NUTRITION Textbooks & Slide Questions

What is true of the typical American diet? a. Is high in calcium and selenium b. The majority of foods served are made from "scratch" c. Does not include foods from other cultures d. Is difficult to define

D. It's difficult to define.

Is the following statement true or false? Routine formulas provide 1.5 to 2 cal/mL.

False. Rationale: The calorie density of a product determines the volume of formula needed to meet the patient's estimated needs. Routine formulas provide 1.0 to 1.2 cal/mL, whereas high-calorie formulas provide 1.5 to 2.0 cal/mL.

The client asks if coffee is bad for their peptic ulcer. Which of the following is the nurse's best response? a. "Coffee does not cause ulcers and drinking it probably does not interfere with ulcer healing. You may try eliminating it from your diet to see what impact it has on your symptoms and then decide whether or not to avoid it." b. "Both caffeinated and decaffeinated coffee can cause ulcers and interfere with ulcer healing. You should eliminate both from your diet." c. "You need to eliminate caffeinated coffee from your diet, but it is safe to drink decaffeinated coffee." d. "You can drink all the coffee you want; it does not affect ulcers."

a. "Coffee does not cause ulcers and drinking it probably does not interfere with ulcer healing. You may try eliminating it from your diet to see what impact it has on your symptoms and then decide whether or not to avoid it."

The client with type 1 diabetes asks if they can have a glass of wine with dinner on the weekends. Which of the following would be the nurse's best response? a. "It is better to have wine between meals than with meals so that it doesn't interfere with your normal food intake." b. "People with diabetes cannot have alcohol because it raises blood glucose levels very quickly." c. "A mixed drink would be better than wine because the mixer will help slow the absorption of the alcohol." d. "An occasional glass of wine with dinner will not cause problems. Be sure to limit yourself to one serving."

d. "An occasional glass of wine with dinner will not cause problems. Be sure to limit yourself to one serving."

What is the commonly recommended initial flow rate for gastric feedings? 10 to 40 mL/hour 40 to 80 mL/hour 80 to 120 mL/hour 120 to 150 mL/hour

10 to 40 mL/hour

You are admitting a burn patient to your unit. He is a healthy 18-year-old, 6 ft 2 in. tall with a weight of 180 pounds. His burns cover over 15% of his body. What would you expect his approximate protein needs to be? 150 to 191 g 159 to 200 g 164 to 205 g 175 to 216 g

164 to 205 g

Which of the following criteria would most likely be on a nutrition screen in the hospital? a. prealbumin b. weight loss c. serum potassium value d. cultural food preferences

B. Weight loss

The client asks if a tea that claims to improve memory really works. Which of the following would be the nurse's best response? a. "If the tea claims to improve memory, then it has been tested and proven effective at improving memory." b. "The tea probably works but you need to try it to know." c. "Function claims like 'improve memory' can be used on labels without supporting proof that they are accurate." d. "That type of claim is illegal and should not appear on any food label."

C. Function claims like improve memory can be used on labels without supporting proof that they are accurate.

What is a descriptive word that indicates a low-fat cooking technique? a.au gratin b. breaded c. roasted d. battered

C. Roasted.

SOMETIMES THE RECOMMENDED DIETARY ALLOWANCES (RDAS) DO NOT APPLY TO A DIET. WHY IS THIS TRUE? A. NOT EVERYONE CONFORMS TO WHAT IS CONSIDERED " NORMAL" B. WHEN A BODY IS IN PROTEIN EXCESS, THE RDAS DO NOT NEED TO BE ADHERED TO. C. THE RDAS ARE INTENDED FOR HEALTHY PEOPLE AND AND ALSO PEOPLE AT RISK OF CHRONIC DISEASE. D. THE RDAS WERE DESIGNED TO HELP SICK PEOPLE GET WELL.

C. THE RDAS ARE INTENDED FOR HEALTHY PEOPLE AND RISK OF CHRONIC DISEASE

ISTHEFOLLOWINGSTATEMENTTRUEORFALSE? HEALTHY ADULTS ARE IN A POSITIVE STATE OF NITROGEN BALANCE.

FALSE

What are the treatment goals of the ebb phase of the stress response? Maintain protein catabolism Maintain oxygenation to all tissues Decrease blood flow to nonvital organs Decrease bleeding

Maintain oxygenation to all tissues

IS THE FOLLOWING STATEMENT TRUE OR FALSE? SUGAR ALCOHOLS PRODUCE A SMALLER RISE IN POSTPRANDIAL GLUCOSE LEVELS AND INSULIN SECRETION THAN SUCROSE

TRUE. RATIONALE: SUGAR ALCOHOLS DO PRODUCE A SMALLER RISE IN POSTPRANDIAL GLUCOSE LEVELS AND INSULIN SECRETION THAN SUCROSE

IS THE FOLLOWING STATEMENT TRUE OR FALSE? RESPIRATORY DYSFUNCTION IS ONE OF THE MOST COMMON COMPLICATIONS OF OBESITY.

TRUE. RATIONALE: THE MOST COMMON COMPLICATIONS OF OBESITY ARE INSULIN RESISTANCE, TYPE 2 DIABETES, HYPERTENSION, DYSLIPIDEMIA, CARDIOVASCULAR DISEASE, STROKE, GALLSTONES AND CHOLECYSTITIS, SLEEP APNEA, RESPIRATORY DYSFUNCTION, AND INCREASED INCIDENCE OF CERTAIN CANCERS.

IS THE FOLLOWING STATEMENT TRUE OR FALSE? DIABETIC KETOACIDOSIS IS CHARACTERIZED BY GLUCOSE LEVELS GREATER THAN 250 MG/DL.

TRUE. RATIONALE: PEOPLE WITH TYPE 1 DIABETES ARE SUSCEPTIBLE TO DIABETIC KETOACIDOSIS (DKA), CHARACTERIZED BY HYPERGLYCEMIA (GLUCOSE LEVELS >250 MG/DL) AND KETONEMIA.

Is the following statement true or false? Ingredient, listings and nutrition fact labels are reliable and accurate by law

True

Is the following statement true or false? Respiratory dysfunction is one of the most common complications of obesity

True

• Is the following statement true or false? The 1-oz size of meat noted in MyPlate is simply a reference.

True

Which statement indicates the client with cirrhosis needs further instruction about what to eat? a. "As with alcohol, certain foods, such as white sugar and white bread, must be avoided because they damage the liver." b. "I should eat 3 meals/day and 3 snacks, especially a bedtime snack." c. "I may need to limit sodium due to fluid retention." d. "I need to be sure I eat enough protein."

a. "As with alcohol, certain foods, such as white sugar and white bread, must be avoided because they damage the liver."

How many carbohydrate choices are provided in a serving of food that supplies 19 g of carbohydrate? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

a. 1

Which of the following statements regarding nutrition screening is false? a. A nutrition screen is completed only when a client is suspected of having a nutritional problem. b. A nutrition screen must be completed within 24 hours after admission to a hospital or other health care facility. c. The purpose of nutrition screening is to detect the risk of malnutrition. d. Health care facilities are free to choose their own screening criteria and to determine how quickly a client must be rescreened.

a. A nutrition screen is completed only when a client is suspected of having a nutritional problem.

Which of the following substitutions results in a less calorically dense choice? a. Canadian bacon in place of bacon b. refried beans instead of cooked or canned pinto beans c. natural cheese instead of low-fat cheese d. baked potato with cheese sauce instead of baked potato with salsa

a. Canadian bacon in place of bacon

When developing a teaching plan for a client on a low-sodium diet, which of the following foods would the nurse advise the client to limit? a. Cold cuts b. Canned fruit c. Eggs d. Milk

a. Cold cuts

Which might a client who has eaten too many dietetic candies sweetened with sorbitol experience? a. Diarrhea b. Heartburn c. Vomiting d. Low blood glucose

a. Diarrhea

Which of the following recommendations would be most effective for someone wanting to eat more fiber? a. Eat legumes more regularly. b. Eat raw vegetables in place of cooked vegetables. c. Use potatoes in place of white rice. d. Eat fruit for dessert in place of ice cream.

a. Eat legumes more regularly.

