Part 2 PRACTICE SECTION Test Questions

Which one of the following contact points would be most appropriate for correcting a left anterior-superior (AS) ilium or left sacroiliac flexion restriction, with the pt positioned in side posture and the involved side (left) down? A. Right sacral ala B. Left sacral ala C. Right sacral apex D. Left sacral apex

B

Which physical modality should not be used in a pt with severe peripheral arterial disease? A. Elevate the head of the bed B. Electrical heating pad C. Graded exercise to onset of pain D.Increase walking time

B

Division of the sacral base into four quadrants on the lateral projections to determine the anterior displacement of a spondy is called: A. Reece Ferguson method B. Harrison method C. Meyerding method D. Eisenstein Method

C

During an atlas palpation, you find that you meet more resistance when you push lateral to medial on the right transverse process and more resistance when you push P - A on the left transverse process. What is the listing? A. ASLA B. ASLP C. ASRA D. ASRP

C

If a 25yr old pt presents with chronic localized neck pain or stiffness aggravated by specific movements, the most likely diagnosis is: A. Torticollis B. Osteoarthritis of the C-spine C. Cervical sublux D. Cervical disc lesion

C

If a patient is suspected of having vertebral artery insufficiency, which patient adjusting position is not advisable? A. flexion and rotation B. rotation C. extension and rotation D. lateral flexion and extension

C

When performing a Modified Combination Movement, what should the doctor be sure not to: A. Occlude nose & mouth B. Split the inferior SCM C. Occlude the external auditory meatus D. Stress the TMJ

C

When performing a diversified adjustment, removing the slack takes the patient to what position in the normal range of motion? A. Active motion position B. Passive motion position C. Elastic barrier D. Paraphysiological space

C

When performing a leg length analysis according to the deirfield technique which of the following is indicative of -D? A. Short leg gets longer B. Even leg gets longer C. Short leg stays short D. Short leg gets even

C

When performing an adj using a pisiform contact on the medial inferior side of the PSIS with the pt in side posture position, the line of drive is towards the shoulder what is the most appropriate listing? A. PI B. AS C. PIIN D. PIEX

C

When testing the patient with the atlas rotational device (A.R.D.), you find a light displacement of 10" to the left of patient's center...with their eyes closed. This would indicate what type of listing? A. Right posterior atlas B. Left anterior atlas C. Left posterior atlas D. Left lateral atlas

C

When the vertebral has rotated the SP to the open side of the wedge, listed PRS or PLS the contact point for correction is the .... A. Vertebral body B. TP C. SP D. None of the above

C

Where does cholilthiasis refer to? A. 12 rib pain B. Medial arm pain C. Scapular/shoulder pain D. None of the above

C

Where does the most rotation in the trunk occur? A. cervical B. sacrum C. thoracic D. lumbr

C

Where is the anterior longitudinal ligament thinnest? A. Sacral B. Lumbar C. Cervical D. Thoracic

C

Which is a contraindication for cryotherapy? A. Swelling B. Inflammation C. Diabetes D. Pregnancy

C

Which is a relative contraindication to adjusting? A. Fracture B. Recent Surgery C. Acute Spastic Muscle Region D. Malignancy

C

Which is an absolute contraindication to adjusting? A. TIA B. Non-Union of dens C. Recent surgery D. Osteopenia

C

Which of the following diagnostic imaging is most helpful to confirm an ACL complete tear? A. Conventional radiography B. US C. MRI D. Computed tomography

C

Which of the following drugs is known as a COX2 inhibitor? A. Ibuprofen B. Tylenol C. Celebrex D. Apirin

C

Which of the following has a right side down pt placement? A. PRS/ push/ L3 B. PLI/ pull/ L5 C. PRS/ pull/ L1 D. PLI-M/ pull/ L2

C

Which of the following is a cause of lung disease in a person working in the textile industry? A. Silicosis B. Siderosis C. Byssinosis D. Asbestosis

C

Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to adjusting? A. RA B. Diffuse osteopenia C. Infection D. Spondylolisthesis

C

Which of the following may be a contraindication to adjusting the upper cervical spine? A. Clay Shoveler's fx B. Spina bifida Occulta C. Os Odontoideum D. Gouty Arthritis

C

Regarding side posture pelvic adjusting placing the involved side (constant side) up or down? A. It depends on clinical results or pt preference B. All children should be adj involved side down C. All children should be adjusted involved side up D. The sacrum is stabilized better with the involved side up

A

Showed the cervical spine with the doctor contacting the spinous with double thumbs. The patient's head will be in ___ and the line of drive will be ___. A. Flexion; cephalic B. Extension; cephalic C. Flexion; caudal D. Extension; caudal

A

T10-T12 will effect the? A. Kidneys B. Liver C. Stomach D. Gallbladder

A

T6-10 effects the? A. Gallbladder, liver, spleen B. Stomach C. Kidneys D. Colon

A

The assessment of joint play is conducted with the joint: A. loose packed joints B. closed packed joints C. mid-passive ROM D. at physiologic barrier

A

The coronal plane is best described as the: A. XY Plane B. XZ Plane C. YZ Plane D. SG Plane

A

The foundation principle refers to: A. A level pelvis B. Level knee joint C. Eyes level with the horizon D. Hard palate level on the lateral cervical spine

A

The orientation of the lumbar facets is generally conductive to movement in which plane(s)? A. Sagital B. Coronal C. Transverse D. All planes equally

A

The patient has a flexion fixation on C5, what is the listing? A. P B. PR C. PL D. PS

A

Using the Leander Flexion Distraction protocol, the best success with treating scoliosis has been achieve by treatment lasting ____ mins. A. 20-30 B. 15-20 C. 10-15 D. 5-10

A

Using the Leander Flexion Distraction protocol, the best success with treating scoliosis has been achieved by treatments lasting ________ minutes. A. 20-30 B. 15-20 C. 10-15 D. 5-10

A

What carpal bone is most often involved in carpal tunnel syndrom? A. Lunate B. Scaphoid C. Hamate D. Capitate

A

What does a muscular fixation feel like? A. Feels resistant to movement in active and passive ROM but at the end of joint plays feel B. Chiropractic C. None of the above D. All the above

A

What is the lumbar motion? A. Flex/ext B. Lateral flex C. Rotation D. None of the above

A

What is the sign and symptoms of facet syndrome? A. Scleratogenous, extension aggravates B. Antalgic lean C. Deep, boring pain D. One nerve root

A

What is the thoracic challenge? A. Lateral flex B. Flex/Ext C. None of the above D. Rotation

A

Where should the chiropractor palpate when trying to locate the TP of C1? A. Anterior and inferior to mastoid process B. Posterior and inferior to mastoid process C. Anterior and superior to the mastoid process D. Posterior and superior to the mastoid process

A

Where will you refer a patient will a tumor in the spine? A. Orthopedist B. ER C. IV therapy D. DEXA scan

A

Which of the following is correct for the lumbar single hand contact with the patient lying prone with a listing of -0x +0Y +0Z with a right convexity? A. Left contact hand/ right dr stance B. left stabilization hand/ right dr stance C. right contact hand/ left dr stance D. right stabilization hand/ left dr stance

A

Which of the following is employed with a side lying pisiform push procedure to correct a right L5 mammillary in right convexity? A. Left hand contact on the right mammillary B. Left hand contact on the right side of the SP C. Right hand contact on the left mammillary process D. Right hand contact on the left side of the SP

A

Which of the following is your goal for the management of the pt with adhesive capsulitis? A. Reduce pain B. Reduced ROM C. Weakened contralateral muscles D. Strengthen contralateral muscles

A

Which of the following modalities is most commonly utilized for an acute exacerbation of chronic low back pain? A. Cryotherapy B. Moist Heat C. Diathermy D. Ultrasound

A

Excessive use or ingestion of fluoride leads to ___. A. Neurological deficits B. Discoloration of the teeth C. Rampant cavities D. Mottling of the skin

B

In activator, if a patient squeezes their elbow against their side and the leg length changes, this indicates a problem: A. With their elbow B. With their shoulder C. With their scapula D. With their elbow and scapula

B

In activator, if the leg length goes short with a challenge, it means: A. The challenge was in the direction of correction B. The challenge was in the direction of subluxation C. There is a problem on the side opposite of the challenge D. There is not a problem

B

Master Cervical technique is appropriate for which vertebral levels? A. Low c-spine, C4-C7 B. Upper c-spine, C1-C3 C. Appropriate for all cervicals D. Only occiput and C1

B

The SP of L1 will palpate as? A. Sharp B. Long and Flat C. Rounded D. None of the above

B

Which SP is in the same horizontal plane as the transverse process of T10? A. T8 B. T9 C. T7 D. T10

B

Which of the following technique systems is the only one NOT to eschew to use of rotation either in the setup (preadjustive tension phase) or during the delivery of an adj? A. Applied kinesiology B. Diversified technique C. Gonstead D. Sacro-occipital

B

Which one of the following has a right inferior hand pisiform contact point? A. PLS/ single hand contact/ prone/ L1 B. PLS- M/ single hand contact/ knee chest/ L5 C. PLI-M/ single hand contact/ prone/ L5 D. PLI-M/ single hand contact/ knee chest/ L2

B

At T7 there is a right body rotation with right lateral flexion malposition. To adj using a single hand contact, the dr stands on the ___ side of the pt, contacts the ___ with the ___. A. Left; left TP; left pisiform B. Right; right TP; right pisiform C. Left; left SP; left pisiform D. Right; right SP; right pisiform

C

At what point is the quality of the end-feel or end-play of a joint assessed? A. In the joint play (free play range) B. At the end of active ROM C. At the end of passive ROM D. At the anatomic barrier

C

To adj a PI ilium with a diversified type of adj we the the pt: A. Prone B. Supine C. Prone with pelvic pad activated D. Supine with pelvic pad activated

C

What ranges of motion would predispose to an anterior-inferior dislocation at the glenohumeral joint? A. ABD and internal rotation B. ADD and internal rotation C. ABD and external rotation D. ADB and extension

C

What type of pt may benefit from use of SOT blocking? A. Pt with craniosacral rural dysfunc B. Pt with SI subluxation C. Pt with acute low back pain and disc dysfunc D. Pt with extremity dysfunc

C

Which accompanies an extension fixation malposition of the innominate bone? A. EX B. AS C. PI D. IN

C

Which bony structure is in the same horizontal plane with the posterior superior iliac spine? A. Sacral promontory B. L5 Transverse process C. S2 sacral tubercle D. L4 SP

C

Which finding is associated with an anterior innominate malposition A. Elevated ASIS B. Lower gluteal fold C. Anterolateral and superior PSIS D. Functional ipsilateral leg length deficiency

C

Which is the best management for a 45-yr old male who complains of low back pain and has a radiological evidence of grade 2 spondylolisthesis with pars defect at L5? A. Refer to an orthopedic surgeon B. Order a nuclear bone scan C. Spinal manipulation D. Recommended extensor strengthening exercises

C

Which is the most likely diagnosis in a pt who has an extension injury to the wrist in which the anatomical snuffbox is swollen and tender? A. Severely sprained wrist B. Trapezoid fx C. Scaphoid fx D. Pisiform fx

C

Which is the rule of thumb to locate the TP of T3? A. 2 interspinous spaces down and 1.5in lateral B. 1 interspinous space down and 1/2in lateral C. 1 interspinous space up and 1in lateral D. 2 interspinous spaces up and 3/4in lateral

C

Which is the segmental contact point for correcting a PLI-L at C3 using a Gonstead cervical chair set-up? A. Right TP of C3 B. Left lamina of C3 C. Right lamina of C3 D. Left TP of C3

C

Which of the following drugs has the highest risk of a pt not clotting? A. Opioids B. Tylenol C. Aspirin D. None of the above

C

Which is the most likely diagnosis in a pt who presents with knee pain and decreased in varus fluid motion? A. Medial fibula B. Anterior- medial tibia C. Infero-lateral fibula D. Anterior- lateral tibia

D

Which is the most likely diagnosis in a pt with elbow pain, loss of fluid motion at the humeroradial joint and tenderness over the head of the radius? A. Posterior ulnar B. Posterior medial humerus C. Posterior Humerus D. Posterior radius

D

Which is the name for an aggulated kyphosis due to a collapse of a vertebral body? A. Hyperlordosis B. Dowager hump C. Sway back D. Gibbus Formation

D

Which of the following exercises in the elderly is recommended to prevent osteoporosis? A. Swimming B. Running C. Passive ROM D. Axial weights

D

What are DeLorme's exercises for?

Knee rehab

What plane of movement is seen in the lumbosacral facets?

coronal

What plane of movement is seen in the thoracic facets?

coronal

Your patient presents with chronic low back pain and repeated sprains of the lumbar spine. Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment plan?

corrective exercises

What is the reference structure of the vertebrae unless otherwise noted?

vertebral body

Sub-occipital triangle

• Obliquus capitus superior (C1 transverse to occiput) • Obliquus capitus inferior (SP of axis to C1 transverse) • Rectus capitus posterior major (SP of axis to occiput) • Rectus capitus posterior minor (posterior tubercle to occiput)

In upper cross syndrome, what muscles are lengthened/inhibited?

• Rhomboids • lower & middle trapezius • serratus anterior • teres minor • longus coli and capitus

What are the contraindications for traction?

• bone weaken/inhibiting conditions, • ligamentous instability • acute injury

What are the indications for traction?

• disc syndrome • IVF encroachment • chronic muscle spasm

What are the effects of Ultrasound?

• thermal (continuous only), mechanical, chemical and neural • May be performed as a surface modality or underwater to accommodate bony/irregular areas

What are the William's exercises?

•Abdominal crunches •pelvic tilts • hamstring stretches designed to reduce a HYPERlordosis

What are the symptoms of a vitamin B12 deficiency? What is it caused by? Test?

•Cobalamin deficiency is caused by lack of intrinsic factor (positive schilling test) •Produces pernicious anemia (megaloblastic), folic acid masks the symptoms •May become posterolateral sclerosis (combined systems disease), neuropathies persist after B12 is administered

In a posterior pelvic tilt, what muscles are hypertonic/facilitated?

•Hamstrings •gluteals •abdominals

In an anterior pelvic tilt, what muscles will be lengthened/inhibited?

•Hamstrings •gluteals •abdominals

What are the absolute contra-indications to adjusting?

•Malignancies •tumors •infections •fractures •abdominal aortic aneurysm •recent surgery.

When looking at the gravity weight line in an anterior view, what is being assessed?

•head tilt or rotation •shoulder height •arm carriage •hip height •feet malposition.

What are the indications for Massage?

•subacute sprains • strains • bruises • tendinitis •bursitis

Physical activity is promoted to ___.

Reduce depression

With the patient lying on the left side the doctor contacts the right mammillary process of L3 with a pisiform contact and thrusts P-A with clockwise torque. This procedure would be used for which of the following: A. Right rotated, left laterally flexed L3 (PLI-M; RPS) B. Right rotated, right laterally flexed L3 (PLS: RPI) C. Left rotated, right laterally flexed L3 (PRI-M; LPS) D. Left rotated, left laterally flexed L3 (PRS; RPI)

A

You have decided to palpate your pt's SIJ standing. You place your left thumb in the pt left PSIS and your right thumb on the pt's left second sacral tubercle. You ask the pt to raise his right lower extremity past 90degrees. Which of the following are you now palpating? A. Extension of the left SIJ B. Flexion of the right SIJ C. Extension of the right SIJ D. Flexion of the left SIJ

A

With the pT prone, the dr stands on the left side of the patient and contact the SP of T7 with the left pisiform contact. The right pisiform is placed in the left anatomical snuff box. The thrust is P-A, left to right, with CCW torque. This procedure could be done for which of the following: A. Right rotated, right laterally flexed T7 B. Right rotated, left laterally flexed T7 C. Left rotated, left laterally flexed T7 D. Left rotated, right laterally flexed T7

A

In the upper lumbar spine (L1-L3) the motion of rotation is coupled with: A. Ipsilateral lateral flex B. Contralateral lateral flex C. Flex D. Extension

B

In the upper lumbar spine (L1-L3), the motion of rotation is coupled with: A. Ipsilateral lateral flex B. Contralateral lateral flex C.Flex D. Extension

B

In the upper lumbar spine (L1-L3). normal rotation of the vertebra results in ___ SP motion A. Contralateral lateral flexion B. Ipsilateral lateral flexion C. Flexion D. Extension

B

In the upper thoracic and cervical spine, during purportedly normal coupled motion of lateral flexion, the SP moves: A. Toward the concavity of the curve B. Toward the convexity of the curve C. Away from the direction of pain D. Toward the direction of pain

B

Long distraction of the wrist would be most effective for treating a fixation btwn which 2 carpals? A. Capitate and hamate B. Lunate and capitate C. Lunate and scaphoid D. Capitate and trapezoid

B

Manipulative skill for the lower thoracic spine present a more formidable task to the practitioner for a variety of reasons. One reason is: A. The largest number of vertebrae in the thoracic region B. The impact of many of the spinal stabilizing muscles crossing region from the pelvis and lumbar spine regions C. The lack of mobility of the region compared to other regions D. Hypermobility of this area

B

Medial to the root of the spine of the scapula? A. Sp of T5 B. Sp of T3 C. Sp of T2 D. None of the above

B

Mercy guideline and others suggest that uncomplicated cervical spine conditions usually resolve in how long? A. 8weeks B. 6weeks C. 4weeks D. 12weeks

B

Most prominent SP of lower cervical? A. SP of T1 B. SP of C7 C. SP of C6 D. None of the above

B

On which side of a pelvic misalignment would you likely find a functional long leg? A. PI Ilium B. AS ilium C. IN ilium D. EX ilium

B

Palpation of the vertebra shows the right transverse process went posterior and inferior and the SP went to the left. What is the static body listing? A. Right rotation and left lateral flexion malposition B. Right rotation and right lateral flexion malposition C. Left rotation and right lateral flexion malposition D. Left rotation and left lateral flexion malposition

B

Patient presents with a spondylolisthesis on L4. What is the preferred study to be performed after opposing views of the lumbar region? A. MRI B. Flex/Ext Xray C. CT scan D.US

B

Patient presents with headaches that are exacerbated by exertion, extended computer work, and driving. Examination reveals myofascial trigger points in bilateral trapezius and levator scapula, and a severe +Z translation of the head. Your most likely diagnosis would be? A. Cluster headache B. Cervicogenic headache C. Myofascitis D.Migraine headache

B

Pt presents with severe cervical pain, 5days duration with no history of trauma. Pt is a 62yr old female with a history of heart arrhythmias and pacemaker. Your tx choice to relieve the pain would be? A. Begin chiro tx B. Laboratory tests to rule out diabetes C. Recommended NVC and needle EMG D. Use non force technique only

B

Referred pain from sclerotogenous sources present as? A. Significant decrease in muscle strength B. Nondermal pattern C. Dermatomal pattern D. Absent deep tendon reflex

B

Represents the amount of joint movement allowable before injury to that joint occurs. A. Elastic barrier of resistance B. Limit of Anatomical integrity C. Paraphysiological space D. Voluntary motion

B

Risk factors for low back pain during pregnancy include previous low back pain, multiparity and : A. Middle age B. Young age C. Bone density D. Structural malformation

B

Risk factors for low back pain during pregnancy include previous low back pain, multiparity, and : A. Middle age B. Young age C. Bone density D. Structural malformation

B

What are the articulations btwn the neural arches of the vertebrae and are non axial diarthrodial joints? A. Intervertebral joints B. Facet joints C. Sacroiliac Joints D. None of the above

B

What are the most common motion findings for choosing a prone thrust approach when treating sublux in the thoracic spine? A. Thoracic flex sublux B. Thoracic ext sublux C. Cervical extension sublux D. Cervical flex sublux

B

What are the signs and symptoms associated with disc lesions? A. Extension aggravates B. Antalgic lean C. Deep boring pain D. Scleratogenous

B

What are the signs and symptoms of a spondy? A. Deep boring pain B. Extension aggravates C. Flexion aggravates D. None of the above

B

What is medial to the inferior angle of the scapulas when standing? A. T5 B. T7 C. T6 D. None of the above

B

What is the BEST study to confirm an abdominal aortic aneurysm? A. US B. CT C. MRA D. Xray

B

What is the cervical facet motion? A. Lateral flex B. Rotation C. Flex/ext D. None of the above

B

What is the first sign of a sunburn from ultraviolet light? A. Edema B. Erythema C. Blisters D. Peeling

B

What is the least likely fatal injury to occur in the adult population? A. Slips and falls B. Poisoning C. MVA D. Firearms

B

What is the listing for a left rotation malposition on T9? A. PRI B. PR C. PL D. PLI

B

What is the listing for a patient that presents with a left rotation and left lateral flexion malposition on L2? A. PRI B. PRS C. PLI D. PLS

B

What is the listing for a patient with a right rotation and left lateral flexion malposition on L2? A. PLS B. PLI C. PRI D. PRS

B

What is the listing for a patient with a right rotation and right lateral flexion fixation on L4? A. RPS B. RPI C. LPI D. LPS

B

What is the listing for a pt with a right rotation and right lateral flexion restriction on L3? A. RPS B. LPI C. RPI D. LPS

B

What is the listing for the following motion palpation findings: decreased extension, decreased right rotation and decreased left lateral bending? A. PRI B. PRS C. PR D. PLS

B

What is the listing on the left if the upper part of the ischial tuberosity on the left is palpated poster relative to the upper part of the ischial tuberosity on the right? A. PI Ilium B. AS Ilium C. EX Ilium D. IN Ilium

B

What is the normal coupled motion? A. Low and upper thoracic B. Cervical spine and upper thoracic C. Cervical spine D. None of the above

B

What is the opposite T10 vertebra? A. Umbilicus B. Xiphoid process C. Angle of Louis D. None of the vertebrae

B

What is the opposite T2 vertebrae? A. Carotid tubercles B. Jugular notch C. Angle of Louis D. None of the above

B

What is the opposite of C3 vertebrae? A. Cervical rib B. Hyoid Bone C. Thyroid cartilage D. None of the above

B

What is the origin of the rectus femurs? A. Iliac crest B. AIIS C. ASIS D. None of the above

B

What is the origin of the sartorius? A. Iliac crest B. ASIS C. AIIS D. None of the above

B

What is the ortho that confirm facet syndrome? A. Bicycle test B. +Kemp's C. - Kemp's D. None of the above

B

What is the principle movement of the lower cervical spine? A. Rotation B. FLex and ext C. Lateral flex D. None of the above

B

What is the principle movement that occurs at the atlanto axial joint? A. Flexion B. Axial rotation C. Extension D. None of the above

B

What is the proper contact point to correct a right vertebral body rotation restristriction at T7? A. Right TP of T7 B. Left TP of T7 C. Left SP D. Left articular pillar

B

What is the proper procedure for a patient with low back pain and saddle anesthesia? A. Treat for 3-5weeks then re-evaluate B. Refer out C. Co-manage with neurologist D. Flexion distraction

B

What is the reason the amount of nitrites were lowered in lunch meats? A. Bacterial mutation B. Carcinogenic C. Toxic to intestines D. Hypertensive

B

What muscles are strong (shortened) in an AS listing? A. Hams, abs, glutes B. Quads, erector spinae, psoas C. Quads, erector spinae D. All the above

B

What muscles are weak (lengthened) in an AS listing? A. Quads, erector spinae B. Hams, abs, glutes C. None of the above D. Erector spinae, psoas

B

When auscultating for heart sounds, a normal apex beat lies in the: A. 3rd left intercostal space (the space below the 3rd rib) within the midclavicular line B. 5th left intercostal space (the space below the 5th rib) within the midclavicular line C. 5th left intercostal space (the space below the 5th rib) within the midsternal line D. 3rd left intercostal space (the space below the 3rd rib) within the midsternal line

B

When palpating your patient to find your SCP for an L3 mamillary adjustment: A. Find the PSIS, go to S2, then cephalad to L2 SP and out ½" B. Find the PSIS, go to S2, then cephalad to L2 disc and out ½" C. Find the PSIS, go to S2, then cephalad to L3 SP and out ½" D. Find the PSIS, go to S2, then cephalad to L3 disc and out ½"

B

When performing a double thenar set-up for a body right at T11, which should be the segmental contact point? A. SP of T11 on the left B. TP of T11 on the right C. SP of T11 on the right D. TP of T11 on the left

B

When performing a posture assessment from the lateral view on a "normal" individual the center of gravity line should fall thru: A. The line of the SIJ B. The greater trochanter C. The anterior aspect of the knee D. Just posterior to the medial malleolus

B

When performing an adjustment using a pisiform contact on the medial inferior side of the PSIS with the pT in the side posture position, the line of drive is towards the shoulder, what is the most appropriate listing? A. PI B. PIIN C. PIEX D. AS

B

When performing the occipital stretch, the Doctor should do which of the following? A. Keep their forearms parallel and aligned with the foot pad B. Keep their forearms perpendicular to the patient's spine C. Take a fencer stance at the head of the table and apply heavy double thumb pressure on the upstroke. D. Keep their elbows out to the sides with their fingers pointing superior applying traction as the table goes into flexion.

