used by routers to select the best path when two or more different routing protocols provide route information for the same destination. It is not a metric used within a single routing protocol to compare multiple paths, thus it does not directly contribute to minimizing latency through the selection of the fewest hops. Load balancing is a technique used to distribute network traffic across multiple paths. While it can enhance network performance and reliability, it does not specifically ensure that data packets take the shortest path possible. The startup's goal is to minimize latency for real-time applications, which is best achieved by selecting the route with the fewest hops, regardless of load balancing capabilities. References 5.2.1 Dynamic Routing Protocols

A network engineer is analyzing the routing table of a router that is part of a multi-protocol network environment. The router has learned about the network 10.1.1.0/24 from three different sources: a static route with an AD of 1, OSPF with an AD of 110, and EIGRP with an AD of 90. All routes have different metrics but lead to the same destination network. The engineer needs to determine which route the router will use to forward packets to the 10.1.1.0/24 network. Which route will the router use, and why? The static route, because static routes have the lowest AD. The EIGRP route, because EIGRP has a lower AD than OSPF. The router will load balance across all three routes. The OSPF route, because OSPF provides the most reliable path.

Correct Answer: The static route, because static routes have the lowest AD. Explanation Administrative Distance (AD) is a measure of the trustworthiness of the source of the routing information. In this scenario, the static route has the lowest AD (1), making it the most trusted source compared to OSPF (AD 110) and EIGRP (AD 90). Therefore, the router will prefer the static route for forwarding packets to the 10.1.1.0/24 network. The decision is based on AD values, not the perceived reliability of the protocol. OSPF's AD is higher than that of the static route. Although EIGRP has a lower AD than OSPF, it still has a higher AD than the static route, making it less preferred. Load balancing occurs when multiple routes have the same AD and metric, which is not the case here. The decision is based on the lowest AD. References 5.2.6 Route Selection

A company has two office locations, Office A and Office B, connected via a WAN link. Each office has its own local network with devices connected through switches. Office A needs to send a file to a server located in Office B. What process does the file undergo as it travels from a device in Office A to the server in Office B? The file is sent directly from the switch in Office A to the switch in Office B using IP addressing, bypassing the routers. The file is compressed by the router in Office A and then decompressed by the switch in Office B before being delivered to the server. The router in Office A assigns a new MAC address to the file, which is then used by the switch in Office B to deliver the file to the server. The switch in Office A uses MAC addresses to forward the file to the router, which then uses IP addresses to route the file over the WAN link to Office B.

Correct Answer: The switch in Office A uses MAC addresses to forward the file to the router, which then uses IP addresses to route the file over the WAN link to Office B. Explanation In this scenario, the switch in Office A uses Layer 2 forwarding (MAC addresses) to send the file to the local router. The router, operating at Layer 3, then routes the file to Office B using IP addressing. This process correctly describes how data moves from one network to another over a WAN link. The router in Office A assigns a new MAC address to the file, which is then used by the switch in Office B to deliver the file to the server is incorrect because routers do not assign MAC addresses to files or data packets. MAC addresses are hardware addresses assigned to network interfaces, not data. The file is sent directly from the switch in Office A to the switch in Office B using IP addressing, bypassing the routers is incorrect because switches operate at Layer 2 and use MAC addresses for local forwarding. IP addressing and routing between different networks require routers. The file is compressed by the router in Office A and then decompressed by the switch in Office B before being delivered to the server is incorrect because compression and decompression are not primary functions of routers and switches in the context of addressing and forwarding. This option does not accurately describe the process of moving data between networks. References 1.2.1 Open Systems Interconnection Model 1.2.4 Layer 2 - Data Link 1.2.8 OSI Model Summary 1.3.3 Data Link Layer Functions 1.3.8 Lab: Explore a Single Location in a Lab 4.1.2 Layer 2 vs Layer 3 Addressing and Forwarding 13.1.1 Wide Area Networks and the OSI Model

