NU371 PrepU Week 1 (#2)
For which client would a standardized plan of care most likely be appropriate? a) A client who was admitted for shortness of breath and who has been diagnosed with pneumonia b) A client who is receiving treatment for liver cirrhosis, esophageal varices, and hepatic encephalopathy c) A client whose increasing fatigue in recent days has not yet been attributed to a specific health problem d) A client who has been brought to the emergency department with multiple fractures and a suspected head injury after a motor vehicle accident
a) A client who was admitted for shortness of breath and who has been diagnosed with pneumonia - Standardized care plans are most appropriate for clients who are experiencing a common and specific health problem, such as pneumonia. Clients with multiple pathologies or symptoms of unknown etiology are unlikely to have their unique needs reflected in a standardized care plan.
Pentoxifylline (Trental) is a medication used for which of the following conditions? a) Claudication b) Thromboemboli c) Hypertension d) Elevated triglycerides
a) Claudication - Trental and Pletal are the only medications specifically indicated for the treatment of claudication. Thromboemboli, hypertension, and elevated triglycerides are not indications for using Trental.
During physical examination of a client with a suspected endocrine disorder, the nurse assesses the body structures. The nurse gathers this data based on the understanding that it is an important aid in which of the following? a) Detecting evidence of hormone hypersecretion. b) Detecting information about possible tumor growth. c) Determining the presence or absence of testosterone levels. d) Determining the size of the organs and location.
a) Detecting evidence of hormone hypersecretion. - The evaluation of body structures helps the nurse detect evidence of hypersecretion or hyposecretion of hormones. This helps in the assessment of findings that are unique to specific endocrine glands. Radiographs of the chest or abdomen are taken to detect tumors. Radiographs also determine the size of the organ and its location. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) levels determine the presence or absence of ADH and testosterone levels.
What is true regarding the initial phase of tuberculosis therapy? Select all that apply. a) Drugs are used to kill the rapidly multiplying M. tuberculosis. b) Drugs are used to prevent drug resistance. c) The initial phase lasts approximately six to nine months. d) The initial phase lasts approximately two months. e) The initial phase lasts approximately four months.
a) Drugs are used to kill the rapidly multiplying M. tuberculosis. b) Drugs are used to prevent drug resistance. d) The initial phase lasts approximately two months. - During the initial phase that lasts approximately two months, drugs are used to kill the rapidly multiplying M. tuberculosis and to prevent drug resistance.
Stress ulcers occur frequently in acutely ill patient. Which of the following medications would be used to prevent ulcer formation? Select all that apply. a) Famotidine (Pepcid) b) Nizatidine c) Lansoprazole d) Desmopressin e) Furosemide
a) Famotidine (Pepcid) b) Nizatidine c) Lansoprazole - Antacids, H2 blockers (Pepcid, Axid), and/or proton pump inhibitors (Prevacid) are prescribed to prevent ulcer formation by inhibiting gastric acid secretion or increasing gastric pH. Desmopressin (DDVAP) is used in the treatment of diabetes insipidus. Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic and does not prevent ulcer formation.
The nurse is providing an educational program for the staff working at a homeless shelter. The program is focused on the impact of homelessness on children. What information should be included in the presentation? Select all that apply. a) Homeless children are at an increased risk for sexual abuse. b) A short period of uncertain housing is not detrimental as long as the family are able to remain available. c) Homeless children are at risk for developing chronic health problems. d) Acute health conditions are increased in homeless children. e) Having space in a shelter will neutralize the health risks to the homeless child.
a) Homeless children are at an increased risk for sexual abuse. c) Homeless children are at risk for developing chronic health problems. d) Acute health conditions are increased in homeless children. - Homelessness is a psychological and physiological stressor on the family unit. Children who are homeless are at an increase risk for both acute and chronic health concerns. Even when homeless families have beds in shelter settings these children and their parents are still at an elevated risk for health problems. Incidence of sexual abuse is increased in homeless children. Although the family unit may remain together, this does not minimize the overall risk of homelessness.
The nurse is assessing the neurologic status of an infant. What would the nurse identify as an abnormal finding? a) Lack of interest in surroundings b) Vigorous crying c) Making eye contact with the nurse d) Soft, flat anterior fontanel (fontanelle)
a) Lack of interest in surroundings - An infant who is not interested in the environment is a cause for concern. Vigorous crying is a reassuring sign. Making eye contact with the nurse is a reassuring finding. A normal anterior fontanel (fontanelle) is soft and flat and would be considered a reassuring finding.