B

When performing the superior condyle technique the pt's head is rotated? A. 10degrees B. 0degrees C. 25degrees D. 45degress

B

When prescribing exercise for the osteoporotic pt, what goal should be met? A. Stimulate bone production and prevent muscle strengthening B. Stimulate bone production and increase muscle strengthening C. Increase non-weight bearing component of exercise routine D. Resistance exercises should not exceed that provided by daily activities

B

When the SP rotates to the open side of the wedge, but the convexity of the scoliosis is on the opposite side, contact the mammillary process on the convex side of the scoliosis. This allows the listing to be? A. PR B. PLS-M or PRS-M peculiar to the 5th lumbar only C. PL D. None of the above

B

When the left leg is raised during the knee raiser and the right SIJ is fixed, what is the most likely listing on the side of fixation? A. EX ilium B. PI ilium C. IN ilium D. AS ilium

B

When the radial head is restricted P-A what is the position of the elbow? A. Pronation/extension B. Supination/extension C. Pronation/flexion D. Supination/flexion

B

When the thighs are ADDucted during leg fanning and one of the SIJ is fixed what is the most likely listing on the side of fixation? A. IN ilium B. Posterior rotation of the sacrum C. EX ilium D. PI ilium

B

When you laterally flex to one side the SP rotates to the? A. Lateral flex B. Contralateral or convexity C. Medial flex D. None of the above

B

Where does the ALL extend to? A. Occiput L2 B. Occiput to sacrum C. C1 ro sacrum D. None of the above

B

Where does the PLL start? A. C2 B. Occiput C. C1 D. None of the above

B

Where is the thickest part of the anterior longitudinal ligament? A. Lumbar B. Thoracic C. Cervical D. Sacral

B

Which investigation is most appropriate for a patient complaining of a low back pain and intermittent claudication? A. Spinal myelogram B. Abdominal Ultrasound C. Plain erect abdominal film D. CT scan with contrast

B

Which is an example of secondary prevention? A. Health education B. PAP smear screening C. Immunizations D. Rehabilitation

B

Which is the contact hand for a PLI-T listing at T6 when using a single hand contact set-up? A. Inferior hand (right) B. Superior hand (right) C. Superior hand (left) D. Inferior hand (left)

B

Which is the listing on the left if the left PSIS is superior to the PSIS on the right from both the inferior and superior aspects? A. PI Ilium B. AS Ilium C. EX Ilium D. IN Ilium

B

Which is the most common direction for the patella to dislocate? A. Inferior and lateral B. Superior and lateral C. Inferior and medial D. Superior and medial

B

Which is the normal movement for the PSIS on the right side when the left leg is raised during a knee raiser? A. Anterior and inferior and medial B. Anterior and superior and lateral C. Posterior and inferior and medial D. Posterior and superior and lateral

B

Which muscle is inhibited in a pt with lower cross syndrome? A. Psoas major B. Glute max C. Rectus femoris D. Erector spinae

B

Which of the following conditions characteristically reveals a palpatory finding of a step defect? A. Degenerative spondylolisthesis B. Spondylolytic spondylolisthesis C. Spina Bifida D. Sacral base posterior

B

Which of the following is considered a rotatory or complex listing in the lower cervical spine? A. PL B. PRI-L C. PRS D. PLS

B

Which of the following is most likely to aggravate the symptoms of cholelithiasis? A. parmesan cheese B. fried chicken C. red meats D. black coffee

B

Which of the following motions occurs in the lumbar spine plane? A. Lateral flexion B. Flexion/Extension C. Anterior Glide D. Rotation

B

Which of the following scenarios would contraindicate further adjusting of the patient? A. The patient felt relief following the adj B. The patient complained of dizziness following adj C. The patient complained about neck soreness following the adj D. The patient got relief from distal pain, but not proximal pain

B

Which of the following statements is MOST accurate concerning the issue of "informed consent" prior to treatment? A. It is only necessary prior to engaging in unusually risky procedures B. It is always necessary and may be verbal or implied C. It is always necessary and must be in writing D. It is only necessary if the pt specifically requests ro be informed

B

Which of the following technique systems is the only one NOT to eschew the use of rotation either in the setup (preadjustive tension phase) or during the delivery of an adj? A. Applied kinesiology B. Diversified tech C. Gonstead tech D. Sacro-Occipital tech

B

Which one of the following contact points would be most appropriate for correcting a left anterior-superior (AS) ilium or left SI flexion restriction, with the pt positioned in side posture and the involved side (left down)? A. Right sacral ala B. Left sacral ala C. Right sacral apex D. Left sacral apex

B

Which one of the following forms of headache has been shown to be the MOST responsive to manipulative care? A. Temporal arthritis B. Cervicogenic C. Tension D. Cluster

B

Which recommendation is best for a pt with a shoulder impingement syndrome? A. Eccentric circumduction B. Pendulum exercises C. Deltoid strengthening D. Isotonic external rotation

B

Which type of fixation is present when SP do not approximate upon motion palpation on extension? A. Posterolateral B. Posterior C. Lateral D. Anterior

B

Which would be an absolute contraindication to adjusting a vertebral segment? A. Disc herniation B. Metastatic cancer C. Osteoma D. Osteoporosis

B

Which would be most helpful in the tx of acute medial epicondylitis? A. 6 weeks in a cast B. Application of ice packs C. Active wrist flex D. Deep wave diathermy

B

Which pattern of pain is typical of a L5 facet dysfunction? A. Sharp pain radiating onto the thigh and back of leg B. Diffuse cramps that radiate into the flank and anterior thigh C. Dull ache radiating into the buttock and posterior thigh D. Burning pain into the anterolateral aspect of the thigh

C

The referred pain frequently associated with musculoskeletal disorders can typically be described as: A. Superficial and well defined B. Superficial and ill defined C. Deep and well defined D. Deep and ill defined

C

The sacroiliac belt (trochanter belt) is recommended for which of these situations? A. Lumbar disc bulge B. Facet syndrome C. Sacroiliac instability D. Canal stenosis

C

The sagittal plane is best described as the : A. XY Plane B. XZ Plane C. YZ Plane D. SG Plane

C

The slump test is suggested for use in: A. All spinal disorders B. All spinal disorders and most lower limb disorders C. All spinal disorders, most lower limb disorders, and some upper limb disorders D. All spinal disorders and some supper limb disorders

C

There is a restriction in right body rotation in a left thoracic convexity. This is effectively corrected by using a double transverse crossed bilateral pisiform technique with a ___ hand contact on the ___ while the dr stands to the ___ of the prone pt? A. Right; left transverse; right B. Left; left transverse; left C. Right; left transverse; left D. Left; right transverse; left

C

There is restriction in right lateral bending and fixation in right rotation of the C5 vertebral segment. To adjust the C5 segment with the patient supine, the patient's head is laterally flexed to _____and the correct segmental contact point is ____. A. Left; spinous right B. Left; body right C. Right; body right D. Right; spinous right

C

To adjust a PI ilium with a diversified type of adjustment, we have the patient: A. Prone B. Supine C. Prone with pelvic pad activated D. Supine with pelvic pad activated

C

Torque applied to the lumbar segment during a prone lumbar adj is applied around which axis? A. X B. Y C. Z D. I-S

C

What are the 2 important ligaments that help support the vertebral bodies? A. Capsular ligament, interspinous ligament B. Intertransverse ligament, ALL C. ALL, PLL D. None of the above

C

What are the signs and symptoms associated with IVF? A. Extension aggravates B. Deep, boring pain C. One nerve root D. None of the above

C

What does a balance pelvis look like? A. The PSIS are in the same vertical plane as the symphysis pubis B. Rotated somewhat C. The ASIS are in the same vertical plane as the symphysis pubis D. None of the above

C

What does articular fixation feel like? A. Springy joint play B. Only somewhat blocked C. Hard end feel that is blocked in all directions D. None of the above

C

What does ligamentous fixation feel like? A. Doesn't exist B. Springy joint play C. Characterized by abrupt hard end feel with no springy joint play D. All the above

C

What is 2in inferior and 1in lateral to the posterior superior iliac spine? A. Ischial tuberosity B. S2 tubercle C. Sciatic Notch D. None of the above

C

What is opposite of C4 and C5 vertebrae? A. Hyoid bone B. First cricoid cartilage C. Thyroid cartilage D. None of the above

C

What is opposite of C6 vertebrae? A. Hyoid bone B. Thyroid cartilage C. 1st cricoid cartilage D. None of the above

C

What is opposite to T5 vertebra; medial to 2nd rib? A. Carotid tubercles B. Jugular notch C. Angle of Louis (sternal notch) D. None of the above

C

What is the best case management for a patient with chronic low back pain? A. Ultrasound B. Stretch the paraspinals muscles C. Strengthen the paraspinal muscles D. Diathermy

C

What is the most likely cause if the tip of the mastoid process does not approximate to the TP of C1 with lateral bending to the right? A. Posterior Superior Occiput B. Left Superior Occiput C. Right Superior Occiput D. Anterior Superior Occiput

C

What is the thoracic facet plane? A. Sagital B. Transverse C. Coronal D. None of the above

C

What muscles are strong (shortened) in a PI listing? A. Quads, erector spinae B. Hams, quads C. Hams, abs D. None of the above

C

What muscles are weak (lengthened) in a PI listing? A. Hams, abs B. Hams, glutes C. Quads, erector spinae D. None of the above

C

What would be the best ortho test for diagnosing sacroiliac condition? A. Valsalva B. Bicycle test C. Supported adams D. None of the above

C

When adjusting an EX ilium prone, what is your SCP? A. Lateral ischium B. Medial ischium C. Lateral PSIS D. Medial PSIS

C

When an inclinometer is used, which plane is cervical flexion and extension measured? A. Coronal B. Axial C. Sagital D. Vertical

C

When evaluating Part I of the A - P open mouth view, what are you looking for? A. Axis laterality B. Axis inferiority C. Axis rotation D. Atlas rotation

C

When managing a pt with lumbar disc herniation and associated radiculopathy it is advisable to use caution with lumbar adj that involve? A. Flex B. Extension C. Rotation D. Lateral flex

C

When palpating for occiput rotation which are the segmental contact points? A. C1 and C2 SP B. C1 and C2 TP C. Mastoid process and C1 TP D. C2 SP and C1 posterior arch

C

Which of the following is most likely to cause atlanto-axial instability? A. Gouty arthritis B. Paget's Disease C. Rheumatoid Arthritis D. Degenerative Joint Disease

C

Which of the following is the correct contact for a mortis joint adjustment? A. Calcaneus B. Cuboid C. Talus D. Cuneiforms

C

Which of the following listings is represented by the right hand cartesian system: -0x, +0Y, -0Z with an overall convexity that stacks when passively bent to the right? A. PLS/ T8 B. PLI-T/ T2 C. PRS/L3 D. PLI-M/L1

C

Which of these procedures uses a left superior contact point? A. PLS-M/ single hand contact/ P/ L5 B. PRM-/Single hand contact/ Knee chest/ L1 C. PRS/ double transverse/ P/ T11 D. PLI-T/ double transverse/ P/ T8

C

Which of these terms is not part of a static definition of vertebral sublux? A. Retrolisthesis B. Extension malposition C. Segmental hypermobility D. Altered intersegmental spacing

C

Which one of the following tests would likely be reproduced the chief complain in a pt with facet syndrome (capsulitis) at the thoracolumbar junc? A. Adam's B. SLR C. Kemp's D. Bechterew's

C

Which pair of tests is commonly used to identify carpal tunnel syndrome? A. Phalen and O'Donohue B. Yergason and Tinel C. Tinel and Phalen D. Speed and Froment

C

Which recommendation is best for a pt with a shoulder impingement syndrome? A. Deltoid strengthening B. Isotonic external rotation C. Pendulum exercises D. Eccentric circumduction

C

Which spinal segments are considered the imbrication area of the spine? A. T1-T4 B. L1-L5 C. T5-T9 D. C1-C2

C

Which tech positions lessen the work for the dr when working with a large or obese pt? A. Seated B. Side posture C. Knee Chest D. Prone

C

Which technique system principally uses changes in posture, often defined mathematically as its primary outcome measure? A. Activator method B. Bioenergetic synchronization technique C. Chrio biophysics D. Palmer H1O

C

Which technique system principally uses changes in posture, often defined mathematically as its primary outcome measure? A. Activator methods chiropractor tech B. Bioenergetic synchronization tech C. Chiropractic biophysics D. Palmer H10

C

Which will result in less pressure on the lumbar facet joint? A. Sitting in the erect position B. Wearing high heels C. Standing erect D. Strengthening the erector spinae muscles

C

With Diversified technique, exam protocol does NOT include which of the following? A. Pain B. Alignment C. Resistance D. Temperature

C

With a C7 nerve root lesion, what would be weakened? A. finger flexion; wrist flexion B. wrist flexion; elbow flexion C. elbow extension; wrist flexion D. elbow flexion; wrist extension

C

With diversified tech, examination protocol does NOT include which of the following? A. Pain B. Alignment C. Resistance D. Temperature

C

With the Ilio-Genu Extension: Contralateral, the word Genu is another name for the: A. Elbow B. Ankle C. Wrist D. Knee

C

Your CA asks your opinion regarding her daughter who is 8yrs old. She notes that the child is experiencing bloodshot eyes and is waking up with crust around her eyelids. The eye is painful and the child continues to rub her eyes despite the mother asking her not to do so. The most appropriate case management recommendation would be? A. Do lab work and include a CBC B. No treatment is necessary. Advise the assistant that this will probably go away C. Refer to a medical dr for prescriptive antibiotics D. Adj pt spine

C

Your Chiropractic Assistant asks your opinion regarding her daughter who is 8 years old. She notes that the child is experiencing bloodshot eyes and is waking up with crust around her eyelids. The eye is painful and the child continues to rub her eyes despite the mother asking her not to do so. The most appropriate case management recommendation would be? A. Do laboratory work and include a CBC B. No treatment is necessary. Advise the Assistant that this will probably go away C. Refer to a Medical Doctor for prescriptive antibiotics D. Adjust the patient's spine

C

What are Jacobson's exercises?

Biofeedback

The Gonstead listing is based on what anatomical structure?

spinous process

In the sub-occipital triangle, where is the Rectus Capitus Posterior Major located?

spinous process of Axis to Occiput

What are the contraindications for Ultraviolet? Effects?

-Hemorrhage and inflammation • Antibacterial • antifungal • metabolic effects

What are the indications for Ultraviolet? Effects?

-Skin and bone conditions • Antibacterial • antifungal • metabolic effects

What does Gonstead classify as "special listings"?

-Sp(spinous), -La(lamina), -Tp(transverse process), -M(mammillary)

What are the three types of muscle contractions?

1. Isometric - tension is developed but does not change length (no movement at the joint) - Used in the initial treatment of an injury 2. Isotonic - Contraction with a change in length (movement at joint), performed against a constant resistanceConcentric - shortened contraction (+ work)Eccentric - lengthening contraction (- work) 3. Isokinetic - a muscular contraction with a change in length and a constantly changing resistance performed at constant speed through a full range of motion.

What is the principle movement that occurs in the atlanto-occipital articulation? A. Lateral flex B. Rotation C. Flexion D. Extension

D

Coupled motion in the C-spine indicates that when the patient laterally flexes to the right what normally occurs? A. The SP rotates to the left and body to the right B. The SP rotates to the right and the body to the left C. The SP goes superior and the body inferior D. The spinous moves inferior and the body superior

A

The tube tilt for an A-P coccyx is _____.

10 caudal

Craniopathy or cranial technique is a significant component of which of the following pair of technique systems? A. Applied kinesiology/SI tech B. Chiropractic biophysics/spinal biomechanics (Pettibon) techniques C. Gonstead/Thompson terminal point techniques D. Network spinal analysis/directional nonforce technique

A

What is the spinal [neurologic] segmental level involved in the presentation of pt with carpal tunnel syndrome? A. C4 B. C5 C. C6 D. C7

D

Craniopathy or cranial technique is a significant component of which of the following pair of technique systems? A. Applied kinesiology/SI-occipital technique B. Chiropractic biophysics/spinal biomechanics (Pettibon) technique C. Gonstead/ Thompson terminal point technique D. Network spinal analysis/directional non force technique

A

Currently, which of the following is a clinician's best tool for evaluating a pt's risk for cerebrovascular accident (CVA)? A. Personal and familial history B. Appropriate orthopedic tests C. Appropriate neurological tests D. Cervical radiographic studies

A

What is the vector component common to all L.O.D.'s for all atlas listings? A. L - R B. P - A C. I - S D. S - I

D

Decreased axonal transport is a likely cause of ___. A. Muscle Atrophy B. Increased tendon reflexes C. Pathological reflexes D. Muscle Spasticity

A

What ortho would not be positive for IVF? A. Distraction B. + compression C. Bakody D. All the above

D

During motion palpation, the 2 principle movements of the costovertebral joints are typically describes as: A. Buket handle and caliper B. Caliper and flex C. Bucket handle and curlinear D. Curvilinear and flex

A

Examination of a patient reveals a static T8 body right listing equivalent to a dynamic listing of restricted left body rotation. Using a reinforced pisiform SP contact with the patient prone, the dr stands on the ___ side and utilizes a ___ line of drive. A. Left; left to right B. Right; right to left C. Left; right to left D. Left; right to left

A

What is the proper tube tilt when taking an anterior oblique film in the cervical spine?

15 degrees caudal

The tube tilt for an A-P sacrum is ____.

15 degrees cephalic

Which of the following is the correct tube tilt for an A-P sacral view?

