OB Multiple Choice
d. Osteogenesis Imperfecta
A bell-shaped chest and multiple fetal fractures are indicative of: a. Thanatophoric Dysplasia b. caudal regression syndrome c. Achondrogenesis d. Osteogenesis Imperfecta
a. choriocarcinoma
A malignant form of GTD is: a. choriocarcinoma b. hydatidiform mole c. anembryonic d. hydropic villi
b. pulmonary sequestration
A separate mass of nonfunctioning fetal lung tissue is referred to as: a. pulmonary adenomatoid malformation b. pulmonary sequestration c. CCAM d. bat-wing sign
b. decreased MSAFP
All of the following are clinical or sonographic findings consistent with LBWC except: a. ventral wall defects b. decreased MSAFP c. marked scoliosis d. shortened umbilical cord
d. left ventricle
An EIF is most often seen within the: a. right atrium b. left atrium c. right ventricle d. left ventricle
b. caudal regression syndrome
The condition associated with the absence of the sacrum and coccyx: a. LBWC b. caudal regression syndrome c. thanatophoric dwarfism d. heterozygous achondroplasia
c. colpocephaly
The condition in which the frontal horns are small and the occipital horns are enlarged is referred to as: a. ethmocephaly b. hydrocephalus c. colpocephaly d. encephalitis
a. fetal goiter
The isolated enlargement of the fetal thyroid is referred to as: a. fetal goiter b. cystic hygroma c. lymphangioma d. cervical teratoma
c. anterior cephalocele
The most common cause of hypertelorism is: a. Dandy-Walker Malformation b. anencephaly c. anterior cephalocele d. holoprosencephaly
c. between 15 weeks and 21 weeks
The nuchal fold measurement is typically obtained: a. before 12 weeks 6 days b. between 11 weeks and 13 weeks 6 days c. between 15 weeks and 21 weeks d. after 24 weeks
b. anembryonic pregnancy
Which of the following would not typically produce an elevation in hCG? a. Down Syndrome b. anembryonic pregnancy c. triploidy d. molar pregnancy
d. Thanatophoric Dysplasia
A cloverleaf skull and hydrocephalus is seen with: a. Achondrogenesis b. Osteogenesis Imperfecta c. Sirenomelia d. Thanatophoric Dysplasia
b. left atrium
The blood returning from the lungs through the pulmonary veins enters into the: a. right atrium b. left atrium c. right ventricle d. left ventricle
a. cavum septum pellucidum
At what level is he nuchal fold measurement obtained? a. cavum septum pellucidum b. occipital horns of the lateral ventricle c. brain stem d. foramen magna
b. 8 weeks
The fetal lip typically closes by: a. 18 weeks b. 8 weeks c. 13 weeks d. 6 weeks
c. Down Syndrome
There is a definite link between microtia and what syndrome? a. Rays Syndrome b. VACTERL c. Down Syndrome d. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome
a. pulmonary atresia
What is described as the absence of the pulmonary valve, which in turn prohibits blood flow from the right ventricle into the pulmonary artery and essentially into the lungs? a. pulmonary atresia b. pulmonary stenosis c. pulmonary sequestration d. pulmonary effusion
b. foramen of Morgagni
What is the opening located right anteromedially within the diaphragm? a. foramen of Bochdalek b. foramen of Morgagni c. foramen of Monro d. foramen ovale
c. yolk sac
What structure lies within the extraembryonic coelom (aka chorionic cavity)? a. gestational sac b. embryo c. yolk sac d. amnion
a. intracranial calcifications
Which of the following would be the most likely fetal cranial findings with TORCH infections? a. intracranial calcifications b. cerebral atrophy c. porencephaly d. scaphocephaly
c. radial ray defect
Absence of the radius is referred to as: a. talipes equinovarus b. clubfoot c. radial ray defect d. phocomelia
d. absent mineralization of the skull
Achondroplasia is associated with all of the following except: a. frontal bossing b. flattened nasal bridge c. trident hand d. absent mineralization of the skull
b. elevated MSAFP
All of the following are characteristics of spina bifida occulta except: a. closed defect b. elevated MSAFP c. sacral dimple d. hemangioma
c. decidual reaction
The first sonographically identifiable sign of pregnancy is the: a. amnion b. yolk sac c. decidual reaction d. chorionic cavity
yolk sac
What is the first structure noted witin the gestational sac?