A 15-year-old boy has been diagnosed with an osteogenic sarcoma of the distal femur. He also demonstrates a chronic cough, dyspnea, and chest pain, along with chronic leg pain. Based on these findings, the nurse should suspect metastasis to which body area? a) Lungs b) heart c) brain d) rib cage
a) Lungs - Metastasis occurs early with bone tumors because of the extensive vascular system in bones. Metastasis to the lungs is very common; as many as 25% of adolescents will have lung metastasis already by the time of initial diagnosis. When this is present, the adolescent usually has noticed a chronic cough, dyspnea, and chest pain in addition to chronic leg pain. Other common sites of metastasis are brain and other bone tissue.
Which of the following is considered a bulk-forming laxative? a) Metamucil b) Milk of Magnesia c) Mineral oil d) Dulcolax
a) Metamucil - Metamucil is a bulk-forming laxative. Milk of Magnesia is classified as a saline agent. Mineral oil is a lubricant. Dulcolax is a stimulant.
The nurse understands that assessment of blood pressure in clients receiving antipsychotic drugs is important. What is a reason for this assessment? a) Orthostatic hypotension is a common side effect. b) Most antipsychotic drugs cause elevated blood pressure. c) This provides additional support for the client. d) It will indicate the need to institute antiparkinsonian drugs.
a) Orthostatic hypotension is a common side effect. - Orthostatic hypotension is common during the first few weeks of treatment with antipsychotic drugs. An elevated blood pressure usually results from MAOI antidepressants. Additional support should be through therapeutic communications. A problem with the blood pressure is not indicative of antiparkinsonian drugs.
A patient is admitted to the hospital for management of an extrapyramidal disorder. Included in the physician's admitting orders are the medications levodopa, benztropine, and selegiline. The nurse knows that most likely, the client has a diagnosis of: a) Parkinson's disease. b) Huntington's disease. c) seizure disorder. d) multiple sclerosis.
a) Parkinson's disease. - Although antiparkinson drugs are used in some clients with Huntington's disease, these drugs are most commonly used in the medical management of Parkinson's disease. The listed medications are not used to treat a seizure disorder. The listed medications are not used to treat MS.
Which of the following glands is considered the master gland? a) Pituitary b) Thyroid c) Parathyroid d) Adrenal
a) Pituitary - Commonly referred to as the master gland, the pituitary gland secretes hormones that control the secretion of additional hormones by other endocrine glands. The thyroid, parathyroid, and adrenal glands are not considered the master gland.
A parent brings an infant in for poor feeding and listlessness. Which assessment data would most likely indicate a coarctation of the aorta? a) Pulses weaker in lower extremities compared to upper extremities b) Pulses weaker in upper extremities compared to lower extremities c) Cyanosis with crying d) Cyanosis with feeding
a) Pulses weaker in lower extremities compared to upper extremities - With coarctation of the aorta there is a narrowing causing the blood flow to be impeded. This produces increased pressure in the areas proximal to the narrowing and a decrease in pressures distal to the narrowing. Thus, the infant would have decreased systemic circulation. The upper half of the body would have an increased B/P and be well perfused with strong pulses. The lower half of the body would have decreased B/P with poorer perfusion and weaker pulses. Coarctation is not a cyanotic defect. The cyanosis would be associated with tetralogy of Fallot.
Morphine sulfate has which of the following effects on the body? a) Reduces preload b) Increases preload c) Increases afterload d) No effect on preload or afterload
a) Reduces preload - In addition to relieving pain, morphine dilates the blood vessels. This reduces the workload of the heart by both decreasing the cardiac filing pressure (preload) and reducing the pressure against which the heart muscle has to eject blood (afterload).
The nurse is caring for a 5-month-old boy with an undescended left testis. What would the nurse identify as indicative of true cryptorchidism? a) Testis cannot be "milked" down inguinal canal b) Fluid detected in scrotal sac c) Venous varicosity detected along the spermatic cord d) Testis can briefly be brought into scrotum
a) Testis cannot be "milked" down inguinal canal - With true cryptorchidism, the retractile testis cannot be "milked" down the inguinal canal. Fluid in the scrotal sac is a hydrocele. A venous varicosity along the spermatic cord is a varicocele. Testis that can be brought into the scrotum refers to a retractile testis.