To move toward healthier eating patterns, Americans should a. Eat more seafood b. Eat more total protein c. Eat more mixed protein dishes, such as sandwiches, in place of eating protein as a separate food d. Replace seafood with poultry

a. Eat more seafood

A client is on a low-calorie diet that recommends they test their urine for ketones to tell how well they are adhering to the guidelines of the diet. What does the presence of ketones signify about their intake? a. It is too low in carbohydrates. b. It is too high in fat. c. It is too high in carbohydrates. d. It is too high in protein.

a. It is too low in carbohydrates.

Which statement regarding the characteristics of lifestyle medicine is not true? a. Medications are not used in conjunction with lifestyle medicine. b. Patients are expected to be active participants in their care. c. Patients are required to make major lifestyle changes. d. Treatment is always long-term.

a. Medications are not used in conjunction with lifestyle medicine.

Enteral nutrition is a way of providing nutrition for people who have an inadequate oral intake. What is the other criteria for enteral nutrition? a. Partially functioning GI tract b. Nonfunctioning GI tract c. Obstructed GI tract d. Patient is comatose.

a. Partially functioning GI tract

Which types of food provide carbohydrates? (Select all that apply.) a. Vegetables b. Fruit c. Milk d. Animal proteins

a. Vegetables b. Fruit c. Milk

When oral or EN is not possible or adequate, when should PN be initiated in clients who are moderately to severely malnourished? a. as soon as feasible b. within 2 to 3 days c. within 3 to 5 days d. within 7 days

a. as soon as feasible

The nurse knows the instructions on how to reduce the risk of dumping syndrome after RYGB surgery are effective when the client verbalized they will a. avoid high-sugar foods and fluids with meals and for 30 minutes afterward. b. eat less fat. c. limit complex carbohydrates. d. eat larger, less frequent meals.

a. avoid high-sugar foods and fluids with meals and for 30 minutes afterward.

A client with fat malabsorption is at risk for which of the following? a. calcium oxalate kidney stones b. constipation c. fatty liver disease d. type 2 diabetes

a. calcium oxalate kidney stones

Which of the following may be the best tolerated source of calcium for a client who is lactose intolerant? a. calcium-fortified orange juice b. pudding c. cottage cheese d. refined breads and cereals

a. calcium-fortified orange juice

When developing a teaching plan for a client who is lactose intolerant, which of the following foods would the nurse suggest as sources of calcium the client could tolerate? a. cheddar cheese, bok choy, broccoli b. spinach, beet greens, nonfat milk c. poultry, meat, eggs d. whole grains, nuts, cocoa

a. cheddar cheese, bok choy, broccoli

Which of the following foods provides iron in a form that would be absorbed best? a. red meat b. iron-fortified cereal c. legumes d. enriched bread

a. red meat

Which statement indicates the client does not understand the nutrition recommendations for hypertension? a. "Weight loss will help lower my blood pressure." b. "Sodium restriction is not necessary as long as I eat enough potassium in fruits and vegetables." c. "Alcohol intake should be limited to 1 drink/day for women and 2 drinks/day for men." d. "The DASH diet is probably better for high blood pressure than the Mediterranean-style eating pattern."

b. "Sodium restriction is not necessary as long as I eat enough potassium in fruits and vegetables."

Which of the following calorie level ranges is considered appropriate for weight-loss diets for most women? a. 1800 to 2000 cal/day b. 1200 to 1500 cal/day c. 1000 to 1200 cal/day d. 800 to 1000 cal/day

b. 1200 to 1500 cal/day

Which B vitamin can cause permanent neurologic damage and may not demonstrate signs or symptoms for 10 years? a. B6 b. B12 c. Folate d. B2

b. B12

When developing a teaching plan for a client who is on warfarin (Coumadin), which of the following foods would the nurse suggest that the client consume consistently because of their vitamin K content? a. Vegetable oils, fruit, and seafood b. Brussels sprouts, cauliflower, and spinach c. Fortified cereals, whole grains, and nuts d. Dried peas and beans, wheat germ, and seeds

b. Brussels sprouts, cauliflower, and spinach

Detrimental health outcomes are linked to excessive intakes of all of the following except a. Saturated fat. b. Carbohydrates. c. Added sugars. d. Sodium.

b. Carbohydrates.

Waist circumference is an indicator of a. percentage of body fat. b. central obesity. c. the ratio of body fat to muscle mass. d. BMI.

b. Central obesity

The process of hydrogenation does what to fats? a. Makes them into essential fatty acids b. Changes the placement of the hydrogen atoms c. Changes the fats from trans fats to hydrogenated fats d. Changes the fats from liquid to solid form

b. Changes the placement of the hydrogen atoms

The nurse knows their instructions have been effective when the client with dumping syndrome verbalizes they should a. avoid lying down after eating. b. drink liquids between, not with, meals. c. consume foods sweetened with sugar alcohols (e.g., sorbitol or xylitol) instead of sugar. d. avoid protein.

b. Drink liquids between, not with, meals.

Which of the following strategies may help promote an adequate oral intake in hospitalized clients? Select all that apply. a. Tell the client that you wouldn't want to eat the food either, but it is important for their recovery. b. Encourage the client to select their own menu. c. Offer standby alternatives when the client cannot find anything on the menu they want to eat. d. Advance the diet as quickly as possible, as appropriate.

b. Encourage the client to select their own menu. c. Offer standby alternatives when the client cannot find anything on the menu they want to eat. d. Advance the diet as quickly as possible, as appropriate.

The nurse knows their instructions have been effective when the client with celiac disease verbalizes that an appropriate breakfast is a. eggs and toast b. grits with berries c. bran flakes cereal with milk d. buttermilk pancakes with syrup

b. Grits with berries

One cause of osmotic diarrhea is a. Antibiotics b. Maldigestion c. Some GI disorders d. Unabsorbed fatty acids

b. Maldigestion

The client asks if he can use butter on a heart-healthy diet. Which of the following would be the nurse's best response? a. "No, butter does not fit into a heart-healthy diet." b. "Butter is not limited in a heart-healthy diet because most people only use small amounts." c. "You can fit in small amounts of butter if you are willing to reduce saturated fat elsewhere, such as eating red meat less often. d. "Butter is considered a dairy product and you can have up to 3 servings/day. "

c. "You can fit in small amounts of butter if you are willing to reduce saturated fat elsewhere, such as eating red meat less often.

What type of diet is a dysphagia diet? a. Prepared in a blender b. Liquid c. Modified consistency d. Mechanically ground

c. Modified consistency

Compared to refined grains, whole grains have more a. Folic acid b. Vitamin A c. Vitamin C d. Phytonutrients

d. Phytonutrients

What should the nurse tell a client who likes fish but refuses to eat it because of fear of mercury poisoning? a. "You are justified to be concerned. To be safe, use fish oil supplements instead." b. "You can eat as much fish as you want because most fish are not contaminated with even small amounts of mercury." c. "The benefits of eating 8 oz/week of a variety of fish outweigh any potential risks from mercury." d. "As a compromise, eat 4 oz of fish per week instead of 8 oz."

"The benefits of eating 8 oz/week of a variety of fish outweigh any potential risks from mercury."

What behavioral factors are associated with successful long-term weight maintenance after weight loss? Select all that apply. a. high levels of daily physical activity b. weighing oneself at least weekly c. consuming a low-calorie, low-fat diet d. eating only two meals/day

A,B,C- high levels of daily physical activity, weighing oneself, at least weekly, consuming a low calorie, low fat diet

A client asks how they can minimize their risk of foodborne illness. Which of the following should the nurse include in their response as the best way to reduce the risk? Select all that apply. a. "Wash your hands before and after handling food." b. "Rely on organically grown foods as much as possible." c. "Cook foods thoroughly." d. "Avoid cross contamination by using separate surfaces for meats and foods that will be eaten raw."