a. complete molar pregnancy
What is the most common form of GTD? a. complete molar pregnancy b. partial molar pregnancy c. invasive mole d. choriocarcinoma
b. cystic hygroma
A large, mostly cystic mass containing a thick, midline septation is noted in the cervical spine region of a fetus. This most likely represents a(n): a. sacrococcygeal teratoma b. cystic hygroma c. cephalocele d. anopthalmia
c. phocomelia
Absent long bones with the hands and feet arising from the shoulders and hips describes: a. micromelia b. mesomelia c. phocomelia d. arthrogryposis
d. normal MSAFP
All of the following are characteristics of spina bifida cystica except: a. banana sign b. lemon sign c. enlarged massa intermedia d. normal MSAFP
d. adnexal ring
All of the following are clinical features of an ectopic pregnancy except: a. pain b. vaginal bleeding c. shoulder pain d. adnexal ring
d. small for dates
All of the following are clinical findings consistent with a complete molar pregnancy except: a. vaginal bleeding b. hypertension c. uterine enlargement d. small for dates
d. low hCG
All of the following are consistent with a complete hydatidiform mole except: a. heterogeneous mass within the endometrium b. bilateral theca lutein cysts c. hyperemesis gravidarum d. low hCG
c. dorsal cyst
All of the following are sonographic features of alboar holoprosencephaly except: a. cyclopia b. monoventricle c. dorsal cyst d. fused thalamus
d. strawberry sign
All of the following are sonographic findings of Arnold-Chiari II Malformation except: a. enlarged massa intermedia b. hydrocephalus c. obliteration of the cisterna magna d. strawberry sign
c. narrowing of the aortic arch
All of the following are sonographic signs of Ebstein Anomaly except: a. enlarged right atrium b. fetal hydrops c. narrowing of the aortic arch d. malpositioned tricuspid valve
d. low beta-hCG
All of the following may be sonographic findings in the presence of an ectopic pregnancy except: a. pseudogestational sac b. corpus luteum cyst c. adnexal ring d. low beta-hCG
d. falx cerebelli
All of the following may be visualized at the correct level of the head circumference except: a. third ventricle b. thalamus c. CSP d. falx cerebelli
d. aqueductal stenosis
The most common cause of hydrocephalus in utero is: a. cerebral hemorrhage b. holoprosencephaly c. brain tumors d. aqueductal stenosis
d. DWM
What cerebral malformation is as a result of agenesis or hypoplasia of the cerebellar vermis? a. Arnold-Chiari II Malformation b. schizencephaly c. mega cisterna magna d. DWM
c. Sirenomelia
What condition is associated with bilateral renal agenesis, oligohydramnios, and fusion of the lower extremities? a. SCT b. caudal displacement syndrome c. Sirenomelia d. Osteogenesis Imperfecta
d. metopic suture
What fetal suture is located within the frontal bone along the midline of the forehead? a. squamosal suture b. sagittal suture c. lambdoidal suture d. metopic suture
d hemivertebra
What is the anomaly of the spine in which there is absence of all or part of a vertebral body and posterior element? a. kyphosis b. scoliosis c. kyphoscoliosis d. hemivertebra
c. when the long axis of the femoral shaft is perpendicular to the sound beam
Which of the following best describes the optimal instance to take the femur length measurement? a. when the epiphyseal plates are clearly identified and the shaft is parallel to the sound beam b. when the diaphysis of the femur is parallel to the sound beam c. when the long axis of the femoral shaft is perpendicular to the sound beam d. when the femoral shaft is parallel to the sound beam
a. the metatarsals and toes lie in the same plane as the tibia and fibula
Which of the following is true for the diagnosis of clubfoot? a. the metatarsals and toes lie in the same plane as the tibia and fibula b. the metatarsals are perpendicular to the tibia and fibula c. the carpals and metacarpals lie in the same plane as the tibia and fibula d. the tibia, fibula, and patella are perpendicular to the femur
c. live births
The "L" in the TPAL designation refers to: a. living children b. lethal anomalies c. live births d. lost pregnancies
d. PAPP-A
The Quadruple Screen includes an analysis of all of the following except: a. hCG b. AFP c. Inhibin A d. PAPP-A
d. one-third
The normal heart will fill approximately _____ of the fetal chest. a. one half b. one-fourth c. one-fifth d. one-third
d. arthrogryposis
What abnormality results in limitation of the fetal limbs as a result of joint contractures? a. acromegaly b. radial ray defect c. Achondrogenesis d. arthrogryposis
b. spina bifida