15 degrees cephalic

Examination of a pt reveals a static T8 body right listing equivalent to a dynamic listing of restricted left body rotation. Using a reinforced pisiform SP contact with the pt prone, the dr stands of the ___ side and utilizes a ___ line of drive? A. Left; left to right B. Left; right to left C. Right; right to left D. Left; right to left

A

Lower thoracic and lumbars move together they laterally flex to one side so? A. The SP does not move B. The SP moves away from lateral flex C. The SP moves toward lateral flex D. None of the above

C

For a pt with right convexity scoliotic lumbar curve, it makes sense to : A. Strengthen the right-sided lumbar muscles B. Strengthen the left-sided lumbar muscles C. Stretch the right-sided lumbar muscles D. Stretch the muscles on the convex side of the curvature

A

Migraine headaches classically demonstrate what symptoms? A. Throbbing pain B. Focal pain in the suboccipital region C. Visual aura of scintillating scomte D. Pain behind one eye

C

Most prominent SP of upper thoracic? A. SP of T2 B. SP of T3 C. SP of T1 D. None of the above

C

For a sub-acute episode of spinal pain of >6 weeks, and < 16 weeks, the treatment frequency should be A. Not to exceed 3x weekly B. Not to exceed 1x weekly C. Not to exceed 2x weekly D. Not to exceed 1x weekly

A

For sub-acute episode of spinal pain of >6weeks and <16weeks, the tx frequency should be A. Not to exceed 3x weekly B. Not to exceed 1x weekly C. Not to exceed 2x weekly D. Not to exceed 1x weekly

A

How does neuropathic or radicular pain present? A. Localized and follows a well defined dermatomal pattern B. Deep pain C. Unlocalized pain D. None of the above

A

If the SP rotates to the closed side of the wedge and convexity of the scoliosis is on that side, contact the SP on that same side? This allows either? A. PLI-Sp pr PRI-Sp 5th lumbar only listing B. PR C. PL D. None of the above

A

If the listing is a PLS, the vertebra is fixed in ___ lateral flexion and restriction in ___ rotation. A. right; left B. right; right C. left; left D. left; right

A

If the pedicle shadows of T8 appear wider on one side than on the other, it would suggest? A. Posterior body rotation B. SP rotation C. Laterality D. Extension

A

Ilium misalignments occur in infants or toddlers most often due to: A. Trauma B. Birth process C. Sleep positioning D. Sitting up

A

Movement about the x axis and through the sagittal plane: A. Rotation B. Lateral flexion C. Flexion D. X translation

C

In ankylosing spondylitis, which symptom is NOT commonly associated with the condition? A. Increased in stiffness with activity B. Onset of back before the age of 40 C. The presence of morning stiffness D.Men are affected 3x more than women

A

Movement within the "spinal motion unit" occurs within 3joint complex. What proportion of the axial compressive load is carried by the intervertebral discs? A. 40-60% B. 50-70% C. 60-70% D. 70-90%

C

In side posture lumbar manipulation, specific segmental localization and intersegmental tension are accomplished by: A. Flexing the pt hip beyond 90degrees B. Flexing the pt's hip to less than 90degrees C. Placing the hip in anatomic position D. Extending the patient's hip beyond 20degrees

A

The proper way to obtain an L5/S1 spot shot is to have ____ tube tilt.

25°cephalic

Interruption of George's line on a lateral plain film view would suggest: A. Retrolisthesis B. Laterolisthesis C. Lateral flex D. Rotation

A

How many pounds would you lose in a week if you reduced your calories 500 a day?

3

Interspinous space, medial to the inferior angle of the scapula? A. T6-7 B. T5 C. T4 D. None of the above

A

Myofascial techniques, such as active release or Grayson technique, most closely resemble which of the following? A. Applied kinesiology B. Full spine specific (meric) technique C. Receptor-tonus (Nimmo) D. Spinal biomechanics (Pettibon)

C

The vertebral body of L5 is fixed in right lateral flexion with right body rotation with a right convexity. WHat is the proper contact point for adjusting? A. Right side of SP B. Left side of SP C. Right mammillary D. Left mammillary

C

What treatment should be prescribed for a patient that has been diagnosed with facet imbrication? A. Axial compression B. Rotation C. McKenzie's D. Williams

D

How many times should a patient exercise in a week?

30 minutes 5×

Loss of which accessory is seen in an anterior glenohumeral sublux? A. Anterior to Posterior B. Superior to inferior C. Inferior to superior D. Posterior to anterior

A

McKenzie exercises are employed to correct the effects of ___. A. Disc injury B. Lumbar scoliosis C. Muscle Strain Injury D. Hyperlordosis

A

Motion Palpation Methods are used to: A. Determine the joints in dysfunction and the specific direction of motion loss. B. Alleviate pain by creating nociceptive input to the CNS. C. Substantially increase motion to the motor segment. D. Stimulate growth in disk endplate attachments by increasing strain along Sharpey's Fibers.

A

Motion palpation of the L5 vertebral segment reveals that right lateral bending is restricted along with left vertebral body restriction. Which of the following best describes the static spinous listing of L5 segment? A. PLI B. PRS C. PRI D. PLS

A

Motion palpation reveals right lateral bending is restricted. The SP is also has a right rotation restriction. WHich of the following body listings describes the above: A. RPS B. LPS C. RPI D. LPI

A

Movement about the y axis and through the transverse plane A. Rotation B. Lateral flexion C. Flexion D. X translation

A

Nerve conduction velocity studies are most useful in the dx of which situation? A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Muscular dystrophy C. Cervical myelopathy D. Disc Herniation

A

What would be the preferred method of quantifying the degrees of scoliosis? A. Chamberlain B. McGregor's C. McRae's D. Cobb's

D

On Thompson technique: equalization of prone leg lengths on cervical rotation indicates: A. Rotational fix of one or more cervical segments B. Lateral flex of one or more cervical segments C. Anterior translation of one or more cervical segments D. Posterior translation of one or more cervical segments

A

Postural findings of a high mastoid with level shoulders and no head rotation is suggestive of: A. A superior occipital on the high side or an inferior occiput on the low side B. A posterior occiput on the high side C. A posterior C1 on the low side D. A posterior and Inferior C2 on the ----

A

Palpation of the vertebra shows the right TP went posterior and inferior and the SP went left. What is the static body listing? A. Right rotation and right lateral flexion malposition B. Left rotation and left lateral flexion malposition C. Right rotation and left lateral flexion malposition D. Left rotation and right lateral flexion malposition

A

Palpatory pain at the origin and insertion of the sartorius muscle may indicate: A. Post rotation of the upper SI area B. Ant rotation of the upper SI area C. Internal rotation of the femur head D. Lateral meniscus tear at the knee

A

The tube tilt of the AC Joint view is ____ degrees.

5

The tube tilt for an A-P knee is ____.

5 degrees cephalad

Peripheral nerve and nerve root disorders can be managed for? A. 6weeks B. Until resolution C. 1month D. 90days

A

A prominent left mammillary process at L2 in a left sectional convexity is most effectively corrected using a side posture push move with a ___ hand contact on the ___. A. Right; left mammillary B. Left; Right SP C. Right; Left SP D. Left; Right mammillary

A

A prominent left mammillary process of L2 in a left sectional convexity is corrected by using a side posture push move. The ___ side of the patient should be up, the doctors contact hand is the ___ hand and the ___ is contacted. A. Left; right; left mammillary B. Left; left; right mammillary C. Right; left; right mammillary D. Right; right; left SP

A

A prone cervical index pillar contact is best utilized to correct a/an ____ malposition A. rotation B. flexion C. anterior D. lateral flexion

A

Peripheral nerve and nerve root disorders can be managed for? A. 6 weeks B. Until resolution C. One month D. 90 Days

A

A pt with chronically tight psoas muscle should do which of the following stretches? A. Extend the involved (tight psoas) side leg off the bed supine B. Forced foot dorsiflexion C. Flex forward and toward the involved (tight psoas) side D. Flex the hip on the involved side and laterally flex away

A

A restricted left mammillary of L2 also exhibits fixation in right lateral flexion, what is the lumbar listing? A. PLS B. PRS C. PLI D. PRI

A

A runner presents with radiographic evidence of heel spurs and reports pain when the large toe or the entire foot is brought into dorsiflexion. Besides foot manipulation what other modality may play an important role in proper management of this pt? A. Foot orthotics for pronation or supination B. Taping of the posterior aspect of the ankle C. Manipulating of the knee D. Force dorsiflexion applied to the ankle joint daily

A

A seated cervical adj for C5 PRS listing requires a: A. A right distal lateral index contact B. A left pisiform contact C. A right metacarpophalangeal contact D. A left cubical contact

A

Accessory joint motions can best be described as: A. Involuntary movements necessary for normal joint function B. Involuntary movements not necessary for normal joint func C. Voluntary movements necessary for normal joint motion D. Voluntary movements not necessary for normal joint func

A

The normal Kohler's teardrop distance is ______.

7mm

According to Bergmann and colleagues, a complete loss of end feel (empty end feel) is a significant bc it may be indicative of joint: A. Instability B. Hypomobility C. Misalignment D. Restriction

A

According to Bergmann and colleagues, a complete loss of end feel (empty feel) is significant bc it may be indicative of joint: A. Instability B. Hypomobility C. Misalignment D. Restriction

A

Adson's test, Wright test, and Roos test (EAST) are used to identify which of the following clinical conditions? A. Thoracic outlet syndrome B. Meniscal tears on the knee C. Disc herniation with neurologic deficits D. Cervical facet syndrome

A

An A/C separation would best be corrected with a ___ adj? A. Medial clavicle B. Lateral clavicle C. acromion D. P-A glide

A

An anterior divergence btwn the atlas plane line and the odontoid perpendicular line would indicate what listing? A. AS B. AI C. PS D. PI

A

Ankle clonus is a sign of: A. Upper motor neuron lesion B. Lower motor neuron lesion C. Injured ankle tendon D. Torn intarflexor muscle of the foor

A

65yr old male presents to your office with right sided knee pain. He notes it sometimes "locks" and occasionally he feels like his knee is "giving away" Orthopedically you perform the following tests: Slocum, Apley's compression and distraction, valgus and varus stress tests. All results show them to be classically insignificant. You perform Wilson's test and this proves to be provocative. The most appropriate case management would be? A. Removal of loose bodies within the knee B. Knee exercises to strengthen the muscles around to the knee to give support C. Casting of the knee D. Knee replacement surgery

A

As a chiropractor what can you do for the pt with MS? A. Muscle stretching, daily aerobic exercises especially aquatic and adj B. Encorage the ot to be on a diet and take appropriate supplements C. Advise taking hot showers/baths D. Advise pt to acquire a "cooling jacket"

A

As a chiropractor, which of the following would you do for a pt with lateral epicondylitis? A. Application of ice or heat to reduce the inflammation, massage, US, and adj B. A course of corticosteroids C. A short course of NSAIDs D. Decompression sergery

A

A chronic scalene muscle spasm may be found with: A. Decreased cervical lordosis B. Increased cervical lordosis C. Upper cervical sublux D. Thoracic sublux

A

A dynamic listing of restricted left body rotation with restricted right lateral flexion is most effectively corrected using a double transverse crossed bilateral pisiform adjustment with a ___ hand contact and the line of drive is ___. A. Left; L-M and I-S B. Right; L-M and I-S C. Left; M-L and S-I D. Left; M-L and I-S

A

A dynamic listing of restricted right body rotation with restricted right lateral flexion in the lumbar spine is best corrected using a lumbar push move. The segmental contact point is ___, the dr contact hand is ___, the pt's ___ thigh contacted and the torque utilized is ____? A. Right SP; left pisiform; right; CW B. Left mammillary; left pisiform; right; CW C. Right mammillary; left pisiform; right; CCW D. Left SP; right pisiform left; CCW

A

A flexion-type injury following a pushing movement is most likely the result in which type of SI dysfunction ? A. Posterior sublux sprain B. Anterior sublux sprain C. Anterior sublux D. Posterior sublex

A

A left lateral flexion malposition with a right body rotation malposition at the T6 level is best corrected with double tenar move, The contact should be on the ___ while the doctor stands on the ___ side of the prone patient. A. Right TP; Right B. Left TP; Right C. Right SP; Right D. Left SP; Left

A

A left laterally flexed vertebral body with left body rotation is equivalent to which dynamic listing? A. Right lateral flexion restriction with right body rotation restriction B. Right lateral flexion fixation with left body rotation restriction C. Left lateral flexion restriction with right body rotation fixation D. Left lateral fixation with left body rotation restriction

A

A long-lever adjustive technique involves a specific or general primary contact on the body part but the second contact is: A. Remote from the segment, forming a broad or long leverage system of forces. B. Precisely placed as close as possible to the primary contact to produce short adjustive levers. C. Irrelevant to the adjustment and can be placed in any location on the body. D. Only necessary in adjustments requiring a recoil action.

A

A measurement differing by more than 3mm from anterior to posterior using Vam Akkerveeken's lines suggests: A. Instability B. Scoliosis C. Extension malposition D. Stenosis

A

A patient has a sudden onset of chest pain after sustaining a bone fx. What is the most likely cause of this finding? A. Embolism B. Pulmonary edema C. Myocardial infarction D. Pneumonia

A

A patient is lying with the left side up, the doctor uses a right hand digital contact pulling the spinous from right to left using a counter-clockwise torque. What is the spinous listing? A. PRI B. PRS C. PLI D. PLS

A

Which of the following is a common cause of low birth weight in a newborn?

Smoking

Your patient is a 25 year old male with a complaint of stiffness. He was told that Chiropractic care is terrific for improving motion and he wanted to give it a try. His area of complaint is limited to his lower back and his Sacro-iliac joint. He noted that his father had similar problems and that he let it go. His father now walks bent over and has very limited motion. . The most appropriate case management would be? A. Order a HLA-B27 lab test B. Order a Thyroid profile C. Order a R-A Latex fixation lab test D. Order a Complete Blood Count with Differential

A

Your patient is a 65 year old male who presents to your office with right sided knee pain. He notes that sometimes he feels like his knee "locks" and occasionally he feels like his knee is "giving away". Orthopedically you perform the following tests, Slocum, Apleys compression and distraction, Valgus and Varus stress tests. All the results show them to be classically insignificant. You perform Wilson's test and this proves to be provocative. The most appropriate case management would be? A. Removal of loose bodies within the knee B. Knee exercises to strengthen the muscles around the knee to give support C. Casting of the knee D. Knee replacement surgery

A

A 40 year old carpenter presents with 3 months history of pain in the left forearm and the elbow. There was no trauma. The carpenter worked overtime and late hours to meet the deadline for his contract job. His symptoms began after that job. Initially the pain was felt as a mild ache but got progressively worse and more severe. Lifting, especially if the with the palm is facing down, increased the pain. Holding a cup of coffee became difficult. There were no swellings and the only positive finding was pain on pressure over the extensor muscles a finger breath below the lateral epicondyle with the elbow at 90°. Cozen's / Mills signs were positive. What is the likely diagnosis? A. Lateral Epicondylitis B. Medial Epicondylitis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Osteoarthritis As a Chiropractor, which of the following would you do for the patient in the above question? A. Application of ice or heat [which ever works best] to reduce the inflammation, transverse friction massage, Pulsed US, adjustments and advise on counter force brace during heavy lifting B. A course of corticosteroids C. A short course of NSAIDs D. Decompression surgery Which of the following is your goal for the management of the patient in question above? A. Reduce pain B. Reduce range of motion C. Weaken contralateral muscles D. Strengthen contralateral muscles

A A A

Which of the following views is the ankle perpendicular to the cassette?

A-P ankle

Which of the following has a cephalic tube tilt?

A-P sacrum

C6 reveals a prominent left articular pillar. In a seated patient position, what is the best contact if the doctor is standing behind the patient? A. Index contact on the left articular pillar B. Index contact on the right articular pillar C. Index contact on the left side of the spinous D. Index contact on the right side of the spinous

A.

There is restriction in right lateral bending and restriction in right body rotation. What is the best Gonstead listing? A. PRS B. PLS C. PRI D. PLI

A.

When considering manipulation of the upper or lower cervical spine, which single head and neck position has been shown to produce the greatest compromise to vertebral artery blood flow? A. Maximum flex B. Maximum extension C. Maximum lateral flex D. Maximim rotation

D

The mother presents with her child who has small facial features and small head. This is associated with which of the following?

alcohol consumption

In the Lovette Positive Classification, on what side is the convex scoliosis?

AI sacrum side

Which of the following cervical views requires a 15-degree cephalic tube tilt?

APLC

The best view to see a fracture through the anterior and posterior arch of atlas is the _____.

APOM

Palpatory findings: Spongy edema at posterior inferior margin of the SI joint. This is seen with what pelvic subluxation?

AS ilium

What pelvic subluxation presents with the following: higher femur head, posterior sacrum, shorter innominate, smaller obturator foramen, and decreased lumbar lordosis?

AS ilium

In a scoliosis, on what side should the sole lift be used?

AS ilium side

Mesothelioma is due to excessive exposure to which of the following?

Asbestos

The ABC's are used to assess a condition. The A stands for which of the following?

Assessment

In the Lovette Positive Classification, to what side will the spinous deviate?

Away from convexity

20yr old female, standing at 5'11" and weighs 120lbs. She works as a model. Since she spends most of her time on her feet she notices that lately she is developing pain in her right foot. She is concerned that this might affect her work performance. The pains seems to be located btwn the 3rd and 4th metatarsal heads. It is exacerbated by wearing of high heel shoes and protracted standing with her bod weight being placed on the balls of her feet. The most appropriate case management would be? A. Perform ankle AP-PA drawer test B. Perform Strunky's test C. Perform Advancement test D. Perform Adduction Correction test

B

Always work on what muscles first when addressing a patients concern? A. Work on strong muscles first B. Always strengthen weak muscles first C. C1 Stat D. None of the above

B

49 year old patient presents with what she describes as numbness in her hands and feet, as though she's wearing socks and gloves, noted in her history she states an increase in hunger, thirst, and weight loss. There are no significant findings upon examination or x-ray to correlate to her complaints. What is you next best recommendation to this patient? A. Begin chiropractic treatment B. Laboratory tests to rule out diabetes C. Recommend NCV and needle EMG D. Use non-force techniques only

B

A 12yr old overweight female pt presents with a right limp and right hip pain that began after a fall on an icy sidewalk. Radiographs show asymmetry of the positioning of the femur heads within the acetabuli. Correct pt management would be: A. SIJ manipulation B. Referral or orthopedic consultation C. Hip Joint manipulation D. SOT blocking

B

Before performing the Bilateral Thenar Occiput technique the patient should be asked: A. About past history of migraines B. Are they wearing contacts C. Are they using a hearing aid D. To raise their chin

B

Before performing the Bilateral thenar occiput tech the pt should be asked: A. About past history of migraines B. Are they wearing contacts C. Are they using a hearing aid D. To raise their chin

B

With respect to the associated risk of cervical spine manipulative therapy (cSMT) and stroke which of the following statements is the MOST accurate statement concerning the current evidence base? A. The same following the use of non-sterodial anti-inflam drugs (NSAIDs) B. Must be considered to be rare, idiosyncratic, and unpredictable C. The casual link btwn cSMT and stroke is well established in the MD and DC literature D. Clear evidence that delineates those activities or positions that place a pt at greater risk

B

With the pT supine, the dr contacts the posterior aspect of the right articular process of C5 with the metacarpal phalangeal contact of the right index finger, turns the head into left rotation, laterally flexes slightly over the contact and thrusts P-A through the line of facets. This describes which of the following: A. right rotated, right laterally flexed C5 B. right rotated, left laterally flexed C5 C. left rotated, right laterally flexed C5 D. left rotated, left laterally flexed C5

B

Your patient is a 56 yr old female that is coming to your office for regular Chiropractic care. You notice that her hands show haygarth and heberden nodes. There appears to be some ulnar drift as well. She notes that her mother has the same thing and that at times her hands are painful but she is able to function with activities of daily living. This is why she never mentioned it to you. The most appropriate case management would be? A. Casting of the hands B. Anti-inflammatory diet C. Silver salt injections D. Amputation

B

Which is the line of drive when performing a seated push for a spinous right listing at the C7 level? A. A-P, I-S, R-L B. P-A, S-I, L-R C. A-, S-I, L-R D. P-A, I-S, R-L

D

Which is the listing if there is a restriction of extension, left rotation and left lateral bending of T8? A. PRI- T B. PLI-T C. PRS D. PLS

D

Which is the listing on the right side if the right PSIS lies inferior to the left PSIS in both inferior and superior aspects? A. EX ilium B. AS ilium C.IN ilium D. PI ilium

D

What does it mean when the ASIS's are in the same plane as the symphysis pubis?

Balanced Pelvis

What are Plyometrics?

Ballistic exercises a type of exercise that trains muscles to produce power (strength + speed). Plyometric exercises involve a stretch of the muscles, immediately followed by a contraction of the same muscles — which is why it's sometimes referred to as "jump training."

What part of the vertebra is referenced on boards when given a listing?

Body

1st prominent sp inferior to the EOP? A. SP of T1 B. SP of C1 C. SP of C2 D. None of the above

C

According to the book, "Table Assisted Adjusting" which of the following will help identify an Overcompensated Cervical Syndrome (OCS)? A. Xray and heel lifts B. Xray and Pelvic blockers C. Xray and tender traps D. MRI and taut and tender gastroc

C

48yr old male auto mechanic. He presents for treatment for med back pain. No hx of trauma. He notes that believes that his problem has come on due to a chronic cough which he noted has has had for years. He is a smoke and has been for the past 30yrs. He smokes 1pack/day. The most appropriate case management action would be? A. Spirometry B. Complete blood count C. Chest Xrays D. Electrocardiogram

C

All of the following tests are used to diagnose joint dysfunction/subluxation of the lumbar spine or SIJ except: A. Yeoman's test B. Patrick Fabere/figure 4 test C. Bowstring Test D. Standing Kemp test

C

A 22 year old male presents with complaints of loss of sensation and numbness in both hands and across the shoulders. After a complete examination you suspect a spinal cord lesion, what would be your next course of action? A. Begin adjustments and in 4 weeks if there is no change refer out for testing B. Begin adjusting with decompression traction C. Send for an MRI, to rule out contraindications to adjustment D. Refer out to Endocrinologist

C

A 22yr old male presents with complains of loss of sensation an dnumbness in both hands and across the shoulders. After a complete exam you suspect a spinal cord lesion, what would be your next course of action A. Begin adj and in 4weeks if there is no change refer out for testing B. Begin Adj with decompression traction C. Send for MRI to rule out contraindications to adjustment D. Refer our ro endocrinologist

C

A 35yr old male presented with 1day history of generalized right knee pain and swelling. He was playing soccer when he side stepped over the ball and fell down. He noted that the right foot was well planted on the ground and there was rotation at the knee. At that moment he felt a "pop" within the knee and a feeling like the knee was giving away. What is the diagnosis? A. Chondromalacia patella B. Collateral ligament tear (complete) C. Anterior Cruciate Ligament tear (complete) D. Patellofemoral dislocation

C

A 47 yr old man present with low back pain and right buttock pain. His weight bearing ferguson angle is 54degrees. Kemp's upon right lateral bending and extension is positive. Goldthwaite test is negative which is most likely dx for this pt? A. Posteromedial disc on the left B. Posteromedial disc on the right C. Lumbar facet syndrome D. Posterolateral disc on the right

C

A dynamic listing of fixated left body rotation and restricted right lateral flexion is equivalent to which of the following listings? A. PLS B. PLI C. PRS D. PRIA

C

A good tool to use as a baseline measurement of a pt status for the cervical spine? A. Global Well Being Scale B. Major Injuries Category C. Neck Disability Index D. Pain Disability Index

C

A good tool to use as a baseline measurement of patient status for the cervical spine is? A. Global Well Being Scale B. Major Injuries Category C. Neck Disability Index D. Pain Disability Index

C

A lateral flexion restriction would most likely cause a(n) ____ on the side of convexity. A. Nuclear displacement B. closed wedge C. open wedge D. ligament impingement

C

A patient with a left medial disc herniation will have the following presentation: A. Pain in the right leg when leaning to the right B. Pain in the right leg when leaning to the left C. Pain in the left leg when leaning to the right D. Pain in the left leg when leaning to the left

C

A prominent left mammillary process of L2 in a left sectional convexity is most effectively corrected by a pisiform push technique. The ___ side of the patient should be down, the ___ thigh should be contacted, the ____ hand is the contact hand on the ____ of the segment. A. Left; right; right; left mammillary B. Right; left; right; spinous right C. Right; left; right; left mammillary D. Left; right; right; spinous right

C.