You are troubleshooting a wireless network that is experiencing intermittent connectivity issues. You suspect that the problem might be related to interference from other wireless devices in the area. You recall that IEEE 802.11 standards include mechanisms to resist interference. Which feature of IEEE 802.11 standards should you investigate to address the interference issues? The implementation of a ring topology The encryption protocols used for security The use of different carrier methods The speed of the original 802.11 standard

Correct Answer: The use of different carrier methods Explanation The correct answer is the use of different carrier methods. IEEE 802.11 standards include the use of different carrier methods to provide sufficient resistance to interference from noise and other radio sources. By utilizing various modulation schemes and carrier methods, Wi-Fi networks can maintain reliable communication even in environments with potential interference. You should investigate whether the network's current configuration optimally uses these carrier methods to mitigate interference. A ring topology involves devices connected in a closed loop, which is not a feature of IEEE 802.11 standards designed to resist interference. Wi-Fi networks typically use a star topology with an access point at the center. While encryption protocols are crucial for network security, they do not directly address interference issues in wireless communication. The speed of the original 802.11 standard (1 Mbps) is not relevant to addressing interference issues. Interference resistance is more about how the signal is transmitted and less about the transmission speed. References 12.1.1 IEEE 802.11 Wireless Standards 12.1.2 IEEE 802.11a and 5GHz Channel Bandwidth 12.1.4 IEEE 802.11n, MIMO, and Channel Bonding 12.1.6 Multiuser MIMO and Band Steering

A company is planning to enhance its IT infrastructure to improve the availability and reliability of its services. They are considering an active-active cluster configuration for their database servers to ensure that their online services can handle high traffic volumes and remain available even if one server fails. What is a critical consideration they should keep in mind for this setup? In the event of a server failure, the system will automatically purchase and integrate a new server into the cluster. They need to ensure that their system can handle the increased workload on the remaining server(s) in the event of a failover. Active-active configurations do not support the use of a virtual IP, requiring clients to connect to each server directly. An active-active configuration will significantly reduce their hardware and operating system costs.

Correct Answer: They need to ensure that their system can handle the increased workload on the remaining server(s) in the event of a failover. Explanation The correct answer is that they need to ensure that their system can handle the increased workload on the remaining server(s) in the event of a failover. In an active-active cluster configuration, all servers are processing connections concurrently. If one server fails, the workload of the failed server is immediately shifted onto the remaining server(s). This can lead to increased workload on these servers, potentially degrading performance. It's critical to ensure that the system can handle this increased workload to maintain service availability and performance during failover. An active-active configuration may not necessarily reduce hardware and operating system costs; in fact, it might increase them due to the need for additional resources to support concurrent processing. High availability clusters do not automatically purchase and integrate new servers. While some cloud services might offer auto-scaling features, this is not a standard feature of active-active clustering itself. Active-active configurations can and often do use a virtual IP to provide a single point of access for clients. The use of a virtual IP is not limited to active-passive configurations. References 7.4.6 High Availability Clusters

Your company has deployed a high availability cluster to support its critical web application. The cluster is configured in an active-passive setup with two nodes. One day, the active node experiences a hardware failure and becomes unresponsive. What happens next in the cluster? A new node is automatically created and added to the cluster to replace the failed node. Manual intervention is required to switch the traffic to the passive node. Traffic immediately and automatically shifts to the passive node. The web application becomes unavailable until the failed node is repaired.

Correct Answer: Traffic immediately and automatically shifts to the passive node. Explanation The correct answer is that traffic immediately and automatically shifts to the passive node, ensuring the web application remains available. In an active-passive high availability cluster, the passive node is on standby to take over in case the active node fails. When the active node becomes unresponsive due to a hardware failure, the cluster automatically shifts traffic to the passive node, ensuring continuous availability of the web application without manual intervention. The purpose of a high availability cluster, especially in an active-passive configuration, is to prevent the application from becoming unavailable in the event of a node failure. While some systems may support automatic scaling or node replacement, in a traditional active-passive setup, the existing passive node takes over rather than creating a new node. One of the key benefits of high availability clusters is the ability to automatically failover without the need for manual intervention. References 7.4.6 High Availability Clusters

During a security audit, you discover that an internal application used by your company for file transfers is still using TLSv1.0. What should be your immediate recommendation to enhance the security of the application? Increase the application's bandwidth. Downgrade to SSL for compatibility. Implement a CAPTCHA system for the application. Upgrade to a more recent version of TLS.