An adolescent comes to the clinic reporting vaginal discharge. When assessing the vaginal discharge, what would lead the nurse to suspect that the adolescent has candidiasis? a) Thick, white cheese-like discharge b) Frothy, gray-green discharge c) Milky, gray, fishy-odor discharge d) Yellow-green discharge
a) Thick, white cheese-like discharge - With candidiasis, the vaginal discharge is thick, white, and cheese-like. A frothy, gray-green discharge is noted with trichomoniasis. A milky, gray discharge with a fishy odor suggests gardnerella. A yellow-green vaginal discharge suggests gonorrhea.
Which of the following is true of cephalosporins given via injection? (Select all that apply.) a) Thrombophlebitis can occur when cephalosporins are given IV. b) Phlebitis can occur when cephalosporins are given IM. c) Pain can occur when cephalosporins are given IM. d) Tenderness can occur when cephalosporins are given IM. e) Inflammation can occur when cephalosporins are given IM.
a) Thrombophlebitis can occur when cephalosporins are given IV. c) Pain can occur when cephalosporins are given IM. d) Tenderness can occur when cephalosporins are given IM. e) Inflammation can occur when cephalosporins are given IM. - Administration route reactions include pain, tenderness, and inflammation at the injection site when cephalosporins are given IM, and phlebitis and thrombophlebitis along the vein may occur when cephalosporins are given IV.
A 6-year-old boy has a moon-faced, stocky appearance but with thin arms and legs. His cheeks are unusually ruddy. He is diagnosed with Cushing syndrome. What is the most likely cause of this condition in this child? a) Tumor of the adrenal cortex b) Tumor of the thyroid c) Tumor of the pancreas d) Tumor of the parathyroid
a) Tumor of the adrenal cortex - Cushing syndrome is caused by overproduction of the adrenal hormone cortisol; this usually results from increased ACTH production due to either a pituitary or adrenal cortex tumor. The peak age of occurrence is 6 or 7 years. The overproduction of cortisol results in increased glucose production; this causes fat to accumulate on the cheeks, chin, and trunk, causing a moon-faced, stocky appearance. Cortisol is catabolic, so protein wasting also occurs. This leads to muscle wasting, making the extremities appear thin in contrast to the trunk, and loss of calcium in bones (osteoporosis). Other effects include hyperpigmentation (the child's face is unusually red, especially the cheeks).
A client has noticed recently having clearer vision at a distance than up close. What is the term used to describe this client's visual condition? a) hyperopia b) emmetropia c) myopia d) astigmatism
a) hyperopia - Hyperopia is farsightedness. People who are hyperopic see objects that are far away better than objects that are close.
A parent brings a 10-year-old child to the emergency room with reports of abdominal pain. The nurse performing a physical assessment notes the following symptoms: upper right quadrant pain that radiates to the back; fever; nausea; and abdominal distention. Which disease would the nurse suspect? a) pancreatitis b) appendicitis c) Crohn disease d) ulcerative colitis
a) pancreatitis - The child admitted with the suspicion of pancreatitis typically reports acute onset of persistent abdominal pain. It can be mid-epigastric or periumbilical with radiation to the back or the chest. Nausea and vomiting, fever, tachycardia, hypotension, and jaundice may be present. Abdominal signs such as abdominal distention, decreased bowel sounds, rebound tenderness, and guarding also may be noted. Appendicitis pain and tenderness would be localized to the right lower quadrant. Crohn disease is a chronic bowel disorder causing frequent, recurring diarrhea. Ulcerative colitis is a chronic bowel disease affecting the large intestine and the rectum.
A client is scheduled for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). Before ECT begins, the nurse expects to administer which neuromuscular blocking agent? a) succinylcholine b) vecuronium c) pancuronium d) atracurium
a) succinylcholine - Succinylcholine, a depolarizing blocking agent, is the drug of choice when short-term muscle relaxation is desired — for example, during ECT or intubation. Vecuronium, pancuronium, and atracurium are nondepolarizing blocking agents used for intermediate- or long-term muscle relaxation.
A 10-month-old has been admitted to the hospital with severe hemolytic anemia and chronic hypoxia. The nurse notes conjunctival icterus, jaundice of the skin, and frontal and maxillary bossing. The nurse interprets these findings as most likely indicating: a) β-thalassemia major. b) hemophilia c) von Willebrand disease. d) sickle cell anemia.
a) β-thalassemia major. - Severe hemolytic anemia and chronic hypoxia, conjunctival icterus, jaundice of the skin, and frontal and maxillary bossing are signs and symptoms of β-thalassemia major. Hemophilia is manifested by clotting dysfunctions and von Willebrand disease is manifested by abnormal clotting. Sickle cell anemia involves abnormal hemoglobin that leads to significant anemia and acute and chronic symptoms.