A myelomeningocele is associated with: a. Down Syndrome b. spina bifida c. Edward's Syndrome d. Patau Syndrome
a. AFP
All of the following are produced by the placenta except: a. AFP b. hCG c. PAPP-A d. inhibin A
c. multiple dislocated joints
All of the following are characteristic sonographic findings of Achondrogenesis except: a. micromelia b. absent mineralization of the pelvis c. multiple dislocated joints d. polyhydramios
a. double every 48 hours
In the first trimester, normal hCG levels will: a. double every 48 hours b. triple every 24 hours c. double every 24 hours d. double every 12 hours
b. agenesis of the corpus callosum
The "sunburst" of the cerebral sulci is a sonographic finding of: a. DWM b. agenesis of the corpus callosum c. colpocephaly d. hydranencephaly
a. ethmocephay
The condition in which there is no nose and a proboscis separating two close-set orbits is: a. ethmocephaly b. epignathus c. micrognathia d. cebocephalys
b. Achondroplasia
The most common nonlethal skeletal dysplasia is: a. Achondrogenesis b. Achondroplasia c. Thanatophoric Dysplasia d. Osteogenesis Imperfecta
c. between the two lobes of the thalamus
The third ventricle is located: a. anterior to the thalamus b. anterior to the cerebellar vermis c. between the two lobes of the thalamus d. superior to the corpus callosum
a. hCG, AFP, and estriol
The triple screen typically includes an analysis of: a. hCG, AFP, and estriol b. Fetal NT, AFP, and inhibin A c. hCG, AFP, and inhibin A d. hCG, AFP, and PAPP-A
b. frank breech
What is the fetal presentation when the fetal buttocks are closest to the cervix? a. footling breech b. frank breech c. complete breech d. transverse
b. the normal pulmonary artery should be positioned anterior to the aorta and should be visualized crossing over it
Which statement is true concerning fetal outflow tracts? a. the normal pulmonary artery should be positioned posterior to the aorta and should be visualized passing under it b. the normal pulmonary artery should be positioned anterior to the aorta and should be visualized crossing over it c. the right ventricular outflow tract leads to the aorta d. the left ventricular outflow tract leads to the pulmonary artery
a. third ventrile
The interthalamic adhesion (massa intermedia) passes through the: a. third ventricle b. fourth ventricle c. cisterna magna d. CSP
d. hCG
What hormone maintains the corpus luteum during pregnancy? a. estrogen b. progesterone c. follicle-stimulating hormone d. hCG
b. progesterone
What hormone, produced by the corpus luteum, maintains the thickened endometrium? a. estrogen b. progesterone c. hCG d. LH
b. CSP
Which of the following will also typically be absent with agenesis of the corpus callosum? a. cerebellar vermis b. CSP c. third ventricle d. fourth ventricle
c. isolated cleft palate
Which of the following would be most difficult to detect sonographically? a. cleft lip and palate b. isolated cleft lip c. isolated cleft palate d. isolated median cleft
b. tuberous sclerosis
Which of the following are fetal rhabdomyomas associated with? a. tracheoesophageal fistulas b. tuberous sclerosis c. eventration of the diaphragm d. tuberculosis
b. branchial cleft cyst
Which of the following is a benign congenital neck cyst found most often near the angle of the mandible? a. epignathus b. branchial cleft cyst c. thyroglossal duct cyst d. fetal goiter
a. CSP
The anechoic midline brain structure located between the frontal horns of the lateral ventricles is the: a. CSP b. cavum vergae c. corpus callosum d. fourth ventricle
c. anterior to the cerebellar vermis
The fourth ventricle is located: a. posterior to the CSP b. between the frontal horns of the lateral ventricles c. anterior to the cerebellar vermis d. medial to the third ventricle
d. Apert Syndrome
Which of the following is a genetic disorder that includes craniosynostosis, midline facial hypoplasia, and syndactyly? a. lobar holoprosencephaly b. Beckwith0Wiedemann Syndrome c. Arnold-Chiari II Malformation d. Apert Syndrome
d. lungs
Which of the following is the most likely metastatic location for GTD? a. rectum b. pancreas c. spleen d. lungs
d. all would be decreased
Which of the following would not be decreased in the presence of Edward's Syndrome? a. estriol b. hCG c. AFP d. all would be decreased
a. Trisomy 21
A 22-week fetus with clinodactyly, an echogenic intracardiac focus, and hyperechoic bowel is noted during a screening obstetrical songoram. These findings are most consistent with: a. Trisomy 21 b. Trisomy 13 c. Monosomy X d. Trisomy 18
d. Down Syndrome
