Patho Chapter Ch 18-20,30,31- Exam 2 Practice questions

The first-time parents of an infant girl 2 days postpartum are distressed at the jaundiced appearance of her skin and are eager for both an explanation and treatment for the problem. Which of the following responses by their physician is most accurate? A) "Your daughter's young liver is unable to get rid of the waste products from old red blood cells." B) "Because your daughter's kidneys are so small, they have a hard time getting rid of the wastes that are always accumulating in her blood." C) "Nearly half of all infants have this problem, and while it is distressing to look at, it is largely harmless and will resolve in time." D) "This is a sign that your baby needs more milk than she is currently getting, and increased breast-feeding will act to flush these pigments out of her system."

A Bilirubin is formed from the breakdown of hemoglobin in red blood cells. Normally about two thirds of the unconjugated bilirubin produced by a term newborn can be effectively cleared by the liver. However, the relative immaturity of the newborn liver and the shortened life span of the fetal red blood cells may predispose the term newborn to hyperbilirubinemia. Bilirubin clearance is not the domain of the kidneys, and treatment is often necessary. Jaundice can sometimes be addressed by increasing breast-feeding, but it is not a sign in and of itself of insufficient feeding.

Which of the following questions is most likely to be clinically useful in the differential diagnosis of sensorineural versus conductive hearing loss? A) "What medications do you currently take?" B) "What effect is this hearing loss having on your quality of life?" C) "Has your hearing loss developed quickly or more slowly?" D) "Do you ever hear a persistent ringing in your ears?"

A Conductive hearing loss occurs when auditory stimuli are not adequately transmitted through the auditory canal, tympanic membrane, middle ear, or ossicle chain to the inner ear. It can be a temporary loss from impacted cerumen. Sensorineural hearing loss occurs with disorders that affect the inner ear, auditory nerve, or auditory pathways to the brain. Numerous drugs have ototoxic potential, a consequence of which is sensorineural hearing loss. The onset and course of hearing loss and the presence or absence of tinnitus do not necessarily help to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural hearing loss. The subjective effect of the client's hearing loss, while a valid concern, does not help with the differential diagnosis.

Following focal seizures that have damaged the dominant hemisphere of a patient's auditory association cortex, the nurse may observe the patient displaying A) receptive aphasia. B) facial drooping. C) auditory hallucinations. D) delusions of grandeur.

A Damage to the auditory association cortex, especially if bilateral, results in deficiencies of sound recognition and memory (auditory agnosia). If the damage is in the dominant hemisphere, speech recognition can be affected (sensory or receptive aphasia). The others are not caused by focal seizures.

A premature infant on mechanical ventilation has developed bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD) and is showing signs and symptoms of hypoxemia, low lung compliance, and respiratory distress. Which of the following is the most likely contributor to the infant's present health problem? A) High-inspired oxygen concentration and injury from positive-pressure ventilation B) Failure to administer corticosteroids to the infant in utero C) Insufficient surfactant production and insufficient surfactant therapy D) Insufficient supplemental oxygen therapy

A Despite the administration of corticosteroids in utero to hasten alveolar maturation, premature infants suffering respiratory distress syndrome often must be treated with supplemental oxygen and mechanical ventilation. However, overly forceful positive- pressure ventilation (barotrauma) can lead to the chronic lung impairment of BPD. Surfactant therapy is a first-line defense against the development of RDS and is also used to treat cases of BPD; additional time on a ventilator is often required as well.

A 50-year-old woman has experienced devastating consequences in her family and work life as a result of her long-standing alcohol addiction. The levels and pathways of which of the following neurotransmitters in her body are likely to differ from an individual without addiction? A) Dopamine B) Acetylcholine C) Serotonin D) Norepinephrine

A Dopamine levels are thought to be altered in addiction and possibly contribute to addiction. Acetylcholine, serotonin, and norepinephrine are not noted to play a central role in the neurophysiology of addiction.

A student notices that at certain times during his studying for final exams, he is more awake and his ability to think at a higher level is happening easier. The nurse knows that this experience may be attributed to which of the following neurological functions? A) Release of excitatory neurotransmitters such as glutamate B) Release of GABA, an inhibitory neurotransmitter C) Release of corticotrophin-releasing hormone D) Heightened precortex processes

A Excitatory neurotransmitters such as glutamate increase the probability that the target cell will fire an action potential by mediating the depolarization of the target cell. Excitatory transmitters serve as the body's stimulants promoting wakefulness, energy, and activity through regulating many of the body's most basic functions, including thought processes, higher thinking, and sympathetic activity. Distracters B, C, and D do not play a role in this process.

Which of the following patients who presented to a walk-in medical clinic is most likely to be diagnosed with a rhinosinusitis rather than a common cold? A) A man complaining of general fatigue, a headache, and facial pain with a temperature of 100.9°F B) A woman presenting with malaise, lethargy, and copious nasal secretions C) A man with a dry, stuffy nasopharynx, a sore throat, and temperature of 98.9°F D) A woman complaining of generalized aches and who has a hoarse voice and reddened, painful upper airways

A Fever and facial pain are more commonly associated with rhinosinusitis rather than the common cold. The other noted symptoms are indicative of the common cold rather than rhinosinusitis.

