Oxygen Therapy and Respiratory Issues (NCLEX Practice Questions)

What are the signs and symptoms of pneumothorax? (Select all that apply.) a. Decreased respiration b. Decreased breath sounds on affected side c. Shortness of breath d. Blue tinge to mucous membranes e. Tracheal deviation f. Decreased oxygen saturation

ANS: B, C, E, F Symptoms of pneumothorax include rapid respiration, reduced breath sounds on the affected side, dyspnea, decreased oxygen saturation, tracheal deviation, and prominence of one side of the chest.

Which client statement alerts the nurse to the possibility of rhinitis medicamentosa? a. "I have been taking two aspirins every 6 hours for this headache." b. "My nose doesn't stay open even though I'm using nasal spray every hour." c. "I have been taking a lot of vitamin C this year to keep from getting so many colds." d. "The only way I can get to sleep with this nasal congestion is by taking an over-the-counter antihistamine at night."

ANS: B Excessive use of nose drops or nasal spray, especially those with a 12-hour duration of action, causes a severe rebound nasal congestion. None of the other symptoms are indicative of rhinitis medicamentosa.

Which manifestations in a client receiving oxygen therapy at 60% for more than 24 hours would alert the nurse to the possibility of oxygen toxicity? a. Increased dyspnea b. Decreased rate and depth of respiration c. Wheezing on inhalation and exhalation d. Increased excretion of thick, white, frothy sputum

ANS: A An oxygen level higher than 50% when given continuously for more than 24 to 48 hours may damage the lungs. Initial symptoms include nonproductive cough, substernal chest pain, gastrointestinal upset, and dyspnea. Decreased rate and depth of respiration, wheezing on inhalation and exhalation, and increased excretion of thick, white, frothy sputum are not considered to be initial symptoms of oxygen toxicity.

A client has a newly diagnosed lung disease and has been placed on 2 L of nasal oxygen while hospitalized. The client has only been on the oxygen for approximately 30 minutes when he suddenly seems even more short of breath than previously, although he is neither gray nor ashy in color. The nurse recognizes that the client is experiencing which of the following? a. Oxygen-induced hypoventilation b. Oxygen toxicity c. Absorption atelectasis d. Hypocarbia

ANS: A Assess for oxygen-induced hypoventilation in the client whose main respiratory drive is hypoxia (hypoxic drive), such as in the client with chronic lung disease who also has carbon dioxide retention (hypercarbia). The symptoms listed are not characteristic of oxygen toxicity, absorption atelectasis, or hypocarbia.

The nurse teaches the client about therapy to prevent asthma attacks. What statement by the nurse would best explain the purpose for daily asthma therapy? a. "Frequent asthma attacks, even if they are halted relatively quickly, damage the bronchial tissues over time." b. "If asthma attacks are uncontrolled, they could potentially lead to the development of emphysema, as well as chronic bronchitis." c. "Using only short-acting beta agonists will lead to the development of drug resistance and the drug won't work as effectively when you need it." d. "Beta-agonist inhaled drugs don't treat the inflammatory aspects of the disease and don't halt the attack."

ANS: A Because damage can occur with any asthma attack, the main focus of therapy should be on prevention rather than just on symptom management. Frequent asthma attacks will damage bronchial tissues but will not necessarily cause lung cancer, emphysema, or chronic bronchitis. There is no evidence that use of short-acting beta agonists will lead to drug resistance or that beta-agonist drugs will not affect the inflammatory aspects of the overall disease process.

The chest tube drainage system of the client 36 hours after a thoracotomy has continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber. When the nurse clamps the chest tube close to the client's dressing, the bubbling stops. How does the nurse interpret this finding? a. An air leak is present at the chest tube insertion site or in the thoracic cavity. b. An air leak is present in the drainage system but the exact location cannot be determined. c. The suction pressure applied to the system is too high and must be adjusted. d. The system is functioning appropriately, and no intervention is needed.

ANS: A Bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates air drainage from the client and is usually seen when the client's intrathoracic pressure is greater than atmospheric pressure, such as during exhalation, coughing, or sneezing. When the air in the pleural space has been sufficiently removed, bubbling stops. Continuous bubbling indicates an air leak. If the air leak is in the thoracic cavity, air and air pressure increase in the thoracic cavity, forcing more air into the water seal chamber. This air movement is prevented when the chest tube is clamped close to the insertion site.

What is a priority action to teach a client to prevent the spread of a cold? a. "Wash your hands after blowing your nose or sneezing." b. "Use boiling water to clean all dishes and utensils you have used." c. "Have family members wear masks until all cold symptoms subside." d. "Humidify the air in your home by running hot shower water to produce steam."

ANS: A Cold viruses are shed in nasal and bronchial secretions. Handwashing after events that place viruses on the hands reduces the risk that the viruses will be spread directly or indirectly to others. Dishes need only to be washed in hot sudsy water. The mouth has more protective mechanisms to prevent viral infection than the nose or the conjunctiva of the eye. Masks worn by others have not been proven effective for preventing the spread of colds and may give family members a false sense of security. Humidifying the air promotes comfort but does not inhibit viral spread.

The client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) states that he feels "full after eating a little food." What will the nurse teach the client? a. "Avoid drinking fluids just before and during meals." b. "Use a bronchodilator inhaler 30 minutes before meals." c. "Increase the amount of protein and reduce fat in your diet." d. "Practice diaphragmatic breathing against resistance 4 times daily."

ANS: A Early satiety makes it harder for clients with COPD to eat enough food to meet their energy requirements. Drinking fluids just before a meal or during a meal contributes to the sensation of fullness and clients stop eating sooner. Although it is recommended that clients with COPD use an inhaler before meals to increase ventilation and gas exchange (and to reduce coughing during meals), this practice does not affect early satiety and neither does diaphragmatic breathing. There is no evidence that changing the amount of protein and fat in the diet will change the client's feelings of satiety.

The client has been diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The nurse is attempting to determine if the client's self-image has suffered as a result of his diagnosis. What is the nurse's priority line of questioning? a. Whether the earning power of the client's household has decreased b. Whether the client has experienced difficulty quitting smoking c. Whether the client has a fulfilling relationship with his wife d. Whether the client has changed his hobbies to accommodate his disease

ANS: A Economic status may be affected by COPD through changes in income and health insurance coverage. If the client is the head of the household, severe COPD may require role changes that have a negative impact on self-image. If the client is experiencing difficulty in quitting smoking, his self-image will probably not be altered as much as it would be related to income. The client may be experiencing difficulty with his marital relationship, but it probably will not be causing changes in his self-image. Although the client may have had to change his hobbies to accommodate the disease, it probably will not have affected his self-image adversely.

The home care nurse observes oral candidiasis in the client with severe, chronic, airflow limitation. What information will the nurse obtain from this client? a. "How often are you using your steroid inhaler?" b. "Have you had a cold or other viral infection lately?" c. "When was the last time the oxygen tank was changed?" d. "Have you changed your toothbrush recently?"

ANS: A Excessive use of steroid inhalers reduces local immune function and increases the client's risk for oral-pharyngeal infections, including candidiasis. There is no evidence that the common cold, long-term use of the same oxygen tank, or using a toothbrush for a longer period will increase the client's chances of developing candidiasis.

The nurse assesses the client with a new tracheotomy, and the tracheostomy tube is pulsating in synchrony with the client's heartbeat. Which is the nurse's priority action? a. Notify the physician immediately. b. Stabilize the tube by reapplying the ties. c. Change the inner cannula of the tube. d. Increase the inflation pressure of the tracheostomy cuff.

ANS: A If a tracheostomy tube is pulsating with the client's heart rate, this could indicate proximity to the innominate artery and may cause erosion of the artery if left in this position. The physician should be notified immediately. Reapplying the ties, changing the inner cannula, or increasing the inflation pressure of the cuff are all interventions that will not solve the immediate problem of proximity of the tube to the innominate artery.

Which should be the priority intervention of a teaching plan to instruct a client about the proper use of an incentive spirometer? a. Instruct the client to exhale, put the mouthpiece in place, and take a breath for 5 to 10 seconds. b. Instruct the client to inhale with the mouthpiece in place, and then exhale for 5 seconds. c. Teach the client to exhale, put the mouthpiece in place, and take a breath for 20 seconds. d. Instruct the client to inhale, put the mouthpiece in place, and then cough briskly.

ANS: A Incentive spirometry, also referred to as sustained maximal inspiration, is a type of bronchial hygiene used in pneumonia. Instruct the client to exhale fully, put the mouthpiece in place, and take a long, slow, deep breath for 3 to 5 seconds. Evaluate the technique and record the volume of air inspired. Teach the client to perform 5 to 10 breaths per session every hour while awake. The other sequences are incorrect regarding the use of an incentive spirometer.

What will the nurse teach the client who is being discharged after a fixed centric occlusion for a mandibular fracture? a. Keep wire cutters readily available at the bedside. b. Eat at least six soft or liquid meals each day. c. Use an irrigating device for oral care four times daily. d. Sleep in a semi-Fowler's position for 1 week postoperatively.

ANS: A Instruct the client to keep wire cutters with him or her at all times in case this emergency arises. This is the only option that would be life-threatening if allowed to occur. Although the client will need to sleep in a semi-Fowler's position to assist in avoiding aspiration if vomiting occurs, this will not be as high a priority as having wire cutters available. The client will probably be ordered a liquid diet and may also be ordered an irrigating device for oral care, but these are not the priority interventions.

The nurse assesses which client for nosocomial pneumonia? a. The client receiving mechanical ventilation b. The client receiving antibiotics for a surgical wound infection c. The client in traction for a fractured femur who also has a cold d. The client with type 2 diabetes who has a 50 pack-year smoking history

ANS: A Mechanical ventilation in a hospitalized client is a high risk for the development of nosocomial pneumonia. The endotracheal tube or the tracheostomy tube provides direct access of hospital flora to the respiratory tract. Such pneumonia is termed ventilation-acquired pneumonia (VAP). The client who is receiving antibiotics for a wound infection, who is in traction, or who has type 2 diabetes with a history of smoking would not necessarily be at high risk for the development of nosocomial pneumonia.

Which is the nurse's priority intervention for a confused client who is to start oxygen therapy? a. Determine which method of oxygen delivery the client will best tolerate. b. Instruct the client about the importance of leaving the oxygen delivery device on. c. Explain to the client that he will not be allowed to smoke while receiving oxygen. d. Monitor the client's ability to tolerate removal of oxygen while eating.

ANS: A Oxygen therapy is usually delivered by nasal cannula or mask unless the hypoxemia does not improve with these delivery devices. The client who is confused may not tolerate a face mask. Check the skin under the device and under the elastic band, especially around the ears, for areas of redness or skin breakdown. The confused client cannot receive instruction about the oxygen delivery device or not smoking.

The nurse assesses a client receiving 60% oxygen via a tracheostomy collar. Which assessment finding requires immediate action by the nurse? a. Constant, nonproductive coughing b. Blood-tinged sputum c. Rhonchi in upper lobes d. Dry mucous membranes

ANS: A The causes and manifestations of lung injury from oxygen toxicity are the same as those for acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Initial symptoms include nonproductive cough, substernal chest pain, gastrointestinal (GI) upset, and dyspnea. Blood-tinged sputum is expected in clients with new tracheostomies. Rhonchi in upper lobes indicates sputum that can be expectorated and is not an emergent problem. Dry mucous membranes should be lubricated and the client's hydration status can be checked.