Correct Answer: Upgrade to a more recent version of TLS. Explanation TLSv1.0 is an outdated version with known vulnerabilities that could compromise the security of data transmission. Your immediate recommendation should be to upgrade the application to use a more recent and secure version of TLS, such as TLSv1.2 or TLSv1.3. These versions offer enhanced security features and mitigate vulnerabilities found in older versions. SSL is considered obsolete and less secure than TLS. Downgrading to SSL would decrease, not enhance, the application's security. While CAPTCHA systems can help differentiate between human users and bots, they do not address the security of data transmission, which is the concern with using TLSv1.0. Increasing bandwidth may improve performance but does not address the security vulnerabilities associated with using an outdated version of TLS. References 6.5.10 DNS Security

A company has multiple VLANs configured on their network. Users in VLAN40 report that they can access local resources within their VLAN but cannot access resources in VLAN50 or the internet. The network administrator verifies that the switch and router configurations are correct. What should the administrator check next? Confirm that VLAN40 and VLAN50 are using the same subnet. Verify that inter-VLAN routing is enabled on the router. Check if the DHCP server is assigning IP addresses to VLAN40. Ensure that the DNS server is reachable from VLAN40.

Correct Answer: Verify that inter-VLAN routing is enabled on the router. Explanation If users can access local resources but not those in another VLAN or the Internet, the issue likely lies with inter-VLAN routing. The administrator should verify that the router is configured to route traffic between VLANs. DNS reachability would affect name resolution, not access to resources in another VLAN or the Internet. If users in VLAN40 are accessing local resources, DHCP is functioning correctly for that VLAN. VLAN40 and VLAN50 should not use the same subnet; VLANs are typically separated into different subnets to segment network traffic. References 5.7.3 VLAN Assignment Issues

A small business recently added several new employees and devices to their network. Shortly after, they began experiencing network connectivity issues, with some devices reporting "No Internet Access." Upon checking, the network administrator discovers that these devices have IP addresses starting with 169.254. What should the administrator investigate first to resolve this issue? Check if the network cables are properly connected to the devices. Manually assigning static IP addresses. Verify the DHCP server's operational status and reachability. Increase the number of access points to improve Wi-Fi coverage.

Correct Answer: Verify the DHCP server's operational status and reachability. Explanation The correct answer is to verify the DHCP server's operational status and reachability. Devices with IP addresses starting with 169.254 indicate they are using APIPA because they failed to obtain an IP address from the DHCP server. The first step should be to verify the DHCP server is operational and reachable by the affected devices, as this is the most direct cause of the issue. While ensuring network cables are properly connected is important, it does not directly address the issue of devices receiving APIPA addresses, which suggests a problem with DHCP communication rather than physical connectivity. Increasing the number of access points may improve Wi-Fi coverage but does not address the root cause of devices receiving APIPA addresses due to DHCP server issues. Manually assigning static IP addresses could temporarily resolve connectivity issues for some devices but does not address the underlying problem with the DHCP server. Additionally, it is not a scalable or practical solution for a growing business with many devices. References 6.2.1 DHCP Process 6.2.2 DHCP Server Configuration 6.2.3 DHCP Options 6.2.4 DHCP Reservations and Exclusions 6.2.5 Lab: Configure a DHCP Server 6.2.6 Lab: Configure DHCP Server Options 6.2.7 Lab: Create DHCP Exclusions 6.2.8 Lab: Create DHCP Client Reservations 6.2.9 Configure Client Addressing 6.2.10 Lab: Configure Client Addressing for DHCP

During a network audit, it was discovered that traffic between VLAN10 and VLAN20 is not being routed as expected. The network uses a Layer 3 switch for inter-VLAN routing. The network engineer suspects an issue with the SVI configurations. Which of the following troubleshooting steps should the engineer take FIRST? Check the physical cable connections between the switches. Replace the Layer 3 switch with a more powerful model. Verify the SVI configurations for VLAN10 and VLAN20. Configure a "router on a stick" as an alternative to SVIs.