With the patient in the prone position the doctor stands to the left and uses a left thenar pad contact on the transverse process of T5. He thrusts from P-A and I-S. What is the best listing? A. RP B. LPI C. LP D. LPS

C.

When Geriatric patients present with any of the following symptoms...vertigo, positive George's, Hypertension, etc...Which Thompson protocol would best address the needs of the Geriatric population? A. Effleurage B. Unilateral Cervical Adjustment C. Bilateral Cervical Adjustment D. P to A Cervical Adjustment

D

When assessing an elderly patient for chiro adj, a number of additional concerns need to be considered. They do not include: A. General decrease flexibility and elasticity of soft tissue B. The presence of more degenerative joint disease C. Functional stability D. Functional instability

D

When assessing an elderly pt for chiro adj, a number of additional concerns need to be considered. They do NOT include: A. General decreased flexibility and elasticity of soft tissues B. The presence of more degenerative joint disease C. Functional stability D. Functional instability

D

When considering manipulation of the upper or lower c-spine, which single head and neck position has been shown to produce the greatest compromise to vertebral artery blood flow? A. Maximum flex B. Maximum extension C. Maximum lateral flexion D. Maximum rotation

D

The doctor stands to the left of a seated patient and contacts the right articular pillar of C2 with the left index finger and stabilizes the left side of the patients head. The correct line of drive is ___. A. Left to right and superior to inferior B. Left to right and inferior to superior C. Right to left and superior to inferior D. Right to left and inferior to superior

D

The flexion distraction motion of the table provides a pumping effect where? A. Only the lumbar area of the spine B. To the lumbar and thoracic area C. Primarily to the cervical area D. To all spinal segments from the sacrum through the occiput

D

The line of correction for a side posture AS ilium misalignment would be in what direction? A. Up the spine B. Toward the dr C. Toward the table D. Down the femur

D

The method utilized to adjust a posterior lumbar is ... A. Single hand contact B. Pisiform over thumb C. Double thenar D. Double thumb

D

The patient presents with paresthesias over the lateral aspect of the foot, a normal patellar reflex, and decreased ability to plantar flex the foot. This indicates which of the following? A. L4 disc lesion B. L4 nerve root lesion C. L5 nerve root lesion D. S1 nerve root lesion

D

What is the fracture exception in absolute contra-indications to adjusting?

Clay Shoveler's (fx of C7 SP)

In the sub-occipital triangle, where is the Obliquus Capitus Superior located?

C1 transverse process to occiput

What type of torque is used to correct the open wedge?

Clockwise or Counterclockwise torque

What is the last moveable segment in the C-Spine?

C6

The US federal agency that administers Medicare and Medicaid is ____?

CMS

What is the number one mineral deficiency in the United states?

Calcium

What is an oncologist?

Cancer specialist

In the presence of O2, what would result in a harmful substance?

Carbon dioxide

The segmental contact point for a left posterior atlas set up in the supine position is which of the follow? A. Right TP B. Right lamina-ped junction C. Left lamina-ped junction D. Left TP

D

What type of exercise is performed with the hand or foot fixed and cannot move, usually stays in constant contact with the surface?

Closed Chain Exercise

The patient was in between deciding if they had a problem or not is which of the following?

Contemplation

The thoracic extension #1 is best used when: A. The pt is bigger than you B. The pt is smaller than you C. Pt has concurrent as well as thoracic vertebral movement D. You do not want to compress the thoracic cage

D

The application of a straight posterior to anterior (P-A) thrust in the midthroacic spine, in the a pt with a normal kyphotic curve, would produce which of the following effects at the largest segment relative to the segments above and below? A. Gapping at the inf and superior facets B. Approximation at the inf and super facets C. Gapping at the inf facets and approximation of the super facets D. Approximation of the inferior facets and gapping of the superior fcets?

D

In the sub-occipital triangle, where is the Obliquus Capitus Inferior located?

spinous process of Axis to transverse process of Atlas

The second letter of the Gonstead listing refers to what movement?

spinous rotation

75yr old pt male that is complaining of a dull lower back pain along with difficulty urinating he feels like his bladder isn't fully empty. The most appropriate case manage action would be? A. Call 911 B. Use interferential therapy on his low back C. Perform transabdominal interferential therapy D. Perform PSA lab test

D

This line represents the attitude of the skull at the orbital level, at the same time allowing for detection of occipital condyle malformation. A. Ocular orbit line B. Atlas plane line C. Vertical median line D. Superior basic line

D

The application of straight posterior-anterior (P-A) thrust in the midthoracic spine, in a pt with a normal kyphotic curve would produce which of the following effects at the target segment relative to the segments above and below? A. Gapping at inferior end B. Approximation at the inf and super facets C.Gapping at inf facets and approximation of the super facets D. Approximation of the inf facets and gapping of the super facets

D

The atlas is considered to be in a normal juxtaposition when the: A. A.P.L. is 2° above the listing line B. A.P.L. is 2° below the listing line C. A.P.L. is 6° above the listing line D. Listing line is 4° below the A.P.L

D

???A quick spinal exam reveals tender spinous processes upon palpation at T3 & T4, the segmental contact point is: A. T2 B. T3 C. T4 D. T5

D

A 30yr old female pt presents with right calf pain and may have deep vein thrombosis (DVT). What would be the most appropriate initial corse of action? A. Prescribe rest and inactivity until symptoms subside B. Treat with RICE protocols until symptoms subside C. Treat with massage, muscle strippingm abd stretching procedures D. Refer for medical evaluation

D

A dynamic listing of fixated left body rotation and restricted right lateral flexion is equivalent to which of the following listings? A. PLI B. PLS C. PRI D. PRS

D

A dynamic listing of restricted right body rotation with restricted right lateral flexion in the lumbar spine is best corrected using a lumbar push move. The segmental contact is ___, the doctor's contact hand is ___, the patient's ___ thigh contacted and the torque utilized is ___? A. Left mammillary; left pisiform, right; CW B. Right mammillary; left pisiform; right CCW C. Left SP; right pisiform; left; CCW D. Right SP; left pisiform; right; CW

D

A pt with a compressive loaded spine would likely benefit from strengthening which of the following m. groups? A. Gluteal m. B. Abdominal m. C. Hamstring m. D. Erector spinal m.

D

A pt with a right anterior talus sublux and right interosseous SI ligament sprain will show what posture on plumb line analysis? A. Antalgia B. High right shoulder C. Left hand tilt D. Left pelvic translation

D

A therapeutic procedure in which the pt voluntarily contracts a particular m. or m. group against a specific pressure or force provided by the dr in order to affect the target joint is characteristic of: A. An adjustive process B. A mobilation procedure C. Traction/Distraction procedure D. Energy procedure

D

A therapeutic procedure in which the pt voluntarily contracts a particular muscle or muscle group against a specific pressure or force provided by the dr in order to affect the target joint is characteristic of: A. An adjustive procedure B. A mobilization procedure C. A traction/distraction procedure D. An energy procedure

D

To adjust a left posterior C5, the segmental contact point is: A. The left transverse process of C5 B. The right transverse process C5 C. The left transverse process of C6 D. The right transverse process of C6

D

A young male infantryman has facet syndrome in the L-spine. Which management strategy will likely make the pt worse? A. Placing gel inserts into his running shoes B. Maintaining aerobic conditioning by running on level surfaces, preferably dirt or grass C. Mobilizing his lumbar spine into flexion on a mechanized table D. Maintaining aerobic conditioning by swimming 500meters of the breast stroke

D

According to Bergman and colleagues, a complete loss of end feel (empty end feel) is significant bc it may be indicative of joint: A. Mypomobility B. Misalignment C. Restriction D. Instability

D

According to Healthy People 2020, what is the most preventable cause of disease/death? A. Obesity B. Hormones C. Hypercholestolemia D. Smoking

D

After a history, physical exam, and report of findings and individual declines chiro care for the condition and refuses to sign a waiver to that effect. What is the wisest course of action for dr protection? A. Try to convince the person that chiro care is the best hope B. Try to detain the person until he/she signs the waiver C. Call the on a daily basis to have them reconsider D. Send them a certified return receipt letter detailing the refusal

D

All of the following are characteristic signs or symptoms of fibromyalgia except: A. Nonrestorative sleep B. Pain in 11 of 18 characteristic trigger points C. Diffuse musculoskeletal pain of at least 3months duration D. Abrupt onset of proximal shoulder or pelvic girdle pain

D

All of the following are contraindications to performing the Transverso-Iliio lift except: A. Spondylolisthesis B. Tropism C. Hyperlordosis D. Hypolordosis

D

All of the following are contraindications to performing the transverso-ilio lift except: A. Spondylolisthesis B. Tropism C. Hyperlordosis D. Hypolordosis

D

An absolute contraindication to adjusting the thoracic spine is a (n)___. A. RA B. Spina Bifida C. Congenital Block D. Infection

D

Cardiac ischemia refers to? A. C2 dermatome B. Low back pain C. Scapular pain D. Medial arm pain

D

Clinical features of vertebral artery dissection and brain stem ischemia arising from vertebral artery insufficiency include: A. Pain in the head and neck that is often unilateral and suboccipital B. Pain that is severe, distinct, and sharp C. That the pt reports neck stiffness with no limitation of neck ROM D. A, B, and C

D

For a patient with a right rotated, right laterally flexed L4 (RPI;PLS) in a left convex scoliosis, which of the following would be most appropriate: A. left mammillary push move B. right mammillary push move C. right SP pull move D. left SP push move

D

For the best protection of lumbar mechanics, the driver's seat should be positioned: A. As far from the steering wheel as possible B. With the front seat lower than the back of the seat C. With the entire seat bottle level with the floor of the car D. As close to the steering wheel as possible

D

How many times would you thrust using the institutional method of adjusting the spondylolisthesis? A. 6 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3

D

What are the Structural Landmarks at C6?

Cricoid Cartilage, Carotid tubercle

Upon palpation, the patient has a larger horizontal gap on the right. He/She has a: A. LL atlas B. RP occiput C. LP atlas D. RP atlas

D

In an PI listing where is the ASIS? A. ASIS moves lateral to the pubic symphysis B. ASIS moves anterior to the pubic symphysis C. ASIS moves medial to the pubic symphysis D. ASIS moves posterior to the pubic symphysis

D

In spondylolisthesis, a grade II represents what percentage of slippage of one bone on another? A. 1-10% B. 1-25% C. 26-35% D. 26-50%

D

What is lister's tubercle located? A. Posterior aspect of the olecranon B. Proximal end of the radius C. Head of the ulna D. Dorsal aspect of the distal radius

D

"Pattern analysis" using thermography, would be MOST commonly used by the following technique systems? A. Chiro biophysics B. Gonstead C. Thompson terminal point D. Upper cervical

D

L1 has a static listing of SP L or a dynamic listing of L rotation. The dr utilizing the prone lumbar unilateral reinforced pisiform SP contact procedure would stand on the ___ side contacting the ___ SP of L2? A. Left; right B. left; left C. right; left D. right; right

D

What is not associated with radicular pain? A. Decreased deep tendon reflexes B. Dermatomal sensation changes C. Muscle weakness D. Increased deep tendon reflexes

D

L1 has static listing of spinous right or a dynamic listing or decreased right rotation, the dr utilizing the prone lumbar unilateral reinforced pisiform spinous contact procedure would stand on the ___ side contact with the ___ hand. A. Left, right B. Right, left C. Left, left D. Right, right

D

L1-L2 effects the sympathetics to the? A. Stomach B. Liver C. Kidneys D. Colon

D

L2 has a static listing of SP right or a dynamic listing of decreased right rotation. The dr utilizing the prone lumbar unilateral reinforced pisiform SP contact procedure would stand on the ___ side and stabilize the ___ hand. A. right, right B. left, right C. left, left D. right, left

D

McKenzie's exercises accomplish which of the following? A. Stretch the erector spinae B. Strengthen the abdominals C. Stretch the stabilizers D. Stretch the abdominals

D

What is not one of the goals for healthy people 2020? A. Create healthy social environments that promote good health B. Attain higher quality and longer lives C. Eliminate disparities between groups of people D. Increased access to mental health providers

D

Motion palpation reveals the C5 vertebra has a right prominent articular pillar. How should this segment be adjusted in order to induce normal physiological function? A. Index contact on the right side of the spinous contact B. Index contact on the left articular pillar C. Pisiform contact on the left D. Index contact on the left side of the spinous process

D

Observation of a patient in the standing position indicated asymmetry of the spine. As the patient bend forward the problem remains. What is the problem? A. Levoscoliosis B. Dextroscoliosis C. Functional Scoliosis D. Structural Scoliosis

D

What is the best follow up procedure if the patient presents following a hyperflexion/hyperextension injury and now cannot empty the bladder? A. MRI B. CT C. Plain film radiography D. Neurological/surgical consult

D

What is the common pelvis sublux listing for performing a side posture pull adj involved side down? A. PI B. AS C. IN D. EX

D

In a posterior pelvic tilt, what muscles are lengthened/inhibited?

•Psoas •quadriceps •erector spinae

What is the listing for a patient that presents with a right rotation and right lateral flexion malposition on L2? A. PRI B. PRS C. PLI D. PLS

D

One should use the side posture lumbar mammillary hypothenar/pisiform contact procedure contacting the left mammillary of L2 with the right hand if the pt evaluation revealed decreased ___ and decreased ___ with motion palpation at L2-L3. A. Right lateral flex, left rotation B. Right lateral flex, right rotation C. Left lateral flex, left rotation D. Left lateral flex, right rotation

D

What is the listing for a pt with a left rotation and left lateral flexion fixation on L4? A. RPS B. RPI C. LPS D. LPI

D

Patient presents with severe cervical pain, 5 days duration with no history of trauma. Patient is a 62 year old female with a history of heart arrhythmias, and a pacemaker. Your treatment choice to relieve the pain would be? A. Ice and Interferential B. Heat and Interferential C. TENS and Ice D. Ice

D

Patient presents with the ASIS anterior to the pubic symphysis. Which muscle can we expect to be short/hypertonic/facilitated? A. Hams B. GLutes C. Abs D. Erector Spinae

D

Pattern analysis using thermography would be MOST commonly by proponents of which of the following technique systems? A. Chiro biophysics B. Gonstead technique C. THompson terminal point technique D. Upper cervical technique

D

What is the listing for a pt with a right rotation and left lateral flexion restriction on L3? A. RPS B. LPI C. RPI D. LPS

D

What is the listing for right rotation malposition on T9? A. PLI B. PRI C. PR D. PL

D

49yr old pt presents with what she describes as numbness in her hands and feet, as though she's wearing socks and gloves, nted in her hx she states an increase in hunger, thirst and weight loss. There are so insignificant findings upon exam or xray to correlate to her compliments. What is the next best recommendation to this pt? A. Begin adj and in 4weeks if no change refer out for testing B. Begin adj with decompression C. Send for an MRI to rule out contraindications to adj D. Refer out to endocrinologist

D

Pt presents with a levatory scoliosis of the lumbar spine. The Gonstead listing of L5, SP right with the side of the open wedge on the right would be ___. A. PRI-SP B. PRI-M C. PRS D. PRS-M

D

Pt presents with low back pain tat radiates down both legs and is aggravated by waking. Pt is a 69yr old male with a hx of 2 low back pain surgeries (discectomy and laminectomy) the last being 3yrs ago. What is the safest plan of tx? A. Ice and Inferential B. Heat and Inferential C. TENS and Ice D. Ice

D

In an anterior pelvic tilt, what muscles are hypertonic/facilitated?

•Psoas •quadriceps •erector spinae

Pt presents with the ASIS anterior to the pubic symphysis. Which muscle can we expect to be lengthened/hypotonic/inhibited? A. Psoas B. Quads C. Erector Spinae D. Hamstrings

D

The Thoracic Extension #1 is best used when: A. The patient is bigger than you B. The patient is much smaller than you C. The patient has concurrent as well as thoracic vertebral movement D. You do not want to compress the thoracic cage

D

What is the listing on the left if the sacral prominence is more palpable on the right? A. IN ilium B. AS ilium C. EX ilium D. Posterior rotation of the sacrum

D

C.

Correction of L3, indicated by the shaded vertebra in the exhibit, using a pisiform spinous contact requires a _______ hand contact with the patient lying on the _______ side. See picture A. Right, right B. Right, left C. Left, left D. Left, right

Your patient is a 75 year old male that is complaining of a dull lower back pain along with difficulty urinating. He notes that even after urinating he feels like his bladder isn't fully empty. The most appropriate case management action would be? A. Call 911 B. Use interferential therapy on his lower back C. Perform trans-abdonminal interferential therapy D. Perform a PSA lab test

D

What's the leading cause of mental illness in the elderly?

Depression

What is selenium do in toxic doses?

Damage hair, skin and nails

Define: Extension Malposition

Decreased interspinous space between the involved segment and the segment below with an increased interspinous space between the involved segment and the segment above.

Hypomobility

Decreased motion or segmental fixation.

What are the symptoms of a vitamin A deficiency? Hypervitaminosis?

Deficiency - Night blindness Hypervitaminosis - beta-carotinema (yellow/orange skin with normal sclera)

If you are using a 20-degree tube tilt, the FFD should be adjusted in which manner?

Drop 4inches

The best advice for a patient who has chronic hip pain due to recurring low back sprain strain is _____.

Re-education exercises

What causes the foot to diverge toward midline?

EX ilium

What pelvic subluxation presents with the following: decreased width of the ilium, anterior lumbar curve increases, lowers femur head?

EX ilium

Why is there a statute of limitations?

Enough time to discover injury

Which of the following is not part of the 12 topics of Healthy People 2020?

Exercise

What is the Structural Landmarks you can palpate?

External Occiput (EOP)

Which agency is responsible for assembling safety of medical devices?

FDA

The most common fatality that occurs at work is due to _____.

Falls

Shenton's Line is drawn from the ____ to the ____.

Femoral neck, obturator foramen

Removing human waste for use occurs in which of the following steps in the water treatment cycle?

Filtration

What are Codman's exercises?

Finger tip wall walking and pendular exercises used to restore normal shoulder movements

What is the difference between a "fixed" segment and a "restricted" segment?

Fixed - stuck, cannot move in any direction Restricted (decreased) - cannot move in a particular direction

What are the symptoms of a vitamin B9 deficiency?

Folic acid deficiency causes: • megaloblastic (macrocytic) anemia (glossitis), seen in alcoholics •Neural tube defect if deficient during pregnancy •Pain in legs at night improve with B9

Which of the following is the most common person to cause fatal violence in the workplace?

Former employee

What is a Gastrointerologist?

GI dysfunction

What is a urologist?

Genitourinary tract, including prostate

What is an endocrinologist?

Glandular disease including diabetes mellitus and DISH

What is Chromium?

Glucose tolerance factor (essential for diabetics)

What are closed chain exercises?

Hand or foot is fixed and cannot move (ex. pushups, pullups, lunges or squats), hand/foot remains in constant contact with the surface, usually the ground or the base of a weight machine, typically weight bearing (body weight and/or external weight)

What are the Structural Landmarks at C3?

Hyoid Bone, Carotid Artery

What are omega 3 fatty acids used to treat?

Hypercholesterolemia, natural anti-inflammatory

What type of lordosis is seen in an Anterior Pelvic Tilt?

Hyperlordosis

What type of lordosis is seen in a Posterior Pelvic Tilt?

Hypolordosis

What are the Structural Landmarks at L4?

Iliac crest

What are Frenkel's exercises?

Increase coordination, uses a wobble board

Define: Flexion Malposition

Increased interspinous space between the involved segment and the segment below with a decreased interspinous space between the involved segment and the segment above.

What are the Structural Landmarks at T6?

Inferior angle of the scapula lying down

What are the Structural Landmarks at T7?

Inferior angle of the scapula seated

In the coupled motion of the lumbar spine, which way does the spinous rotate?

Into Concavity

In the coupled motion of the cervical spine, which way does the spinous rotate?

Into Convexity

What is the number one mineral deficiency in the world?

Iron

Hypermobility

Loosened motor unit

Which of the following views is best to visualize the apices of the lungs?

Lordotic

What are McKenzie's exercises?

Low back extension exercises used to increase lumbar lordosis and rehab a disc

The most common unintentional injury between the ages 20 to 44 is ____?

MVA's

Which of the following views is taken with the hand flat on the table?

Medial oblique elbow

What is a neurologist?

Neurological disorders

What are the symptoms of a vitamin B3 deficiency?

Niacin deficiency causes pellagra (4 D's: dementia, dermatitis, diarrhea and death)

What is the proper tube tilt to take a frog leg lateral?