The nurse is teaching the client about his fenestrated tracheostomy tube. Which statement by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the tube? a. "I'm glad I will still be able to talk with this tube in place." b. "It is great that this tube does not have to be cleaned or suctioned." c. "This tube will not become dislodged." d. "Because I won't be able to swallow, will another tube be needed for eating?"

ANS: A The client can speak with a fenestrated tube, which has a hole in it and allows air to flow over the vocal chords. The tube still needs to be cleaned and suctioned. The tube may still become dislodged, and the client is able to swallow.

Which discharge instructions will the nurse give to the client for laryngectomy stoma care? a. "Gently wash the stoma with soap and water and then apply a water-based lubricant." b. "Use cotton-tipped applicators to clean out the stoma at least twice daily." c. "Use a syringe to irrigate the stoma with a solution of sterile normal saline and peroxide." d. "Gently scrape crusts from the stoma opening. Apply petroleum jelly externally."

ANS: A The client is taught to wash the stoma gently and prevent anything from getting into the opening. The client should never scrape around the opening because this could cause broken skin, irritation, and infection.

The nurse teaches the client about dietary changes necessary with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which statement best indicates understanding? a. "I will decrease calories from carbohydrates." b. "I will decrease my calories to 1000 per day." c. "I will increase vegetables in my diet." d. "I will decrease milk products in my diet."

ANS: A The client should decrease his ingestion of carbohydrates, since excess carbohydrate metabolism causes carbon dioxide production. There is no reason to decrease dairy products, decrease calories to 1000/day, or increase vegetables in the diet.

The client has undergone a partial laryngectomy and has received instructions on the supraglottic method of swallowing. Which is the nurse's highest priority action? a. Reinforcing the teaching by placing a chart in the client's room detailing the steps in the process b. Evaluating the effectiveness of the teaching by ordering a dynamic swallow study c. Emphasizing the important points of the teaching by repeating the instruction weekly d. Asking the client to demonstrate swallowing with the nurse present

ANS: A The client who is status post-partial laryngectomy should be taught alternate methods of swallowing and a chart to reinforce teaching should be placed in the client's room. A dynamic swallow study is performed to guide rehabilitation for swallowing. Repeating the steps each week is not as effective as showing the client a chart. Having the client demonstrate swallowing will not verify that he or she understands supraglottic swallowing correctly.

Which is the priority assessment for the client who has undergone posterior nasal packing 1 hour ago for a posterior nosebleed? a. Assessing adequacy of the client's airway b. Examining posterior pharynx for evidence of bleeding c. Checking oral mucous membranes for excessive dryness d. Asking the client to rate the pain experience on a scale of 1 to 10

ANS: A The client's airway could be compromised by bleeding and is the highest priority assessment. If the client were to have posterior nasal bleeding, she or he could quickly loose a lot of blood. The second highest priority assessment would be assessing for evidence of bleeding. If the oral mucous membranes were dry, this would not indicate an emergency situation. Pain assessment is a priority, but not as high as an assessment of the airway.

Which statement is correct concerning the development of cystic fibrosis (CF)? a. It is an autosomal recessive disorder. b. Male children do not pass on the disease or the gene. c. Children of carriers do not carry the gene. d. Female children do not pass on the disease or the gene.

ANS: A The development of CF depends on inheriting a pair of mutated CF gene alleles because the disorder is autosomal recessive. Both parents are carriers (heterozygous) with one normal CF gene allele and one mutated CF gene allele. If he is a carrier and has children with another carrier, there is a chance he could have a child with CF. He can be tested so that he knows his risk.

The client has recently been started on fluticasone (Flovent). Which assessment finding would require the nurse's immediate intervention? a. Oral lesions b. Dry eyes c. Heart rate of 100 d. Headache

ANS: A The drug reduces local immunity and increases the risk for local infections, especially Candida albicans. The other symptoms are not known to be characteristic of fluticasone (Flovent) use.

The client preparing to go home after a radical neck dissection for cancer is crying. When the nurse asks why he is crying, the client writes, "I know I shouldn't cry. This surgery may have saved my life, but I can't believe how much my appearance has changed." What is the nurse's best response? a. "It's all right to cry. Mourning this loss is important in getting past this point." b. "You're right. It is silly to carry on like this when the surgery may cure you." c. "Would you like to talk to someone who also has had a laryngectomy?" d. "How have you coped with difficult situations in the past?"

ANS: A The many changes resulting from a laryngectomy influence physical, social, and emotional functioning. Clients may perceive changes in their quality of life. The client needs to grieve. The nurse would never tell the client that her or his actions are "silly." Once the client moves through the grieving process, it may be appropriate for him or her to talk to someone who is further along in the grieving process.

The client tells the nurse that she feels shy going out in public with her tracheostomy. Which of the following should be the highest priority action on the part of the nurse? a. Helping the client drape attractive scarves so that the tracheostomy is hidden b. Recommending that the client begin counseling sessions to cope more effectively c. Avoidance of going out in public for a few more weeks until she is comfortable d. Talking with the client's family members to involve them in encouraging her efforts

ANS: A The most effective intervention on the part of the nurse will be to help her learn to wear scarves attractively so that she can confidently go out in public. The client does not necessarily need counseling and does not need to avoid going out in public. The nurse's efforts should primarily involve the client.

How will the nurse teach the client to assess response to asthma therapy at home? a. "Keep a daily symptom and intervention diary." b. "Measure your chest circumference every week." c. "Note your symptoms when you don't take your medications." d. "Use proper technique and correct sequence with your metered dose inhaler."

ANS: A The nurse should tell the client to keep a daily symptom diary. This will help identify triggers and responses to therapy in asthma. Chest circumference is not expected to change in clients with asthma. The client should not be instructed to discontinue medications. Teaching proper technique with inhalers is appropriate; however, this will not assist in assessing response to therapy.

The client with severe chronic bronchitis tells the nurse that eating is difficult because of his shortness of breath. What is the nurse's best response? a. "Try using your bronchodilator inhaler about 30 minutes before you plan to eat." b. "Do not avoid eating when you are short of breath; you need to keep your strength up." c. "Try eating only pureed foods, avoiding anything that causes you to have gas." d. "If eating solid food is too tiring, drink milkshakes for the protein and calories."

ANS: A When dyspnea is worsened by bronchoconstriction, using a bronchodilator before eating can decrease the shortness of breath long enough to allow the client more energy to eat. The client who is short of breath will need to conserve his energy to breathe and thus should avoid eating when he is experiencing dyspnea. There is no evidence that eating only pureed foods or a lack of solid foods will keep the client from tiring and therefore encourage his intake.

Which symptoms are commonly associated with asthma? (Select all that apply.) a. Clubbed fingers b. Increased residual volume c. Increased bronchial secretions d. Occurs in response to the presence of allergens e. Deficiency of alpha1-antitrypsin f. Increased pulmonary blood flow g. Intermittent manifestations interspersed with periods of no manifestations h. 70-pack-year smoking history i. Presence of Curschmann spirals in sputum

ANS: A, B, C, D, G, I Clubbed fingers represent changes in anatomy that occur as a result of continuous and long-term hypoxemia. Both asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) have obstructive components, resulting in an increased residual volume. Both asthma and COPD have inflammatory components and increased bronchial secretions. Asthma can have allergic origins. Asthma is an intermittent and reversible problem. Curschmann spirals are mucous plugs containing shed epithelial cells. These spirals are more commonly associated with asthma than with COPD.

Which clients are at highest risk to develop silicosis based on their occupation? (Select all that apply.) a. Miners b. Dentists c. Potters d. Bricklayers e. Optometrists f. Painters

ANS: A, C, D People working in mines, those making pottery, and those working with brick would be at highest risk to develop silicosis because of the dust generated in these occupations.

Which interventions would help prevent aspiration during eating for a client with a temporary tracheostomy? (Select all that apply.) a. Avoid having the client eat a meal when he or she is fatigued. b. Add water or broth to foods to make them thinner and easier to swallow rapidly. c. Inflate the cuff of the tracheostomy tube to maximum pressure before initiating a feeding to mechanically block aspirated food from moving further down the airway. d. When feeding the client, allow the client to indicate when he or she is ready for the next bite. e. Encourage the client to tuck his or her chin down and forward while swallowing. f. Urge the client to swallow three or four bites or mouthfuls in a row to reduce the time when he or she is at risk for aspiration. g. Place the client in a lithotomy position for 30 minutes immediately following a meal.

ANS: A, D, E Aspiration is less likely to occur if the client is well rested. Do not rush the client. Allow him or her to indicate when ready for another bite. Teaching interventions should include instructing the client to tuck the chin down and forward while swallowing to encourage food to move down smoothly. Food may actually become easier to aspirate if it is thinner in texture. The nurse should not initiate adding air to inflate the cuff of a tracheostomy tube further without a physician's order. Aspiration may become more likely if the client is urged to swallow faster. Placing the client in a lithotomy position after the meal will not prevent aspiration.

Which assessment finding alerts the nurse to the possibility of a pleural effusion and empyema? a. Wheezing on exhalation on the side with the broken ribs b. Absence of fremitus at and below the site of injury c. Crepitus of the skin around the site of injury d. Absence of gastric motility

ANS: B Absent fremitus on palpation is associated with fluid in the lung or in the pleural space. None of the other assessment findings are indicative of pleural effusion and empyema.

The nurse enters the room of a client who has a tracheostomy and finds a visitor in the room speaking loudly to the client. The client appears to be angry and frustrated. Which intervention should the nurse implement to address this problem? a. The nurse should excuse himself from the room quietly, allowing the client and visitor to resolve their issue in private. b. The nurse should tactfully remind the visitor that the client's comprehension has not been affected, only his ability to speak. c. The nurse should intervene and ask the visitor to leave because the conversation is obviously upsetting the client. d. The nurse should obtain an order for a PRN antianxiety medication from the physician and administer it to the client.

ANS: B Addressing psychological concerns is an important aspect of nursing care for clients recovering from a tracheostomy. While providing physical care, keep in mind the emotional impact of an artificial airway. Acknowledge the client's frustration with communication and allow time for communication. When speaking to the client, use a normal tone of voice. The tracheostomy tube does not alter hearing or comprehension.

Which intervention is the nurse's highest priority when encouraging self-care for a client with a closed fracture of the nose? a. Advising the client not to eat or drink for at least 24 hours after sustaining the fracture b. Teaching the client how to apply cold compresses to the area to reduce swelling c. Urging the client to sleep without a pillow to hasten resolution of the swelling d. Reassuring the client that his or her appearance will normalize after the swelling has resolved

ANS: B After a closed fracture of the nose, the nurse will encourage rest and the use of cool compresses on the nose, eyes, or face to help reduce swelling and bruising. Avoiding eating or drinking and sleeping without a pillow will not hasten resolution of the swelling. Reassuring the client regarding his or her appearance is not included in self-care.