A,C,D -wash your hands before and after handling food, cook, food, thoroughly, avoid cross contamination by using separate surfaces for meats and foods that will be eaten raw

What are the characteristics of a traditional Mexican diet? Select all that apply. a. low in fat b. high in fiber c. rich in complex carbohydrates d. rich in vegetable protein

A,b,c,d- low in fat, high in fiber ,high in complex carbs, Rich invegetable protein

What are the nutritional characteristics of a traditional soul food diet? Select all that apply. a. high in fat b. high in sodium c. high in potassium d. high in cholesterol

A,b,d- I am fat, high in sodium, high in cholesterol

Muslims are prohibited from consuming a. alcohol. b. eggs. c. beef. d. shellfish.

A. Alcohol.

A client asks how they can avoid buying foods that are GE. What is the nurse's best response? a. "Foods labeled as organic cannot be genetically engineered." b. "There is no way to avoid genetically engineered foods." c. "Buy foods that have the Radura symbol on them. This symbol means they cannot be genetically engineered." d. "Buy foods labeled as natural because they cannot be genetically engineered."

A. Foods labeled as organic cannot be genetically engineered.

WHAT IS A RISK FACTOR FOR EATING DISORDERS? A. GI PROBLEMS B. ADOLESCENT EATING PROBLEMS C. BINGE EATING D. DEPRESSION

A. GI PROBLEMS

WHAT IS A RISK FACTOR FOR EATING DISORDERS? A. GI PROBLEMS B. ADOLESCENT EATING PROBLEMS C. BINGE EATING D. DEPRESSION

A. Gi problems

A client asks how they can avoid meat and poultry that are given antibiotics. What is the nurse's best response? a. "Meat and poultry labeled as organic cannot be given antibiotics." b. "There is no way to avoid meat and poultry that have been given antibiotics." c. "Buy meat and poultry labeled as natural or all natural." d. "Buy meat and poultry labeled as American Humane Association."

A. Meat and poultry labeled as organic cannot be given antibiotics.

Which pathogen is not killed by hand sanitizers? a. norovirus b.Salmonella c.E. coli d.Listeria

A. Norovirus

What do structure/function claims do? A. Offer the possibility that a food may improve body function B. Show FDA approval of the claim C. Cannot appear on junk food D. Include symbols in their claim

A. Offer the possibility that the food may improve body function.

The client asks if meal replacements, such as Jenny Craig products, are a good idea to help with weight loss. Which of the following would be the nurse's best response? a. "They are a great way to control portions and can help you adhere to your hypocaloric meal plan when used as suggested." b. "They are gimmicks that fail to teach you how to control your own intake. They are not recommended." c. "Most people gain weight while using them. You should stay away from them." d. "They are not nutritionally balanced so you actually have to overeat in order to meet your nutritional requirements if you use them."

A. They are a great way to control proportions and can help you adhere to your hypo chloric meal plan when used as suggested

Vitamins do not provide calories. What do they do? a. Help metabolize energy b. Function like drugs at normal doses c. Provide essential nutritional needs at gram or higher doses d. Prevent biochemical reactions in the body

A. help metabolize energy

Why do Muslims eat? a. To keep ahimsa b. As a matter of faith c. To live in harmony with nature d. To keep kosher

B. As a matter of faith.

What are the characteristics of a traditional Chinese diet? Select all that apply. a. rich in dairy products b. low in fat c. high in sodium d. vegetables used extensively

B,c,d - Low in fat , high in sodium and vegetables use extensively

Which statement indicates that the client needs further instruction about reading nutrition labels? a. "The %DV is based on a 2000-calorie eating pattern." b. "The %DV represents the percentage of calories from carbohydrate, protein, and fat in that food." c. "The dual-column labels show information per serving and per package." d. "The serving size listed on the label is based on how much people actually consume, not on what they should be eating."

B. " The % DV represents the percentage of calories from carbohydrates, protein and fat and that food"

The nurse knows her instructions about nutrient claims on the label have been effective when the client says, a. "'Excellent source' is not defined, so it cannot be trusted." b. "'Excellent source' means a serving of the food must provide at least 20% of the DV for that nutrient." c. "'Excellent source' means a serving of the food must provide a day-s worth of that nutrient." d. "'Excellent source' means a serving of the food provides 10% more of a desirable nutrient than does a comparable product."

B. " excellent source means a serving of the food must provide at least 20% of the DV for that nutrient

Which of the following calorie level ranges is considered appropriate for weight-loss diets for most women? a. 1800 to 2000 cal/day b. 1200 to 1500 cal/day c. 1000 to 1200 cal/day d. 800 to 1000 cal/day

B. 1200 to 1500 cal/ day

Which approach would be best when developing a teaching plan for an overweight woman from Mexico? a. Tell the client she will look better if she loses some of the extra weight she is carrying around. b. Encourage more nutritious food choices. c. Advise the client that healthy eating will help her shed inches. d. Provide a low-calorie diet and encourage her to eat low-calorie American foods, such as artificially sweetened soda and low-fat ice cream.

B. Encourage more nutritious food choices

Which of the following religions does not encourage a vegetarian diet? a. Buddhism b. Judaism c. Seventh-Day Adventist d. Hinduism

B. Judaism.

The client asks if it is okay to follow a low-carbohydrate, ketogenic-type diet in the short term to get started on weight-loss efforts. Which of the following would be the nurse's best response? a. "No, low-carbohydrate diets are not healthy and would only sabotage your weight-loss efforts." b. "A ketogenic-type diet can help you lose weight as can many other types of diets. The important factor that determines whether you lose weight is the number of calories you eat, not the proportion of carbohydrates, protein, and fat you eat." c. "A low-carbohydrate diet is better than any other type of diet and is a good choice for you to use." d. "A low-fat diet is easier. Try that instead."

B. Ketogenic take die I can help you lose weight as it can many other types of diet the important factor that determines whether you lose weight is the number of calories you eat, not the proportion of carbohydrates proteins and fat you eat.

What is the priority when instituting nutrition therapy for a client diagnosed with AN? a. Teach the client about nutrient and calorie requirements. b. Restore weight. c. Motivate the client by offering rewards linked to weight gain. d. Halt purging behaviors.

B. Restore weight.

A nurse knows that their instructions about portion control have been effective when the client verbalizes that they will a. prepare a doggie bag after they feel they are full enough while eating out. b. use a smaller dinner plate. c. be careful not to overfill their cereal bowl when they serve themselves from the large, family-sized box. d. remind themselves not to overeat.

B. Use a smaller dinner plate

What is one of the positive results of food biotechnology? A. Blander flavor B. Neutral freshness C. Improved characteristics D. Enhanced food varieties

C improves characteristics

A client asks how they can speed up their metabolism. Which of the following is the best response? a. "You can't. Metabolic rate is genetically determined." b. "Ask your doctor to check your thyroid hormone levels. Taking thyroid hormone will stimulate metabolism." c. "Include strength training in your exercise program because adding muscle tissue will increase metabolic rate."

C. " include strength training in your exercise program, because adding muscle tissue will increase metabolic rate."

The client asks the nurse whether GMOs are safe. Which of the following is the nurse's best response? a. "Not enough is known about GMOs to know if they have a negative impact on health." b. "GMOs probably cause reproductive health issues and may cause gene mutations. It is best to avoid them." c. "As a group, GMOs do not pose health risks." d. "It is best to try to avoid them if you can."

C. As a group of GMO's do not pose health risks

What is the best response to a client's question about if organic food is worth the extra cost? a. "Is there anything more important to spend money on than your health?" b. "There is no difference in pesticide levels and nutritional value of organically grown foods compared to conventional foods." c. "Buying organic foods is an individual decision; some may have more nutritional value than their conventional counterparts, and they do have lower pesticide levels." d. "It is worth it to buy organic produce but not organic meats."

C. Buying organic food is individual decisions. Some may have more nutritional value than their conventional counterparts, and they do have lower pesticide levels.

ONE OF THE TREATMENTS FOR OBESITY IS BEHAVIOR MODIFICATION. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS AN ASPECT OF BEHAVIOR MODIFICATION? A. STIMULUS RECOGNITION B. PROFESSIONAL MONITORING C. COGNITIVE RESTRUCTURING D. PROBLEM IDENTIFICATION

C. COGNITIVE RESTRUCTURING RATIONALE: KEY BEHAVIOR MODIFICATION STRATEGIES ARE SELF-MONITORING, GOAL SETTING, STIMULUS CONTROL, PROBLEM SOLVING, COGNITIVE RESTRUCTURING, AND RELAPSE PREVENTION.