No tube tilt

What type of exercise is done non-weight bearing, in which the hand or foot is free to move?

Open Chain Exercise

With a lateral disc protrusion, what side will the patient lean to in order to alleviate the pain?

Opposite side of protrusion

____ will decrease Acetylcholinesterase levels.

Organophosphates

In Gonstead the first letter of the listing always begins with what letter?

P

What is the second letter in the National Listing System?

P

A scaphoid fracture is best visualized on the ____ film.

P-A with ulnar deviation

Palpatory findings: Spongy edema at posterior superior margin of SI joint. This is seen with what pelvic subluxation?

PI ilium

What pelvic subluxation presents with the following: low femur head, anterior sacrum, longer innominate, larger obturator foramen, and increased lumbar lordosis?

PI ilium

In a scoliosis, on what side should the heel lift be used?

PI ilium side

What are the Structural Landmarks at S2?

PSIS

What is the correct orientation of the plantar surface of the foot to the film?

Parallel

Positioning for cervical spine?

Patient supine, laterally flex over your contact and rotate head away (slight flexion)

What are Bobarth's exercises?

Patterning, for cerebral palsy

What part of the Health Belief model entails the subjective assessment of the risk in developing a health problem?

Perceived susceptibility

What are the Buerger-Allen exercises for?

Peripheral vascular disease

The best view to visualize the articular processes in the spine is the _____.

Pillar

A lateral decubitus chest view is used to access which of the following?

Pleural effusion

The first letter in the Gonstead listing refers to what?

Posterior

What is zinc used for?

Prostate health, wound healing, immune system

Explain Kemp's test with medial disc protrusion?

Pt will have a +Kemp to the OPPOSITE side of pain

Explain Kemp's test with lateral disc protrusion?

Pt will have a +Kemp to the SAME side of pain

What is vitamin B6 used for?

Pyridoxine is recommended for peripheral nerve healing, carpal tunnel syndrome and as a natural diuretic

What are the two options for the first letter in the national listing system?

R or L

What are the two options for the second letter in the Gonstead listing?

R or L

Which of the following is a dangerous substance that found in people's homes and can lead to cancer?

Radon

What is faradic/sine wave used for?

• Muscle contraction -to stretch fibrotic tissue and to increase lymph flow

What are the symptoms of a vitamin B2 deficiency?

Riboflavin deficiency causes cheilosis (sore cracks at the corner of the mouth)

What are the two option for the third letter in the National Listing System?

S or I

What are the two options for the third letter of the Gonstead system?

S or I

With a medial disc protrusion, what side will the patient lean to in order to alleviate the pain?

Same side of protrusion

What side of the vertebra do you contact?

Side of the open wedge unless scoliosis is present, if scoliosis is present, contact side of convexity

The depletion of the ozone layer is associated with which of the following?

Skin cancer

?????Which of the following is a secondary preventable factor that leads to disease? IG says this is the #1 preventable factor

Smoking

The number one avoidable health condition to produce disease is ____________.

Smoking

What are the Structural Landmarks at T3?

Spine of Scapula

Which of these is the most common type of workplace injury?

Sprain/strain

What are the Structural Landmarks at T4/T5?

Sternal angle of Louis

What is the First Palpable Spinous?

Structural Landmarks: AXIS

What are the indications for Ultrasound? Effects?

• Musculoskeletal conditions, contractures and adhesions. Pulsed during acute. Continuous during subacute and chronic.

The Patellofemoral joint space is best seen on the _____ view.

Sunrise

Which of the following is the proper procedure when taking thoracic radiographs?

Suspended inspiration

Which of the following x-ray views is not included in a Davis series?

Swimmer's view

What is an internist?

Takes care of internal disease, similar to a GP

What are the Structural Landmarks at C4/C5?

Thyroid Cartilage

What is the reason why chlorine is used in drinking water?

To remove coliform

What is Vitamin E?

Tocopherol - an antioxidant for the cardiovascular system

What is a pediatrician?

Treats children under the age of 14

Doctor contacts the side they are standing on when a patient is supine or prone. T or F?

True

What is the best view to see the intercondylar fossa at the knee?

Tunnel

What are the Structural Landmarks at L3?

Umbilicus

Which of the following is not a focus of Healthy People 2020?

Universal healthcare

What is TENS used for?

Used for pain control only

What are Kegel's exercises?

Used to tighten/facilitate the perineum post partum and with incontinence

What are the Structural Landmarks at T1?

Vertebral Prominens 30%

What are the Structural Landmarks at C7?

Vertebral Prominens 70%

What muscles are affected in upper cross syndrome?

Weak/inhibited: •Deep neck flexors • lower trapezius • serratus anterior Tight/Facilitated: •Pectoralis •Upper trapezius •Levator scapula

What muscles are affected in lower cross syndrome?

Weak/inhibited: •Abdominals •gluteus maximus •hamstrings Tight/facilitated: •Iliopsoas •quadriceps •erector spinae

To prevent Osteoporosis, what exercise(s) is/are recommended?

Weight bearing exercises three times per week

_____ is the best choice for a patient that presents with a desire to maintain and improve their health.

Wellness care plan

What are the Structural Landmarks at T10?

Xiphoid

What is a segment or group of segments that move in an inconsistent manner in the corresponding area?

aberrant motion

What anatomical structure does the National Listing System use as a reference?

body

What is the first letter in the national listing system referring?

body rotation

What are the contraindications for Trigger point therapy?

cannot be performed longer than 10 seconds

Which of the following views of the shoulder is best to see the greater tuberosity?

external rotation

What is malposition?

fixated

What type of motion is seen in the lumbar facets?

flexion/extension

The tunnel view is best to visualize the _____.

intercondylar fossa

What type of motion is seen in the lumbosacral facets?

lateral flexion

What type of motion is seen in the thoracic facets?

lateral flexion

The third letter in the National Listing System refers to what type of movement?

lateral flexion or wedging on the side of body rotation

What does the third letter in the Gonstead listing refer to?

lateral flexion or wedging on the side of spinous rotation

Generally Gonstead will contact which side of the wedge?

open wedge

What side of the segment do you contact assuming no scoliosis is present?

open wedge

What type of motion is seen in the cervical facets?

rotation

What plane of movement is seen in the lumbar facets?

sagittal

What is a scoliosis and/or alteration of curve secondary to muscular imbalance?

sectional intersegmental

What is a restricted or decrease segment?

segment can't move there

What is a fixed segment?

stuck

While viewing the APOM you notice the teeth are covering the C2 segment, what is the most likely issue with this film?

the head is flexed forward

What Plane of movement is seen in the cervical facets?

transverse

What are the settings for ultrasound in an acute condition? Chronic? Underwater?

• Acute - Pulsed, 0.5-1.0 W/cm2 (thin tissue), 1.0-1.5 W/cm2 (thick tissue) • Chronic - Continuous, 1.0-1.5 W/cm2 (thin tissue), 1.5-2.0 W/cm2 (thick tissue) • Underwater - add 0.5 W/cm2

What are the indications for cryotherapy? How long?

• Acute conditions • Use for 20-30 minutes

What are the contraindications for Infared?

• Acute conditions • inflammation • abnormal thermal sensation

What are the contraindications for Diathermy?

• Acute conditions • metallic implants • epiphyseal centers

What are the symptoms of a vitamin C deficiency? Who is deficient? What is it need for? When avoid? Hypervitaminosis?

• Ascorbic acid deficiency causes scurvy and capillary fragility (bleeding gums, poor wound healing, bruises easily, swollen gums) • Smokers are deficient and require supplementation • Required for connective tissue healing and iron absorption • Avoid if have kidney stones • Excess causes diarrhea

Anterior gravity weight line:

• Head tilt or rotation • Shoulder height • Arm carriage • Hip height • Knee angle (recurvatum) • Feet malposition • Arches/toeing

In upper cross syndrome, what muscles are hypertonic/facilitated?

• Levator scapulae • pectoralis major • upper trapezius • sternocleidomastoid • scalenes • suboccipitals

What is vitamin K? What is it used for? Contraindications?

• Made by intestinal flora • Destroyed by antibiotic therapy • Used for clotting, injected into newborns at hospital, anticoagulants are contraindicated with vitamin K deficiency

What are the relative contra-indications to adjusting?

•Osteoporosis, •Spondylisthesis, •Rheumatoid Arthritis, •Cardiovascular predisposing factors, •congenital anomalies, •acute spastic muscle region.

If scoliosis is present what side of segment do you contact?

convexity

If there is a scoliosis the doctor stands on which side?

convexity

Static palpation findings of edema and tenderness at the posterior superior aspect of the SIJ would indicate what misalignment? A. PI B. AS C. IN D. EX

A

When assessing the gravity weight line in a posterior manner, what is being viewed?

• Scapula winging/flaring • scoliosis • foot angle

Extension fixation:

• Stuck in extension • Flexion restriction • Cannot flex

Strengthening the ___ and stretching the ___ correct hypolordosis. A. Psoas; gluteals B. Abdominals; gluteals C. Abdominals; hamstrings D. Quadriceps; erector spinae

A

T5-T9 will effect the? A. Stomach B. Kidneys C. Lungs D. Heart

A

Right lateral flexion fixation

• Stuck in right lateral flexion • Left lateral flexion restriction • Cannot laterally flex to left

Right rotational fixation

• Stuck in right rotation • Left rotational restriction • Cannot rotate left

The "foundation principle" refers to: A. A level pelvis B. Level knee joints C. Eyes level with the horizon D. Hard palate level on the lateral cervical xray

A

What is high volt galvanic used for?

• Used for pain control • to reduce muscle spasm and edema • to exercise muscle

What would be the appropiate thing to do for lengthened muscles? A. Ibuprofen B. Weak and needs to be strengthened C. Strong and needs to be strengthened D. None of the above

B

What xray view would you use to classify a spondy? A. Oblique B. Lateral C. AP D. None of the above

B

A pt with lumbar pain on extension, a + McNab line, and facet arthrosis probably suggests: A. Spinal stenosis B. Vertical SI slippage C. Facet syndrome D. Otto's pelvis

C

Which is the line of drive when correcting a posterior superior, left superior occiput? A. P-A, I-S, R-L B. A-P, I-S, R-L C. P-A, S-I, R-L D. P-A, S-I, L-R

D

A pt presents to your clinic with canal stenosis, what would be a characteristics presentation? A. Lateral flexed position B. Flexed position C. Extended position D. None of the above

B

When adj the atlas, a right lateral atlas, the pt is positioned how? A. Supine B. Supine with the head laterally flexed to the right C. Supine with the head laterally flexed to the left D. Prone

B

When adjusting a posterior right inferior SP at T5 using a double tenar contact, the dr stands on the ___ and contacts the ___: A. Right; right TP B. Left; left TP C. Right; Right SP D. Left; left SP

B

When adjusting the Atlas, a right lateral atlas, the patient is positioned how? A. Supine B. Supine with the head laterally flexed to the right C. Supine with the head laterally flexed to the left D. Prone

B

What is the correct segmental contact point for a thoracic vertebra in left lateral flexion and right spinous rotation? A. Left lamina B. Right lamina C. Spinous right D. Spinous left

C

Which of the following tech systems principally address sublux of the sacrum or pelvis, considering all other sublux compensatory? A. Gonstead technique B. Logan basic C. Thompson terminal point D. Toftness technique

A

What is the functional spinal unit for the anterior portion of spine? A. Supraspinous ligament B. Arachnoid mater C. ALL, Intertransverse ligament D. None of the above

C

What is the functional spinal unit for the posterior portion? A. Supraspinous ligament B. Intertransverse ligament, radiate ligament C. PLL, capsular ligament, Interspinous ligament D. None of the above

C

What is the highest point of the iliac crest? A. L3 B. L2 C. L4 D. S1

C

What is the least likely way of being injured in the home? A. Falls B. Poisoning C. Drowning D. Firearms

C

What is the listing for a left rotation fixation on T8? A. RP B. RPI C. LP D. LPI

C

What is the listing for a patient with a left rotation and left lateral flexion restriction on L3? A. RPS B. LPI C. RPI D. LPS

C

What is the listing for a patient with a left rotation and right lateral flexion fixation on L4? A. RPS B. RPI C. LPS D. LPI

C

Which of the following technique systems principally address sublux of the sacrum or pelvis, considering all other sublux compensatory? A. Gonstead technique B. Logan Basic technique C. Thompson terminal point technique D. Toftness Technique

A

What is the listing for a pt that presents with a right rotation and left lateral flexion malposition on L2? A. PRI B. PRS C. PLI D. PLS

C

What is the listing for right rotation restriction on T10? A. RP B. RPI C. LP D. LPI

C

Which one of the following conditions would be considered an absolute contraindication for manipulation? A. bone infections B. joint hypermobility/instability C. inflammatory arthritis D. severe pain

A

Which recommendation would be helpful a patient whose anterior knee pain is worse on going downstairs? A. Strengthening vastus medialis B. Strengthening hip flexors C. Strengthening Vastus lateralis D. Strengthening knee flexors

A

Which segmental contact point would be appropriate to correct a posterior inferior ilium? A. PSIS B. PIIS C. ASIS D. Ischial tuberosity

A

Which statement is correct regarding finding the transverse process of T7? A. It is located 2 interspaces above and lateral B. It is found 1 SP above and lateral C. It is found directional lateral to the SP of T7 D. It is located 1 interspace below and lateral

A

The C4 vertebra is fixed in the right lateral fixation. Assuming there is a normal coupled motion, you would correct this vertebral misalignment by contacting the ___ and your line of drive is ___. A. Left spinous; lateral to medial B. Left articular pillar; lateral to medial C. Left articular pillar; medial to lateral D. Right spinous; medial to lateral

A

The P-A thrust is used in lumbar side posture adjusting, using a SP contact, is along which axis? A. Z B. X C. Y D. I-S

A

The Waddell tests are used to identify which of the following: A. Pain of a nonorganic origins B. Space Occupying lesions C. Balance and coordination functions D. History of alcohol or substance abuse

A

The assessment of "joint play" is conducted with the joint: A. In loose-packed position B. In close-packed position C. At mid=passive ROM D. At it's physiologic barrier

A

Which structure is involved if when evaluating an extremity articulation there is a hard end feel at the end of the extreme motion? A. Articular B. Ligamentous C. Tendinous D. Muscular

A

Which type of exercise is best for a postmenopausal woman with osteoporosis? A. Axial weight bearing B. Walking C. Running D. Swimming

A

Which type of fixation is present when the SP does not approximate upon motion palpation on extension? A. Posterior B. Lateral C. Posterolateral D. Anterior

A

Which vertebra is directly medial to the top of the iliac crest when the pt is in the prone position? A. L4 B. L5 C. L2 D. L3

A

A pt would have a cain of abandonment when: A. The dr gives a one month opportunity to secure another care provider B. The pt no longer has a need for continued care C. The dr owed a duty to the pt D. The physician refused to see the pt over the weekend

C

A spinous listing of PLS-M indicates a body fixed in ___ rotation and restricted in ___ lateral flexion A. Left; right B. Left; left C. Right; left D. Right; right

C

The chiropractor would utilize the prone thoracic unilateral reinforced pisiform mammillary contact procedure standing on the right side contacting the right right mammillary of L2 if the patient evaluation revealed decreased ___ and decreased ___ with motion palpation at L2-L3. A. Right lateral flexion; left rotation B. Left lateral flexion; right rotation C. Right lateral flexion; right rotation D. Left lateral flexion; left rotation

A

The correction of foot pronation should cause femur heads to do what on radiography? A. Elevate B. Fall C. Translate medially D. Translate laterally

A

What is the listing on the right if there is a point tenderness is palpated along the entire posterior margin of the left SI Joint? A. AS ilium B. PI ilium C. EX ilium D. In ilium

C

The dr is standing on the right side of a prone patient contacting the right side of the SP and performs a single hand diversified move of T6 with the LOD, P-A-I-S and L-M with clockwise torque. What is the listing? A. PRS B. PLS C. PRI D. PLI

A

What is the lumbosacral facets plane? A. Sagital B. Transverse C. Coronal D. None of the above

C

What is the most SPECIFIC study to confirm an abdominal aorta? A. US B. CT C. MRA D. XRay

C

The dr would utilize the side lying lumbar SP pull contact procedure contacting the right SP of L3 with the right hand if the pt evaluation decreased ___ and decreased ___ with motion palpation at L3-L4. A. Right lateral flexion; right rotation B. Left lateral flexion; left rotation C. Right lateral flexion; left rotation D. Left lateral flexion; right rotation

A

The patient has a flexion malposition on C5, what is the listing? A. P B. PR C. PL D. PS

A

The sacrum has gone anterior & inferior the patient is to be positioned: A. With the involved side up B. With the involved side down C. With the patient prone D. With the patient supine

A

The sacrum has gone anterior and inferior the pt has to be positioned: A. With involved side up B. With the involved side down C. With the pt prone D. With the pt supine

A

The segmental contact point for the ilium liting of PIEX would be where? A. Inferolateral PSIS B. Infermedial PSIS C. Superolateral PSIS D. Superomedial PSIS

A

The vertebral body of L5 has a dynamic listing of the left body restriction and restriction on the left lateral flexion. There is an overall right convexity noted on the pT. What is the proper contact point for adj? A. Right mammillary B. Left mammillary C. Right SP D. Left SP

A

The vertebral subluxation complex consists of all of the following phases except: A. Regional dysfunction B. Segmental dysfunction C. Instability D. Stabilization

A

What is the most correct Xray position to confirm a spondy? A. Lateral B. AP C. Oblique D. None of the above

C

A pt presents with inability to laterally flex the lumbar spine to the right or rotate to the left. This restriction may represent a malposition of L5 on the sacrum. There is a right convexity of the lumbar spine above L5. The preferred segmental contact point is: A. Right SP B. Right mammillary C. Left SP D. Left mammillary

B

There is a restriction in right body rotation in a left thoracic convexity. This is effectively corrected by using a double transverse crossed bilateral pisiform technique with a ___ hand contact on the ___ while the doctor stands to the ___ of the prone patient. A. Right; left TP; left B. Right; left TP; right C. Left; left TP; left D. Left; right TP; left

A

A pt with a hypolordotic lumbar spine would likely benefit from strengthening which of the following muscle groups? A. Gluteal muscles B. Erector spinal musles C. Abdominal muscles D. Hamsring muscles

B

A pt with soe acetabular degeneration suffers a pelvic trauma by falling on the buttocks during ice skating. The sacrum is pushed into a frontal plane distortion. Which of the muscles may test weak? A. Psoas major B. Piriformis C. Sartorius D. Quad lumborum

B

Most pt is presenting with acute severe low back pain usually show signs of sublux intimately associated with A. Bilateral SIJ B. Lumbar Disc C. Contralateral SIJ D. Lumbar Facets

B

Most pt presenting with acute severe low back pain usually show signs of sublux intimately associated with: A. Bilateral SIJ B. The lumbar disc C. Contralateral SIJ D . Lumbar facets

B

Movement about the z axis and through the coronal plane A. Rotation B. Lateral flexion C. Flexion D. X translation

B

There is a restriction in right body rotation in a left thoracic convexity. This is effectively corrected by using a double transverse crossed bilateral pisiform technique with a ___ hand contact on the ___ while the doctor stands to the ___ of the prone pt. A. Right; left TP; left B. Right; left TP; right C. Left; left TP; left D. Left; right TP; left

A

To adj a left posterior C5, the segmental contact point is: A. Left TP of C5 B. Right TP of C5 C. Left TP C6 D. Right TP C6

A

To correct a PLI listing at C5 with the dr standing behind a seated pT, the contact is made on the ___ and the proper line of drive is ___. A. Right articular pillar; P-A, I-S, L-M B. Left articular pillar; P-A, I-S, M-L C. Left SP; P-A, I-S, L-M D. Right SP; P-A, I-S, M-L

A

To correct a left posterior occiput the dr uses a ___ pisiform contact on the ___ of the pt: A. left hand; left mastoid B. left hand; right mastoid C. right hand; left mastoid D. right hand; right mastoid

A

Unalterable pneumothorax is characterized by: A. Decreased or absent movement oer involved side B. Tracheal deviation toward the side of involvement C. Increased breath sounds over side of involvement D. Hyperresonant percussion look

A

Vertiginous symptoms elicited during the Dix-Hallpike (or Nylen-barany) test would be pathognomonic for which of the following clinical conditions? A. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo B. Cervicogenic vertigo C. Meinere's disease D. Cushing's disease

A

What SP disappears on extension? A. C6 B. C4 C. C5 D. None of the above

A

What are the signs and symptoms associated with a tumor? A. Deep, boring pain B. Sclerotogenous C. Antalgic lean D. None of the above

A

What finding does not indicate a cuneiform sublux? A. Heel pain B. Flattening of the arch C. Foot fatigue D. Pain in the arch of the foot

A

What is 1in lateral to the first cricoid cartilage on the anterior aspect of C6 TP? A. Carotid tubercles B. Thyroid cartilage C. Jugular notch D. None of the above

A

What is 2in inferior to the inferior tip of the coccyx, in the same plane as the PSIS? A. Ischial tuberosity B. Sciatic notch C. S2 tubercle D. None of the above

A

What is located at the midline of the occipital base? A. External occipital protuberance B. SP of C1 C. Occiput D. None of the above

A

What is located inferior and slightly anterior to the mastoid process? A. TP of C1 B. TP of C4 C. External occipital protuberance D. None of the above

A

What is medial to the PSIS? A. S2 tubercle B. Sciatic Notch C. Ischial tuberosity D. None of the above

A

What is neuropathic pain the result of? A. Irritation of the nerve root B. Fx of the pars C. Cancer D. None of the above

A

What is sclerotogenous pain not due to? A. Nerve root B. Annular fibers of the disc C. Facet joint D. Ligaments

A

What is the MOST appropriate thrust used when adjusting the pt on the knee chest table? A. Thrust and hold B. Thrust and recoil C. Thrust and fast release D. Thrust and slow release