Which person is at greatest risk for developing a community-acquired pneumonia? a. A middle-aged first-grade teacher who typically eats a diet of Asian foods b. An older adult who smokes and has a substance abuse problem c. An older adult with exercise-induced wheezing d. A young adult aerobics instructor who skips meals and is a vegetarian

ANS: B Although age is a factor in the development of community-acquired pneumonia, other lifestyle and exposure factors increase the risk more than age. Two conditions that heavily predispose to the development of pneumonia are cigarette smoking and alcoholism. Dietary choices typically do not predispose to the development of pneumonia. Cigarette smoking interferes with the ciliary function of the removal of invasive materials. Alcoholism usually results in imbalanced nutrition as well as decreased immune function. A middle-aged adult, an older adult with wheezing induced by exercise, and a young adult vegetarian would not be at risk for community-acquired pneumonia because they have no predisposing conditions.

Which statement indicates that the client needs more teaching regarding responses to rhinoplasty? a. "I will take my temperature twice each day and report any fever to my doctor." b. "I will wait until next month to have my photograph taken, after all the swelling is gone." c. "I will take acetaminophen instead of aspirin for pain to avoid excessive bleeding." d. "I will drink at least 3 quarts of liquids a day and use a stool softener."

ANS: B Explain that edema and bruising may last for weeks and that the final surgical result will be evident in 6 to 12 months. The client should take his or her temperature and report fever in case of infection. The client should take acetaminophen because there is less risk of bleeding than with aspirin. Fluids and stool softeners will decrease the risk of straining.

The nurse is caring for an older adult who reports experiencing frequent asthma attacks and severe arthritic pain. What is the nurse's highest priority action? a. Review pulmonary function test results. b. Question client regarding use of anti-arthritic medications. c. Question client regarding use of bronchodilators. d. Review arterial blood gas results.

ANS: B Aspirin and other NSAIDs can trigger asthma in some people, although this response is not a true allergy. It results from increased production of leukotriene when aspirin or NSAIDs suppress other inflammatory pathways. This is a high priority considering the client's history. Reviewing pulmonary function test results will not address the immediate problem of frequent asthma attacks. This is a good intervention to review response to bronchodilators. Questioning the client about the use of bronchodilators will address interventions for the attacks, however, not the cause. Reviewing arterial blood gas results would not be of use in a client between attacks because many clients are asymptomatic when not having attacks.

The client with asthma is scheduled to begin taking zafirlukast (Accolate). What will the nurse teach the client? a. "Drink at least 4 liters of fluid daily when taking this drug." b. "Avoid aspirin for headaches and take acetaminophen instead." c. "Take the drug 1 hour before you eat or 2 hours after meals." d. "Avoid sun exposure while taking this drug."

ANS: B Aspirin increases the plasma concentration of zafirlukast (Accolate). If the client must also take aspirin or aspirin-containing agents, the dose of zafirlukast must be reduced. There is no evidence that the fluid intake must be increased, that the drug should be taken before or after meals, or that sun exposure should be avoided while the client takes the drug.

A client receiving continuous oxygen therapy by nasal cannula for an acute respiratory problem is becoming increasingly confused. What will the nurse do first? a. Notify the physician. b. Assess the client's pulse oximetry. c. Document the observation. d. Lower the head of the bed.

ANS: B Cerebral hypoxia is a cause of confusion and a sensitive indicator that the client needs more oxygen. Although you would want to notify the physician of the change in the client's condition, the best action is first to assess pulse oximetry and then increase the oxygen. You would not just document the assessment finding without intervening. Lowering the head of the bed would not help the client oxygenate better.

What will the nurse teach the client about the relationship between smoking and the development of chronic lung disease? a. "If you stop smoking, you will get better." b. "Your condition will not progress as rapidly if you stop smoking." c. "You will not be at risk for asthma if you do not smoke." d. "You will be able to have surgery if you stop smoking."

ANS: B Cigarette smoking contributes to the continuing deterioration of lung tissue in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Stopping smoking cannot reverse the existing damage, but it can slow down disease progression. Cigarette smoking is a rare cause of asthma. Asthma does not disfigure the client's appearance.

Which client statement indicates potential obstructive sleep apnea? a. "I have so much trouble getting to sleep at night." b. "I wake up feeling just as tired as I did when I went to bed." c. "I wake up persistently during the night, over and over." d. "I can't breathe when I lie flat in the bed."

ANS: B Clients are often unaware that they have sleep apnea. The disorder should be suspected for any person who has persistent daytime sleepiness or complains of waking up tired. Clients with this problem do not usually have trouble getting to sleep, nor do they remember waking up during the night. Although they may snore heavily, they do not usually complain of an inability to breathe while lying flat in bed.

Which statement indicates that the client understands teaching about the correct use of a corticosteroid medication? a. "This drug can reverse my symptoms during an asthma attack." b. "This drug is effective in decreasing the frequency of my asthma attacks." c. "This drug can be used most effectively as a rescue agent." d. "This drug can safely be used on a long-term basis for multiple applications daily."

ANS: B Corticosteroids decrease inflammatory and immune responses in many ways, including preventing the synthesis of mediators. Both inhaled corticosteroids and those taken orally are preventive; they are not effective in reversing symptoms during an asthma attack and should not be used as rescue drugs. Systemic corticosteroids, because of severe side effects, are avoided for mild to moderate intermittent asthma and are used on a short-term basis for moderate asthma.

The client is 12 hours postoperative after a thoracotomy for lung cancer when the lower chest tube is accidentally dislodged. What is the nurse's priority action? a. No action is necessary since the area will reseal itself. b. Cover the insertion site with sterile gauze. c. Obtain a suture kit and prepare for the physician to suture the site. d. Reinsert the chest tube, using sterile technique.

ANS: B Covering the insertion site immediately helps prevent air from entering the pleural space and causing a pneumothorax. The area will not reseal quickly enough to prevent air from entering the chest. The nurse should not leave the client to obtain a suture kit, nor should the nurse reinsert the chest tube. The surgeon may reinsert a new chest tube.

The client with lung cancer is scheduled for surgery and is receiving oxygen for hypoxia. The client tells the nurse that he is becoming more short of breath. How will the nurse intervene? a. Notify the physician. b. Increase the oxygen flow rate. c. Prepare chest tube insertion tray. d. Calm the client using guided imagery.

ANS: B Depending on the location of the tumor, dyspnea can increase quickly. The client should be provided with sufficient oxygen to reduce the hypoxia and its associated symptoms. Notifying the physician, preparing a chest tube insertion tray, or calming the client will not solve the immediate problem of the shortness of breath.

Which statement indicates that the client does not understand teaching about radiation therapy for laryngeal cancer? a. "I will avoid exposing my skin to sunlight during treatment." b. "I will purchase a wig so that my appearance will be close to normal." c. "I will rest my voice and communicate by writing for the next 2 months." d. "I will not shave until all the redness and peeling of the skin on my face and neck is gone."

ANS: B Hair loss should not occur from undergoing radiation therapy for laryngeal cancer. The client should stay out of the sun during treatment, because the skin can become severely burned. Resting the voice is recommended during treatment. The client should also avoid shaving until redness and peeling of facial and neck skin are diminished.

The client is brought to the emergency department with severe facial trauma. Which is the nurse's highest priority in caring for this client? a. Assessing for a skull fracture b. Assessing for a patent airway c. Controlling facial swelling d. Preserving vision

ANS: B In prioritizing care, airway is the first priority. Assessments for fractures would be a secondary priority, as would controlling swelling. Although preserving vision will be an important concern, the only selection that involves airway, breathing, or circulation is assessment for a patent airway.

Which statement indicates that the client understands side effects of methotrexate (Folex) therapy? a. "I can reduce my oxygen flow rate while I'm taking methotrexate." b. "I shouldn't drink wine for 48 hours after taking methotrexate." c. "I will limit fluids on the days I take methotrexate." d. "I won't drink caffeinated beverages for 72 hours after taking methotrexate."

ANS: B Methotrexate induces some degree of liver damage when taken long term. Avoiding other liver-damaging agents, such as alcohol, near the time that the methotrexate is taken reduces the potential for enhancing the liver-damaging actions of methotrexate. There is no need to reduce the client's oxygen flow rate or eliminate caffeinated beverages while the client is on the medication. Fluids should be increased, not decreased, while taking this medication.

Which client will the nurse caution to avoid taking over-the-counter decongestants for manifestations of a cold or flu? a. A young man with a latex allergy b. A middle-aged woman with hypertension c. A teenage woman who is taking oral contraceptives d. An older man who has had type 1 diabetes mellitus for 20 years

ANS: B Most decongestants work by increasing blood vessel constriction. This action increases peripheral vascular resistance and blood pressure. The client who already has hypertension may develop dangerously high blood pressure when taking a decongestant. The client who has a latex allergy, taking oral contraceptives, or has type 1 diabetes would not be likely to be as affected by the decongestant in such a life-threatening manner as the client who is hypertensive.

An older adult client with heart failure asks when she should get a flu shot. Which is the nurse's best response? a. "Exactly 1 year from the date of your last shot." b. "Get a flu shot in the early fall so that you make enough antibodies before flu season arrives." c. "We don't know if the flu will come this year, so wait until an outbreak is reported." d. "Flu shots are good for 5 years at a time, so you don't need another one this year."

ANS: B People older than 50 years and those with chronic disease should be vaccinated against the flu each year early in the fall. If a client waits until the flu season starts to get the flu shot, he or she may be exposed to the flu before sufficient antibodies have been developed. The client should not wait until an outbreak of flu occurs because she or he will not have time enough to develop antibodies against the disease. Flu shots appear to be effective for only one flu season, so the client should get one annually.

The client with a diagnosis of lung cancer is scheduled to have a liver scan and asks the nurse why the procedure is being done. How will the nurse respond? a. "What has your doctor told you about this test? Make a list of the questions that you'd like to ask about it." b. "The treatment for lung cancer is different if it has spread to the liver than if it is confined only to the lungs." c. "Some treatments are toxic to the liver. It is best to test liver function before these treatments are started." d. "An enlarged liver can interfere with cancer therapy, so the doctor wants to make certain of the liver's size and position before therapy is started."

ANS: B Surgery and radiation are considered local treatments for lung cancer confined to the chest. If cancer has spread beyond the chest, systemic therapy (chemotherapy) is required to control the disease. The nurse can teach the client about this procedure. Telling the client to ask the doctor is not appropriate. Although some treatments may cause liver damage, this is not the reason for a liver scan at the time of diagnosis. An enlarged liver may indicate other problems, but it is not appropriate to say that the size can interfere with therapy.

Which is the highest priority teaching need for a client with sinusitis? a. Use cold packs over the sinus area. b. Increase his fluid intake to more than 10 glasses of fluid daily. c. Avoid using nasal saline irrigations because of the risk of spreading the infection. d. Keep the room air dehumidified to dry out the nasal sinuses.

ANS: B Teach the client to increase fluid intake to more than 10 glasses of water or juice daily unless another medical problem requires fluid restriction. Treatment of sinusitis includes the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics (e.g., amoxicillin), analgesics for pain and fever, decongestants, steam humidification, hot and wet packs over the sinus area, and nasal saline irrigations. If this treatment plan is not successful, the client may need to be evaluated with sinus films and computed tomography (CT). Surgical intervention may be needed.