Correct Answer: Verify the SVI configurations for VLAN10 and VLAN20. Explanation The first step in troubleshooting the routing issue should be to verify the SVI configurations for VLAN10 and VLAN20. Incorrect IP addressing or missing SVIs could prevent proper routing between VLANs. Checking physical cable connections is important but unlikely to be the issue if the problem is specific to routing between VLANs. Replacing the Layer 3 switch is a premature and potentially unnecessary step without first verifying the configuration. Configuring a "router on a stick" is an alternative approach but not the first step in troubleshooting an existing SVI setup. References 5.6.1 Virtual LANs and Subnets 5.6.7 VLAN Routing 5.6.8 Lab: Configure Switch IP and VLAN - GUI

An employee at a large corporation receives a phone call from someone claiming to be from the IT support team. The caller informs them that there's been a security breach on their computer that requires immediate action. The caller requests the employee's login credentials to remotely access their computer and resolve the issue. The employee remembers receiving an email about increased phishing attempts but is unsure if this call is related. Which of the following is the BEST response to the caller's request for the employee's login credentials? Ask the caller to send an email request for the credentials instead. Politely refuse to provide any information and hang up immediately. Provide the login credentials to allow the IT support team to fix the issue. Verify the caller's identity by asking questions or contacting the IT support.

Correct Answer: Verify the caller's identity by asking questions or contacting the IT support. Explanation The response should be to verify the caller's identity by asking questions only the real IT support team could answer or by contacting the IT support team directly through official channels. In situations where someone is requesting sensitive information, it's crucial to verify their identity before proceeding. The employee should attempt to confirm the caller's legitimacy by either asking specific questions that only the IT support team would know or by ending the call and contacting the IT support team through a known, official channel. This approach helps prevent falling victim to social engineering attacks, such as phishing or impersonation. Providing sensitive information, like login credentials, over the phone without verification is risky and could lead to unauthorized access to the employee's computer and company data. While refusing to provide information is safer than giving it out, this response doesn't address the potential issue on the employee's computer. Verifying the caller's identity is a more proactive approach. Requesting an email doesn't ensure the caller's legitimacy, as threat actors can also spoof email addresses. Verification through known channels is essential. References 9.5.1 Social Engineering Attacks

You run a library with an open Wi-Fi network to provide easy access for visitors. You are concerned about the security of the data transmitted over the network. Which feature of the latest Wi-Fi encryption standards should you implement to secure the network while keeping it open? WEP encryption WPA3's Wi-Fi Enhanced Open WPA's TKIP WPA2's AES encryption

Correct Answer: WPA3's Wi-Fi Enhanced Open Explanation The correct answer is WPA3's Wi-Fi Enhanced Open. WPA3's Wi-Fi Enhanced Open is designed to provide encryption on open networks without requiring a passphrase. This feature ensures that data transmitted over the network is protected against eavesdropping, making it the ideal choice for your library Wi-Fi, which aims to be accessible yet secure. WEP encryption is outdated and vulnerable. WPA2's AES encryption requires a passphrase, which is not suitable for an open network. WPA's TKIP is less secure than WPA3's features and also requires a passphrase. References 12.3.1 Wi-Fi Encryption Standards 12.3.2 Personal Authentication 12.3.3 Enterprise Authentication

You are configuring a network that requires globally unique IPv6 addresses for each device to ensure they are routable over the Internet. The first three bits of an address you plan to use are 001. Is this address suitable for your needs? Yes, because the first 3 bits indicate a global scope. No, because the first 3 bits indicate a link-local scope. No, because the first 3 bits should be 110 for Internet routing. Yes, because the first 3 bits indicate a private address.