There are three criteria used for assessing overweight and obesity. What is one of these criteria? A.Height B.Healthy weight C.Existing health problems D.Basal metabolic rate

C. Existing health problems.

A 32-year-old client has learned that their BMI has increased to 28 since their last annual physical. They are determined to lose weight and asks if they can use weight-loss medication instead of going on a diet because they have had trouble following diets. Which is the best response? a. "You are not a candidate for weight-loss medications because they can only be prescribed for people with complications related to weight, such as diabetes." b. "You are an ideal candidate for weight-loss medications. Tell the doctor you are interested in them when they arrive." c. "For people with a BMI of 28 and no weight-related complications, weight-loss medications are considered only if you are unsuccessful at losing weight with lifestyle therapy. See how successful you can be with lifestyle therapy." d. "Weight-loss medications are associated with serious risks so they are reserved for people with BMI > 35."

C. For people with a BMI of 28 and no wait related complications, weight loss medication's are considered only if you are on successful I losing weight with lifestyle therapy see how successful you can be with lifestyle therapy.

When the body does not have an adequate intake of glucose, the formation of ketone bodies increases. What is a side effect of increased ketone production? a. Increased appetite b. Potassium depletion c. Nausea and vomiting d. Sodium depletion

D. Sodium depletion

Which occurs first in dietary acculturation? a. Some traditional foods are rejected. b. New foods are added to the diet. c. The children in the family become acculturated. d. Some traditional foods are replaced by new foods.

D. Some traditional foods are replaced by new foods.

Is the following statement true or false? Pharmacologic treatment options meet with limited success in diverticular disease.

False

Is the following statement true or false? Potassium is the major extracellular cation.

False

Who's the following statement true or false? Dietary supplements are required to carry warning labels approved by the FDA

False

Is the following statement true or false? Routine formulas provide 1.5 to 2 cal/mL.

False Rationale: The calorie density of a product determines the volume of formula needed to meet the patient's estimated needs. Routine formulas provide 1.0 to 1.2 cal/mL, whereas high-calorie formulas provide 1.5 to 2.0 cal/mL.

Is the following statement true or false? A man with an actual weight of 210 pounds in a healthy weight of 175 pounds has a basal metabolic rate of 2220

False the basal metabolic rate of this man is 2117.5.

Is the following statement true or false? Pharmacologic treatment options meet with limited success in diverticular disease.

False. Rationale: Antidiarrheals, antispasmodics, and antidepressants are pharmacologic treatment options that meet with limited success in irritable bowel syndrome.

Is the following statement true or false? SIRS is a life-threatening condition that may occur when severe inflammation lasts longer than 24 hours.

False. Rationale: SIRS is a life-threatening condition that may occur when severe inflammation lasts longer than a few days.

Is the following statement true or false? In stage 1 hypertension, diet is the first treatment before medicine is given.

True. Rationale: In people with stage 1 hypertension, diet is the initial treatment before drug therapy is introduced and may eliminate the need for medication.

Is the following statement true or false? Medications should not be added to parenteral nutrition solutions because of potential incompatibilities.

True. Rationale: In general, medications should not be added to PN solutions because of the potential incompatibilities of the medication and nutrients in the solution.

Is the following statement true or false? Medications should not be added to parenteral nutrition solutions because of potential incompatibilities.

True. Rationale: In general, medications should not be added to PN solutions because of the potential incompatibilities of the medication and nutrients in the solution.

A client with hyperlipidemia is prescribed niacin. The client asks if they can simply include more niacin-rich foods in their diet in order to forgo niacin in pill form. What is the nurse's best response? a. "The dose of niacin needed to treat hyperlipidemia is far more than can be consumed through eating a niacin-rich diet." b. "You can't get the therapeutic form of niacin through food." c. "Niacin from food is not as well absorbed as niacin from pills." d. "If you are able to consistently choose niacin-fortified foods in your diet, then your doctor may allow you to forgo the pills and rely on dietary sources of niacin."

a. "The dose of niacin needed to treat hyperlipidemia is far more than can be consumed through eating a niacin-rich diet."

What is the RDA for protein for a healthy adult who weighs 165 pounds? a. 40 g b. 60 g b. 75 g d. 132 g

b. 60 g

What is the primary function of fat? a. Facilitate protein metabolism b. Provide energy c. Promote the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins d. Facilitate carbohydrate metabolism

b. Provide energy

Which tube-feeding delivery method is most likely to cause symptoms of GI intolerance? a. intermittent feedings b. bolus feedings c. cyclic feedings d. continuous drip feedings

b. bolus feedings

What happens to the end products of fat metabolism? They are a. Stored in adipose tissue b. Stored in the liver c. Absorbed into intestinal cells d. Absorbed into the bloodstream

c. Absorbed into intestinal cells

Atherosclerosis, or "hardening of the arteries," is a progressive process that begins early in life. What do complications depend on? a. How progressed the disease process is b. How compliant the patient is with the treatment c. Size, stability, and location of the plaque d. The patient's genetics, gender, and age

c. Size, stability, and location of the plaque

The client wants to eat fewer calories and lose weight by substituting regularly sweetened foods with those that are sweetened with sugar alternatives. Which would be the most effective at lowering calorie intake? a. Sugar-free cookies for regular cookies b. Sugar-free for regular chocolate candy c. Sugar-free soft drinks for regular soft drinks d. Sugar-free ice cream for regular ice cream

c. Sugar-free soft drinks for regular soft drinks

Which of the following foods is not pareve? a. fruit b. vegetables c. kosher eggs d. milk

d. milk

A client wants to eat more conventional functional foods. Which of the following would the nurse recommend? a. omega-3 fatty acid-enriched milk and orange juice b. yogurt and cheese c. rice and enriched pasta d. berries and green leafy vegetables

D. Berries and green leafy vegetables

The client asks if it is okay to follow a low-carbohydrate, ketogenic-type diet in the short term to get started on weight-loss efforts. Which of the following would be the nurse's best response? a. "No, low-carbohydrate diets are not healthy and would only sabotage your weight-loss efforts." b. "A ketogenic-type diet can help you lose weight as can many other types of diets. The important factor that determines whether you lose weight is the number of calories you eat, not the proportion of carbohydrates, protein, and fat you eat." c. "A low-carbohydrate diet is better than any other type of diet and is a good choice for you to use." d. "A low-fat diet is easier. Try that instead."

b. "A ketogenic-type diet can help you lose weight as can many other types of diets. The important factor that determines whether you lose weight is the number of calories you eat, not the proportion of carbohydrates, protein, and fat you eat."

What is the underlying difference between standard and hydrolyzed formulas? a. Standard formulas cannot meet the needs of clients who have high protein needs. b. Standard formulas contain intact nutrients. Hydrolyzed formulas contain nutrients in more readily absorbable form. c. Standard formulas can be infused in the stomach or intestine. Hydrolyzed formulas can be infused only into the stomach. d. Standard formulas are nutritionally complete. All hydrolyzed formulas intentionally lack one or more nutrients.

b. Standard formulas contain intact nutrients. Hydrolyzed formulas contain nutrients in more readily absorbable form.

A diabetic diet is now based more on keeping the total carbohydrate intake consistent with less emphasis on the source of the carbohydrate. What has this change in focus meant for diabetic diets? a. Sugar alternatives are substituted for simple sugars. b. Sweets can be included in the diabetic diet. c. Calorie control is most important for diabetics. d. Diabetics need to learn the glycemic load of foods.

b. Sweets can be included in the diabetic diet.

Which of the following is a lean source of protein? a. Eggs b. Turkey breast without skin c. 80% lean ground beef d. Prime beef rib roast

b. Turkey breast without skin

Which of the following would be most effective in modifying a regular diet to a high-fiber diet? a. romaine in place of ice berg lettuce b. bran cereal in place of cornflakes c. rice in place of mashed potatoes d. black beans in place of garbanzo beans

b. bran cereal in place of cornflakes

Compared to a Healthy U.S.-Style Eating Pattern, a Mediterranean-Style Eating Pattern is generally a. higher in vegetables and whole grains. b. higher in seafood and lower in dairy. c. higher in oils and dairy. d. lower in protein foods and fruits.

b. higher in seafood and lower in dairy.