What are the later signs and symptoms associated with the progression of lung cancer? (Select all that apply.) a. White sputum b. Chest pain or tightness c. Shortness of breath d. Wheezing e. Weight gain f. Recurrent attacks of asthma g. Purulent sputum

ANS: B, C, D, G Chest pain or tightness, shortness of breath, wheezing, and purulent sputum are all symptoms associated with lung cancer. White sputum, weight gain, and recurrent attacks of asthma are not known to be associated with lung cancer.

Which statement by the client's family member indicates an accurate understanding of the correct way to provide the client with mouth care while he has a tracheostomy? a. "I can clean his mouth with glycerin swabs." b. "I can clean his mouth with water and a toothette." c. "I can clean his mouth with hydrogen peroxide." d. "I can clean his mouth with mouthwash."

ANS: B The best choice for mouth care is water and a toothette because these are the least irritating. Glycerin swabs, hydrogen peroxide, and mouthwash are all too irritating to the mucous membranes of the mouth.

A client is being discharged with a tracheostomy and voices concern about appearance. What discharge teaching will assist the client with maintaining a positive body image? a. "Tell people how sick you were when they ask about the tracheostomy." b. "Your clothing can help hide the tracheostomy so it is not as noticeable." c. "You can put a bandage around your tracheostomy." d. "You have to ignore comments that people make about your appearance."

ANS: B The client may have an alteration in body image because of the tracheostomy stoma. Encourage the client to wear loose-fitting shirts and collars to help hide the appearance of the stoma. Clients should not be encouraged to tell people about the illness, because they should not be made to "justify" their appearance. You should not bandage the tracheostomy because airflow would be impaired. Ignoring comments will not help the client's self-image.

A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) tells the nurse that she cannot have sexual relations with her partner because of her fatigue. What will the nurse suggest to the client to help her relieve the fatigue associated with sexual intercourse? a. "Consider couples therapy to help your partner understand your problem." b. "Consider intercourse in the morning or after a nap." c. "Take an antianxiety medication before attempting intercourse." d. "Ask your doctor for an antidepressant to use as your disease progresses."

ANS: B The client should consider timing intercourse for a time when she is well rested, such as the morning or after a rest period. Couples therapy will not help the client relieve fatigue. A decrease in the client's anxiety level will not make her better rested. An antidepressant medication will not decrease fatigue associated with sexual intercourse.

Which statement is correct about the care of a client with avian influenza? a. "The client will be placed on standard antibiotic agents, antiviral drugs, and contact isolation." b. "The client will be placed on airborne and contact isolation and will receive oxygen." c. "The client will be placed on oseltamivir (Tamiflu) and zanamivir (Relenza) to reduce complications of his infection." d. "The client's family members should be tested for evidence of the infectious process."

ANS: B The client who is experiencing avian influenza should be on both airborne and contact isolation. Standard antibiotic agents would be ineffective with this disease process, as would be most of the standard antiviral medications commonly used for influenza. Human to human contact through family members is likely only in very close living arrangements.

Which is the nurse's best action to prevent aspiration in a client with open vocal cord paralysis? a. Teach the client to tilt his or her head back as far as possible when swallowing. b. Teach the client to tuck his or her chin down and forehead forward when swallowing. c. Teach the client to breath slowly and deeply while swallowing. d. Teach the client to keep his or her head very still and straight while swallowing.

ANS: B The client with open vocal cord paralysis may aspirate. The nurse should teach the client to tuck in his or her chin during swallowing to prevent aspiration. Tilting the head back would increase the chance of aspiration. Breathing slowly would not decrease the risk of aspiration but holding the breath would. Keeping the head still and straight would not decrease the risk for aspiration.

Which client requires immediate nursing intervention? a. Client with shortness of breath b. Client with sternal retraction c. Client with pulse oximetry reading of 95% d. Client with crackles bilaterally

ANS: B The client with sternal retraction is experiencing serious respiratory difficulty. Although the client may exhibit shortness of breath as well as bilateral crackles, neither of these symptoms shows the same degree of respiratory difficulty being experienced as sternal retraction. A pulse oximetry reading of 95% is within normal limits.

The client who is scheduled to have a vertical laryngectomy asks the nurse what changes to expect in voice quality after the surgery. What is the nurse's best response? a. "You will not be able to speak above a whisper." b. "Your permanent voice will be hoarse and breathy." c. "The removal of your larynx results in permanent loss of natural speech." d. "Speech will return to normal within 6 months."

ANS: B The client's voice will be permanently affected after this type of a procedure. The client will be able to speak above a whisper. However, the voice will be hoarse. Speech will not be completely lost, but it will not be normal.

What is the best instruction for the client who has step II asthma that is triggered by exercise? a. "Avoid participating in aerobic exercise more than three times per week." b. "Use a short-acting beta agonist before you participate in exercise." c. "Maintain an exercise diary to determine specific exercises that trigger asthma attacks." d. "Use systemic corticosteroids before you participate in exercise."

ANS: B The most important information for the client with step II asthma is that the short-acting beta agonist should be used before participating in exercise. The client should not avoid exercise but should simply use the agonist before participation. Water-related activity is not restricted for this client. Systemic medications may decrease the frequency of attacks but do not have a rapid onset of action and will not prevent an attack if taken before exercise.

Which client can the nurse delegate to the LPN/LVN who has been pulled to the unit? a. Young adult who is 6 hours postoperative radical neck dissection b. Older adult client with esophageal cancer who is awaiting gastric tube placement c. Older adult client who is status post-laryngectomy and is awaiting discharge teaching d. Middle-aged client who is awaiting preoperative teaching for laryngeal cancer

ANS: B The nurse can delegate stable clients to an LPN who has been pulled to the unit. The client who is 6 hours postoperative should not be delegated because he or she is not stable. The client who needs discharge teaching cannot be cared for by the LPN because the RN is the one responsible for the teaching and this cannot be delegated to an LPN. Similarly, the client who needs preoperative teaching needs to have this done by the RN.

The client is being weaned from his tracheostomy tube and has tolerated the tube being capped for 24 hours. Which of the following should be the highest priority action on the part of the nurse? a. Collecting all materials that will be needed for suturing of the stoma b. Placing a dry dressing over the stoma and secure it in place c. Assessing the client to determine that no air is leaking around the tube d. Selecting the next smallest size tracheostomy tube for the physician to insert

ANS: B The tube will be able to be removed after the client has tolerated it being capped for 24 hours. Therefore, a dry dressing will be able to be placed over the stoma. The stoma will not be sutured. It will heal on its own with a small scar. There should be adequate airflow around the capped tube. The physician will not likely insert the next smallest size tube but will instead remove the existing tube.

Which action is highest priority for the nurse to teach the client with a tracheostomy to decrease the risk for aspiration? a. Swallow quickly. b. Thicken all liquids. c. Rinse all food with water. d. Chew food completely.

ANS: B Thickening liquids may assist the client in swallowing and help prevent aspiration. Swallowing quickly will not decrease the risk of aspiration, and may actually put the client at a greater risk. It is not recommended that the client drink water to wash down food. Chewing food completely will help prevent choking but will not decrease aspiration risk.

Which observed action indicates that the client understands teaching on the correct way to perform diaphragmatic breathing? a. Lying on side with knees bent b. Having hands on abdomen c. Having hands over head d. Lying prone

ANS: B To perform diaphragmatic breathing correctly, the client should put his hands on his abdomen to create resistance. This type of breathing cannot be effectively performed while lying on the side or with hands over the head. This type of breathing would not be as effective lying prone.

Which statement made by the client who is prescribed "voice rest" therapy for vocal cord polyps indicates the need for more teaching? a. "I will stay out of rooms and places where people are smoking." b. "When I speak at all, I will whisper rather than use a normal tone of voice." c. "For the next several weeks, I will not lift anything weighing more than 10 pounds." d. "I will drink at least 3 quarts of water each day and use stool softeners."

ANS: B Treatment for vocal cord polyps includes not speaking, no lifting, and no smoking. The client has to be educated not to even whisper when resting the voice. It is also appropriate for the client to stay out of rooms where people are smoking, and to stay hydrated and use stool softeners.

The client is 24 hours postoperative after a tracheostomy has been performed. The nurse finds the client cyanotic, with the tracheostomy tube lying on his chest. What is the nurse's first action? a. Auscultates breath sounds bilaterally b. Ventilates with resuscitation bag with mask c. Calls a code d. Inserts obturator into neck

ANS: B Tube dislodgment in the first 72 hours after surgery is an emergency because the tracheostomy tract has not matured and replacement is difficult. First, ventilate the client using a manual resuscitation bag and face mask while another nurse calls for help. Although auscultation of breath sounds is important, the client's airway must be opened and ventilation started. Ventilation should begin while another nurse calls the code. Reinsertion of a fresh tracheostomy tube will require the physician's intervention.

Which client statement indicates the need for clarification regarding the causes and treatment of acute laryngitis? a. "I knew I would get laryngitis this time because I ate too many jalapeno peppers." b. "At the first hint of laryngitis, I whisper instead of talking in my regular voice." c. "I suck on throat lozenges to keep my mouth and throat from getting so dry." d. "When laryngitis starts, I quit smoking until all my symptoms are gone."

ANS: B Whispering places an added strain on the larynx and can cause or worsen laryngitis. Eating spicy food such as hot peppers will not cause laryngitis. Total voice rest rather than whispering is recommended. If the client must speak, urge him or her to use a normal voice intensity. Laryngitis is not necessarily caused by loud cheering or smoking. Use of throat lozenges will provide symptomatic relief but will not actually treat the disease process.

What intervention is essential in the care of a client post-radical neck dissection? a. Applying direct pressure to the carotid artery with a gloved hand b. Keeping the carotid artery and the dressing wet with sterile saline c. Maintaining the stability of the position of the laryngectomy tube d. Assessing the adequacy of blood flow by Doppler every 2 hours

ANS: B Wound breakdown is a common complication caused by poor nutrition, a long smoking history, alcohol use, wound contamination, and previous radiation therapy. Manage wound breakdown with packing and local care as prescribed to keep the wound clean and stimulate the growth of healthy granulation tissue. None of the other options are interventions applicable to a life-threatening situation such as a carotid artery rupture. Applying pressure to the carotid artery, maintaining the positioning of the laryngectomy tube, and assessing blood flow by Doppler will all be ineffective at preventing rupture of the carotid artery.

The nurse is teaching a client to cough productively. Put the actions in proper sequence. (Separate letters by a comma and space as follows: A, B, C, D.) a. Encourage client to take several deep breaths. b. Assist client to a sitting position with head slightly flexed, shoulders relaxed, and knees flexed. c. Instruct the client to inhale deeply several times, to exhale slowly, and to cough at the end of exhalation. d. Instruct client to follow coughing with several maximum inhalation breaths. e. Encourage client to take a deep breath, hold it for 2 seconds, and cough two or three times in succession.

ANS: B, A, E, C, D When the client can tolerate it, the best position for effective coughing and secretion removal is sitting with the shoulders turned inward and the head bent slightly down while hugging a pillow.

The client has a mediastinal chest tube. Which symptoms require the nurse's immediate intervention? (Select all that apply.) a. Production of pink sputum b. Tracheal deviation c. Oxygen saturation greater than 95% d. Sudden onset of shortness of breath e. Drainage greater than 70 ml/hr f. Pain at insertion site

ANS: B, D, E Immediate intervention is warranted if the client has tracheal deviation because this could indicate a pneumothorax; sudden shortness of breath because this could indicate dislodgment of the tube, occlusion of the tube, or pneumothorax; or drainage greater than 70 ml/hr because this could indicate hemorrhage. Production of pink sputum, oxygen saturation less than 95%, and pain at the insertion site are not signs/symptoms that would require immediate intervention.