Correct Answer: Yes, because the first 3 bits indicate a global scope. Explanation The first 3 bits of 001 in an IPv6 address indicate that the address is within the global scope, making it suitable for your needs as these addresses are routable over the Internet and globally unique. The first 3 bits of 001 do not indicate a link-local scope; they indicate a global scope. Link-local addresses have a different prefix. The first 3 bits of 001 indicate a global scope, not a private address. Private addresses in IPv6 are typically link-local or unique local addresses with different prefixes. The first 3 bits of 001 correctly indicate a global scope; 110 is not the correct prefix for globally routable addresses in IPv6. References 4.1.4 Unicast and Broadcast Addressing 4.5.4 IPv6 Unicast Addressing

You are troubleshooting a name resolution issue on your Windows laptop. You notice that you can access websites by entering their IP addresses directly into your browser but cannot reach them by their domain names. You suspect a problem with your DNS cache. Which command should you use to address this issue? traceroute ipconfig /flushdns nslookup dig

Correct Answer: ipconfig /flushdns Explanation The ipconfig /flushdns command is used on Windows systems to clear the DNS resolver cache. If you suspect a problem with your DNS cache, using this command can help by removing any outdated or incorrect DNS information that might be causing the name resolution issue. nslookup is a utility for querying DNS servers to look up the IP address of a domain name or vice versa. While useful for diagnostics, it does not clear the DNS cache. dig is similar to nslookup but is more commonly used on Unix-like systems. It also does not clear the DNS cache. traceroute is a utility that traces the path packets take to reach a network host but does not address DNS cache issues. References 4.4.1 ipconfig 4.4.2 ifconfig and ip 4.4.5 Lab: IPv4 Troubleshooting Tools 4.4.6 Lab: IPv4 Troubleshooting tools for Linux 4.4.7 Lab: Use IPv4 Test Tools 6.4.6 Lab: Troubleshoot Address Pool Exhaustion 6.4.9 Lab: Troubleshoot IP Configuration 1 6.4.10 Lab: Troubleshoot IP Configuration 2 6.4.11 Lab: Troubleshoot IP Configuration 3 6.6.1 Client DNS Issues 6.6.2 Name Resolution Issues 9.4.10 Applied Live Lab: Analyze Network Attacks

A system administrator wants to monitor the network continuously for any new connections being established or terminated on a Linux server. The administrator needs the command to refresh every 5 seconds to keep the information up-to-date. Which netstat command should the system administrator use? netstat -tua netstat -5 netstat 5 netstat -c

Correct Answer: netstat -c Explanation On Linux, the -c switch with netstat runs the command continuously, updating the output in real time, which suits the system administrator's requirement for monitoring the network. However, to specifically refresh every 5 seconds, the administrator would need to use an additional tool or script to control the timing, as netstat -c alone does not allow specifying a refresh interval. The netstat 5 format is incorrect for specifying a refresh interval on Linux. -5 is not a valid netstat switch and would not achieve the desired continuous monitoring with a specific refresh interval. While the netstat -tua command shows listening and established Internet connections (TCP and UDP), it does not run continuously or refresh at specified intervals. References 6.1.5 netstat 6.1.8 Lab: View Open Ports with netstat

Carol has just generated a new SSH key pair on her local machine and wants to add her public key to the authorized_keys file on a server server.example.net where her username is carol. Which command should she use to accomplish this? scp ~/.ssh/id_rsa.pub [email protected]:~/.ssh/authorized_keys ssh-add [email protected] ssh-keygen -t rsa [email protected] ssh-copy-id [email protected]

Correct Answer: ssh-copy-id [email protected] Explanation ssh-copy-id is the correct command to copy the local user's public key to the remote server's authorized_keys file for the specified user. This allows for passwordless authentication using the key pair. ssh-keygen -t rsa [email protected] is incorrect because ssh-keygen is used to generate a key pair locally, not to copy keys to a server. While scp ~/.ssh/id_rsa.pub [email protected]:~/.ssh/authorized_keys could technically copy the public key to the server, it would overwrite any existing keys in authorized_keys, which is not usually desirable. ssh-copy-id appends the key instead. ssh-add [email protected] is incorrect because ssh-add is used to add private keys to the local SSH agent, not to copy public keys to a server. References 6.1.6 Common TCP and UDP Ports 13.3.1 Remote Host Access 13.3.2 Secure Shell 13.3.10 Live Lab: Configure a Jump Box