A 38-year-old pregnant woman presents to the sonography department for an obstetrical sonogram with abnormal maternal serum screening. Her AFP and estriol are low, whereas her hCG is elevated. These laboratory findings are most consistent with: a. Edward's Syndrome b. Patau Syndrome c. Triploidy d. Down Syndrome
b. Achondroplasia
A disorder that results in abnormal bone growth and dwarfism is: a. Osteogenesis Imperfecta b. Achondroplasia c. radial ray defect d. caudal regression syndrome
c. malformation
A structural abnormality that results from an abnormal development describes: a. syndrome b. chromosomal deviation c. malformation d. congenital misreprentation
b. Trisomy 16
All of the following are associated with an abnormal NY except: a. Trisomy 21 b. Trisomy 16 c. Trisomy 18 d. Turner Syndrome
d. allantoic cyst
An anechoic mass is noted within the umbilical cord during a routine sonographic examination. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. hemangioma b. casa previa c. chorioangioma d. allantoic cyst
d. ureter and renal collecting system
An obstruction at the ureterovesicular junction would lead to dilation of the: a. bladder and urethra b. bladder, urethra, and ureters c. bladder, urethra, ureters, and renal collecting system d. ureter and renal collection system
b. pelvis
Before 9 weeks, the fetal kidneys are located within the: a. renal fossae b. pelvis c. chest d. umbilical cord
c. encephalocele
Cloacal exstrophy is associated with all of the following except: a. omphalocele b. spina bifida c. encephalocele d. imperforate anus
c. duodenal atresia
Congenital maldevelopment of the proximal portion of the small intestines is termed: a. VACTERL association b. esophageal atresia c. duodenal atresia d. jejunal atresia
c. can evaluate the fetus for hypoxia
Doppler assessment of the MCA: a. helps to determine whether fetal anorexia is occurring b. is valuable in diagnosis the extent of ventriculomegaly c. can evaluate the fetus for hypoxia d. is important to determine whether TORCH complications are present
a. a lack of muscle in the dome of the diaphragm
Eventration of the diaphragm is best described as: a. a lack of muscle in the dome of the diaphragm b. a defect in the anterior lateral wall of the diaphragm c. a defect in the posterolateral wall of the diaphragm d. congenital absence of the diaphragm
b. gastrointestinal system
Evidence of polyhydramnios should warrant a careful investigation of the fetal: a. genitourinary system b. gastrointestinal system c. extremities d. cerebrovascular system
c. 24 hours
Fertilization typically occurs within _____ after ovulation. a. 40 hours b. 12 hours c. 24 hours d. 56 hours
c. intracranial calcifications
Fetal TORCH is frequently associated with: a. maternal hypertension b. TTTS c. intracranial calcifications d. renal cystic disease
d. blood
Fetal meconium typically consists of all of the following except: a. skin b. hair c. bile d. blood
d. porencephaly
Following an intracranial hemorrhage, a cyst is noted within the cerebrum that communicates with the lateral ventricle. This is referred to as: a. schizencephaly b. lissencephaly c. holoprosencephaly d. porencephaly
d. gastroschisis
Hepatomegaly would least likely be associated with: a. Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome b. fetal anemia c. intrauterine infections d. gastroschisis
d. below the 10th percentile
IUGR is evident with the EFW is: a. above the 90th percentile b. below the 90th percentile c. above the 10th percentile d. below the 10th percentile
a. chorionic cavity
In early gestation, where is the secondary yolk sac located? a. chorionic cavity b. base of the umbilical cord c. embryonic cranium d. amniotic cavity
c. allantoic cysts
Increased S/D Ratio is associated with all of the following except: a. IUGR b. placental insufficiency c. allantoic cysts d. perinatal mortality
d. Trisomy 18
Micrognathia is a condition found in: a. Dandy-Walker Complex b. hydranencephaly c. Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome d. Trisomy 18
a. neural tube defects
Mothers with pregestational diabetes, as opposed to gestational diabetes, have an increased risk of a fetus with: a. neural tube defects b. proteinuria c. TORCH d. diethylstilbestrol
d. 11 and 14 weeks
NT measures are typically obtained between: a. 1 and 5 weeks b. 5 and 8 weeks c. 8 and 11 weeks d. 11 and 14 weeks
d. Turner Syndrome
Nonimmune hydrops and ovarian dysgenesis are found in fetuses affected by: a. Trisomy 21 b. Trisomy 18 c. Trisomy 13 d. Turner Syndrome
a. Rh isoimmunization
Nonimmune hydrops is associated with all of the following except: a. Rh isoimmunization b. pleural effusion c. Turner Syndrome d. fetal infections