The client has undergone rhinoplasty. Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention on the part of the nurse? a. Swelling and bruising around the area b. A change in nasal breathing c. Repeated swallowing d. Frequent blowing of the nose

ANS: C After rhinoplasty, repeated swallowing may indicate that the client is experiencing posterior nasal bleeding. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent hemorrhaging. Swelling and bruising are common after the surgery and would not indicate nasal bleeding. The client cannot breathe through the nose after surgery because the nares are packed and taped. The client would also not be able to blow the nose.

Which is the nurse's best response to an older adult client who is hesitant to take the pneumococcal vaccination and influenza vaccine in the same year? a. "You need both injections. A risk factor for getting pneumonia is infection with influenza." b. "Take both injections. They will protect you against respiratory problems for this year." c. "The flu shot may protect you against influenza but not against bacteria that cause pneumonia." d. "You should get the pneumococcal vaccination so you won't infect other people."

ANS: C Although influenza can lead to pneumonia, and preventing influenza with a flu shot reduces the risk for a secondary pneumonia, bacterial pneumonia can be acquired without influenza as a precipitating event and can be life-threatening. Getting both injections will not protect the client from respiratory problems nor prevent the client from being infectious to other people.

Which signs and symptoms are most indicative of hypercarbia? a. pH = 7.33 while experiencing mechanical ventilation b. Bicarbonate = 20 mEq/L, unable to tolerate low levels of oxygen c. PaCO2 = 60 mm Hg, unable to tolerate more than 2 L of oxygen d. PaO2 = 80 mm Hg while receiving 40% oxygen via Venturi mask

ANS: C Assess for oxygen-induced hypoventilation in the client whose main respiratory drive is hypoxia (hypoxic drive), such as in the client with chronic lung disease who also has carbon dioxide retention (hypercarbia). The arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2) level for these clients gradually rises over time. The central chemoreceptors in the brain (medulla) are normally sensitive to increased PaCO2 levels. When these receptors are active, they stimulate breathing and cause an increased respiratory rate. When the PaCO2 increases gradually to above 60 to 65 mm Hg, this normal mechanism no longer functions. The central chemoreceptors lose sensitivity to increased levels of PaCO2 and do not respond by increasing the rate and depth of respiration.

A client with lung cancer refuses pain medications because he is "afraid of addiction." What is the nurse's best response? a. "We can ask the physician to change your medication to a drug that is less potent." b. "I can use measures, such as hot compresses and music therapy, to provide pain relief." c. "If you start taking the medication, it is unlikely you will become addicted." d. "You might be more comfortable taking a larger dose of your antidepressant instead."

ANS: C Clients should be encouraged to take their pain medications, and addiction is usually not an issue. The nurse would not request that the pain medication be changed unless it was not effective. Other methods to decrease pain can be used in addition to the pain medications. Although antidepressant medications are sometimes used as adjuvant therapy with traditional pain medications, this is not an appropriate suggestion for the nurse to make.

The client is experiencing acute rhinitis. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care? a. Teach the client that he is most contagious during the 2 to 3 days prior to symptoms beginning. b. Verify that the client is taking large doses of vitamin C along with echinacea daily. c. Monitor for drug side effects such as vertigo, hypertension, urinary retention, and insomnia. d. Teach the client to use nasal sprays or drops on a frequent basis and as needed.

ANS: C Drug therapy, including antihistamines and decongestants, is prescribed but must be used with caution because of side effects such as vertigo, hypertension, urinary retention, and insomnia. Antihistamines block the chemicals released by white blood cells from binding to receptor sites on blood vessels and nasal tissues, preventing local edema and itching. Rhinitis caused by overuse of nose drops or sprays is treated by discontinuing the offending drug. The use of vitamin C or echinacea will probably not affect acute rhinitis. The time period for contagion is not the most important part of the plan of care.

Which assessment finding alerts the nurse to the possibility of pneumonia in a client with chronic bronchitis? a. Pulse oximetry reading of 92% b. Shallow respirations of 32/min c. Percussion is dull in left lower lobe d. Wheezes are audible over right and left bronchi

ANS: C Dull percussion indicates consolidation, a hallmark of pneumonia. A decreased pulse oximetry reading, shallow, increased respirations, and audible wheezing would be expected findings in the client with chronic bronchitis, but would not be indicative of the development of pneumonia.

The nurse assesses the client receiving oxygen via a partial rebreather mask. The nurse will intervene for which assessment finding? a. The bag is two thirds inflated during inhalation. b. The client's pulse oximetry reading is 93%. c. The oxygen flow rate is 2 L/min. d. The arterial oxygen is 90%.

ANS: C Flow rate should be 6 to 11 L/min. A flow rate of 2 L/min will not adequately inflate the bag. A bag that is two thirds inflated is desired. A pulse oximetry reading of 93% and higher is adequate, as is an arterial oxygenation of 90%.

The client expresses concern to the nurse regarding the development of mucositis as a result of chemotherapeutic agents administered to treat lung cancer. What is the priority instruction for the nurse to give the client? a. Document when mouth sores develop so that treatment can begin promptly. b. Avoid brushing teeth; use a soft cloth and mouthwash instead. c. Teeth may be brushed as usual, but bleeding must be communicated to the nurse. d. Clean teeth using disposable mouth sponges; inspect mouth daily.

ANS: D Frequent mouth assessment and oral hygiene are key in managing mucositis. Soft-bristled toothbrushes or disposable mouth sponges should be used to prevent trauma and bleeding. Preventive treatment should begin well before mouth sores develop.

Which statement by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the most appropriate dietary selections to make while he is trying to stop smoking? a. "If I can lose about 20 pounds, it will make it easier for me to stop smoking." b. "I should be on a low-fat diet while I'm trying to stop smoking." c. "I should chew sugarless gum rather than start smoking again." d. "I should eat only fruits and vegetables while I'm trying to quit smoking."

ANS: C Fruits and vegetables make healthy substitution snacks, but the client does not need to eat them exclusively while he is trying to quit smoking. Also, he should neither limit himself to a low-fat diet nor necessarily try to lose weight while trying to stop smoking. It is much healthier for the client to chew sugarless gum when he has the urge to smoke.

Which assessment finding indicates the need for the nurse's immediate intervention? a. Peak expiratory flow rate 10% below expected value b. Presence of bilateral tactile fremitus c. Suprasternal retraction on inhalation d. Trachea at the midline

ANS: C Inhalation that causes suprasternal retraction usually means that the client is using accessory muscles and is having difficulty moving air into the respiratory passages because of airway narrowing. The asthma is not responding to the medication, and the regimen should be changed. A 10% decrease of peak expiratory flow rate is not significant. Bilateral tactile fremitus is a normal finding, as is a midline trachea.

How will the nurse most effectively intervene for the client who is experiencing social isolation related to his chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? a. Encourage the client to join a support group for people with COPD. b. Encourage the client to ask his physician for an antianxiety agent. c. Encourage the client to verbalize his thoughts and feelings. d. Encourage the client to participate in community activities.

ANS: C Many clients with moderate to severe COPD become socially isolated because they are embarrassed by frequent coughing and mucus production. They believe that these processes draw unnecessary attention in public and disgust their friends. The nurse needs to encourage the client to verbalize thoughts and feelings so that appropriate interventions can be selected. Joining a support group would not decrease feelings of social isolation if the client does not verbalize his feelings. Antianxiety agents will not help the client with social isolation. Encouraging a client to participate in activities without verbalizing concerns would also not be an effective strategy to decrease social isolation.

The nurse assesses a client receiving aminophylline. What assessment finding indicates a dangerous side effect of this medication? a. Heart rate of 50 beats/min b. Urinary output of 30 mL in 1 hour c. Development of seizures d. Blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg

ANS: C Methylxanthines, including aminophylline, stimulate the sympathetic nervous system, the cardiovascular system, and the kidneys. The development of a seizure would indicate central nervous system irritability. A bradycardiac heart rate would not be a side effect of the medication. Urinary output of 30 mL per hour is a normal assessment finding. A blood pressure of 100/60 is also considered within normal range.

The nurse assesses the client receiving radiation therapy for lung cancer. Which finding is most likely to be a direct result of his therapy? a. Thinning scalp hair b. Pain in the left shoulder c. Difficulty swallowing solid food d. Heart palpitations and night sweats

ANS: C Radiation has the potential to damage the tissues directly in the radiation path. The esophagus is in the radiation path and can become irritated as the therapy continues (esophagitis). When esophagitis occurs, clients may have difficulty swallowing solid foods and may experience "heartburn." The scalp is not in the radiation path, and scalp hair loss is not related to this therapy for this client. Pain in the left shoulder is probably related to disease progression. Although the heart is somewhat in the radiation path, this does not result in palpitations or night sweats.

Which clinical manifestation in a client 4 hours status post-nasoseptoplasty will the nurse report immediately to the surgeon? a. Mouth breathing b. Swelling and bruising of eyes c. Repeated swallowing d. Packing saturated with pink serous drainage

ANS: C Repeated swallowing may indicate posterior nasal bleeding and should be reported immediately. The nurse should examine the back of the client's throat to confirm the presence of blood. The client would be expected to be breathing through the mouth because the nasal passages are packed with gauze. Bruising and swelling around the eyes would be expected. The packing in the nares would be expected to collect pink and serous drainage. Bright red drainage would be cause for concern.

What statement indicates that the client did not understand teaching regarding therapy with salmeterol (Serevent)? a. "I will be certain to shake the inhaler well before I try to take a puff." b. "I will keep using the drug even if I don't notice a difference in my asthma immediately." c. "I will keep the inhaler with me always so that I can get the medicine in my lungs quickly." d. "I will be careful not to let the drug escape out of my nose and mouth."

ANS: C Salmeterol is designed to prevent an asthma attack; it does not relieve or reverse symptoms. The client does not have to keep this inhaler with him or her always because it is not used as a rescue medication. Salmeterol (Serevent) has a slow onset of action; therefore it should not be used as a rescue drug. The drug must be shaken well because it has a tendency to separate easily. Poor technique on the client's part allows the drug to escape through the nose and mouth.

The client is undergoing radiation therapy as treatment for lung cancer and has developed esophagitis. Which is the best diet selection for this client? a. Spaghetti with meat sauce, ice cream b. Scrambled eggs, bacon, toast c. Omelet, untoasted whole wheat bread d. Pasta salad, custard, orange juice

ANS: C Side effects of radiation therapy may include inflammation of the esophagus. Clients should be taught that bland, soft, high-calorie foods are best, along with liquid nutritional supplements. Tomato sauce may prove too spicy for a client with esophagitis. Toast is too hard to swallow with this condition, and orange juice and other foods with citric acid are too caustic in this condition.

Which statement indicates that the client needs more teaching about nasal continuous positive airway pressure therapy for obstructive sleep apnea? a. "This device should also decrease my snoring." b. "I am also going to lose weight to help this problem." c. "I will use this machine whenever I sleep in bed, regardless of the time of day." d. "I will make certain that no one smokes in the room when I use the machine."