The nurse is teaching a client about rheumatic disease. What statement best helps to explain autoimmunity? a) "You have inherited your parent's immunity to the disease." b) "Your symptoms are a result of your body attacking itself." c) "You have antigens to the disease, but they do not prevent the disease." d) "You are not immune to the disease causing the symptoms."
b) "Your symptoms are a result of your body attacking itself." - In autoimmunity, the body mistakes its own tissue for foreign tissue and begins to attack it. Symptoms develop as the body destroys tissue. The body is in effect attacking itself. The other statements do not explain autoimmunity.
Glycosylated hemoglobin reflects blood glucose concentrations over which period of time? a) 1 month b) 3 months c) 6 months d) 9 months
b) 3 months - Glycosylated hemoglobin is a blood test that reflects average blood glucose concentrations over a period of 3 months.
The nurse is completing a neurologic assessment and uses the whisper test to assess which cranial nerve? a) Vagus b) Acoustic c) Facial d) Olfactory
b) Acoustic - Clinical examination of the acoustic nerve can be done by the whisper test. Having the client say "ah" tests the vagus nerve. Observing for symmetry when the client performs facial movements tests the facial nerve. The olfactory nerve is tested by having the client identify specific odors.
High doses of which medication can produce bilateral tinnitus? a) Meclizine b) Aspirin c) Promethazine d) Dimenhydrinate
b) Aspirin - At high doses, aspirin toxicity can produce bilateral tinnitus. Meclizine and dimenhydrinate are used for nausea and vomiting related to motion sickness. Antiemetics, such as promethazine suppositories, help control nausea and vomiting and vertigo through an antihistamine effect.
Knowledge gained from someone with a great deal of perceived experience is which type of knowledge? a) Traditional knowledge b) Authoritative knowledge c) Scientific knowledge d) Philosophy knowledge
b) Authoritative knowledge - Authoritative knowledge comes from an expert or someone who has perceived experience. Traditional knowledge is passed from one generation to another, and scientific knowledge is provided by way of the scientific method. Philosophy is a specific type of knowledge, not a source.
A client with calculi in the gallbladder is said to have a) Cholecystitis b) Cholelithiasis c) Choledocholithiasis d) Choledochotomy
b) Cholelithiasis - Calculi, or gallstones, usually form in the gallbladder from the solid constituents of bile; they vary greatly in size, shape, and composition. Cholecystitis is acute inflammation of the gallbladder. Choledocholithiasis is a gallstone in the common bile duct. Choledochotomy is an incision into the common bile duct.
A nurse develops the following foreground question using the PICOT format in preparation for a research study: "In overweight clients, how do chromium supplements compared to no supplements help with weight loss?" Which part of the question reflects the intervention? a) Overweight clients b) Chromium supplements c) No supplements d) Weight loss
b) Chromium supplements - In this question, the intervention (I) would be the use of chromium supplements. The population (P) would be overweight clients. The comparison (C) would be no supplements. The outcome (O) would be weight loss. The T is for time, which is not reflected in this scenario.
A group of nurses have been tasked with developing a policy for their facility aimed at ideal care for the client with diabetes. Which resource should the group prioritize as most informative for the goal? a) Current facility policy b) Clinical practice guidelines c) The most recent systematic reviews d) Original research results on local clients
b) Clinical practice guidelines - Clinical practice guidelines will be the most informative resource for the group. These guidelines, published by organizations such as the American Diabetes Association® or Diabetes Canada®, have been developed by industry experts, converted into algorithms and directions for care based on recent systematic reviews, and then combined with clinical expertise. The current facility policy and research on local clients offers less robust information in comparison with either systematic reviews or clinical practice guidelines.
Which activity best helps the nurse apply theory to practice? a) Theory development b) Evidence-based research c) Client-focused care d) Case management
b) Evidence-based research - Evidence-based research is translational research that forms the bridge between theory and practice. Theory development is how desirable change in society is best achieved. Client-focused care is care provided to a client that maintains the client as a functional component of healthcare team. Case management is when care is provided to an individual client by a healthcare provider.