A

What is the best INITIAL study to confirm an abdominal aortic aneurysm? A. US B. CT C. MRA D. Xray

A

What is the cervical facet plane? A. Transverse B. Coronal C. Sagital D. None of the above

A

What is the contact point for a left body rotation malposition with a right lateral flexion malposition in the T-spine? A. left side of the TP; CCW torque B. Right side TP; CW torque C. Right side of TP; CW torque D. Left side of TP; CW torque

A

What is the listing for a left rotation restriction on T10? A. RP B. RPI C. LP D. LPI

A

What is the listing for a patient with a left rotation and right lateral flexion restriction on L3? A. RPS B. LPI C. RPI D. LPS

A

What is the listing for a patient with a right rotation and left lateral flexion fixation on L4? A. RPS B. RPI C. LPI D. LPS

A

What is the listing for a pt that presents with a left rotation and right lateral flexion malposition on L2? A. PRI B. PRS C. PLI D. PLS

A

What is the listing for a right rotation fixation on T8? A. RP B. RPI C. LP D. LPI

A

What is the listing on the right if spongy edema is present over the superior aspect of the right SI Joint? A. PI ilium B. AS ilium C. EX ilium D. IN ilium

A

What is the lumbar facet plane? A. Sagital B. Coronal C. Transverse D. None of the above

A

What is the most common type of injury in the workplace? A. Sprain/strain B. Lacerations C. Thermal burns D. Contusions

A

What is the opposite of L3 disc? A. Umbilicus B. Xiphoid process C. ASIS D. None of the above

A

What is the pelvic listing that decreases the lordosis? A. PI B. PLS C. AS D. PRS

A

What is the preferred method of measurement for analysis of scoliosis? A. Cobb's method B. Meyerding's C. Risser's D. Jackson's

A

What is the principle movement of the lumbar spine? A. Flex B. Rotation C. Extension D. None of the above

A

What pelvic listing increases lordosis? A. AS B. PLS C. PR D. PI

A

What would be the best ortho for diagnosing a canal stenosis? A. Bicycle Test B. SLR C. Kemps D. None of the above

A

When adjusting T2 with a spinous right, the best procedure is to use a ___ and stabilize the vertebra of the ___. A. Spinous-thumb contact; segment above B. Index contact; segment below C. Spinous-thumb contact; segment below D. Index contact; segment below

A

When evaluating Part II of the A - P open mouth view, what are you looking for? A. Axis laterality B. Axis inferiority C. Axis rotation D. Atlas laterality

A

When lateral wedging happens where does the nucleus go? A. Anterolaterally B. Anteromedially C. Posterior Medial D. None of the above

A

Which adjusting maneuver is most likely to be helpful in a pt with a cervical malposition with a fixation in extension? A. Prone hypothenar spinous push B. Index pillar prone technique C. Prone thenar pull spinous D. Thumb =illar anterior pull supine

A

Which cervical technique is a "traction" technique? A. Master Cervical B. Calcaneal Cervical Block C. Malar Posterior Articular D. Rotary Cervical

A

Which component of the vertebral sublux complex is most directly associated with the concept of facilitation or sustained receptor hyperactivity? A. Neuropathophysiology B. Kinesiopathology C. Myopathology D. Histopathology

A

Which evaluation is useful in assessment of a pt with scoliosis? A. Cobb Method B. Chamberlain Line C. Leg Lengthen Measurement D. McNab's Angle

A

Which innominate is misaligned and in which direction if the ipsilateral PSIS does not seem to move correctly when performing a standing upper sacroiliac mobility test? A. right superior B. left superior C. right inferior D. left inferior

A

Which is an absolute contraindication to adjusting? A. Hangman Fx B. Clay Shoveler's C. Posterior Posnticus D. Non-union of dens

A

On the lateral cervical view what do lines that cross closely to the SP suggest? A. Flex malposition B. Extension malposition C. Lateral flex malposition D. Rotation

B

Which is the best management for a 45 yr old male who complains of low back pain and has a radiological evidence of Grade 2 spondylolisthesis with a pars defect at L5? A. SPinal manipulation B. Refer to an orthopedic surgeon C. Order a MRI scan D. Recommend extensor strengthening exercises

A

Which is the contact point for correcting a sacrum with a posterior rotation? A. S2 tubercle B. Sacral promontory C. Lumbosacral junction D. PSIS

A

Which is the fixed point in the lateral plumb line view when performing a postural analysis? A. Slightly anterior to lateral malleolus B. Slight ant to medial malleolus C. Slight posterior to the lateral malleolus D. Slightly superior to the calcaneus

A

Which is the normal position of the right PSIS when the right leg is raised during the knee raiser? A. Posterior and inferior and medial B. Anterior and super and lateral C. Anterior and inferior and medial D. Posterior and Superior and lateral

A

Which is the segmental contact point for a left posterior atlas set up as a seated pull? A. Left TP B. Right TP C. Left lamina ped junction D. Right lamina ped junction

A

Which is the segmental contact point when Gonstead cervical chair set up to correct a PLS at C3 listing? A. Left SP of C3 B. Left lamina of C3 C. Right SP of C3 D. Right lamina of C3

A

Which leg check finding should be recorded as a negative Derfield? A. The short leg stays short B. There is no short leg C. The short leg goes long D. The short leg goes evem

A

Which muscle group is responsible for the speed of the toggle recoil adjustment? A. Triceps B. Biceps C. Biceps femoris D. Rhomboids

A

Which of the following best describes the effectiveness of a chiropractic adjustment to decrease pain? A. Increase proprioception B. Increases nociception by increasing proprioception C. Decreases proprioception D. Stimulating the 1 alpha motor neurons and opening the nociceptive gates

A

Which of the following conditions can be caused by air pollution? A. Asthma B. Emphysema C. Pneumothorax D. Positive Schepelmann Test

A

Which of the following forms of tx is contraindicated in a patient with synovitis? A. Adjusting B. Rest C. Ice D. NSAIDs

A

Which of the following is a cause of lung disease in a person working in the granite industry? A. Silicosis B. Siderosis C. Byssinosis D. Asbestosis

A

Which of the following is contraindicated for a patient with a grade 3 spondylolisthesis? A. McKenzie's Exercise B. William's Exercise C. Brace D. Muscle Stimulation

A

Which of the following organizations pays for the majority of medical research conducted in the US? A. National Institute of Health B. Communicable Disease Center C. Health Administration and Services D. Occupational Safety and Health Administration

A

Which of the following structures are in the same plane when a patient is seated? A. Inferior scapula and T8 B. T12 and xiphoid C. Sternal angle of Louie and T1 D. T5 and spine of scapula

A

Which of the following substances contributes most to the greenhouse effect? A. Carbon dioxide B. Chlorofluorocarbon C. Ethanol D. Methane

A

Spondylolisthesis is most likely to cause low back pain in which situation? A. 21 yr old male athlete B. 78 yr old hypertensive C. 59 yr old post gastrectomy D. 57 yr old diabetic

A

A seated cervical adjustment for a C5 PRS listing requires a A. A right distal-lateral index contact B. A left pisiform Contact C. A right metacarpo-phalangeal contact D. A left cubital contact

A

A winged right scapula can be indicative of which of the following? A. Hypotonic right serratus anterior muscle B. Hypotonic right levator scapula C. Hypertonic right upper trap muscle D. Hypotonic right deltoid m.

A

Postural findings of a high mastoid with level shoulders and no head rotation is suggestive of: A. A superior occipital on the high side or an inferior occiput on the low side B. A posterior occiput on the high side C. A posterior C1 on the low side D. A posterior and inferior C2 on the high side

A

Pt presents with a malignancy in the spine. Where would you refer these patients? A. Oncologist B. Adjustment C. ER D. Orthopedist

A

Pt with a back and leg pain suggestive of disc herniation are absolute contraindications for chiro manipulation intervention when what additional sign is present? A. Bowel and bladder disturbances B. Positive MRI for disc bulge C. Postive valsava maneuver D. Difficulty standing erect

A

Pt's should be advised to discontinue or avoid the use of which of the following substances bc of its casual link to increased risk of heart disease, lung cancer, diabetes, osteoporosis, and chronic obstructive lung disease? A. Tobacco B. Alcohol C. Ginseng D. Glucosamine

A

Referred pain from myofascial sources present as? A. Poorly localized without hard neurological findings B. Localized findings C. Hard neurological findings D. None of the above

A

Regarding side posture pelvic adj placing the involved side (constant side) up or down: A. It depends on clinical results or pt preference B. All children should be adj involve side down C. All children should be adj involved side up D. The sacrum is stabilized better with the involved side up

A

With a patient lying on the left side, the dr contacts the left side of the SP of L4 with a digital contact and pulls from left to right with clockwise torque. This procedure would be used for which of the following: A. Right rotated, left laterally flexed L4 (PLI-SP; RPS) B. Right rotated, right laterally flexed L4 (PRI-M; LPS) C. Left rotated, right laterally flexed L4 (PRI-M; LPS) D. Left rotated, left laterally flexed L4 (PRS; LPI)

A

Yergason's and Speed's tests are used to assess strength and function of which of the following muscles of the shoulder girdle? A. Biceps B. Infraspinatus C. Pectoralis minor D. Supraspinatus

A

On the weight bearing AP pelvic Xray projection a measurement from the top of the iliac crest to the inferior margin of the ischial tuberosity that is decreased would suggest: A. PI ilium B. AS ilium C. IN ilium D. EX ilium

B

Other than smoking what is the main cause of lung cancer? A. Carbon monoxide B. Radon exposure C. Carbon Dioxide D. Sulfur

B

Palpation for ilium-ishcium-sacral motion is accomplished using the: A. Kernig and Brudzinki tests B. Gillett test C. Schober test D. Adam's test

B

Palpation of ilium-ishium-sacral motion is accomplished using the: A. Kernig and Brudzinski test B. Gillett Test C. Schober Test D. Adam's Test

B

A pt assessed as having a right +Deerfield (R+D) would have the equivalent static and dynamic SI listing of a right: A. Posterior-Inferior Ilium or flexion B. Posterior-Inferior Ilium or extension C. Anterior-Superior Ilium or flexion D. Anterior-Superior ilium or extension

B

What does it mean when the ASIS's move anterior to the pubic symphysis?

Anterior Pelvic Tilt

What will decrease the symptoms associated with facet syndrome? A. Increase strength of erector spinae B. Increase strength of the abdominals C. Increase lumbar lordosis D. Increase strength of iliopsoas

B

What will the SP of T11 palpate as? A. Rounded B. Sharp C. Long and flat D. None of the above

B

A pt assessed as having a right +Derfield (R+D) would have the equivalent static and dynamic SI listing of a right: A. Posterior-inferior ilium or flex restriction B. Posterior-inferior ilium or extension restriction C. Anterior- superior ilium of flex restriction D. Anterior-superior ilium or extension restriction

B

A 35yr old man presents with moderate low back pain that development after moving furniture the previous day. He reports similar episodes following strenuous activity since he was a teen. After a detailed history is take, physical domination (?) is conducted, and lumbar radiographs are taken, he is diagnosed with grade 2 spondylolisthesis with concomitant lumbar sprain/strain. What would be the most appropriate coarse of action? A. Send the pt home for bed rest until symptoms subside B. Proceed with chiro care C. refer for MRI or CT scanning D. Refer for surgical consult

B

What in the lumbosacral motion? A. Rotation B. Lateral Flex C. Extension D. None of the above

B

When performing the Superior Condyle technique the patient's head is rotated A. 10° B. 0° C. 25° D. 45°

B

Your patient is a 17 yr old male student that presents with severe abdominal pain. The pain is localized to the right lower quadrant of the abdomen. He ate a bowl of cereal and went to school. By noon he had a dull achy pain around his umbilicus. This caused him to skip lunch. He had a bowl of soup for dinner and went to bed early. He awoke and vomited. Lying on his side in a fetal position relieved his pain slightly. He noted that he never had this problem before and noted that his last bowel movement was 3 days ago. The most appropriate case management action would be? A. Cholecystogram B. Perform abdominal palpation and include rebound tenderness C. Stool testing for occult blood D. KUB plain abdominal films

B

Your patient is a 20 year old female. She stands 5'11" and weighs 120 lbs. She presently works as a model. Since spending a lot of time on her feet, she notices that lately she is developing pain in her right foot. She is concerned that this might affect her work performance. The pain seems to be located between the 3rd and 4th metatarsal heads. It is exacerbated by wearing of high heel shoes and protracted standing with her body weight being placed on the balls of her feet. The most appropriate case management would be? A. Perform Ankle AP-PA Drawer test B. Perform Strunsky's test C. Perform Advancement test D. Perform Forefoot Adduction Correction Test

B

If a lumbar segment is fixated in right lateral flexion with right body rotation with a right convexity, what is the proper contact point for adjusting? A. Spinous right B. Right mammillary C. Spinous left D. Left mamillary

B.

If the Gonstead listing is PRS, this correlates with which dynamic listing?A.Fixated left rotation and fixated right lateral flexion B. Fixated right rotation and fixated left lateral flexion C. Restricted right rotation and fixated left lateral flexion D. Restricted left rotation and fixated right lateral flexion

B.

If you are contacting the medial border of the PSIS and your line of correction is P-A and I-S in side posture position, what is your listing that you are correcting? a. AS ilium b. PI Ilium c. Base posterior sacrum d. ASIN

B.

There is a left body restriction with left lateral flexion fixation at T7. Using a crossed bilateral pisiform adjustment, the ___ is the contact hand, you stand on the ___ and use ___ torque. A. Right; right; clockwise B. Left; right; clockwise C. Left; left; clockwise D. Left; right; counter-clockwise

B.

According to the book "Table Assisted Adjusting", which of the following will help identify an Overcompensated Cervical Syndrome (OCS)? A. X - ray & Heel lifts B. X - ray & Pelvic Blockers C. X - ray & Taut and tender trapezius D. MRI & Taut and tender gastrocs

C

Anterior head carriage may lead to which condition? A. Hypertension B. Whiplash injury C. Cervicogenic headache D. Thoracic outlet syndrom

C

A posteriorly rotated sacrum maybe correct best by contracting what structure? A. Lumbosacral junction B. S2 tubercle C. Sacral ala D. SI junction

C

A pt presents with a levatory scoliosis of the lumbar spine. The Gonstead listing of L5, SP right with the side of the open wedge would be ___? A. PRI-M B. PRI-SP C. PRS-M D. PRS

C

A left laterally flexed vertebrae with left body rotation is equivalent to which dynamic listing? A. Left lateral flexion restriction with right body rotation fixation B. Left lateral flexion fixation with left body rotation restriction C. Right lateral flexion restriction with right body rotation restriction D. Right lateral flexion fixation with left body rotation restriction

C

A plan of management used by some chiropractors that theoretically optimizes a person's health, prevents the development of clinical conditions, allows for the identification of emergent conditions, and provides palliative care is best described as: A. Allopathic care B. Crisis care C. Maintenance care D. Supportive care

C

A plan of management used by some chiropractors that theoretically optimizes a person's health, prevents the development of clinical conditions, allows for the identification of emergent conditions, and provides palliative care is best described as: A. Allpathic care B. Crisis care C. Maintenance care D. Supportive care

C

T2-T4 will effect the? A. Gallbladder B. Stomach C. Heart and lungs D. Liver

C

Which of the following would be the best explanation to offer a new pt regarding the cause of the "cracking" or "popping" sound that accompanied many chiro adjustments? A. Microtears in the joint capsule B. The snapping of adjacent ligaments and tendons C. Sudden changes in intracapsular fluid tension/pressure D. The sound of joint surfaces rubbing against each other

C

A 30 year old male presents to your office with 2 months history of pain and paresthesia emanating from his left wrist and travelling down into his thumb, index and middle finger. He is a bowler and remarked that the pain interfered with the release of the bowling ball and worse after playing. On examination he had reduced grip strength, flattened thenar muscles and positive Phalen's test / Tinel's sign. The left wrist X-ray was normal. Give the diagnosis. A. Subclavian Steal disease B. SLE C. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome D. Dislocation of the wrist joint What is the spinal [neurologic] segmental level involved in the presentation of patient in above question # 11? A. C4 B. C5 C. C6 D. C7

C D

A 28 year old female professor first experienced numbness in the right arm which persisted for about 3 days then completely subsided. Couple of weeks later, she experience a right foot drop. This progressed over 24 hours and resolved in 10 days. She was fatigued, hypersensitive to light with diminished left visual field. She also experienced Lhermitte's sign. What is the diagnosis? A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Multiple myeloma C. Multiple sclerosis D. Guillain Barre syndrome Considering the case history above which of the following investigations is the gold standard for diagnosis? A. Lumbar puncture B. Identification of spinal subluxation C. CT Scan D. MRI As a Chiropractor, what can you do for the patient in question ? A. Muscle stretching, daily aerobic exercises especially aquatic, and adjusting. B. Encourage the patient to be on a high residue diet and to take appropriate supplements particularly the B vitamins C. Advise against taking hot showers/baths D. Advise patent to acquire a "cooling jacket"

C D A

Which is the most effective technique type of adjustment for an extension fixation in the midthoracic region ? A. Prine unilateral hypothenar transverse B. Side posture hypothernar transverse C. Supine hypothernar transverse D. Knee chest hypothenar spinous

D

Which is the proper segmental contact point to correct a right body rotation restriction of T7 vertebrae? A. Left TP of T8 B. Left aspect of the SP of T7 C. Right side of the SP of T8 D. Right TP of T7

D

Which is the result of a shortened hypertonic hamstring? A. A loss of lumbar lordosis and posterior superior PSIS movement B. A loss of lumbar lordosis and anterior superior PSIS movement C. An increase of lumbar lordosis and posterior super PSIS movement D. An increase of lumbar lordosis and posterior superior movement

D

Which is the segmental contact point for a body right listing at C5? A. SP on the side of SP laterality B. SP on the side of body rotation C. Lamina of the side of SP laterality D. Lamina on the side of body rotation

D

Which ligament when stretched allows an anterior misalignment of the carpals and may cause carpal tunnel syndrome? A. Scapholunate ligament B. Radiotriquetral ligament C. Pisohamate ligament D. Transverse carpal ligament

D

Which listing can only be determined by Xray spinography? A. Posterior superior occiput B. PLI C. PRS D. Anterior superior occiput

D

Which listing has a right stabilization hand? A. PLI-T/ double transverse/ Prone/ T3 B. PRI-M/ SIngle hand contact/ Knee chest/ L2 C. PRI-M/ SIngle hand contact/ Prine/ L3 D. PLS/ double transverse/ prone/ T9

D

Which may be confused with an inferior humerus sublux? A. Pectoralis angina B. Instability of the bicipital tendon C. Sternoclavicular sublux D. Subacromial bursitis

D

Which of the following investigates is the gold standard for multiple sclerosis? A. Lumbar puncture B. Identification of spinal manipulation C. CT scan D. MRI

D

Which of the following is INCORRECT as it pertains to obtaining informed consent to administer chiro treatment to a pt? A. The pt must be capable of giving consent (no drugs, alcohol, or mental incapacity) B. The individual must be of legal age to give consent C. The individual must be informed as to the nature of the consent (likely risks) D. IC can be provided by a relative for minors under 18 with verbal approval from legal guardian

D

Which of the following is MOST appropriate for rehab management of the middle aged female pt with hip joint osteoarthritis? A. Pilates B. Impact style areobics C. Long walks D. Pool exercises and weight reduction

D

Which of the following is correct for the lumbar single hand contact technique- pt placed prone with the listing: -0x, +0Y, +0z when found with right convexity? A. Left contact hand/ left dr stance B. Right contact hand/ left dr stance C. Left stabilization hand/ right dr stance D. Left contact hand/ right dr stance

D

Which of the following is not part of the water purification process? A. Sedimentation B. Filtration C. Chlorination D. Toxic material pre-screening

D

Which of the following is the least likely way for the elderly to get injured? A. Fall B. MVA C. Infection D. Sports

D

Which of the following listings would manifest easier trunk lateral flexion to the left than to the right at the involved motor unit, palpation prominence on the right, and upon passive lateral flexion to the right noticeable stacking occurs visually in the thoracic spine? A. PRI-T; T8 B. PL-T; T4 C. PLS; T10 D. PLI-T; T7

D

Which of the following muscles will control and achieve the appropriate depth desired and required when adjusting via toggle recoil? A. Triceps B. Biceps C. Anconeus D. Pectoralis

D

Which of the following regions of the spine has the strongest evidence of effectiveness or spinal manipulative therapy in eras of number of supportive studies? A. Cranial region B. Cervical region C. Thoracic region D. Lumbar region

D

Which of the following regions of the spine has the strongest evidence of effectiveness or spinal manipulative therapy in eras of numbers of supportive studies? A. Cranial region B. Cervical region C. Thoracic region D. Lumbar region

D

Which of the following types of therapies is BEST classified as a low velocity, low amplitude oscillating motion? A. Spinal manipulative therapy B. Magnetic healing C. Massage or soft tissue therapies D. Mobilization

D

Which of the following would be considered a secondary preventative strategy of osteoporosis? A. Provision of external hip protectors B. Weight-bearing exercise C. Use of prescription drugs such as bisphosphonates or hormone replacement therapy D. Dual-energy Xray absorptiometry (DEXA)

D

Which of the following would be considered an ABSOLUTE contraindication to cervical spine manipulation? A. If the person were a heavy smoker, moderate drinker and was taking birth control pills B. If the person had high cholesterol and was taking corticosteroids C. If the person has type2 diabetes and gout D. If the person had a history of acute episodes of RA

D

Which of these muscles is intrinsically voluntary for SIJ movement? A. Piriformis B. Glute Max C. Iliopsoas D. None of the above

D

Which one of the following listings uses a right inferior hand pisiform contact point? A. -0x, -0Y, -0Z/ Double transverse/ prone/ T7/ Right convexity B. -0x, -0Y, +0Z/ double transverse/ prone/ T10/ Left convexity C. -0x, +0Y, +0Z/ side posture/ pull/ L5/ Left convexity D. -0X, -0Y, +0Z/ Single Hand contact/ prone/ L5/ Left convexity

D

Which orthopedic test when + might suggest a possible pleural problem? A. Halstead Maneuver B. Sternal compression test C. Lewin-Gaeslin Test D. Schelpel Test

D

Which orthopedic test would you follow up with if a patient has a positive Milch Test? A. Yergason B. Cozen C. Dawbarn D. Dugas

D

Which position would worsen a posterolateral lumbar intervertebral disc herniation? A. Lying Supine B. Standing up C. Lying prone D. Sitting uo

D

Which utilizes a right inferior stabilization hand? A. PRS/ double transverse/ Prone/ T11 B. PRI-T/ SIngle hand contact/ Prone/ T1 C. PLI-T/ Double transverse/ Prine/ T3 D. PRS/Double Thenar/ Prone/ T6

D

With respect to postural landmarks of a person in the prone position which of the following statements is true? A. The inferior borders of the scapare at the level of T2-T3 B. The femoral heads are at the level of the L4-L5 interspace C. The inferior border of the ribs are at the level of T10-T11 D. The PSISs are the level of S2

D

With the Crossed Bilateral Transverse Pisiform, the cephalad hand position is: A. Contralateral to the doctor B. Ipsilateral to the doctor C. Is underneath the caudad hand D. Is above the caudad hand

D

Would a tumor cause a positive valsalva? A. NO B. Blank C. Blank D. Yes

D

You are performing a lumbar push move on a patient where there is a convexity to the right and the L4 SP has deviated to the left. The correct contact is on the ___ side of the patient while using a ___ hand contact. A. Left; left B. Left; right C. Right; right D. Right; left

D

You are performing a lumbar push move on a pt where there is convexity to the right and the L4 SP has deviated to the left. The correct contact is on the ___ side of the pt while using a ___ hand contact? A. Left; left B. Right; right C. Left; right D. Right; left

D

Your patient complains of pain within his shoulder joint complex that was reported to have come on from a direct traumatic blow to anterior shoulder unit while playing varsity football. Which of the following is the Least appropriate case management action? A. Obtain more history of the patient's injury B. X-ray the shoulder joint complex C. Observe the patient for ease of shoulder movement D. Adjust the shoulder joint complex

D

Your patient is a 14 year old competitive diver. Her mom brings her to your office immediately after being pulled from the pool. It seems the child did a great dive but hit the top of her head into the bottom of the pool. She noted severe pain upon impact and she now notices anesthesia along the lateral forearm and 1st and 2nd digits. The most appropriate case management would be? A. Range of motion testing B. Orthopedic testing C. Neurological testing D. Radiographic evaluation

D

Your patient is a 50 yr old female school teacher who complains of severe headaches. She notes that a few times each month she gets this headache that is located behind her right ear and will migrate to the front of her head. The headache lasts for about 12 hours and being in a dark room with ice on her head seems to help. What would be the most appropriate case management action? A. Cat Scan B. M.R.I C. X-ray D. Nutritional diary with log of occurrences of headaches

D

When taking a frog leg view of the hip the tube tilt is ____ and the distance is ____.