ANS: D Having others in the room avoid smoking will not be of the same priority as the other instructions. It is much more accurate for the client to understand that continuous positive airway pressure therapy will assist in decreasing snoring and weight loss. The machine should be used whenever the client sleeps in bed, regardless of time of day.

The nurse is caring for a client with a new tracheostomy. Which assessment finding requires the nurse's immediate action? a. Need for inner cannula care every 2 hours and PRN b. Recannulation of the airway after the client accidentally coughs out the tube c. Crackling sensation around the neck when skin is palpated d. Small amount of bleeding around the incision for the first few days

ANS: C Subcutaneous emphysema occurs when there is an opening or tear in the trachea and air escapes into fresh tissue planes of the neck. Air can also progress through the chest and other tissues into the face. Inspect and palpate for air under the skin around the new tracheostomy. If the skin is puffy and you can feel a crackling sensation, notify the physician immediately. Although it is important to provide inner cannula care, it usually is performed every shift and PRN, not every 2 hours. Although the nurse may attempt recannulation of the airway, it will be difficult during the first 72 hours after surgery and will require the physician's intervention. It is not unusual to have a small amount of bleeding around the incision for the first few days after surgical placement.

The client is receiving theophylline (Theo-Dur) as part of his treatment regimen. Which action indicates that the client needs further instruction regarding the medication? a. Taking the medication with milk b. Taking the medication with orange juice c. Taking the medication with coffee d. Taking the medication with grapefruit juice

ANS: C Taking the medication with caffeine will increase the tendency for toxicity. There is no evidence that taking the medication with food, orange juice, or grapefruit juice will increase the tendency toward toxicity.

A client is to be discharged to home on oxygen therapy. What information will the nurse teach the client? a. "Carry the H cylinder tank with you wherever you go." b. "Only use the E tank when stationary." c. "The D or C cylinder can be carried." d. "Roll the tank gently when transporting."

ANS: C The D and C cylinders are small enough to be carried. The H cylinder cannot be carried. The E tank can be transported. The tanks should not be rolled and should only be in a stand or rack.

Which client is at greatest risk for development of obstructive sleep apnea? a. A woman who is 8 months pregnant b. A middle-aged man with gastroesophageal reflux disease c. A middle-aged woman who is 50 pounds overweight d. An older man with type 2 diabetes and a history of sinus infections

ANS: C The client at highest risk would be the one who is extremely overweight. None of the other clients have risk factors for sleep apnea.

Which intervention will the nurse include in discharge teaching after sinus surgery to prevent bleeding from the surgical site? a. "Drink at least eight glasses of water each day." b. "Sleep in a semisitting position for the first 2 weeks." c. "Use a stool softener as prescribed to prevent constipation." d. "Change the mustache dressing whenever it becomes wet or soiled."

ANS: C The client needs to avoid any activity that increases pressure within the surgical area. Using a stool softener to prevent having to strain will help prevent bleeding from the surgical site. Although drinking ample amounts of fluid is important, it will not prevent constipation as effectively as use of a stool softener. Changing the dressing will not prevent bleeding from the surgical site. Sitting in a semisitting position will not prevent bleeding from the surgical site.

Which statement by the client indicates that he has an accurate understanding of home self-care of his tracheostomy? a. "I need to keep the airway open so that it will stay dry during the day." b. "I need to put normal saline in my airway twice daily." c. "I need to keep water from entering the airway." d. "I don't need to use tracheostomy ties on a daily basis."

ANS: C The client should put a shield over the tracheostomy to keep water from entering the airway. The airway should remain covered during the day with cotton or foam. Saline should be put in the airway 10 to 15 times daily. Tracheostomy ties should be used daily.

The nurse is evaluating a client's response to medication therapy for asthma. The client reports daily peak flowmeter readings in the yellow zone. How will the nurse interpret this information? a. No change is needed in the client's therapy. b. The client needs to use rescue drugs immediately. c. The client needs additional daily medication. d. The client has an infection.

ANS: C The client who consistently has a reading in the yellow zone has a need for additional daily therapy to better control the symptoms because this is 50% to 80% of personal best. The client may need rescue drugs as prescribed but may not need them immediately. The peak flowmeter will not indicate that the client has an infection.

Which clinical manifestation in a client with paralysis of one vocal cord alerts the nurse to the possibility of aspiration? a. The client's oxygen saturation is decreased. b. The client's voice is breathy and weak. c. The client coughs immediately after swallowing. d. The client has an audible wheeze on exhalation.

ANS: C The client with open vocal cord paralysis is at risk for aspiration because the airway may not close during swallowing. Coughing may indicate that the client's airway is irritated from aspirated contents. Decreased oxygen saturation can occur for any number of reasons. A breathy and weak voice may indicate weak muscles and wheezing may indicate swelling or inflammation in the airways.

Which is the nurse's best response when a client asks how the common cold is transmitted? a. "You can't transmit the cold to anyone who has had a full set of immunizations." b. "The cold can be spread only by physical contact with an infected person." c. "A cold is spread through droplets from sneezing or coughing and through secretions." d. "You are considered contagious until all symptoms have been gone for at least 24 hours."

ANS: C The cold virus is easily spread from one person to another through nasal secretions, eye secretions, and droplets from sneezing or coughing. The common cold can be transmitted to anyone whether or not the person has had a full set of immunizations. A cold is spread through droplets, not merely through physical contact. The person with a cold is considered to be most contagious during the early part of the illness, especially for the first 2 to 3 days.

What is the highest priority concept for the nurse to teach about early symptoms of lung cancer? a. "There are no clearly identifiable early symptoms of lung cancer." b. "Early symptoms include bloody sputum and nagging chest pain." c. "Symptoms are vague, such as cough and shortness of breath on moderate exertion." d. "Wheezing on exhalation is usually considered a positive sign of lung cancer."

ANS: C The early symptoms of lung cancer are nonspecific (chronic cough, less endurance with heavy exercise, more easily becoming short of breath) and could be associated with almost any acute or chronic pulmonary problem. Pain, abnormal breath sounds, and bloody sputum are late manifestations of some types of lung cancer. Wheezing on exhalation is not considered an early symptom of lung cancer.

The unit manager is teaching new nursing staff the importance of implementing measures to avoid infecting cystic fibrosis clients with the Burkholderia cepacia organism. What is the most important measure that the nurse manager will teach the staff? a. Instruct the client to wash his hands after contact with other people. b. Place the client on strict isolation, with the staff wearing gowns, gloves, and masks. c. Keep other cystic fibrosis clients isolated from each other on the unit. d. Inspect the client's respiratory equipment daily.

ANS: C The infection is spread through casual contact between cystic fibrosis clients, thus the need for isolation of these clients from each other. Strict isolation measures will not be necessary. Although the client should wash his hands frequently and his respiratory equipment should be analyzed frequently for evidence of the organism, the most important measure that can be implemented on the unit is isolation of the client from other cystic fibrosis clients.

What information is essential for the nurse to teach the client about diaphragmatic breathing? a. "Keep your muscles tense during the activity." b. "Make sure you are lying prone when you perform this activity." c. "Have your abdomen rise on inhalation and fall on exhalation." d. "Contract your abdominal muscles on inhalation for this activity."

ANS: C The technique of diaphragmatic breathing uses the diaphragm and the abdominal muscles actively during inhalation and exhalation. The abdomen rises on inhalation and falls on exhalation, indicating that the abdominal muscles are relaxed during inhalation and contracted during exhalation. The client does not need to keep muscles tense during the activity and should not lie prone.

Which assessment finding will interfere with scheduled chemotherapy administration? a. Extensive total body hair loss b. Anxiety of 8 on a 1-10 scale c. Decreased neutrophil count d. Increased platelet count

ANS: C The treatment will likely be postponed until the client's neutrophil count increases. Hair loss and client anxiety will not be reasons for delaying a chemotherapy treatment. Platelet count is likely to be decreased, not increased.

Which statement indicates that the client understands teaching about the use of his long-acting beta2 agonist medication? a. "I will not have to take this medication every day." b. "I will take an extra dose of this medication when I have an asthma attack." c. "I will take this medication daily to prevent an acute attack." d. "I will eventually be able to stop using this medication."

ANS: C This medication will help prevent an acute asthma attack because it is long acting. The client will take this medication every day for best effect. This is not the medication the client will use during an acute asthma attack because it does not have an immediate onset of action. The client will not be weaned off this medication because this is likely to be one of his daily medications.

The client who was exposed to inhalation anthrax has completed drug therapy with ciprofloxacin (Cipro). Because he has no manifestations, he would like to stop taking the drug. Which is the nurse's best response? a. "If you have no manifestations, you may stop the drug." b. "You will need to take this drug for at least 1 month." c. "You need to take it for 60 days. It may take 8 weeks for symptoms to appear." d. "You will need to be on prophylactic antibiotic therapy for life."

ANS: C This organism first forms a spore, an encapsulated organism that is inactive. At this stage, even when in the body, antibiotics are not effective in penetrating the spore. When many spores are inhaled into the deep parts of the lungs, macrophages engulf them. Once inside the macrophage, the organism leaves its capsule and replicates. The process of leaving the capsule and replicating can be slow and it is at this point that drug therapy is most effective. The client should not stop the drug merely because he has no manifestations. The client will need to be on the drug for more than 1 month, but not on prophylactic antibiotic therapy for life.

The client requires oxygen using a face mask but wants to remain as mobile as possible once he is discharged home. Which intervention by the home health nurse will best provide the client with maximal mobility? a. Arrange for a consultation with a physical therapist for strength training. b. Encourage the client to remove the mask occasionally to begin the weaning process. c. Add extra connecting pieces of tubing to the client's existing oxygen setup. d. Change the face mask to a nasal cannula occasionally, such as at mealtimes.

ANS: C To increase mobility, up to 50 feet of connecting tubing can be used with connecting pieces. Strength training will not be effective when the main problem keeping the client from being mobile is the oxygen face mask. The nurse cannot decide to begin weaning the client from the mask nor change the face mask to a nasal cannula without a physician's order.

Which statement indicates that the nurse understands the spread of severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)? a. "I will use gloves as my primary protection when I am in contact with the client." b. "I will use blood and body fluid precautions when I am in contact with the client." c. "I will use airborne and contact precautions when I am in contact with the client." d. "I will use a nonpermeable gown as my primary protection when I work with the client."

ANS: C Use airborne and contact precautions with clients who are suspected to have SARS. Neither gowns nor gloves alone provide adequate protection for the nurse because they do not address airborne transmission. Blood and body fluid precautions should be used with disease processes spread through the splashing of body fluids on the caregiver. This does not apply to SARS.

Which statement indicates that the client needs additional teaching about a dry powder inhaler? a. "I will not exhale into the inhaler." b. "I will store the inhaler in the drawer of my bedroom dresser." c. "I will wash the inhaler mouthpiece daily with soap and water." d. "I will inhale twice as hard through this inhaler as I do with my aerosol inhaler."

ANS: C Washing the dry powder inhaler (DPI) may cause the medication in the inhaler to clump together. This action reduces the precision of the delivery of the drug to the client. The other statements are all correct—the client should not exhale into the inhaler, can store the inhaler in his or her bedroom, and will need to inhale more forcefully than with an aerosol inhaler.