a. 46 chromosomes
Normal diploid cells have: a. 46 chromosomes b. 23 chromosomes c. 21 chromosomes d. 69 chromosomes
b. decreases with advancing gestation
Normally, the S/D Ratio: a. increases with advancing gestation b. decreases with advancing gestation c. reverses occasionally during a normal pregnancy d has an absent diastolic component
d. cloacal exstrophy
OEIS Complex is also referred to as: a. bladder exstrophy b. omphalocele c. potter sequence d. cloacal exstrophy
c. placenta previa
One of the most common causes of painless vaginal bleeding in the second and third trimesters is: a. spontaneous abortion b. abruptio placentae c. placenta previa d. placenta accrete
d. phocomeningocele
Sonographically, you visualize a mass extending from the distal spine of a fetus. This mass could be all of the following except: a. SCT b. meningocele c. meningomyelocele d. phocomeningocele
a. clubfoot
Talipes Equinovarus is associated with: a. clubfoot b. syndactyly c. rhizomelia d. rockerbottom feet
c. pleural effusion
The sonographic "bat-wing" sign is indicative of: a. pericardial effusion b. pulmonary atresia c. pleural effusion d. endocardial cushion defects
a. Meckel-Gruber Syndrome
The syndrome associated with an occipital cephalocele, cystic renal disease, and polydactyly is: a. Meckel-Gruber Syndrome b. potter syndrome c. VACTERL association d. sirenomelia syndrome
d. this does not occur
Twins having two placentas and one amniotic sac are referred to as: a. monochorionic diamniotic b. monochorionic dichorionic c. dichorionic monoamniotic d. this does not occur
c. microtia
What is the term for a smaller than normal ear? a. microphthalmia b. micronatia c. microtia d. micrognathia
a. posterior urethral valves
Which of the following would cause a bladder outlet obstruction? a. posterior urethral valves b. fetal ovarian cyst c. pelviectasis d. pelvocaliectasis
b. preexisting maternal diabetes
Which of the following would increase the likelihood of a fetus developing Sirenomelia and caudal regression syndrome? a. previous cesarean section b. preexisting maternal diabetes c. previous ectopic pregnancy d. elevated human chorionic gonadotropin
b. previous cesarean section
Which of the following would increase the likelihood of developing placenta previa? a. vaginal bleeding b. previous cesarean section c. corpus albicans d/ chorioangioma
c. mega cisterna magna
A cisterna magna that measures 15 mm and a normal appearing cerebellum is most likely: a. Arnold-Chiari II Malformation b. schizencephaly c. mega cisterna magna d. DWN
c. triploidy
A fetus with a karyotype revealing it has 69 chromosomes and sonographic findings of webbed fingers and IUGR most likely has: a. Trisomy 21 b. Trisomy 18 c. triploidy d. Turner Syndrome
d. Hirschsprung Disease
A functional bowel disorder within the fetus that is caused by the absence of intestinal nerves is found in: a. gastroschisis b. Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome c. Omphalocele d. Hirschsprung disease
c. hypoplastic left heart syndrome
A group of anomalies characterized by a small or an absent left ventricle is: a. Turner Syndrome b. hypoplastic right heart syndrome c. hypoplastic left heart syndome d. coarctation of the aorta
d. triploidy
A molar pregnancy, omphalocele, and small, low-set ears are found most often with: a. Trisomy 21 b. Trisomy 18 c. Trisomy 13 d. Triploidy
c. abnormal links between the placental vessels
Acardiac twinning results form: a. poor maternal nutrition b. dizygotic gestations c. abnormal links between the placental vessels d. twin embolization syndrome
c. placental insufficiency
All of the following are associated with a thick placenta except: a. fetal infections b. Rh isoimmunization c. placental insufficiency d. multiple gestations
c. fetal hydrops
All of the following are associated with a thin placenta except: a. preeclampsia b. IUGR c. fetal hydrops d. long-standing diabetes
d. Turner Syndrome
All of the following are associated with duodenal atresia except: a. Trisomy 21 b. esophageal atresia c. VACTERL association d. Turner Syndrome
d. oligohydramnios
All of the following are associated with esophageal atresia except: a. Down Syndrome b. VACTERL association c. Edward's Syndrome d. oligohydramnios
b. multiple chromosomal abnormalities
All of the following are associated with gastroschisis except: a. normal cord insertion b. multiple chromosomal abnormalities c. elevated MSAFP d. periumbilical mass
d. Hirschsprung Disease
All of the following are associated with omphalocele except: a. Trisomy 18 b. Pentalogy of Cantrell c. IUGR d. Hirschsprung Disease