The typical American dietary pattern is a. low in refined grains. b. low in whole grains. c. high in fruit. d. high in dairy products.

b. low in whole grains.

A BMI of 26 is classified as a. normal b. overweight c. class 1 obesity d. class 2 obesity

b. overweight

Which of the following foods is not appropriate for a client on a level 4 pureed diet? a. vanilla yogurt b. regular scrambled eggs c. smooth hummus d. chocolate pudding

b. regular scrambled eggs

Which of the following metabolic abnormalities is associated with refeeding syndrome? a. hyperphosphatemia b. thiamin deficiency c. hyperkalemia d. hypermagnesemia

b. thiamin deficiency

A 32-year-old client has learned that their BMI has increased to 28 since their last annual physical. They are determined to lose weight and asks if they can use weight-loss medication instead of going on a diet because they have had trouble following diets. Which is the best response? a. "You are not a candidate for weight-loss medications because they can only be prescribed for people with complications related to weight, such as diabetes." b. "You are an ideal candidate for weight-loss medications. Tell the doctor you are interested in them when they arrive." c. "For people with a BMI of 28 and no weight-related complications, weight-loss medications are considered only if you are unsuccessful at losing weight with lifestyle therapy. See how successful you can be with lifestyle therapy." d. "Weight-loss medications are associated with serious risks so they are reserved for people with BMI > 35."

c. "For people with a BMI of 28 and no weight-related complications, weight-loss medications are considered only if you are unsuccessful at losing weight with lifestyle therapy. See how successful you can be with lifestyle therapy."

A client asks if it is better to consume folic acid from fortified foods or from a vitamin pill. What is the nurse's best response? a. "It is better to consume folic acid through fortified foods because it will be better absorbed than through pill form." b. "It is better to consume folic acid through vitamin pills because it will be better absorbed than through fortified foods." c. "Fortified foods and vitamin pills have the same form of folic acid, so it does not matter which source you use because they are both well absorbed." d. "It is best to consume naturally rich sources of folate because that form is better absorbed than the folic acid in either fortified foods or vitamin pills."

c. "Fortified foods and vitamin pills have the same form of folic acid, so it does not matter which source you use because they are both well absorbed."

The client asks what foods are rich in protein and are less expensive than meat. Which foods would the nurse recommend they eat more of? a. Breads and cereals b. Fish and shellfish c. Fruit and vegetables d. Beans, peas, and lentils

d. Beans, peas, and lentils

Which of the following strategies would help a client achieve a low-fat diet? a. Substitute margarine for butter. b. Eat nonfat frozen yogurt in place of nonfat frozen ice cream. c. Substitute whole wheat bread for white bread. d. Prepare chicken by roasting instead of frying.

d. Prepare chicken by roasting instead of frying.

When developing a teaching plan for a client who needs to limit saturated fat, which of the following foods would the nurse suggest the client limit? a. Seafood and poultry b. Nuts and seeds c. Olive oil and canola oil d. Prime cuts of red meat and whole milk

d. Prime cuts of red meat and whole milk

The best approach for monitoring carbohydrate intake is to use a. the food list system b. carbohydrate counting c. the plate method d. the approach that best helps the individual control blood glucose levels

d. The approach that best helps the individual control blood glucose levels

What causes refeeding syndrome in clients who are fed after being in a catabolic state? a. a dramatic increase in fluid intake b. a dramatic increase protein intake c. a dramatic increase in fat intake d. a dramatic increase in carbohydrate intake

d. a dramatic increase in carbohydrate intake

The best dessert for a client with gastroparesis is a. chocolate cake b. strawberry shortcake c. blueberry pie d. angel food cake

d. angel food cake

How much weight will a person lose in a week if they eat 500 fewer cal/day than they need and increase their exercise expenditure by 500 cal/day? a. 1 pound per week. b. 2 pounds per week. c. 3 pounds per week.

B. 2 pounds per week.

TYPE 1 DIABETES, ONCE REFERRED TO AS INSULIN- DEPENDENT DIABETES, IS CAUSED BY WHAT? A. HYPERINSULINEMIA B. ABSENCE OF INSULIN C. SENSITIVITY TO INSULIN D. METABOLIC SYNDROME

B. ABSENCE OF INSULIN

What percentage of ingredients must be organic for a product to bear the USDA organic seal and state that it is organic? a. 70% b. 80% c. 95% d. 100%

C. 95%

The nurse knows her instructions about gluten-free labeling are understood when the client verbalizes one of the following statements: a. "Only foods that have been specially made gluten-free, not foods that are naturally gluten-free, can be labeled gluten-free." b. "Gluten-free means there are no detectable amounts of gluten in the product." c. "Products labeled gluten-free are limited to foods that are naturally gluten-free." d. "Gluten-free products provide <20 ppm of gluten per serving."

D. Gluten free products provide.<20ppm of gluten per serving

What is one of the functions of vitamin D? a. Synthesis of prothrombin b. Protects polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFAs) lipid molecules c. Aids in reproduction d. Helps immune function

D. Helps immune function

AMINOACIDS,THEBUILDINGBLOCKSOFPROTEIN,ARECLASSED AS EITHER ESSENTIAL OR NONESSENTIAL. WHICH OF THESE IS AN ESSENTIAL AMINO ACID? A. GLYCINE B. ASPARTIC ACID C. TYROSINE D. LEUCINE

D. LEUCINE

Which of the following statements indicates that the client needs further instruction about GERD? a. "I know a bland diet will help prevent the heartburn I get after eating." b. "Lying down after eating can make GERD symptoms worse." c. "Carbonated beverages can trigger GERD symptoms." d. "Losing excess weight can help prevent symptoms of GERD."

a. "I know a bland diet will help prevent the heartburn I get after eating."

A client asks why lowering saturated fat intake is necessary for lowering serum cholesterol levels. What is the nurse's best response? a. "Replacing saturated fats with unsaturated fats helps lower LDL (the 'bad' cholesterol) and the risk of cardiovascular disease." b. "Sources of saturated fat also provide monounsaturated fat, and both should be limited to control blood cholesterol levels." c. "Saturated fat is high in calories, and excess calories from any source increase the risk of high blood cholesterol levels." d. "Saturated fats make blood more likely to clot, increasing the risk of heart attack."

a. "Replacing saturated fats with unsaturated fats helps lower LDL (the 'bad' cholesterol) and the risk of cardiovascular disease."

The client asks if meal replacements, such as Jenny Craig products, are a good idea to help with weight loss. Which of the following would be the nurse's best response? a. "They are a great way to control portions and can help you adhere to your hypocaloric meal plan when used as suggested." b. "They are gimmicks that fail to teach you how to control your own intake. They are not recommended." c. "Most people gain weight while using them. You should stay away from them." d. "They are not nutritionally balanced so you actually have to overeat in order to meet your nutritional requirements if you use them."

a. "They are a great way to control portions and can help you adhere to your hypocaloric meal plan when used as suggested."

What is the commonly recommended initial flow rate for gastric feedings? a. 10-40 mL/hour b. 40-80 mL/hour c. 80-120 mL/hour d. 120-150 mL/hour

a. 10-40 mL/hour

Which of the following is not part of the four DGA? a. Attain and maintain a healthy body weight throughout life. b. Focus on meeting food group needs with nutrient-dense foods and beverages and stay within calorie limits. c. Customize and enjoy nutrient-dense foods and beverage choices. d. Follow a healthy dietary pattern at every life stage.

a. Attain and maintain a healthy body weight throughout life.

Which of the following statements is true? a. Medications may be the primary cause of diarrhea in tube-fed clients. b. Diarrhea is most commonly caused by infusing EN at too high a rate. c. Diarrhea indicates the tube feeding should be held. d. Diluting the formula and gradually increasing the concentration helps avoid diarrhea.

a. Medications may be the primary cause of diarrhea in tube-fed clients.

A client who is in a positive nitrogen balance is most likely to be a. Pregnant. b. Starving. c. A healthy adult. d. Losing weight.

a. Pregnant.