The nurse observes hematuria in a client receiving IV cyclophosphamide. How will the nurse intervene? a. Obtain a urine specimen. b. Assess platelet count. c. Increase hydration. d. Stop the medication.

ANS: D Hemorrhagic cystitis is a frequent side effect of cyclophosphamide therapy. The physician should be notified to prescribe co-administration of a bladder-protecting agent. Obtaining a urine specimen will not be an effective nursing intervention, since the client probably does not have an infection. Because this is a serious side effect, documentation should not be the only action. Checking the client's platelet count would not be needed.

The client has a productive cough, fever, and chills and a history of night sweats. The client's PPD test is negative. Which is the nurse's best intervention related to infection prevention? a. Using standard precautions alone because the client does not have tuberculosis b. Using standard and airborne precautions because the client has tuberculosis c. Using standard and airborne precautions until a chest x-ray shows no evidence of tuberculosis d. Using only airborne precautions because the client is taking penicillin for another infection

ANS: C When clients are very old or have severe immunodeficiency, their PPD tests may be negative, even when active tuberculosis is present, because they have too few immune system cells and cell products to mount an immune response to the test. Therefore, airborne precautions should be used with any older client who presents with clinical manifestations of tuberculosis until other tests rule out tuberculosis. There is no conclusive evidence that the client has tuberculosis, nor that he is taking penicillin therapy.

Which stages of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) severity are associated with dyspnea? (Select all that apply.) a. 0 (at risk) b. I (mild) c. II (moderate) d. III (severe) e. IV (very severe)

ANS: C, D, E Dyspnea is associated with moderate, severe, and very severe stages of COPD.

The client is becoming frustrated because of his inability to communicate while he has a tracheostomy. Which intervention by the nurse will most effectively enhance his ability to communicate? a. Explaining to the client that he will speak clearly and distinctly with a fenestrated tube b. Reassuring the client and asking the physician to provide him with a sedative c. Placing a sign above the client's bed indicating that he cannot speak d. Providing the client with a communication board and keeping the call bell within reach

ANS: D A communication board and the call light will reassure the client that his needs will be communicated and met. It is doubtful that the client with a tracheostomy will ever speak clearly and distinctly, no matter what type of tube he uses. Ordering a sedative for the client is merely an evasive response on the nurse's part. Placing a sign above the client's bed indicating that he cannot speak will not enhance his ability to communicate.

The nurse assesses a client during suctioning. Which finding indicates that the procedure should be stopped? a. Heart rate increases 10 beats/min b. Respiratory rate increases from 16 to 20 breaths/min c. Blood pressure increases from 110/70 to 120/80 mm Hg d. Heart rate decreases from 78 to 40 beats/min

ANS: D A decrease in the heart rate indicates that the client is not tolerating the procedure and the vasovagal reflex may be stimulated. An increase in the heart rate may be stimulated by the suctioning and is expected, as is a slight increase in blood pressure. The client will not be breathing during the procedure.

While suctioning the client who had a tracheostomy placed 4 days ago, the nurse notes particles of food in the tracheal secretions. What is the nurse's priority action? a. Increases the inflation pressure in the tracheostomy cuff b. Documents the finding as the only action c. Makes the client NPO d. Performs a more thorough assessment

ANS: D A more thorough assessment must be performed so that additional data can be gathered before the nurse contacts the physician for orders. The nurse should not decide to increase the inflation pressure in the tracheostomy cuff on his or her own, nor should the nurse decide to make the client NPO without a physician's order. Additional nursing interventions are required other than documentation alone.

The client is an older adult male with late-stage small cell lung cancer who is being cared for in the home by his wife. He has been identified to have all of the listed nursing diagnoses. Which is the highest priority? a. Imbalanced Nutrition: Less than Body Requirements related to fatigue b. Constipation related to decreased activity and medication regimen c. Activity Intolerance related to escalating fatigue d. Acute Pain related to neoplastic disease process

ANS: D Although all the listed nursing diagnoses are important issues, effective pain management is the most important issue for this client and family. The home care nurse must serve as a client advocate and ensure that all appropriate measures for management of intractable, severe pain are implemented.

When is the client with a chest tube at highest risk to develop a pneumothorax? a. When the insertion site begins to bleed b. When the tube drainage begins to decrease c. When the client begins to experience pain at the insertion site d. When the tube becomes disconnected from the drainage collector

ANS: D Although bleeding and pain from the insertion site will require intervention on the part of the nurse and a decrease in tube drainage should be investigated, the client is most likely to develop a pneumothorax if the tube becomes disconnected from the drainage collector or is dislodged.

A nurse is reading the PPD test on the left arm of an inpatient client who was injected 48 hours ago. The area has a 4-mm diameter area of induration. Which is the nurse's best action? a. Institute airborne infection precautions immediately. b. Document the observation and monitor. c. Retest the client on the opposite arm. d. Re-examine the test site at 72 hours.

ANS: D An area of induration (not just redness) measuring 10 mm or more in diameter 48 to 72 hours after injection indicates exposure to and infection with TB. Recent studies have indicated that a reading after 72 hours rather than after just 48 hours is more accurate. The incidence of false-negative readings is greater at 48 hours. Because the PPD is a screening test, there is no evidence that the client is actually infected with tuberculosis and therefore it is not necessary to implement infection precautions. It will be ineffective merely to document the findings and monitor because the test site should be re-examined at 72 hours. Test results will not be different by retesting on the opposite arm.

The client has recently been placed on omalizumab (Xolair). What is the highest priority action of the nurse after administration of the drug? a. Teach the client to avoid anyone with an upper respiratory infection. b. Monitor the client for gastric ulceration and weight gain. c. Teach the client to monitor his heart rate. d. Monitor the client for anaphylactic reaction within the first 30 to 60 minutes.

ANS: D Anaphylactic reactions with Xolair typically occur within the first hour of beginning administration. This is the highest priority action because anaphylactic reactions typically cause airflow limitation. The other interventions are appropriate but not the highest priority.

An older client was prescribed an antihistamine. Which medical problem may be aggravated by this medication? a. Asthma b. Hypotension c. Kidney stones d. Urinary retention

ANS: D Antihistamines are often composed of anticholinergic drugs. In older adult clients, these medications can cause or worsen urinary retention. There is no evidence that antihistamines can worsen asthma, hypotension, or kidney stones.

The nurse observes the nursing student suctioning the client. Which intervention on the student nurse's part has the greatest potential to cause tissue damage? a. Oxygen saturation postsuctioning of 93% b. Hyperoxygenating the client after removing the suction catheter c. Applying intermittent suction d. Applying suction when the catheter is inserted

ANS: D Applying suction as the catheter is introduced allows the tubing to adhere to the airway and destroy cells. Oxygen saturation of 93% is acceptable postsuctioning. The client should be hyperoxygenated before and after suctioning. Intermittent suctioning as the catheter is withdrawn is standard procedure to prevent tissue damage.

A male client who is an Orthodox Jew was diagnosed with lung cancer and appears distressed. What is the best action for the female nurse to take? a. Provide comfort by holding the client's hand and sitting with him. b. Offer to give the client a back rub to relax him. c. Offer the client a PRN antianxiety medication. d. Ask the client if there is someone she can call.

ANS: D Asking if there is a friend or family member to call to comfort the client is an appropriate intervention in most situations. Touching between members of the opposite sex is prohibited in the Orthodox Jewish culture. The nurse should assess the client further and provide assistance with coping before offering to medicate him.

Which client would not be a candidate for a lung transplant? a. A middle-aged male b. A client with latex allergies c. A young adult with cystic fibrosis d. A client with a systemic infection

ANS: D Clients who receive a transplant must take immunosuppressive drugs for the rest of their lives to prevent transplant rejection. Such medications, when given to a person with a systemic infection, could lead to sepsis and death. Middle age, a latex allergy, or the presence of cystic fibrosis will not necessarily cause a client to be eliminated as a candidate for a lung transplant.

The client has been placed on 6 L of humidified oxygen via nasal cannula. What will be the highest priority action of the nurse? a. Ensuring that condensation is drained back into the humidifier to maintain a closed system b. Replacing sterile water by draining the water collected in the water trap back into the humidifier c. Emptying condensation in tubing into a sterile container for bacterial analysis d. Removing condensation in tubing by disconnecting and emptying into trash can.

ANS: D Condensation often forms in the tubing when a client receives humidified high-flow oxygen. Remove this condensation as it collects by disconnecting the tubing and emptying the water. Some humidifiers and nebulizers have a water trap that hangs from the tubing so that the condensation can be drained without disconnecting. To prevent bacterial contamination, never drain the fluid back into the humidifier or nebulizer. If a closed system is maintained, there should be no reason for bacterial analysis of the condensation. Minimize how long the tubing is disconnected because the client does not receive oxygen during this period.

Which client taking theophylline (Theo-Dur) is assessed to be at greatest risk for development of toxicity? a. An adult who smokes two packs per day b. A female diagnosed with hyperthyroidism c. A young adult taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control d. A client taking erythromycin (E-Mycin) for a sinus infection

ANS: D Erythromycin decreases the plasma clearance of theophylline, resulting in increased drug levels and greater risk for toxicity at lower dosages. In clients who smoke, the metabolism of theophylline is increased, necessitating increased dosage. Hyperthyroidism should not affect the drug levels, and neither should phenytoin.

The client with emphysema must learn how to use exercise conditioning for his pulmonary rehabilitation. What teaching strategy will have highest priority? a. Exercise only while in the standing position. b. Hold breath between sets of exercises. c. Keep arms above the head while exercising. d. Breathe against a set resistance for 5 minutes 3 times/day.

ANS: D Exercise conditioning for pulmonary rehabilitation focuses on strengthening the diaphragm and other respiratory muscles. Breathing against a set resistance increases the strength and endurance of respiratory muscles. Exercising only while in the standing position, holding breath between sets, and keeping arms above the head while exercising will not increase the strength and endurance of respiratory muscles.

What is essential for the nurse to teach the client who is believed to have developed pneumonia about using a nebulizer at home? a. Explain to the client that he will need a pneumonia vaccine annually. b. Determine if the client should be changed to another type of nebulizer while he is ill. c. Use tactile fremitus and percussion to assess the client. Determine chest expansion. d. Assess whether the client's home cleaning level of nebulizer equipment is adequate.

ANS: D If the client has chronic respiratory problems, initially ask whether respiratory equipment is used in the home. Assess whether the client's home cleaning level is adequate to prevent infection. Also, ask him or her when the last influenza or pneumococcal vaccine was received. Changing to another type of nebulizer or using tactile fremitus would be irrelevant in terms of preventing pneumonia.

Which statement indicates that the client understands teaching about the administration of omalizumab (Xolair) for her asthma? a. "I can take this drug orally at home, since it has very few side effects." b. "I should take this drug sublingually by letting it dissolve under my tongue." c. "I should take this drug by injecting it into a muscle." d. "I will be given this drug subcutaneously in my doctor's office."

ANS: D Immunomodulators are monoclonal antibodies that prevent allergens from binding to receptor sites on mast cells and basophils. There is a high risk of anaphylaxis, so it is administered in the physician's office. The route is subcutaneous. It is not taken by mouth or injected intramuscularly.