No tube tilt; 40 inches

Your pt complains of pain within his shoulder joint complex that was reported to have come on from a direct traumatic blow to anterior shoulder unit while playing varsity football. Which of the following is the least appropriate case management action? A. Obtain more history of the patient's injury B. Xray the shoulder joint complex C. Observe the pt for ease of shoulder movement D. Adjust the shoulder joint complex

D

Your pt is a 14yr old competitive diver. Her mom brings her to your office immediately after being pulled from the pool. It seems the child did a great dive but hit her head into the bottom of the pool. She noted severe pain upon impact and she now notices anesthesia along the lateral forearm and 1st and 2nd digits. The most appropriate case management would be? A. ROM testing B. Orthopedic testing C. Neuro testing D. Radiographic testing

D

Your pt is a 50yr female school teacher who complains of severe headaches. She notes that a few times each month she gets this headache that is located behind er right ear and will migrate to the front of her head. The headache lasts for about 12hrs and being in a dark room with ice on he head seems to help. What would be the most appropriate case management action? A. Cat Scan B. MRI C. Xray D. Nutritional diary with log of occurrences of headaches

D

____ are chemicals in acid rain that cause destruction of statues. A. Copper sulfate and aluminum oxide B. Carbon dioxide and nitrogen C. Carbon dioxide and Sulfur Dioxide D. Sulfur dioxide and nitric oxide

D

A prominent left mammillary process of L2 in a left sectional convexity is best corrected using a side posture push move. The stabilization hand is the ___, the thigh contacted is the ____ and the segmental contact point is the ____. A. Left; right; mammillary B. Right; left; spinous C. Left; left; spinous D. Left; left; mammillary

D.

If the vertebral body has moved posterior right and superior, what is the correct contact point for adjusting the T4 segment? A. Left transverse process B. Spinous left C. Spinous right D. Right transverse process

D.

The doctor stands on the right side of a prone patient and contacts the T6 transverse process with clockwise torque. What is the listing of this patient? A. PRS B. PRI C. PLS D. PLI

D.

The segment is fixated in left rotation and left lateral bending. What is the most appropriate vertebral body listing? A. RPS B. RPI C. LPS D. LPI

D.

The vertebral body of L5 has a dynamic listing of left rotation restriction and left lateral flexion restriction. The static listing is right posterior inferior body. There is also a right convex scoliosis noted in the lumbar spine. What is the proper contact point for adjusting? A. Left side of the spinous B. Left mammillary process C. Right side of the spinous D. Right mammillary process

D.

When the right leg is raised during a knee raiser and the right SI is fixed, what is the most likely listing on the side of fixation? A. EX ilium B. IN ilium C. Posterior rotation of the sacrum D. AS ilium

D

When the thighs are ABDucted (knees out) during leg fanning, what is the normal motion of the PSIS and sacrum? A. PSIS glide laterally and sacrum rocks anteriorly B. PSIS glide medially and sacrum rocks anteriorly C. PSIS glide laterally and the sacrum rocks posteriorly D. PSIS glide medially and sacrum rocks posterially

D

When utilizing the ilium side posture PSIS push procedure for a left posterior-inferior (PI) involvement, the dr utilizes the ____ hand to contact the ___ PSIS. A. Right, right B. Left, right C. Left, left D. Right, left

D

Where is a cavitation most likely to occur during a chiro adj? A. Physiological barrier B. Anatomical limit C. End Plate zone D. Paraphysiological space

D

Where is the posterior longitudinal ligament the thickest? A. Lumbar B. Cervical C. Sacral D. Thoracic

D

Where would the doctor's episternal notch be placed for an ASRP listing? A. Over the E.A.M. B. 1 ½ to 2 inches superior to the E.A.M. C. 1 ½ to 2 inches inferior to the E.A.M. D. 1 ½ to 2 inches posterior to the E.A.M

D

Where would the doctor's episternal notch be placed to adjust an ASRP listing? A. Over the E.A.M. B. 1 ½ to 2 inches superior to the E.A.M. C. 1 ½ to 2 inches inferior to the E.A.M. D. 1 ½ to 2 inches posterior to the E.A.M.

D

Which Gonstead spinal listing is representative of a lumbar vertebral segment that is positioned posteriorly with right spinous rotation and right convexity with an open wedge on the left? A. PLI-M B. PLS C. PRS D. PRI-SP

D

Which SP is located medial to the inferior scapular angle in the prone position? A. T8 B. T5 C. T7 D. T6

D

Which adjusting maneuver is best for a patient with a fixation at L5 when extension fixation is considered primary? A. SP Push-Pull B. Reverse lumbar roll C. Prone thenar mammillary push D. Hypothenar SP push

D

Which cervical technic is a "traction" technic? A. Master Cervical B. Calcaneal Cervical Break C. Malar Posterior Articular D. Rotary Cervical

D

Which is an absolute contraindication to adjusting? A. RA B. Osteoporosis C. Spondylolisthesis D. Malignancy

D

Which is an analgesic endogenous opiate produced in response to nociceptive stimuli? A. Substance P B. BradyKinin C. Leukotriene D. Enkephalin

D

Which is an relative contraindication to adj? A. Infection B. Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm C. Recent Surgery D. Osteoporosis

D

Which is considered subjective? A. Motion Palpation B. Posture analysis C. Instrumentation D. Case history

D

Which is correct when using a single hand contact adj at L4? A. Super hand contact B. Transverse process contact point C. Anterior to posterior line of drive D. Inferior hand contact

D

Which is not a reasonable reaction to an adjustment? A. Soreness for less than 2 days B. Mild tenderness C. Fatigue D. Worsening of objective signs

D

Which is one of the following listings would use a left superior stabilization point (midpoint btwn thenar and hypothenar? A. PRI-M/single hand contact/ prone/ L3 B. PLI-M/ single hand contact/ prone L2 C. PRS/Double process/ prone/ T12 D. PRI side posture/ pull L5

D

Which is part of the history of the presenting complaint in an adult health history? A. Surgeries B. Traumas C. Hospitalizations D. Associated symptoms

D

When evaluating the occiput, the Doctor will perform three movements— Anterior Glide / Posterior Glide, Lateral flexion, and A/P & P/A rotation. While performing Lateral flexion, what should the Doctor expect to find in a patient with normal range of motion? A. EOP should move toward the convexity B. EOP should move toward the concavity C. The vertical gap decreasing on the opposite side of lateral flexion D. The vertical gap increasing on opposite side of lateral flexion.

D

When executing the axial thrust during a PLUS technique adjustment, you should use a lighter thrust on which listing? A. Bilateral anterior atlas B. Bilateral posterior atlas C. Lateral atlas D. Rotated atlas

D

When geriatric pts present with any of the following symptoms: vertigo, + George's, hypertension, etc Which Thompson protocol would best address the needs of the geriatric population? A. Effleurage B. Unilateral cervical adj C. Bilateral cervical adj D. P-A cervical adj

D

When performing a rotational manipulation at the occipitoatlantal joints (C0-C1) isolation can be achieved prior to reaching maximum rotation by first inducing slight: A. Flex B. Extension C. Ipsilateral lateral flexion D. Contralateral lateral flex

D

What are open chain exercises?

Hand or foot is free to move (ex. Bicep curl, bench press or leg extensions), typically non weight bearing, if weight is applied it is to the distal limb, movement occurs at elbow or knee joint

Which of the following is an example of primary care?

Health screening

What is a cardiologist?

Heart conditions

Which of the following is an example of secondary prevention?

Laboratory evaluation following angina pain

The best view to visualize the IVF's in the lumbar spine is _____.

Lateral

Which of the following radiographs is best to determine basilar invagination?

Lateral cervical

Which of the following is NOT a part of the normal ankle series?

Lateral oblique

In the cervical spine, with patient supine. How should position the neck?

Laterally flex over your contact and rotate head away.

If a child ate paint chips and became ill what would it be mostly?

Lead poisoning

In a LPO Lumbar oblique which of the following are visualized?

Left pars; Right SI joint

Physical activity is promoted in all ages to reduce ____?

Morbidity

Exposure to excess heat is most detrimental to a patient who has ___:

Multiple sclerosis

Which of the following is the most common reason to be kept off from work?

Musculoskeletal

What are the indications for Trigger point therapy?

Myofascial pain (used to elongate bands of muscle fibers)

What is the primary agency that funds medical research in the United States?

NIH

What is the Lovette Positive Classification of Scoliosis?

Normal compensatory deviation

Which of the following agencies wrote about the blood borne pathogens to protect health care workers?

OSHA

What does it mean when the ASIS's move posterior to the pubic symphysis?

Posterior Pelvic Tilt

In the sub-occipital triangle, where is the Rectus Capitus Posterior Minor located?

Posterior tubercle to Occiput

What does the second letter refer to in the National Listing System?

Posteriority

What is the best method to prevent the onset of illness?

Primary intervention

The lumbar gravity line should is drawn at the level of the L3 vertebral body should fall though the ____.

Sacral base

What are the symptoms of a vitamin B1 deficiency?

Thiamine deficiency from alcohol causes Wernike Kosakoff syndrome Without alcohol causes Beri Beri (encephalopathy and psychosis)

What is costovertebral or costotransverse disrelationship/sacroiliac subluxation characterized as?

paraspinal

What are the contraindications for Massage?

vascular problems

Extension restriction:

• Cannot extend • Flexion fixation • Stuck in flexion

Right lateral flexion restriction

• Cannot laterally flex to right • Left lateral flexion fixation • Stuck in left lateral flexion

Right rotational restriction

• Cannot rotate right • Left rotation fixation • Stuck in left rotation

What are the indications a for Infared?

• Chronic musculoskeletal conditions • arthritic conditions • stiff joints

What are the contraindications for cryotherapy? How long?

• Circulatory compromise • hypersensitivity to cold • frostbite • Raynaud's • Use for 20-30 minutes

What are the indications for Diathermy?

• Deep chronic musculoskeletal conditions • PID (pelvic inflammatory disease) • prostatitis

What are the contraindications for Ultrasound? Effects?

• Epiphyseal centers • bony prominences • fractures

What is low volt galvanic used for?

• Exhibits polar effects • Used for iontophoresis, denervated muscle

Lateral gravity weight line:

• External auditory meatus • Anterior body of C7 • Middle of shoulder • Anterior 1/3 of sacral base • Middle of the hip joint • Posterior to the patella • 1" anterior to lateral malleolus

Where is the gravity weight line when assessing in a lateral manner?

• External auditory meatus • anterior body C7 • middle of shoulder • anterior 1/3 of sacral base • middle of the hip joint • posterior to the patella • 1" anterior to lateral malleolus

What is interferential used for?

• Pain control • edema reduction • to break up muscle spasm and exercise muscle • Same basic effects as high volt but with deeper penetration by the use of 2 crossing sine waves

What are the symptoms of a vitamin D deficiency?

• Rickets (osteomalacia - bone softening) - most common deficiency in children • Supplementation increases bone density • Rachitic rosary near sternum, saber shin, paint brush metaphysis on x-ray

What is the Trochanteric belt used for? AKA?

• SI hypermobility (sit/stand test) • Sacroiliac girdle

Posterior gravity weight line:

• Scapula winging • Scoliosis • Foot angle

You have decided to palpate your pt's SIJ standing. You place your left thumb on the pt left PSIS and your right thumb on the pt left sacral tubercle. You ask the patient to raise hi right lower extremity past 90degrees. Which of the following are you now palpating? A. Extension of the left SIJ B. Flex of the right SIJ C. Extension of the right SIJ D. Flexion of the left SIJ

A

If your patient has a spondylolisthesis at L5, you adjust them with the patient: A. Prone with a drop B. Supine with a drop C. Side posture D. Don't adjust them because it won't help

B

If your pt has a spondy at L5 you adj them with the pt: A. Prone with a drop B. Supine with a drop C. Side posture D. Don't adjust bc it won't help

B

In activator, a short leg means: A. Patient has anatomical short leg B. Patient has a pelvic deficiency C. Patient has a PI ilium D. Patient has an AS ilium

B

In activator, if the leg length goes short with a challengem it means: A. The challenge was in the direction of correction B. The challenge was in the direction of the sublux C. There is a problem on the side of the opp of the challenge D. There is not a problem

B

In an AS listing where is the ASIS? A. ASIS moves posterior to the pubic symphysis B. ASIS moves anterior to the pubic symphysis C. ASIS moves medial to the pubic symphysis D. ASIS moves lateral to the pubic symphysis

B

The L4 vertebral body is restricted in right rotation and restricted in left lateral bending. The most appropriate adjusting technique is a side posture pisiform contact on the ____ and with ___ torque. A. Left mammillary; CCW B. Right mammillary; CCW C. Spinous right; CCW D. Spinous left; CW

A.

The doctor is standing on the right side of a prone patient contacting the right side of the spinous process and performs a single hand diversified move on T6 with the LOD, P-A I-S and L-M with clockwise torque. What is the listing? A. PRS B. PLS C. PRI D. PLI

A.

There is restriction in right body rotation in a left thoracic convexity. This is effectively corrected by using a double transverse crossed bilateral pisiform technique with a ____ hand contact on the ___ while the doctor stands to the ____ of the prone patient. A. Right; left transverse; left B. Right; left transverse; right C. Left; left transverse; left D. Left; right transverse; left

A.

To correct a PLI listing at C5 with the doctor standing behind a seated patient, the contact is made on the ___ and the proper line of drive is ___. A. Right articular pillar; P-A, I-S, L-M B. Left articular pillar; P-A, I-S, M-L C. Left spinous process; P-A, I-S, L-M D. Right spinous process; P-A, I-S, M-L

A.

You are performing a lumbar pull maneuver on a patient where there is convexity to the right and the spinous is on the left at the L4 segment. The correct contact hand is the ___ and the contact is on the ____. A. Left; right mammillary B. Left; right spinous C. Right; right mammillary D. Right; left spinous

A.

In the standing position a normal plumb line in the lateral view would pass through which of the following group of landmarks? A. Lateral malleolus, retropatellar space, greater trochanter B. Styloid of the 5th metatarsal, anterior 3rd of the knee, greater trochanter C. Styloid of the 5th metatarsal, posterior 3rd of the knee, ASIS D. Lateral malleolus, anterior 3rd of knee, ASIS

B

If you are going to adj a body left at L3, the pt is put which side is up and what is the segmental contact point? A. Right side up and mammillary contact B. Left side up and mammillary contact C. Right side down and TVP contact D. Left side down and TVP contact

B

If you are going to adjust a body left at L3, the patient is put which side up and what is the segmental contact point? A. Right side up and mamillary contact B. Left side up and mamillary contact C. Right side down and tvp contact D. Left side down and tvp contact

B

A 45 year old female patient presents with 6 months history of left shoulder and lateral arm pain radiating to upper back and neck. It began as a mild ache but progressively got worse with loss of motion without any known injury. In the last couple of months the pain became so severe that she was unable to comb her hair or hook her bra. There was pain at rest/activity. Sometimes the pain abated spontaneously but motion restriction remained. She could elevate the arm to 130° and abduct to 120 but unable to combined medial rotation/adduction or external rotation/extension. There was tenderness over deltoid insertion. Examination findings of the cervical region were within normal limits. Give the diagnosis. A. Rotator cuff B. Adhesive capsulitis C. Shoulder dislocation D. Biceps tendonitis

B

A 45 yr old female pt presents with 6m hx of left shoulder and lateral arm pain radiating to the upper back and neck. It began as a mild ache but progressively got worse with loss of motion without any known injury. In the last couple of months the pain became so severe that she was unable to comb her hair or hook her bra. There was pain at rest/activity. Sometimes the pain abated spontaneously but motion restriction remained. She could elevate the arm to 130degrees and abduct to 120degrees bu unable to combined medial rotation/adduction or external rotation/extension. There was tenderness over deltoid insertion. Examination findings of the cervical region within normal limits. Give the diagnosis. A. Rotator cuff B. Adhesive capsulitis C. Shoulder dislocation D. Bicep tendonitis

B

A forceful hyperflexion of the neck occurs with sudden deceleration, it will most likely tear and stretch which ligament? A. Intertransverse B. Interspinal C. Ligament Flavum D. Anterior Longitudinal

B

A high right shoulder can be indicative of which muscle dysfunction? A. Hypotonic right levator scapulae B. Hypertonic right upper trap muscle C. Hypotonic right deltoid muscle D. Hypertonic right lower trap muscle

B

A lesion of the C7 nerve root will affect which of the following? A. Medial forearm B. 3rd digit of the hand C. Lateral forearm D. Medial Elbow

B

A patient presents which a reduced range of motion with medial stress in the mortise joint. If there were a deltoid ligament tear you would find ___. A. Increased anterior drawer test B. A positive medial stability test C. A postive lateral stability test D. Positive Thompson Test

B

A patient with a swollen disk would likely do best when adjusted A. In the morning after the disk has been under reduced axial load. B. In the afternoon or evening after the disk has been under normal axial load. C. At no time whatsoever. D. Only after 3 months of intensive rehabilitation.