Which of the following is the best source of polyunsaturated fats? a. Soybean oil b. Corn oil c. Vegetable oil d. Olive oil

a. Soybean oil

Which of the following food items is not nutrient dense? a. Sweetened applesauce b. Whole wheat bread c. Plain shredded wheat d. Plain low-fat yogurt with fruit

a. Sweetened applesauce

The nurse knows that instructions for a Mediterranean-style eating pattern have been effective when the client expresses a need to eat more a. fish and nuts b. lean red and deli meats c. dairy products d. sweets that are fat free instead of full fat

a. fish and nuts

What behavioral factors are associated with successful long-term weight maintenance after weight loss? Select all that apply. a. high levels of daily physical activity b. weighing oneself at least weekly c. consuming a low-calorie, low-fat diet d. eating only two meals/day

a. high levels of daily physical activity b. weighing oneself at least weekly c. consuming a low-calorie, low-fat diet

The nurse knows that the client understands their instructions about estimating portion sizes when the client verbalizes that one cup of dry cereal looks like a. one baseball. b. one computer mouse. c. one ping-pong ball. d. one tennis ball.

a. one baseball.

The nurse knows that the client understands their instructions about grain equivalents when the client verbalizes that one grain equivalent is equal to a. one slice of bread. b. two cups of ready-to-eat cereal. c. one cup of cooked pasta. d. one cup of cooked rice.

a. one slice of bread.

Which of the following conditions are likely to require PN? Select all that apply. a. paralytic ileus b. severe short bowel syndrome c. dysphagia d. coma

a. paralytic ileus b. severe short bowel syndrome

Which of the following conditions indicate that IVLEs should be used with caution or avoided? Select all that apply. a. recent myocardial infarction b. hyperglycemia c. severe hyperlipidemia d. allergy to eggs

a. recent myocardial infarction c. severe hyperlipidemia d. allergy to eggs

Nurses are in an ideal position to a. screen clients for risk of malnutrition. b. order therapeutic diets. c. conduct nutrition assessments. d. calculate a client's calorie and protein needs.

a. screen clients for risk of malnutrition.

Recommended Dietary Allowances Represent a. the average amount of a nutrient considered adequate to meet the needs of almost all healthy people. b. the minimum amount of a nutrient necessary to avoid deficiency disease. c. the optimal amount of a nutrient to prevent chronic disease. d. the highest amount of a nutrient that appears safe for most healthy people.

a. the average amount of a nutrient considered adequate to meet the needs of almost all healthy people.

Which of the following are characteristics of an "ideal" healthy eating pattern for someone consuming 2000 cal/day. Select all that apply. a. ≥4.5 cups of fruits and vegetables/day b. ≥3 servings of whole grains/day c. ≥2 servings of fish/week d. <1500 mg sodium/day

a. ≥4.5 cups of fruits and vegetables/day b. ≥3 servings of whole grains/day c. ≥2 servings of fish/week d. <1500 mg sodium/day

Which major mineral is the most abundant in the human body? a. Manganese b. Selenium c. Calcium d. Sodium

c. calcium

The client asks if the cholesterol in shrimp is the "good" or "bad" type. What is the nurse's best response? a. "All cholesterol is bad cholesterol." b. "Bad and good refer to how cholesterol is packaged for transport through the blood. The cholesterol in food is unpackaged and neither bad nor good." c. "Good cholesterol is found in plants, and bad cholesterol is found in animal sources." d. "Shrimp has good cholesterol because it is low in saturated fat; foods high in cholesterol and saturated fat are a source of bad cholesterol."

b. "Bad and good refer to how cholesterol is packaged for transport through the blood. The cholesterol in food is unpackaged and neither bad nor good."

A healthy, young adult client asks how much water he should drink daily. Which of the following would be the nurse's best response? a. "The old adage is true: Drink eight 8-oz glasses of water daily." b. "Drink to satisfy thirst and you will consume adequate fluid." c. "You can't overconsume water, so drink as much as you can spread out over the course of the day." d. "It is actually not necessary to drink water at all. It is equally healthy to meet your fluid requirement with sugar-free soft drinks."

b. "Drink to satisfy thirst and you will consume adequate fluid."

Which statement indicates the client understands the instruction about a DASH-style diet? a. "The most important thing about a DASH diet is to eat less cholesterol. No egg yolks for me." b. "I need to eat more fruits, vegetables, and low-fat dairy products." c. "As long as I don't add salt to my food while cooking or at the table, I will be able to achieve a low-sodium diet." d. "I need to use olive oil liberally in food preparation and eat nuts every day."

b. "I need to eat more fruits, vegetables, and low-fat dairy products."

Which statement indicates the client following a low FODMAP understands instruction about the diet? a. "A low-FODMAP diet is the same thing as a gluten-free diet." b. "I understand that I can eventually try adding sources of FODMAPs into my diet to test for tolerance." c. "The low-FODMAP diet effectively controls symptoms of IBS in all people who adhere to the diet." d. "FODMAPs are only found in certain fruits and vegetables so as long as I am careful in choosing those, I can eat items from all other food groups without concern."

b. "I understand that I can eventually try adding sources of FODMAPs into my diet to test for tolerance."

A client with dumping syndrome asks why it is so important to avoid sugars and sweets. Which of the following is the nurse's best response? a. "Sugars and sweets provide empty calories, so they should be limited in everyone's diet." b. "Sugars draw water into the intestines and cause cramping and diarrhea." c. "Sugar should be avoided because it promotes inflammation and delays healing." d. "Avoiding sugars and sweets helps ensure that they will not displace the intake of protein, which you need for healing."

b. "Sugars draw water into the intestines and cause cramping and diarrhea."

The client asks if taking supplements of beta carotene will help reduce risk of cancer. What is the nurse's best response? a. "Supplements of beta carotene may help reduce the risk of heart disease but not of cancer." b. "Supplements of beta carotene have not been shown to lower the risk of cancer and may even promote cancer in certain people." c. "Although evidence is preliminary, taking beta-carotene supplements is safe and may prove to be effective against cancer in the future." d. "Natural supplements of beta carotene are generally harmless; synthetic supplements of beta carotene may increase cancer risk and should be avoided."

b. "Supplements of beta carotene have not been shown to lower the risk of cancer and may even promote cancer in certain people."

Which statement indicates the client understands vegetarian diets? a. "Vegetarian diets are not adequate during pregnancy and lactation." b. "Vegetarians may need to take a vitamin B12 supplement and other nutrients, depending on their actual food selection." c. "Vegetarian diets are always healthier than nonvegetarian diets." d. "Vegetarians usually do not consume enough protein."

b. "Vegetarians may need to take a vitamin B12 supplement and other nutrients, depending on their actual food selection."

Your client has a question about the ONS they receive twice a day. What is the best response? a. "Ask your doctor when they make their rounds." b. "What is your question? If I can't answer it, then I will get the dietitian to talk with you." c. "You need to drink it to get better. You can discontinue it after discharge but you need it now." d. "If I see the dietitian around, then I will tell them to stop by to see you."

b. "What is your question? If I can't answer it, then I will get the dietitian to talk with you."

Which of the following recommendations would be most effective at increasing potassium intake? a. Choose enriched grains in place of whole grains. b. Consume more fruits, vegetables, and dairy. c. Eat more red meat in place of poultry. d. Because there are few good dietary sources of potassium, it is best obtained by taking potassium supplements.

b. Consume more fruits, vegetables, and dairy.

In lactose intolerance, undigested lactose increases the __________ of the intestinal contents. a. Secretions b. Osmolality c. Acidity d. Liquidity

b. Osmolality

The nurse knows that instructions have been effective when the client verbalizes that an ingredient that provides synthetic trans fats is a. Fully hydrogenated oil b. Partially hydrogenated oil c. Palm oil d. Palm kernel oil

b. Partially hydrogenated oil

Which of the following statements is accurate regarding the physical signs and symptoms of malnutrition? a. Physical signs of malnutrition appear before changes in weight or laboratory values occur. b. Physical signs of malnutrition are suggestive, not definitive, for malnutrition. c. Physical signs have a clear threshold that identifies what is considered abnormal. d. All races and sexes exhibit the same intensity of physical changes in response to malnutrition.

b. Physical signs of malnutrition are suggestive, not definitive, for malnutrition.