The client with manifestations of a respiratory infection is suspected of having inhalation anthrax. In addition to standard precautions, what other infection control precautions will the nurse use until the diagnosis is certain? a. Airborne precautions c. Contact precautions b. Droplet precautions d. No additional precautions

ANS: D Inhalation anthrax is not spread by person to person contact. The infected person does not pose an infection hazard to others and no additional precautions beyond standard precautions are needed.

What assessment information could most directly relate to the adult client's diagnosis of new-onset asthma? a. Previous history of pneumonia or tuberculosis b. Known allergies and hypersensitivity reactions c. Nutritional intake and diet history d. Occupation and usual hobbies

ANS: D New-onset asthma could be directly related to a hobby that involves inhalation irritants. There is no evidence that previous history of pneumonia or tuberculosis, allergies, nutritional intake, or diet history is directly related to new-onset asthma.

Which is a priority teaching intervention for the client who is using a nicotine patch? a. "Abruptly discontinuing this patch can cause high blood pressure." b. "Abruptly discontinuing this patch can cause nausea and vomiting." c. "Smoking while using this patch increases the risk for pneumonia." d. "Smoking while using this patch increases the risk for a heart attack."

ANS: D Nicotine constricts blood vessels, increases mean arterial pressure, and increases afterload. Smoking while using a nicotine patch increases afterload to such an extent that the myocardium must work harder (with the coronary arteries constricted) and may cause a myocardial infarction. Abruptly discontinuing the patch will not necessarily cause hypertension or nausea and vomiting. Smoking while using the patch will not increase the risk for pneumonia.

The client has a recurrence of a streptococcal infection. Which additional assessment would be performed so the nurse can assess for complications? a. Ophthalmoscopic examination b. Blood pressure in both arms c. Sputum specimen analysis d. Urinalysis

ANS: D Persistent streptococcal infection commonly causes the complication of glomerular nephritis. A follow-up urinalysis after a streptococcal infection may show increased protein and the presence of blood, both of which are early manifestations of glomerular nephritis. Assessment of blood pressure in both arms, examination of the eyes, or a sputum specimen would not provide data needed to determine the presence of complications from a recurring streptococcal infection.

The client scheduled to undergo radiation therapy for lung cancer asks the nurse why 6 weeks of daily radiation treatments are necessary. What is the nurse's most accurate response? a. "Your cancer is widespread in several areas and requires more than the usual amount of radiation treatment." b. "Results don't justify the cost to your insurance company of giving larger doses of radiation for a shorter period." c. "You will be less likely to become anemic if the radiation is given in small doses over a longer period." d. "Research has shown that more cancer cells are killed if the radiation is given in smaller doses over a longer period."

ANS: D Smaller doses of radiation given over a longer period are more effective than alternative dosage presentations and is the routine treatment. Receiving this treatment does not mean that the cancer is widespread, nor does it relate to insurance reimbursement. Anemia development and this treatment are unrelated.

The nurse is teaching an Asian-American client who is not fluent in English about long-acting beta2-agonist medications for asthma, and the client agrees to follow the guidelines. What is the best action for the nurse to take to ensure that the client follows the guidelines? a. If the client agrees, the nurse only needs to document on the chart that the teaching was done. b. Write the information on note cards for the client to have with him. c. Enlist an interpreter to write the information in the client's native language. d. Reinforce the reasons that compliance is important.

ANS: D The Asian-American client may show respect in communication with health care providers by agreeing to statements or teaching without intent to carry through. Knowing this, the nurse needs to reinforce that compliance with these medications is important in decreasing the frequency of asthma attacks. The nurse needs to follow through with this teaching, so documentation alone is not the only intervention. Although note cards may be beneficial, repeating the information in this way or writing it in the client's native language will not increase compliance.

The client has recently been placed on prednisone (Deltasone). What is the highest priority instruction the nurse will provide? a. "Expect to experience weight loss and hypoglycemia." b. "Use the drug with the onset of asthma symptoms." c. "Take the drug on an empty stomach." d. "Do not stop taking the drug abruptly."

ANS: D The client should not stop taking this drug abruptly because it suppresses the adrenal gland's production of corticosteroids. This could create a life-threatening situation. The client can expect weight gain and hyperglycemia. Use of the drug with the onset of asthma symptoms is not characteristic of Deltasone. The client should take the drug with food.

The nurse is assessing a client with chronic lung disease on 6 L/min oxygen via nasal cannula. Which finding indicates a potentially acute problem? a. Wheezes on auscultation b. Pulse oximetry of 93% c. pH of 7.35 d. Respiratory rate of 6/min

ANS: D The client with chronic lung disease is driven by the hypoxic drive to breathe. If the client receives too much oxygen, the respiratory rate will slow. The nurse should decrease the oxygen flow. Respiratory failure could result. Wheezes are not an acute problem. A pulse oximetry of 93% is acceptable, as is a pH of 7.35.

The nurse is teaching a family member how to suction the client's tracheostomy at home. Which of the following should be the highest priority action on the part of the nurse to teach the family member? a. Always suction using sterile technique. b. Suction the mouth first and then the airway. c. Be prepared to recannulate the tube frequently. d. Suction using clean technique.

ANS: D The family member can suction using clean technique because there are fewer organisms in the home in comparison to the hospital. Never suction the mouth first because the airway pathogenic organisms could be introduced into the airway. The family member should not be required to recannulate tube except in an emergency.

The nurse is caring for a client with recurrent bacterial pharyngitis. Which is the nurse's highest priority intervention? a. Verify that the client has undergone HIV testing. b. Verify that the client understands that he should avoid gargling with saline. c. Verify that other members of the client's family have been tested for bacterial pharyngitis. d. Verify that the client understands the importance of completing the entire antibiotic prescription.

ANS: D The management of bacterial pharyngitis involves the use of antibiotics and the same supportive care provided for viral pharyngitis. Stress the importance of completing the entire antibiotic prescription, even when symptoms improve or subside. Although it is important for overall health that the client know his or her HIV status, it is not the highest priority intervention in the treatment plan. Also, gargling with warm saline may actually provide symptomatic relief. Testing the client's family for bacterial pharyngitis will not be a high priority because a preliminary diagnosis will be made from their symptoms.

Which statement by the nurse indicates an accurate understanding of tuberculosis (TB) as a disease process? a. "The risk of transmitting TB will be reduced after the client has had drug therapy for 6 weeks." b. "A definitive diagnosis of TB can be made using a chest x-ray." c. "Conclusive evidence of TB can be found through physical examination of the chest." d. "The TB client can have a negative skin test if he is immunocompromised."

ANS: D The tuberculin test (Mantoux test) result is the most commonly used reliable test of TB infection. A positive reaction does not mean that active disease is present but indicates exposure to TB or the presence of inactive (dormant) disease. The risk of transmitting the disease does not decrease after only 6 weeks on the medication. Conclusive evidence of TB is not provided through an examination of the chest or a chest x-ray. Only a sputum specimen will provide definitive evidence of the disease process. A reduced skin reaction or a negative skin test does not rule out TB disease or infection of the very old, or anyone who is severely immunocompromised.

What is highest priority for the nurse to teach the client who is to undergo pulmonary surgery? a. All possible surgical complications b. The purpose of intubation c. Implications of cardiopulmonary bypass d. Postoperative pulmonary hygiene

ANS: D The two nursing priorities before surgery are teaching the client the expected regimen of pulmonary hygiene to be used in the period immediately after surgery and assisting the client in a pulmonary muscle strengthening/conditioning regimen as postoperative pulmonary hygiene. The surgeon instructs the client on surgical complications, explains the purpose of intubation, and discusses the potential need for cardiopulmonary bypass.

The client arrives in the emergency department experiencing difficulty breathing. Which assessment finding requires immediate action by the nurse? a. Auscultation of crackles b. Flushed appearance of skin c. Production of white sputum d. Use of accessory muscles to breathe

ANS: D The use of accessory muscles to breathe is characteristic of status asthmaticus—a severe, life-threatening, acute episode of airway obstruction. Use of accessory muscles for breathing and distention of neck veins are observed. Whereas wheezing is characteristic of status asthmaticus, crackles typically do not develop. Although crackles indicate atelectasis or fluid buildup, they do not indicate a more critical situation than the use of accessory muscles to breathe. Cyanosis may develop as the condition progresses, rather than a flushed appearance, and the client may have difficulty speaking. White sputum is not a cause for concern.

The nurse is instructing a group of new nurses on the ventilator bundle approach to the prevention of ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP). What intervention is emphasized in this approach? a. Keep the client's head of the bed elevated to 90 degrees. b. Change the ventilator circuit every 8-hour shift. c. Perform meticulous oral care at least every 24 hours. d. Continuously remove subglottic secretions.

ANS: D The ventilator bundle for prevention of VAP recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) consists of elevation of the head of the bed to between 30 and 45 degrees, continuous removal of subglottic secretions, changing the ventilator circuit no more than every 48 hours, and handwashing before and after client contact. Elevating the head of the bed 90 degrees, changing the ventilator circuit every 8 hours, and oral care every 24 hours are not considered to be part of the ventilator bundle approach.

The client has a peritonsillar abscess. Which is the priority instruction the nurse will provide to this client? a. "If you notice an enlarged node on the side of your neck where the abscess is, call the doctor." b. "Stay home from work or school until your temperature has been normal for 24 hours." c. "You may gargle with warm water that has a teaspoon of salt in it as often as you like." d. "Take the antibiotic for the entire time it is prescribed, not just until you feel better."

ANS: D Untreated or ineffectively treated peritonsillar abscesses can extend throughout the pharyngeal area, causing swelling that may jeopardize the client's airway. Therefore, the client should take his antibiotic for the entire time prescribed to maximize the therapeutic effect. Gargling with warm water and refraining from normal activities may provide symptomatic relief for the client but would not be considered priority instructions. Also, swelling, pain, and inflammation could be noted by the client on the same side of the neck as the abscess.

The client with tuberculosis asks his nurse when he will be considered noninfectious. Which is the nurse's best response? a. "When your PPD test is negative." b. "When your chest x-ray shows resolution of the lesions." c. "When you have been on the medication at least 6 weeks." d. "When you have three negative sputum cultures in a row."

ANS: D When results of three sputum cultures are negative, the client is considered to be noninfectious (but still requires treatment with medication), can return to work, and can resume other social activities without infection precautions. If the client has a negative purified protein derivative (PPD) test result, he would not be infectious for tuberculosis. Definitive evidence of the client being noninfectious would also include having the chest x-ray show resolution of lesions and being on medication for at least 6 weeks.

Place the steps for obtaining a peak expiratory flow rate in the order in which they should occur. (Separate letters by a comma and space as follows: A, B, C, D.) a. Take as deep a breath as possible. b. Stand up. c. Place the meter in your mouth, and close your lips around the mouthpiece. d. Make sure the device reads zero or is at base level. e. Blow out as hard and as fast as possible for 1 to 2 seconds. f. Write down the value obtained. g. Repeat the process two additional times, and record the highest number in your chart.

ANS: D, B, A, C, E, F, G The proper order for obtaining a peak expiratory flow rate is: Make sure the device reads zero or is at base level. Stand up (unless you have a physical disability). Take as deep a breath as possible. Place the meter in your mouth, and close your lips around the mouthpiece. Blow out as hard and as fast as possible (1 to 2 seconds). Write down the value obtained. Repeat the process two more times, and record the highest of the three numbers in your chart.