a. normal cord insertion
All of the following are associated with omphalocele except: a. normal cord insertion b. multiple chromosomal abnormalities c. elevated MSAFP d. periumbilical mass
c. macrosomia
All of the following are sonographic findings of esophageal atresia except: a. absent stomach b. polyhydramnios c. macrosomia d. intrauterine growth restriction
b. unilateral renal agenesis
All of the following would be associated with oligohydramnios except: a. bilateral MCDK disease b. unilateral renal agenesis c. bilateral renal agenesis d. ARPKD
d. meconium aspiration syndrome
An omphalocele is associated with all of the following except: a. Pentalogy of Cantrell b. Trisomy 18 c. Patau Syndrome d. meconium aspiration syndrome
d. all of the above
An omphalocele may contain: a. fetal liver b. ascites c. fetal colon d. all of the above
b. epignathus
An oral teratoma is referred to as: a. macroglossia b. epignathus c. micrognathia d. ethmocephaly
d. gestational sac
Another name for the chorionic sac is the: a. chorionic cavity b. extraembryonic coelom c. amniotic sac d. gestational sac
a. discordant growth
Asymmetry in fetal weight between twins is indicative of: a. discordant growth b. preeclampsia c. dichorionic diamniotic twinning d. intrauterine infections
b. polyhydramnios
Duodenal atresia and esophageal atresia are associated with: a. oligohydramnios b. polyhydramnios c. normal amniotic fluid index d. anhydramnios
d. normal amniotic fluid level
During an 18-week sonogram, multiple cysts of varying sizes are noted within the renal fossa of a male fetus. The other kidney appears to be normal. Which of the following would be an associated finding? a. megacystis b. ovarian dysgenesis c. hypospadias d. normal amniotic fluid level
c. colpocephaly
Enlargement of the frontal horns and narrowing of the occipital horns is termed: a. holoprosencephaly b. DWM c. cisterna magna d. CSP
b. right lateral of the cord insertion
In what location does gastroschisis occur more often? a. left lateral of the cord insertion b. right lateral of the cord insertion c. just superior to the fetal bladder d. base of the umbilical cord
b. a fetus that falls below the 10th percentile for gestational age
Intrauterine growth restriction is defined as: a. a small-for-dates fetus b. a fetus that falls below the 10th percentile for gestational age c. a fetus that is immunocompromised and has decreased umbilical cord Doppler ratios for gestational age d. a fetus that falls below the fith percentile for gestational age
d. placenta percreta
Penetration of the placenta beyond the uterine wall would be referred to as: a. placenta accrete b. placenta increta c. placenta previa d. placenta percreta
a. the abnormal attachment of the placenta to the myometrium
Placenta accrete denotes: a. the abnormal attachment of the placenta to the myometrium b. the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall c. the invasion of the placenta into the myometrium d. the condition of having the fetal vessels rest over the internal os
a. preeclampsia
Pregnancy-induced maternal high blood pressure & excess protein in urine after 20 weeks gestation: a. preeclampsia b. gestational diabetes c. ecampsia d. gestational trophoblastic disease
a. an enlarged bladder
Prune belly syndrome is caused by: a. an enlarged bladder b. unilateral renal agenesis c. bilateral renal agenesis d. hypospadias
c. shortening of the proximal segment of a limb
Rhizomelia denotes: a. long upper extremities b. shortening of an entire limb c. shortening of the proximal segment of a limb d. shortening of the distal segment of a limb
b. brachycephaly
Rounded head shape is referred to as: a. dolichocephaly b. brachycephaly c. cebocephaly d. craniosynostosis
d. acardiac twinning
TRAP Syndrome may also be referred to as: a. TTRS b. vanishing twin syndrome c. twin embolization syndrome d. acardiac twinning
d. left ventricular hypertrophy
Tetralogy of Fallot consists of all of the following except: a. overriding aortic root b. VSD c. pulmonary stenosis d. left ventricular hypertropy
a. imperforate anus
The "I" in OEIS Complex stand for: a. imperforate anus b. ilial dysfunction c. irregular bladder enlargement d. iniencephaly
c. autosomal dominant polycystic renal disease
The "keyhole" sign would be seen in all of the following situations except: a. urethral atresia b. prune belly syndrome c. autosomal dominant polycystic renal disease d. posterior urethral valves
b. parasitic twin
The abnormal twin in acardiac twinning is also referred to as the: a. pump twin b. parasitic twin c. stuck twin d. vanishing twin
b. clinodactyly