What is the priority when instituting nutrition therapy for a client diagnosed with AN? a. Teach the client about nutrient and calorie requirements. b. Restore weight. c. Motivate the client by offering rewards linked to weight gain. d. Halt purging behaviors.

b. Restore weight.

The nurse knows her instructions about label reading have been effective when the client verbalizes that to determine the amount of carbohydrate in a serving you must a. use only the grams of added sugars b. use only the grams of total carbohydrate c. add the grams of total carbohydrate and grams of added sugars together d. add the grams of total carbohydrate, grams of added sugars, and grams of dietary fiber together

b. use only the grams of total carbohydrate

When developing a teaching plan for a client who has chronic diarrhea, which of the following items would the nurse suggest the client avoid? a. tomato juice b. whole wheat pasta c. saltine crackers d. soy milk

b. whole wheat pasta

When should nutrition support be initiated in a hemodynamically stable, fluid resuscitated, critically ill client? a. within 24 hours b. within 24 to 48 hours c. within 3 to 7 days d. within the first week

b. within 24 to 48 hours

The nurse knows their explanation of glycemic index was effective when the client says? a. "Choosing foods that have a low GI is an effective way to eat healthier." b. "Low-GI foods promote weight loss because they do not stimulate the release of insulin." c. "GI could help me choose the best foods to eat before, during, and after training." d."GI is a term used to describe the amount of refined sugar in a food."

c. "GI could help me choose the best foods to eat before, during, and after training."

What should you tell the client about taking mineral supplements? a. "Most Americans are deficient in minerals, so it is wise to take a multimineral supplement." b. "Like water-soluble vitamins, if you consume more minerals than your body needs, you will excrete them in the urine, so do not worry about taking in too much." c. "If you do not have a mineral deficiency, supplements are not necessary and can lead to a potentially excessive intake that can cause adverse health effects." d. "Mineral deficiencies do not exist in the United States, so you do not need to waste your money on them."

c. "If you do not have a mineral deficiency, supplements are not necessary and can lead to a potentially excessive intake that can cause adverse health effects."

Which statement indicates the client understands nutrition recommendations regarding carbohydrate intake? a. "People with diabetes should not eat sugars and foods that contain sugars." b. "It is important to consume the proper balance of starch, sugar, and fiber at each meal." c. "It is important to consume the correct amount of carbohydrate at each meal and snack." d. "People with diabetes should avoid starchy foods."

c. "It is important to consume the correct amount of carbohydrate at each meal and snack."

A client asks why eating less sodium is important for healthy people. Which of the following is the nurse's best response? a. "Low-sodium diets tend to be low in fat and therefore may reduce the risk of heart disease." b. "Low-sodium diets are only effective at preventing high blood pressure, not lowering existing high blood pressure, so the time to implement a low-sodium diet is when you are healthy." c. "Lowering sodium intake lowers blood pressure in healthy people and may also decrease the risk of atherosclerotic heart disease." d. "Low-sodium diets are inherently low in calories and help people lose weight, which can help prevent a variety of chronic diseases."

c. "Lowering sodium intake lowers blood pressure in healthy people and may also decrease the risk of atherosclerotic heart disease."

Which statement about supplements is accurate? a. All supplements must be tested for safety and effectiveness before they can be marketed. b. Supplement dosages are standardized. c. Proper handling of supplement ingredients is required by law. d. Warnings about potential side effects or interactions must be stated on the packaging.

c. "Proper handling of supplement ingredients is required by law."

A client states that there is no way they can eat all the vegetables recommended in their MyPlate plan. What is the nurse's best response? a. "If you can't eat all the vegetables, then make up for the difference by eating more fruit." b. "Be sure to take a daily multivitamin to provide the nutrients that may be missing from your diet." c. "Set a goal of eating larger quantities of the vegetable servings that you currently eat, and gradually increase the servings and variety as you become more skillful in adding vegetables to your diet." d. "No one can. The recommendations are only a guide. Just eat what you can."

c. "Set a goal of eating larger quantities of the vegetable servings that you currently eat, and gradually increase the servings and variety as you become more skillful in adding vegetables to your diet."

What is the primary intervention in the initial postburn period? a. PN b. supplements of trace elements c. fluid and electrolytes d. a low-carbohydrate diet to decrease CO2 production

c. fluid and electrolytes

The client asks what makes the DASH diet different from a Healthy U.S.-Style Eating Pattern. What is the best response? a. "They are basically the same except that the DASH diet is lower in calories." b. "The DASH diet is low in dairy products and grains." c. "The DASH diet recommends significantly less oils." d. "The DASH diet is lower in protein foods."

c. "The DASH diet recommends significantly less oils."

Using a simple formula based on calories per kilogram of body weight, how many calories per day would a healthy-weight adult who weighs 70 kg need? a. 2350 to 2800 calories b. 2100 to 2350 calories c. 1750 to 2100 calories d. 1400 to 1750 calories

c. 1750 to 2100 calories

The client understands that lifestyle therapy is the cornerstone of primary and secondary prevention of MetS. What does the client need to know about nutrition therapy for MetS? a. Because the primary goal is to lose weight, it doesn't matter what kind of hypocaloric diet is chosen. b. The DASH diet has been shown to be most effective at improving MetS risk factors. c. A Mediterranean-style eating pattern has been shown to be most effective at improving MetS risk factors. d. Low-fat diets are the best for MetS because it is beneficial to eat less of all types of fat in the diet.

c. A Mediterranean-style eating pattern has been shown to be most effective at improving MetS risk factors.

Which type of enteral formula would be most appropriate for a client experiencing malabsorption related to inflammatory bowel disease? a. a standard intact formula b. a fiber-enriched intact formula c. a hydrolyzed formula for malabsorption d. a client with malabsorption cannot receive EN

c. A hydrolyzed formula for malabsorption

What is the priority for preventing diabetes in people who are at high risk? a. Eat a low-carbohydrate diet. b. Consume a consistent amount of carbohydrate at every meal. c. Achieve moderate weight loss through increased activity and lowered calorie intake. d. Eat a low-sugar diet.

c. Achieve moderate weight loss through increased activity and lowered calorie intake.

Which of the following statements is true regarding albumin? a. Albumin is a reliable and sensitive indicator of protein status and can help diagnose malnutrition. b. Albumin levels rise in response to inflammation. c. Albumin and other visceral proteins are good indicators of disease severity and outcome but not malnutrition. d. An increase in albumin level means nutrition therapy is effectively treating malnutrition.

c. Albumin and other visceral proteins are good indicators of disease severity and outcome but not malnutrition.

Which population is at risk for combined deficiencies of thiamin, riboflavin, and niacin? a. Pregnant women b. Vegetarians c. Alcoholics d. Athletes

c. Alcoholics

Which of the following snacks would be best for a client who wants to eat but is experiencing nausea? a. cheese b. peanuts c. banana d. a milkshake

c. Banana

For most Americans, the largest percentage of their total calories expended daily is from a. Physical activity. b. thermal effect of food. c. basal energy expenditure. d. sitting.

c. Basal energy expenditure

ONE OF THE TREATMENTS FOR OBESITY IS BEHAVIOR MODIFICATION. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS AN ASPECT OF BEHAVIOR MODIFICATION? A. STIMULUS RECOGNITION B. PROFESSIONAL MONITORING C. COGNITIVE RESTRUCTURING D. PROBLEM IDENTIFICATION

c. Cognitive restructuring

Which statement is accurate regarding characteristics of a healthy eating pattern? a. The only healthy eating pattern is a vegetarian one. b. Healthy eating patterns eliminate foods that are high in saturated fat, added sugar, and sodium (fried foods, desserts, snack chips, etc.). c. Healthy eating patterns may reduce the risk of several chronic diseases: cardiovascular disease, type 2 diabetes, and certain cancers. d. Most young and middle-aged adults consume a healthy eating pattern.

c. Healthy eating patterns may reduce the risk of several chronic diseases: cardiovascular disease, type 2 diabetes, and certain cancers.