B

A patient with facet syndrome associated with a hyperlordotic lumbar curve would likely benefit from which of the following ? A. McKenzie exercises B. Pelvic tilt exercise to decrease the lumbar lordotic curve C. Strengthening of the erector muscles D. Wearing high heels

B

A physician positions a patient in side posture to perform a manipulation intended to induce right rotation at L1-L2 motor unit. He/she places the pt left side down, distracts and torsions the trunk into right rotation, then takes a segmental contact point on the L2 vertebra in order to induce left rotation at this segment. This is an example of: A. Assisted adj procedure B. Resisted adj procedure C. Compressive adj procedure D. Neural postion adj procedure

B

A physician positions a pt in side posture to perform a manipulation intended to induce right rotation at L1-L2 motor unit. He/she places the pt left side down, distracts and torsions the trunk into right rotation, then tacks a segmental contact point on L2 vertebra in order to induce left rotation at this segment. This is an example of? A. Assisted adjustive procedure B. Resisted adjustive procedure C. Compressive adjustive procedure D. Neutral position adjustive procedure

B

A prominent right mammillary process with an open wedge on the right of L5 in a left sectional convexity is best corrected with a single hand reinforced pisiform contact on the ___ side of the SP while the dr stands on the ___ side of a prone pT and uses a ___ contact hand. A. Right; right; left B. Left; left; right C. Right; right; left D. Left; left; left

B

C6 has a dynamic listing of restricted right rotation, which is equivalent to static listing of body left (LP). If performing a seated diversified pull move the dr would be standing on the ___ side of the pt contacting the ___ with a ___ line of drive. A. Right; Left; right to left B. Right; left; left to right C. Left; right; right to left D. Left; Right left to right

B

Clinical features of vertebral artery dissection and brain stem ischemia arising from vertebral artery insufficiency include: A. Pain in the head and neck that is often unilateral or suboccipital B. Pain that is severe, distinct, and sharp C. That the pt reports neck stiffness with no limitation of neck ROM D. A, B, and C

B

Codman's pendulum exercises are prescribed for ___. A. Cervical disc protrusion B. Strain of the rotator cuff C. Rehab of the levator scapula D. Nerve Root Adhesions

B

Examination of a patient reveals a dynamic listing of the L3 vertebral body fixated in the left lateral fixation with right body rotation. What is the appropriate contact for side posture push move? A. Left mammillary B. Right mammillary C. Left side of the SP D. Right side of the SP

B

For a pt with right rotated, right laterally flexed L4 (RPI; PLS) in a left convex scoliosis, which of the following would be most appropriate? A. Right SP pull mobe B. Left SP push move C. Right mammillary push move D. Left mammillary push move

B

How does sciatic pain resulting from diabetic neuropathy differ from sciatic pain resulting from spinal disease? A. Symptoms are relatively chronic in onset and develop over several months B. There is usually no back pain associated with sciatica or diabetic neuropathy C. Sciatic pain is relieved by forward bending D. The sciatic pain is usually unilateral

B

If a patient has scalp sensitivity what nerve root would be affected? A. C1 B. C2 C. C3 D. C4

B

If a patient presents with rolled in shoulders, what is the best patient exercise to correct this problem? A. Push ups B. Corner stretches C. Bicep curls D. Sit-ups

B

If a pt presents with a history of inversion sprain of the ankle, what ligament would most likely be damaged? A. Medial collateral ligament B. Anterior talofibular ligament C. Deltoid ligament D. Anterior cruciate ligament

B

If a pt presents with low back pain that contributes into the buttock and leg to below the knee, what is the most likely diagnosis? A. Lumbar facet syndrome B. Nerve root irritation due to disc, stenosis, or tumor C. Cauda equina syndrome D. Muscle strain

B

If the measurement from the base of the SP to the lateral margin of the vertebra is greater on the right, what would it indicate? A. Body rotation on the left B. Body rotation on the right C. Convexity to the left D. COnvexity to the right

B

Segmental dysfunctions will have all of the following three significant findings during palpation except: A. Point tenderness or altered threshold to pain upon pressure. B. Numbness C. Loss of normal motion in one or more planes. D. Contraction of para spinal muscles

B

Signs of brain stem ischemia such as vertigo or dizziness, following a spinal manipulation would warrant what actions by the dr? A. Remanipulate the segment in the opposite direction B. Observe the pt C. Send pt home with icing instructions D. Refer immediately to emergency department

B

Sway back posture is usually associated with: A. Decreased thoracic kyphosis B. Shortened hamstring muscles C. Anterior head tilt of atlas D. Flexion of knees

B

Sway-back posture is usually associated with: A. Decreased thoracic hyphosis B. Shortened hamstring muscles C. Anterior tilt of the atlas D. Flex of the knees

B

The Master Cervical technique is appropriate for which vertebral levels? A. Lower Cervicals, C4 - C7 B. Upper Cervicals, C1 - C3 C. Appropriate for all cervicals D. Only Occiput and C1

B

The Mercy guidelines and others suggest that uncomplicated cervical spine conditions usually resolve in how long? A. 8 weeks B. 6 weeks C. 4 weeks D. 12 weeks

B

The best management plan for a pt whose lower back pain is worse within an hour of a spinal adj but disappears the following day? A. Refer for further neurological assessment B. Continue with your adj plan C. Send out for an MRI of the affected area D. Stop all adj

B

The correct patient position for a bilateral posterior atlas is: A Chin slightly up B. Chin slightly down C. Neutral D. Lateral flex to the left

B

The forces imparted into the pelvis ring from the femur heads into the standing pt tend to cause the pubic symphysis to: A. Open B. Close C. Rotate D. Laterally translate

B

The line of drive for a shoulder adj with anterior glide restriction is ___. A. A-P B. P-A C. S-I D. I-S

B

The patient has a extension restriction on C5, what is the listing? A. PR B. P C. PL D. PS

B

The patient position with Transverso-Carpal is: A. Supine B. Sitting C. Prone D. Side posture

B

The pt has the right under an "informed consent" to: A. Have the dr of his or her choice B. Accept or reject tx C. Choose the technique used D. Request specific therapeutic procedures

B

The segmental contact point in the imbricated segments of the thoracic spine would include the TP or the: A. Inferior tip of the SP B. Superior tip of the SP C. Mammillary processes D. Ribs

B

The supine Thompson EX adj is easier than the side posture EX adj bc: A. It is done with the involved side down B. The pt involved side leg is placed n a figure 4 position C. The pt involved side knee is crossed over the other leg D. The PSIS is the segmental contact point

B

The supine Thompson EX adjustment is easier than the side posture EX adj bc: A. It is done with the involved side down B. The pt's involved side leg is placed in a figure four position C. The pt's involved side knee is crossed over the other leg D. The PSIS is the segmental contact point

B

The transverse plane is best described as the: A. XY Plane B. XZ Plane C. YZ Plane D. SG Plane

B

The warmth made by vasodilation at an injury site (which may be felt/palpated) is likely to be produced by which of the following chemicals? A. Endogenous opiates B. Prostaglandins C. Adrenaline D. Thromboxane

B

There is a functional S1-S2 disc allowing S1 or S2 segmental dysfunction (sublux) up to the age of: A. 1 year B. 10 years C. 20 years D. 40 years

B

There is a functional S1-S2 disc allowing S1 or S2 segmental dysfunction (subluxation) up to the age of: A. 1yrs B. 10yrs C. 20yrs D. 40yrs

B

There is a left convexity with a left spinous deviation at the level of L4. To perform a side posture move the patient's ___ side should be up, the stabilization hand is the ___ hand, and you should contact the ___. A. Left; right; mammillary B. Left; right; spinous C. Right; left; spinous D. Right; left; mammillary

B

To adj a PI ilium prone, the dr stands: A. On the same side B. On opposite side C. At the caudal end of the table D. At the cephalic end of the table

B

To adjust a PI ilium, the doctor stands: A. On the same side B. On the opposite side C. At the caudal end of the table D. At the cephalic end of the table

B

To correct T1 with a PR listing with the pt prone, the correct contact point on the hand is the ___ while contacting the ___ of the pt. A. thumb; TP B. thumb; SP C. thenar; TP D. thenar; SP

B

To correct a PRS at L5 in a side posture pisiform using a push move, the pt's ___ side is up, the dr stabilization hand is on the ___ hand, the dr would be contacting the ___ and utilizing ___ torque to correct the misalignment A. Left; left left mammillary; CCW B. Right; right; right SP; CW C. Left; right; left mammillary; CCW D. Right; left; right SP; CW

B

To correct a PRS misalignment at C5 with the patient in a seated position and the doctor standing posterior to the pt, the correct segmental contact point would be the ___. A. lamina on the right B. SP on the right C. lamina on the left D. SP on the left

B

To prevent ankle ligament instability which of the following exercises should be prescribed to increase proprioception. A. Swimming B. Wobble Board C. Running Stairs D. William's

B

True vegans may need to find alternate sources of which mineral? A. Sodium B. Calcium C. Selenium D. Magnesium

B

Under normal circumstances, the lateral gravity weight line will not pas through the ___. A. Ankle joint B. Apex of a thoracic kyphosis C. Knee joint D. Apex of lumbar lordosis

B

Contraindications to manipulation are divided into absolute and relative. Which condition is considered to be an ABSOLUTE contraindication to manipulation in the lumbar spine: A. Anticoagulant therapy B. Lateral recess stenosis C. Abdominal aortic aneurysm D. Osteoporosis

C

Contraindications to manipulation are divided into absolute and relative. Which condition would be considered ABSOLUTE contraindication to manipulation of the lumbar spine? A. Anticoagulant therapy B. Lateral recess stenosis C. Abdominal recess stenosis D. Osteoporosis

C

The correct contacts for adjusting a PI ilium is: A. The PSIS on the uninvolved side B. The PSIS on the involved side C. The PSIS on the involved side and contra-lateral ischial tuberosity D. The PSIS on the involved side and the ipsi-lateral ischial tuberosity

C

Examination of the patient reveals that T10 has a right lateral flexion malposition with a right body rotation malposition which equivalent to a dynamic listing of restricted left body rotation and restricted left lateral flexion. Using a reinforced pisiform SP contact (single hand) with the patient in the prone position, the doctors contact hand is the ___ hand while standing on the ___ side of the table. A. Right; left B. Right; right C. Left; left D. Left ; right

C

For acute uncomplicated cases of spinal pain, N initial trial of manual therapy should last? A. 10-14, 1-2visits/week B. 10-21 days 1-2visits/week C. 10-14 days, 3-5visits/week D. 21-36 days, 4-5visits/week

C

For acute uncomplicated cases of spinal pain, N initial trial of manual therapy should last? A. 10-14 days, 1-2 visits /week B. 10-21 days, 1-2 visits/week C. 10-14 days, 3-5 visits/week D. 21-36 days, 4-5 visits/week

C

For an occipital listing of PS-RS-RA, what would you expect to palpate during lateral flexion? A. Bilateral opening B. Unilateral opening on left C. Unilateral opening on right D. Bilateral closing

C

Gillet's Test is used to find a listing for the: A. Sacrum B. Coccyx C. Ilium D. Ileum

C

How does Bone pain present? A. Superficial pain following dermatome B. Deep pain following dermatome C. Deep pain, commonly worse in the evening D. None of the above

C

If a pt is on Warfarin what would be the most appropriate course of action before giving them any supplementation? A. Give them more supplements, the more the better B. Tell them to get off the drug C. Talk to their pharmacist bc warfarin can be affected by anything D. None of the above

C

If a pt presents with repeated substantial pressure that lasts 2 to 3 mins and is relieved by rest the MOST likely diagnosis is: A. Pericarditis B. Mitral valve prolapse C. Angina pectoris D. Sublux of the sternum

C

The only difference between the Posterior Superior Occiput and the thumb cervical extension is A. Patient position B. Doctor position C. Contact point D. Set up of adjustment table

C

If the knee is injured by a blow from the posterior to lateral side which 3 structures are most likely damaged? A. Anterior cruciate, lateral collateral, and medial meniscus B. Anterior cruciate, medial collateral, and lateral meniscus C. Anterior cruciate, medial collateral and medial meniscus D. Posterior cruciate, medial collateral, and medial meniscus

C

If the left PSIS lies more lateral to the 2nd sacral tubercle than the right PSIS, what is the listing on the left associated with this finding? A. PI Ilium B. AS Ilium C. EX Ilium D. IN Ilium

C

If the listing is a PLS, the vertebrae is fixed in ___ lateral flexion and restricted in ___ rotation? A. Left; left B. Right; right C. Right; left D. Left; right

C

If the segment has a right restricted right body rotation and a left lateral flexion malposition at L5. The proper correction is a ___ contact on the___, contacting the ___ thigh of the patient while performing a side posture adj. A. Left pisiform, left SP; left B. Right pisiform, righ SP; right C. Left pisiform, right SP, right D. Right pisiform, left SP, left

C

If the vertebral body is restricted from right lateral bending and restricted from left rotation, what is the Gonstead spinous listing? A. PLS B. PRS C. PLI D. PRI

C

If your patient is lying on your table in a prone position and you notice that they are moving their right hand because it is tingling, what do you do? A. Ignore it and continue B. Raise the head piece more into extension C. Lower the head piece more into flexion D. Adjust the patient and send them home

C

In Bergmann's mneomonic PARTS, proposed as a method to identify a vertebral segment that would respond favorable to spinal manipulation or adjustment, the R stands for: A. Restriction B. Radiculopathy C. ROM D. Relieving factors

C

In a pt with an inversion sprain, which ankle ligament is least likely to be torn? A. Calcaneofibular B. Anterior Calcaneonavicular C. Posterior talofibular D. Deltoid

C

In activator, when the patient squeezes your hand with their knees and there is a change in leg then this means there is a problem in their: A. Knee B. Ankles C. Pelvis D. Spine

C

The only difference btwn the Posterior Superior Occiput and the thumb cervical extension is: A. Pt position B. Dr position C. Contact point D. Set up of adj table

C

In addition to in-office care, all of the following would be appropriate home care, dietary, or lifestyle modifications for pt's suffering from gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) exceptL A. Losing of weight if pt weighs at lest 20% more than ideal body weight B. Suggesting to avoid fatty foods, chocolate, mints, caffeine, and alcohol C. Suggestions to consume larger, rather than several small, meals throughout the day D. Suggestion to not sleep, lie down, or engage in exercise for 2 or 3 hours immediately following a meal

C

In clinical practice it is a standard of care to perform re-examinations, these reexams should be performed at a frequency of? A. Every other visit B. Every 8 weeks at the most C. At least every 4 weeks D. At the patient's request

C

In clinical practice it is standard of care to perform re-examinations, these re-exams should be performed at a frequency of? A. Every other visit B. Every 8weeks at the most C. At least every 4 weeks D. At the pt's request

C

In the lower cervical spine, rotation is coupled with: A. Flex B. Extension C. Ipsilateral flex D. Contralateral flex

C

In the lower cervicals spine, rotation is coupled with: A. Flexion B. Extension C. Ipsilateral lateral flex D. Contralateral lateral flex

C

L2 has a static listing of SP or a dynamic listing of decreased right rotation, the dr utilizing the prone lumbar unilateral reinforced pisiform SP contact procedure would stand on the ___ side contacting the ___ SP of L2. A. Left, left B. right, left C. right, right D. left, right

C

Patient presents to your office 3 hours after M.V.A., patient did not go to hospital. Patient presents with severe neck and arm pain, and states "I feel like my head is going to fall off", after a thorough history what would your next course of action be? A. Proceed to full spine examination B. Send patient to hospital B. Take cervical x-rays to rule out fracture C. Ice and adjust patient after examination

C

Patient presents with a fusiform appearance in the abdomen, where will you refer this patient? A. Orthopedist B. Gastroenterologist C. Cardiovascular D. Oncologist

C

Patient presents with low back pain that radiates down both legs, and is aggravated by walking. Patient is a 69 year old male with a history of two low back surgeries (discectomy and laminectomy) the last being 3 years ago. What is you diagnosis? A. Ischemic claudication B. Failed Back Surgery C. Neurogenic Claudication D. Diabetes

C

Patient presents with osteopenia. What is the preferred study to be performed before adjusting? A. Xray B. CT scan C. DEXA scan D. MRI

C

Pelvic tilts strengthen the: A. Hams and upper abs B. Upper abs and glutes C. Hams and glutes D. Lower abs and pastas(?)

C

Pt presents to your after a MVA. Pt presents with severe neck and arm pain and states "I feel like my head is going to fall off" After a thorough history exam, what is the dx? A. Ischemic clausication B. Failed back surgery C. Neurogenic claudication D. Diabetes

C

Pt presents with a 3.9mm AAA that is larger than the vertebral body around L2-4, where will you refer this patient? A. Orthopedist B. Gastrointerologist C. Cardiovascular D. Oncologist

C

Pt presents with a curvy linear calcification in the abdomen, where will you refer this pt? A. Orthopedist B. Gastroenterologist C. Cardiovascular D. Oncologist

C

Pt presents with a posterior pelvis tilt. Which muscles can we expect to be facilitated? A. Psoas B. Erector Spinae C. Abs D. Quads

C

S2-S4 effects the parasympathetics to the? A. Spleen B. Kidneys C. Colon D. Stomach

C

Stretching of tight pectoralis muscles for postural induced dorsal pain can be performed by: A. Approximating the elbows anterior to the rib cage B. Rolling bent elbows CW and CCW while the hands are paced firmly on the lateral rib cage C. Leaning into a corner with arms elevated to shoulder level and contracting the muscle D. Clasping the hands behind the neck, bringing the elbows together and lifting the elbows as high as possible

C

T12 has a static listing of body right which is equivalent to a dynamic listing of restricted left body rotation. Using a prone thoracic unilateral reinforced pisiform transverse contact procedure, the dr stands on the ___ side of the pt, contacts the ___ TP, using the ___ contact hand? A. left; left; left B. left; right; right C. right; right; right D. right; right; left

C

T12 has a static listing of body right which is equivalent to a dynamic listing of restricted left body rotation. Using a prone thoracic unilateral reinforced pisiform transverse process contact procedure, the dr stands on the ___ of the patient, contacts the ___ transverse process, using the ___ contact hand? A. Left; left; left B. Left; right; right C. Right; right; right D. Right; right; left

C

T12 has a static listing of body right which is equivalent to dynamic listing of restricted left body rotation. Using a prone thoracic unilateral reinforced pisiform TP contact procedure, the dr stands on the ___ side of the pt, contacts the ___ TP using the ___ contact hand. A. Left; left; left B. Left; right; right C. Right; right; right D. Right; right; left

C

The SP of T12 will palpate as? A. Sharp B. Flat C. Rounded D. None of the above

C

The appropriate segmental contact point for an anterior superior occiput is the: A. Mastoid B. Atlas transverse C. Glabella D. EOP

C

The chiropractor would utilize the side posture lumbar SP hypothenar/pisiform contact procedure contacting the right SP of L3 with the left hand if the pt evaluation revealed decreased ___ and decreased ___ with motion palpation at L3-L4. A. Right lateral flex; left rotation B. Left lateral flex; left rotation C. Right lateral flex; right rotation D. Left lateral flex; right rotation

C

The correct contacts for adj a PI ilium is: A. PSIS on the uninvolved side B. PSIS on the involved side C. PSIS on the involved side and contralateral ischial tuberosity D. PSIS on the involved side and the ipsilateral ischial tuberosity

C

Your patient is a 48 year old male auto mechanic. He presents for treatment with mid back pain. No history of recent trauma. He notes that he believes that his problem has come on due to a chronic cough which he noted he has had for years. He is a smoker and has been for the past 30 years. He smokes 1 pack/day. The most appropriate case management action would be? A. Spirometry B. Complete Blood Count C. Chest X-rays D. Electrocardiogram

C

Your patient presents to the office after having fallen down while running. She noted that she fell on her wrist and hand. The palm of her hand is badly scraped after coming in contact with the gravel. She also noted that her wrist is very painful. She appears diaphoretic, and lethargic. The best way to proceed after taking her history is? A. Orthopedic examination B. Neurological examination C. Radiographic examination D. Laboratory examination

C

A 35 year old male patient presented with 1 day history of generalized right knee pain and swelling. He was playing soccer when he side stepped over the ball and fell down. He noted that the right foot was well planted on the ground and there was rotation at the knee. At that moment he felt a "pop" within the knee and a feeling like the knee was giving away. What is the diagnosis? A. Chondromalacia patella B. Collateral ligament tear [complete] C. Anterior Cruciate Ligament tear [complete] D. Patellofemoral dislocation Which of the following diagnostic imaging is most helpful to confirm your diagnosis? A. Conventional radiography B. Ultrasonography C. Magnetic Resonance Imaging D. Computed tomography

C C

Identify the listing: A. T6 RP B. T7 LP C. T8 RP D. T9 LP This listing represents: A. + Ө X B. -Ө X C. + Ө Y D. - Ө Y During palpation of this segment you would feel the greatest resistance when you push: A. P - A on the left transverse process B. P - A on the right transverse process C. P - A on the spinous process D. A - P on the right transverse process Correction of this subluxation would require a force to be applied in this direction: A. + Ө X B. - Ө X C. + Ө Y D. - Ө Y

C D B C

Identify the most likely subluxated functional spinal unit: A. L1 - L2 B. L2 - L3 C. L3 - L4 D. L4 - L5 Identify the listing for that functional spinal unit: A. LPI B. LPS C. RPI D. RPS This listing is best described orthogonally by: A. + Ө X B. - Ө X C. + Ө Y D. - Ө Y To be complete this listing also needs to include: A. + Ө Z B. - Ө Z C. + ӨX D. - ӨX

C A C B

Palpation of a vertebrae reveals that the spinous has deviated to the left and superior. This correlates to which dynamic listing? A. Restricted right rotation and restricted left lateral flexion B. Restricted right rotation and restricted right lateral flexion C. Restricted left body rotation and restricted left lateral flexion D. Restricted left body rotation and restricted right lateral flexion

C.

When palpating a prone patient to find your SCP for a T5-TVP single hand adjustment: A. Locate the inferior pole of the scapula, go straight across to the SP of T7, go up 2 SP's to T5, and go out 1 ". B. Locate the inferior pole of the scapula, go straight across to the SP of T6, go up one SP to T5, and go out 1 ". C. Locate the inferior pole of the scapula, go straight across to the SP of T7, go up 2 SP's to T5, go out 1 ". D. Locate the inferior pole of the scapula, go straight across to the SP of T6, go up one SP to T5, count up two interspinous spaces and go out 1 ".

D

When performing a rotational manipulation at the occpitoantantial joints (C0-C1), isolation can be achieved prior to reaching maximum rotation by first inducing slight: A. Flex B. Extension C. Ipsilateral lateral flex D.Contralateral lateral flex

D

When testing patient with cervical distraction in the neutral positional an increase in neck pain usually indicates: A. Pressure on a cervical nerve root B. Rotator cuff tear C. Vertebral artery ischemia D. Cervical joint capsule sprain

D

What pelvic subluxation presents with the following: increased width of the ilium, decreased normal anterior lumbar curve, raises the femur head?

IN ilium

What side of the patient does the doctor stand on?

If patient is supine or prone - the doctor contacts the side they are standing onIf patient is standing - the doctor stands behind patient for gonstead and for diversified stands beside or in front of patient

What causes the foot to diverge away from midline?

IN ilium

According to the core assumptions of the health belief model, how would an employee gauge if they want to attend a screening held in the workplace?

If he/she has an expectation that he/she will avoid a negative health condition

In the Lovette Positive classification, on what side is the Anterior Inferior Sacrum?

PI ilium side (short leg)

What is friction massage used for?

breaks up adhesions

Which of the following is dangerous to be around because your red blood cells have a higher affinity for this over oxygen?

carbon monoxide

When performing a lumbar pull move, your inferior hand is doing which of the following?

pulling