The bending f the fifth digit toward the fourth digit is called: a. syndactyly b. clinodactyly c. polydactyly d. stabodactyly
a. twin embolization syndrome
The demise of a twin can lead to the development of neurologic complications in the living twin as a result of: a. twin embolization syndrome b. TTTS c. TRAP Sequence d. dichorionicity
b. twin embolization syndrome
The demise of a twin during the second or third trimester can lead to: a. TTTS b. twin embolization syndrome c. twin peak sign d. acardiac twinning
d. PUBS
The earliest invasive fetal karyotyping technique that can be performed is: a. amniocentesis b. cordocentesis c. CVS d. PUBS
d. 10 weeks
The fetal heart is fully formed by: a. 2 weeks b. 4 weeks c. 8 weeks d. 10 weeks
b. 14 weeks
The fetal stomach should be visualized by: a. 6 weeks b. 14 weeks c. 20 weeks d. 18 weeks
c. amnion
The inner membrane surrounding the fetus is referred to as the: a. placenta b. chorion c. amnion d. yolk sac
d. fetal urine
The majority of amniotic fluid is composed of: a. fetal blood b. fetal serous fluid c. maternal serous fluid d. fetal urine
d. decreased hCG, AFP, and estriol
The maternal serum screening of a mother with a fetus with trisomy 18 will reveal: a. decreased hCG, elevated AFP, and normal estriol b. increased hCG, AFP, and estriol c. increased AFP, increased hCG, and decreased estriol d. decreased hCG, AFP, and estriol
a. AC
The measurement that should be carefully scrutinized in cases of IUGR is the: a. AC b. femur length c. biparietal diameter d. head circumference
d. hepatomegaly
The most common abnormality of the fetal liver is: a. gallstones b. hepatocellular lymphadenopathy c. cirrhosis d. hepatomegaly
a. monochorionic diamniotic
The most common form of monozygotic twins is: a. monochorionic diamniotic b. dichorionic monoamniotic c. monochorionic monoamniotic d. none of the above
d. neuroblastoma
The most common malignant adrenal pediatric tumor is the: a. nephroblastoma b. pheochromocytoma c. hepatoblastoma d. neuroblastoma
d. corpus luteum cyst
The most common pelvic mass associated with pregnancy is: a. uterine leiomyoma b. dermoid cyst c. theca luteum cyst d. corpus luteum cyst
c. chorioangioma
The most common placental tumor is the: a. choriocarcinoma b. maternal lake c. chorioangioma d. allantoic cyst
c. triangular, echogenic mass within the chest
The most common sonographic appearance of pulmonary sequestration is a(n): a. dilated pulmonary artery and hypoechoic chest mass b. pleural effusion and ipsilateral hiatal hernia c. triangular, echogenic mass within the chest d. anechoic mass within the chest
d. 1 mm per day
The normal gestational sac will grow: a. 2 mm per day b. 3 mm per day c. 1 cm per day d. 1 mm per day
c. sagittal
The optimal scan plane to visualize micrognathia is: a. transverse b. axial c. sagittal d. coronal
b. chorion
The outer membrane of the gestation is referred to as the: a. placenta b. chorion c. amnion d. yolk sac
b. > 4 cm
The placenta is considered too thick when it measures: a. > 4 mm b. > 4 cm c. > 8 mm d. > 3.5 cm
a. human chorionic gonadoptropin
The placenta releases __________ to maintain the corpus luteum: a. human chorionic gonadotropin b. follicle-stimulating hormone c. luteinizing hormone d. gonadotropin-stimulating hormone
a. TTTS
The shunting of blood from one twin to the other is termed: a. TTTS b. twin embolization syndrome c. twin peak sign d. conjoined twins
a. AFP, estriol, and hCG
The triple screen typically includes: a. AFP, astriol, and hCG b. AFP, AFI, and hCG c. AFP, estriol, and PAPP-A d. PAPP-A, inhibin A, and hCG
c. tripoidy
Theca-Lutein Cysts would most likely be linked with a molar pregnancy and: a. Down Syndrome b. IUGR c. triploidy d. Monosomy X
d. discordant fetal growth
Typically, the first sonographic manifestation of TTTS is: a. oligohydramnios b. polyhydramnios c. dichorionic twinning d. discordant fetal growth
b. preeclampsia
What condition is pregnancy-induced maternal high blood pressure and excess protein in the urine after 20 weeks gestation? a. gestational diabetes b. preeclampsia c. porencephaly d. maternal mirror syndrome
b. endoscopic-guided laser photocoagulation
What is a treatment that separates abnormal placental vascular connections between twins that are suffering from TTTS? a. cleavage-laser resection treatment b. endoscopic-guided laser photocoagulation c. endemic translocation of placental vessels d. circumvallate resection of shared placental vasculature
a. Trisomy 21
What is macroglossia most often associated with? a. Trisomy 21 b. Trisomy 18 c. Triploidy d. Turner Syndrome
c. mesoblastic nephroma