Why may underfeeding critically ill clients be beneficial? a. It provides less work for the GI tract to do. b. All methods of measuring a person's energy expenditure overestimate calorie requirements, so a lower calorie load is prudent. c. It may modulate the inflammatory response. d. It provides less strain on the respiratory system.

c. It may modulate the inflammatory response.

Which traditional diet is generally a low-fat, high-fiber diet rich in complex carbohydrates and vegetable proteins? a. American b. African American c. Mexican d. Asian

c. Mexican

Which tube is appropriate for a short-term enteral feeding? a. gastrostomy b. PEG c. NG d. jejunostomy

c. NG

What is the priority when instituting nutrition therapy to a client diagnosed with BN? a. Teach the client about nutrient and calorie requirements. b. Halt weight loss. c. Reduce bingeing and purging. d. Provide sufficient calories for weight gain.

c. Reduce bingeing and purging.

Insensible water losses are those that cannot be measured. Insensible water losses occur through what? a. Urine b. Feces c. Respirations d. Diaphoresis

c. Respirations

Which of the following is the top source of saturated fat intake among Americans? a. Desserts and sweet snacks b. Pizza c. Sandwiches d. Chips, crackers, and savory snacks

c. Sandwiches

The nurse knows their instructions about choosing whole grains in place of refined grains are understood by the client when they verbalize that they will substitute a. Rice Krispies for puffed rice b. Bulgur for barley c. Shredded wheat cereal for puffed wheat cereal d. Quick oats for old-fashioned oats

c. Shredded wheat cereal for puffed wheat cereal

A client is diagnosed with pernicious anemia. What vitamin are they not absorbing? a. Folic acid b. Vitamin B6 c. Vitamin B12 d. Niacin

c. Vitamin B12

Which vitamin is given in large doses to facilitate wound and bone healing? a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin D c. Vitamin C d. Niacin

c. Vitamin C

The DGA recommend that Americans do all of the following except a. limit saturated fat intake to less than 10% of total calories starting at age 2. b. limit sodium to less than 2300 mg/day for people 14 and older. c. limit total fat intake to less than 30% of calories beginning at age 2. d. limit added sugars to less than 10% of total calories beginning at age 2.

c. limit total fat intake to less than 30% of calories beginning at age 2.

What is the component in allergens that is responsible for triggering an allergic attack in susceptible people? a. sugar b. starch c. protein d. fat

c. protein

The nurse knows her instructions about label reading have been effective when the client verbalizes that fat-free on the label means a. the product is free of any ingredients that contain any fat. b. the product does not contain any fat or saturated fat. c. there is <0.5 g of fat in a serving. d. there is <1 g of fat in a serving.

c. there is <0.5 g of fat in a serving.

3"Moderate" alcohol consumption is a. three to 4 drinks per week for women and 6 to 8 drinks per week for men. b. up to 1 drink per day for both men and women. c. up to 1 drink per day for women and up to 2 drinks per day for men. d. up to 2 drinks per day for women and up to 3 drinks per day for men.

c. up to 1 drink per day for women and up to 2 drinks per day for men.

Which of the following strategies will increase calorie density? a. using butter instead of margarine on toast b. adding brown sugar to cereal instead of white sugar c. using gravy over meat d. substituting whole wheat bread for white bread

c. using gravy over meat

Which of the following strategies will increase protein density? a. using whipped cream to replace milk in coffee b. spreading cream cheese on hot bread c. using plain yogurt to replace sour cream d. using mayonnaise to replace salad dressing

c. using plain yogurt to replace sour cream

A client asks why sugar should be limited in the diet. What is the best response? a. "A high-sugar intake causes dental caries if you don't brush your teeth shortly after eating." b. "Sugar provides more calories per gram than starch, protein, or fat." c. "There is a direct correlation between sugar intake and increased hunger." d. "Foods high in sugar generally provide few nutrients other than calories and may make it hard to consume a diet that has enough of all the essential nutrients."

d. "Foods high in sugar generally provide few nutrients other than calories and may make it hard to consume a diet that has enough of all the essential nutrients."

Which statement indicates that the client understands the instructions given about using a vitamin supplement? a. "USP on the label guarantees safety and effectiveness." b. "Natural vitamins are always better for you than synthetic vitamins." c. "Vitamins are best absorbed on an empty stomach." d. "Taking a multivitamin cannot fully make up for poor food choices."

d. "Taking a multivitamin cannot fully make up for poor food choices."

A client asks how to alter a diet to lower high cholesterol levels. Which of the following is the nurse's best response? a. "Alcohol lowers serum cholesterol, but limit consumption to a moderate intake." b. "Eliminate egg yolks and butter." c. "Eat less processed foods." d. "The issue of reducing cholesterol intake to lower serum cholesterol is murky. Eat a DASH diet or Mediterranean-style eating pattern to lower your risk of ASCVD."

d. "The issue of reducing cholesterol intake to lower serum cholesterol is murky. Eat a DASH diet or Mediterranean-style eating pattern to lower your risk of ASCVD."

A client says he never adds salt to any foods that his wife serves, so he believes he is consuming a low-sodium diet. Which of the following is the nurse's best response? a. "If you don't add salt to any of your foods, you are probably eating a low-sodium diet. Continue with that strategy." b. "Even though you aren't adding salt to food at the table, your wife is probably salting food as she cooks. She should stop doing that." c. "Lots of foods are naturally high in sodium, such as milk and meat; in addition to not using a salt shaker, you must also limit foods that are naturally high in sodium." d. "The major sources of sodium are processed and convenience foods. Limiting their intake makes the biggest impact on overall sodium intake."

d. "The major sources of sodium are processed and convenience foods. Limiting their intake makes the biggest impact on overall sodium intake."

Which statement indicates the client understands how to choose low-fat foods from MyPlate? a. "All items within a food group have approximately the same amount of fat so my fat intake isn't affected by the specific foods I choose from any group." b. "You don't have to consciously select low-fat items because the calories for other uses will account for higher-fat choices." c. "All fats are bad fats. It is best to eliminate as much fat from your diet as possible." d. "Within each food group, the foods lowest in fat should be chosen most often."

d. "Within each food group, the foods lowest in fat should be chosen most often."

Which of the following statements about CBD is accurate? a. The FDA defines CBD as a dietary supplement. b. CBD is the most active ingredient in marijuana. c. CBD may be addictive over time. d. CBD is the active ingredient in a drug approved by the FDA.

d. CBD is the active ingredient in a drug approved by the FDA.

The nurse knows that instructions have been effective when the client verbalizes that a source of complete, high-quality protein is found in a. Peanut butter b. Black-eyed peas c. Corn d. Cottage cheese

d. Cottage cheese

Why is EN preferred over PN for a client with burns with a functional GI tract? a. EN can provide higher amounts of calories and protein. b. EN is less likely to interfere with oral intake. c. EN is less expensive. d. EN has a lower risk of infectious complications.

d. EN has a lower risk of infectious complications.

What is the characteristic of level 2 mildly thick liquid? a. It is thicker than water but can flow through a standard straw. b. It drips slowly in dollops through the prongs of a fork. c. It holds its shape on a spoon. d. It is "sippable" from a cup but takes effort to drink through a standard straw.

d. It is "sippable" from a cup but takes effort to drink through a standard straw.

A pureed diet is the most appropriate diet in which of the following situations? a. It is appropriate as an initial oral diet after surgery to establish tolerance. b. It is appropriate as a transition between a full liquid diet and a regular diet. c. It is appropriate for clients who need a low-fiber diet. d. It is appropriate for clients who have had their jaw wired.

d. It is appropriate for clients who have had their jaw wired.

When developing a teaching plan for a client who is taking insulin, which of the following foods would the nurse suggest the client carry with him to treat mild hypoglycemia? a. Crackers b. Peanuts c. Chocolate drops d. Life Savers

d. Life Savers

Who is at risk for celiac disease? a. People with a second-degree relative who has celiac disease b. People who have lactose intolerance c. People who have congenital diseases d. People who have an autoimmune disease

d. People who have an autoimmune disease

Who is at risk for celiac disease? a. People with a second-degree relative who has disease b. People who have lactose intolerance c. People who have congenital diseases d. People who have an autoimmune disease

d. People who have an autoimmune disease