You are troubleshooting a network issue where certain packets are not reaching their intended destination. You want to capture all ICMP packets to analyze their paths and potential points of failure. Which tcpdump command should you use to capture only ICMP packets? tcpdump -i any icmp tcpdump -i eth0 "port 53" tcpdump -i eth0 "protocol icmp" tcpdump -i eth0 -w icmp_packets.pcap

Correct Answer: tcpdump -i any icmp Explanation The correct command is tcpdump -i any icmp. This command captures all ICMP packets across all network interfaces (-i any), which is ideal for analyzing the paths of these packets. The icmp filter ensures that only ICMP packets are captured. The tcpdump -i eth0 -w icmp_packets.pcap command writes packets to a file but lacks a filter for ICMP packets, capturing all traffic instead. With the tcpdump -i eth0 "protocol icmp" command, the correct syntax for filtering ICMP packets is simply icmp, not protocol icmp. The tcpdump -i eth0 "port 53" command captures traffic on port 53 (DNS) and does not target ICMP packets, which do not use a port number. References 8.5.2 tcpdump

A network architect is designing a new data center for a rapidly growing tech company. The design includes servers that will handle large volumes of data transactions. To ensure high availability and bandwidth, the architect plans to implement NIC teaming on all servers. Each server is equipped with four 10 Gbps NICs. The company's network infrastructure includes high-capacity switches that support both static link aggregation and LACP. Which NIC teaming configuration should the architect recommend to maximize both bandwidth and redundancy? Configure all four NICs on each server in LACP passive mode. Configure the NICs on each server in a static link aggregation group without LACP. Configure all four NICs on each server in LACP active mode. Configure two NICs in active mode and two NICs in standby mode for each server.

Explanation Configuring all four NICs on each server in LACP active mode is the correct answer. This configuration ensures that the servers actively negotiate link aggregation with the switches, forming a Link Aggregation Group (LAG). This setup maximizes bandwidth by combining the capacity of all four NICs into a single logical link and provides redundancy because the LAG can continue to function even if one or more of the NICs fail, as long as at least one NIC remains operational. While static link aggregation can increase bandwidth, it lacks the dynamic negotiation and configuration error recovery features of LACP, potentially leading to less optimal redundancy and more manual configuration effort. Configuring two NICs in active mode and two NICs in standby mode for each server provides redundancy but does not maximize bandwidth because only half of the available NICs contribute to the bandwidth at any given time. The standby NICs are only used if one of the active NICs fails. Configuring all NICs in passive mode would require the switch to be in active mode to initiate LACP negotiation. This could lead to issues if the switch is also set to passive or if there is any misconfiguration, potentially resulting in the LAG not forming correctly. References 3.3.1 Link Aggregation and NIC Teaming 3.3.6 Lab: Configure Port Aggregation

During the setup of a new VoIP system, a network engineer notices that the VoIP phones are not receiving the correct voice VLAN configuration from the switch. The phones and PCs are connected as intended, with PCs connected to the phones, and the phones connected to the switch. The switch supports both Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) and Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP). Which of the following actions should the engineer take to ensure the VoIP phones receive the correct VLAN configuration? Enable CDP on the switch and ensure it is supported and enabled on the VoIP phones. Disable both CDP and LLDP on the switch. Manually configure the voice VLAN on each VoIP phone. Enable LLDP on the PCs connected to the VoIP phones.

Explanation The correct answer is to enable CDP on the switch and ensure it is supported and enabled on the VoIP phones. Ennabling CDP on the switch and ensuring it is supported and enabled on the VoIP phones allows for automatic communication of the voice VLAN configuration to the phones, simplifying setup and ensuring correct configuration. Disabling both CDP and LLDP would prevent the automatic configuration of the voice VLAN on the phones, making the situation worse. Manually configuring the voice VLAN on each VoIP phone is a valid approach but is time-consuming and prone to errors, making it less desirable than using CDP for automatic configuration. Enabling LLDP on the PCs would not address the issue, as the configuration needs to be communicated to the VoIP phones, not the PCs. References 8.2.4 Discovery Protocols