What is the common fetal renal tumor? a. neuroblastoma b. nephroblastoma c. mesoblastic nephroma d. Wilm's tumor
b. UPJ obstruction
What is the most common cause of hydronephrosis in the neonate and the most common form of fetal renal obstruction? a. UVJ obstruction b. UPJ obstruction c. vesicouretral reflux d. urethral atresia
d. hydronephrosis
What is the most common fetal abnormality noted during an obstetric sonogram? a. anencephaly b. spina bifida c. cleft lip d. hydronephrosis
c. pyopagus
What is the term for conjoined twins attached at the sacral region? a. sacralpagus b. omphalopagus c. pyopagus d. throacopagus
d. megacystis
What is the term for enlargement of the urinary bladder? a. posterior urethral valves b. urethral atresia c. prune belly syndrome d. megacystis
c. 7 mm
What measurement should the renal pelvis not exceed prior to 20 weeks' gestation? a. 2 mm b. 10 mm c. 7 mm d. 1.2 cm
d. fetal kidneys
What organ(s) produces amniotic fluid after 12 weeks? a. fetal liver and the spleen b. fetal intestines and lungs c. fetal intestines and the liver d. fetal kidneys
b. monochorionic monoamniotic
Which form of monozygotic twinning is the least common? a. monochorionic diamniotic b. monochorionic monoamniotic c. dichorionic diamniotic d. dichorionic biamniotic
d. an abnormal ventral curvature of the penis
Which of the following best describes hypospadias? a. OEIS Complex in the presence of a hydrocele b. the chronic obstruction of the renal pelvis and urethra c. the underdevelopment of the scrotum in the presence of a hydrocele d. an abnormal ventral curvature of the penis
d. all of the above
Which of the following can occur as a result of monozygotic twinning? a. monochorionic diamniotic twins b. monochorionic monoamniotic twins c. dichorionic diamniotic twins d. all of the above
c. Klinefelter Syndrome
Which of the following is a sex chromosome anomaly associated with hypogonadism and subnormal intelligence in males? a. Down Syndrome b. Edward's Syndrome c. Klinefelter Syndrome d. Turner Syndrome
b. cystic fibrosis
Which of the following is associated with echogenic bowel? a. fetal anemia b. cystic fibrosis c. radial ray defect d. portal hypertension
c. anorectal atresia
Which of the following is considered to be the most common type of colonic atresia? a. duodenal atresia b. jejunal atresia c. anorectal atresia d. intussusception
d. abdominal muscle hypertrophy
Which of the following is not a component of prune belly syndrome? a. megacystis b. undescended testis c. dilated urinary bladder and urethra d. abdominal muscle hypertrophy
d. T-sign
Which of the following is not a sonographic sign of a dichorionic diamniotic gestation? a. twin peak sign b. lambda sign c. delta sign d. T-sign
d. duplex collecting system
Which of the following is the most common renal anomaly? a. horseshoe kidneys b. pelvic kidney c. renal agenesis d. duplex collecting system
b. pulmonary hypoplasia
Which of the following would a newborn most likely suffer from if he or she were born prior to 32 weeks as a result of multiple gestation complications? a. ascites b. pulmonary hypoplasia c. amnionitis d. preeclampsia
b. anorectal atresia
Which of the following would be least likely associated with an elevated MSAFP? a. Pentalogy of Cantrell b. anorectal atresia c. gastroschisis d. omphalocele
d. leiomyoma
Which of the following would be least likely associated with immune hydrops? a. fetal hepatomegaly b. fetal splenomegaly c. anasarca d. leiomyoma
a. chorionicity
Which term relates to the number of placentas? a. chorionicity b. zygocity c. amnionicity d. cleavage
b. chorionic sac
With a normal pregnancy, the first structure noted within the decidualized endometrium is the: a. yolk sac b. chorionic sac c. amniotic cavity d. embryo
a. fourth ventricle
With what structure does the posterior fossa cyst associated with DWM communicate? a. fourth ventricle b. third ventricle c. cerebellar vermis d. cerebral aqueduct
c. Down Syndrome
With which of the following syndromes is brachycephaly associated most often? a. Edward's Syndrome b. Patau Syndrome c. Down Syndrome d. Turner Syndrome
a. cebocephaly
Close-set eyes and a nose with a single nostril is termed: a. cebocephaly b. cyclopia c. ethmocephaly d. epignathus
b. 6 mm
The thickness of the nuchal fold in the second trimester should not exceed: a. 3 mm b. 6 mm c. 10 mm d. 12 mm
d. massa intermedia
The thalamic tissue located within the third ventricle of the brain that can become enlarged with Arnold-Chiari II Malformation is the: a. corpus callosum b. cerebellar vermis c. cavum septum pellucidum d. massa intermedia