A nurse is planning to conduct a nursing research study and is seeking federal funding. Which institution would be most helpful for the nurse to contact regarding acquiring funding? a) National Institutes of Health b) National Institute of Nursing Research c) Institute of Medicine d) ANA Cabinet on Nursing Research
b) National Institute of Nursing Research - The nurse would most likely contact the National Institute of Nursing Research (NINR), which was established under the National Institutes of Health in response to a 1983 study by the Institute of Medicine. The institute's purpose was to place nursing securely in the sphere of scientific investigation and to support research and training in client care, health promotion, and disease prevention, as well as the mitigation of effects of acute and chronic disabilities. The NINR has continued to fund and support nursing research and is instrumental in the support and dissemination of seminal work in nursing. The ANA Cabinet on Nursing Research was responsible for establishing priorities for nursing research.
The presence of mucus and pus in the stools suggests which condition? a) Small-bowel disease b) Ulcerative colitis c) Disorders of the colon d) Intestinal malabsorption
b) Ulcerative colitis - The presence of mucus and pus in the stools suggests ulcerative colitis. Watery stools are characteristic of small-bowel disease. Loose, semisolid stools are associated more often with disorders of the colon. Voluminous, greasy stools suggest intestinal malabsorption.
Drug evaluation studies are used to determine critical concentration. The nurse understands that the critical concentration is the amount of the drug needed to cause: a) toxic effect. b) therapeutic effect. c) minimal effect. d) lethal effect.
b) therapeutic effect. - The critical concentration is the amount of a drug needed to cause a therapeutic effect.
Which client is likely at the greatest risk of developing a urinary tract infection? a) A pregnant woman who has been experiencing urinary frequency b) A client with a diagnosis of chronic kidney disease who requires regular hemodialysis c) A 79-year-old client with an indwelling catheter d) A confused, 81-year-old client who is incontinent of urine
c) A 79-year-old client with an indwelling catheter - Indwelling catheters are strongly associated with the development of UTIs, and this risk factor supersedes pregnancy and kidney disease. Frequency and incontinence may be signs and symptoms of UTIs, but they are not causative of the infections.
A client taking furosemide and digoxin for exacerbation of heart failure reports weakness and heart fluttering. What would be the priority action by the nurse? a) Tell the client to rest more often to decrease symptoms. b) Tell the client to stop taking the digoxin and to stop all physical activity. c) Investigate the symptoms further with the client and suggest contacting the physician. d) Offer the client clear instructions about avoiding foods that contain caffeine.
c) Investigate the symptoms further with the client and suggest contacting the physician - Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic. A low potassium level may cause weakness and palpitations. Telling the client to rest does not address the priority. Telling the client to stop the digoxin is out of scope of practice. Addressing the diet does not answer the question.
Which is a growth-based classification of tumors? a) Sarcoma b) Carcinoma c) Malignancy d) Leukemia
c) Malignancy - Tumors classified on the basis of growth are described as benign or malignant. Tumors that are classified on the basis of the cell or tissue of origin are carcinomas, sarcomas, lymphomas, and leukemias.
The nurse instructs a client to perform continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis correctly at home. Which educational information should the nurse provide to the client? a) Wear a mask while handling any dialysate solutions. b) Keep the catheter stabilized to the abdomen, below the belt line. c) Use an aseptic technique during the procedure. d) Clean the catheter insertion site daily with soap.
c) Use an aseptic technique during the procedure. - The client should be instructed to use an aseptic technique during the procedure. The client should also demonstrate the continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) exchange procedure for the nurse using an aseptic technique (clients on continuous cycling peritoneal dialysis [CCPD] should also demonstrate an exchange procedure in case of failure or unavailability of a cycling machine). A mask is generally worn only while performing exchanges, especially when a client has an upper respiratory infection. The catheter insertion site should be cleaned daily with an antiseptic such as povidone-iodine, not with soap. In addition, the catheter should be stabilized to the abdomen above the belt line, not below the belt line, to avoid constant rubbing.
A client has a wound with a drain. When performing wound cleansing around the drain, the nurse should cleanse in which direction? a) laterally, from one side of the wound to the opposite side b) from the superior portion of the wound to the inferior c) in a widening circle around the drain, outward from the center d) laterally, from the distal area to the center
c) in a widening circle around the drain, outward from the center - When cleaning the area around the drain, the nurse should wipe in a circle around the drain, working from the center outward. The nurse wipes laterally, from the center to the opposite side, when cleaning a large horizontal wound and wipes from the superior portion of the wound to the inferior when cleaning a vertical incision. Cleaning the wound laterally from the distal area to the center increases the client's risk for infection.
Elderly clients who fall are most at risk for which injuries? a) wrist fractures b) humerus fractures c) pelvic fractures d) cervical spine fractures
c) pelvic fractures - Elderly clients who fall are most at risk for pelvic and lower extremity fractures. These injuries are devastating because they can seriously alter an elderly client's lifestyle and reduce functional independence. Wrist fractures usually occur with falls on an outstretched hand or from a direct blow. Such fractures are commonly found in young men. Humerus fractures and cervical spine fractures aren't age-specific.
The nurse on the oncology unit is caring for a client with a total white blood cell (WBC) count equal to 2000/µL (2.0 ×109/L). Which intervention is most important to include in the plan of care? a) Monitor temperature every 4 hours b) avoid rectal thermometers and suppositories c) perform proper hand hygiene d) restrict visitors and provide a private room
c) perform proper hand hygiene - The client with a total WBC equal to 2000/µL (2.0 ×109/L) is demonstrating neutropenia and is at increased risk for infection. Proper hand hygiene is the most important intervention to prevent infection for this client. Monitoring the client's temperature is important to detect the infection early. Avoiding rectal thermometers and suppositories prevent the spread of bacteria from rectum into the blood stream, and restricting visitors and providing a private room aid in the prevention of infection, but proper hand hygiene is most important.
Which statement indicates a client understands teaching about the purified protein derivative (PPD) test for tuberculosis? a) "I will come back in 1 week to have the test read." b) "If the test area turns red that means I have tuberculosis." c) "I will avoid contact with my family until I am done with the test." d) "Because I had a previous reaction to the test, this time I need to get a chest X-ray."
d) "Because I had a previous reaction to the test, this time I need to get a chest X-ray." - A client who previously had a positive PPD test (a reaction to the antigen) can't receive a repeat PPD test and must have a chest X-ray done instead. The test should be read 48 to 72 hours after administration. Redness at the test area doesn't indicate a positive test; an induration of greater than 10 mm indicates a positive test. The client doesn't need to avoid contact with people during the test period.
The nurse is working in the triage section of a walk-in clinic. Which triad of common symptoms, when placed together, indicate Ménière's disease? a) Blurred vision, vertigo, nausea b) Syncope, vertigo, ear pain c) Disorientation, vertigo, nausea d) Hearing loss, vertigo, tinnitus
d) Hearing loss, vertigo, tinnitus - Hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus are common symptoms of many disease processes but, when placed together, indicate Ménière's disease. The other options do not include the accurate triad of symptoms.
A physician orders diazepam, 10 mg I.V., for a client experiencing status epilepticus. Which statement about I.V. diazepam is true? a) It may be mixed with other drugs in an infusion. b) It should be administered in a small vein to minimize irritation. c) It rarely causes adverse reactions. d) It should be administered no faster than 5 mg/minute in an adult.
d) It should be administered no faster than 5 mg/minute in an adult. - To prevent adverse reactions, which are common, I.V. diazepam should be administered no faster than 5 mg/minute in an adult and should be given over at least 3 minutes in children. Diazepam shouldn't be mixed with other drugs in an infusion because of the high risk of incompatibility. To help prevent extravasation, the nurse should avoid administering diazepam in a small vein. I.V. diazepam may cause cardiorespiratory depression; to detect this adverse reaction, the nurse should monitor the client's vital signs carefully during administration.
The health care provider is selecting an antibiotic for a client with a known penicillin allergy. The provider knows that cephalosporins are a poor choice for this client because cephalosporins: a) are ineffective in clients who are allergic to penicillins. b) can cause kidney damage in clients who are allergic to penicillins. c) are derived from penicillin. d) can cause allergic reactions in clients who are allergic to penicillins.
d) can cause allergic reactions in clients who are allergic to penicillins. - Clients who are allergic to penicillins may also be allergic to cephalosporins. Although this cross-allergenicity (allergy to a drug of another class with similar chemical structure) is rare, cephalosporins are not typically administered to clients who have had life-threatening allergic reactions to a penicillin.
The nurse is reviewing the medication administration record of the client. Which medication would lead the nurse to suspect that the client is suffering from an acute attack of gout? a) penicillamine b) methotrexate c) prednisone d) colchicine
d) colchicine - Colchicine is prescribed for the treatment of an acute attack of gout.
Nursing research is linked most closely to: a) propositions b) outcome measures. c) treatments d) nursing process.
d) nursing process. - Nursing research and the nursing process use scientific models which share many similarities. This sharing found between the formalized research process and the nursing process format is an integral part of nursing education. Treatments and outcome measurements are components of the nursing process.