A psychiatrist is providing care for a 68-year-old female whose anxiety disorder is significantly decreasing her quality of life. The nurse knows that the client will likely benefit from which of the following pharmacologic therapies listed below? A) A drug that influences gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) levels B) An MAO inhibitor to increase the concentration of serotonin and norepinephrine C) An antipsychotic medication that blocks dopamine receptors D) A calcium channel-blocking agent

A GABA is often implicated in anxiety disorders, and benzodiazepines address this neurotransmitter. An MAO inhibitor increases the concentration of serotonin and norepinephrine. MAO inhibitors are occasionally prescribed for depression not responding to SSRIs and would not be indicated for an anxiety disorder. Calcium channel blockers are good for lowering BP and minimizing arterial spasms but are usually not prescribed for anxiety.

A midwife who is providing care for a woman during her first pregnancy is assessing for intrauterine growth retardation (IUGR) during an early prenatal checkup. Which of the following questions best addresses the risks for IUGR? A) "What does your typical diet look like over the course of a day?" B) "What is the highest level of education that you've finished?" C) "Are there many people in your life that you can count on for help and support?" D) "How would you describe your mood since you've been pregnant?"

A Nutrition is a key aspect in the prevention of IUGR. Educational level, the presence or absence of support systems, and psychosocial health may all have ramifications that could affect fetal development, but they have a less direct bearing than maternal nutrition.

A 29-year-old woman has been diagnosed with otosclerosis after several years of progressive hearing loss. What pathophysiological process has characterized her diagnosis? A) New spongy bone has been formed around her stapes and oval window. B) Her incus, malleus, and stapes have become disconnected from her normal neural pathways. C) Her temporal bone is experiencing unusually rapid resorption. D) Her tympanic cavity is becoming filled with bone due to inappropriate osteogenesis.

A Otosclerosis begins with resorption of bone in one or more foci. During active bone resorption, the bone structure appears spongy and softer than normal (i.e., osteospongiosis). The resorbed bone is replaced by an overgrowth of new, hard, sclerotic bone. Distortion of neural pathways, resorption of the temporal bone, and filling of the tympanic cavity do not occur with otosclerosis.

During an acute phase of schizophrenia when the patient is experiencing hallucinations and delusions, the nurse should anticipate that the physician will prescribe which of the following medication categories listed below? A) An antipsychotic like risperidone B) A benzodiazepine like lorazepam C) A cholinesterase inhibitor like donepezil D) An opioid receptor antagonist like naltrexone

A Pharmacological treatment with antipsychotics is often helpful particularly with the positive s/s of schizophrenia (delusion, hallucinations, agitation, etc.). The negative s/s of schizophrenia respond more favorably to the atypical antipsychotic drugs. Often antipsychotics are combined with benzodiazepines or antiparkinson agents during the acute phase of treatment to reduce the risk of extrapyramidal effects from large doses of antipsychotic agents. Distracters B and C are prescribed for Alzheimer disease and D is used for alcohol addiction.

A nurse is providing care for a patient who has been admitted with a newly diagnosed bilateral pleural effusion. Which of the following findings from the nurse's initial assessment of the patient is incongruent with the patient's diagnosis and would require further investigation? A) The client complains of sharp pain exacerbated by deep inspiration. B) The client's breath sounds are diminished on auscultation. C) Pulse oximetry indicates that the client is hypoxemic. D) The client complains of dyspnea and increased work of breathing.

A Pleural effusion is not normally associated with pain, and intense pain that is worsened by deep breathing would necessitate further investigation. Diminished breath sounds, hypoxemia, and dyspnea are common findings associated with pleural effusion.

Otitis media (OM), which can occur in any age group, is the most common diagnosis made by health care providers who care for children. Which bacterial pathogen causes the largest proportion of cases that result in sensorineural hearing loss? A) Streptococcus pneumoniae B) Acoustic neuromas C) Haemophilus influenzae D) Parainfluenza

A S. pneumoniae is the most common cause of bacterial meningitis that results in sensorineural hearing loss after the neonatal period. Acoustic neuromas are cancers that cause impaired hearing. Parainfluenza and influenza viruses are common viral pathogens in OM.

A patient with small cell lung cancer (SCLC) has developed a paraneoplastic syndrome called Cushing syndrome. Based on this new complication, the nurse will likely assess which of the following clinical manifestations of Cushing syndrome? A) Weight gain, moon face, buffalo hump, and purple striae on the abdomen B) Bilateral edema in the arms, swollen face, and protruding eyes C) Severe bone/joint pain, nausea/vomiting, and polyuria D) Tetany, new-onset seizure activity, emotional lability, and extrapyramidal symptoms

A SCLS is associated with several types of paraneoplastic syndromes, including Cushing's. Answer choice B refers to superior vena cava syndrome; answer choice C refers to hypercalcemia; and answer choice D refers to tumor lysis syndrome. All of these are complications that can occur with cancer and treatment of cancer.

A 20-year-old college student has presented to his campus medical clinic because of his unshakable despondency in recent months. He has been diagnosed with depression based on his signs, symptoms, and history. The nurse knows that which of the following treatments will likely be prescribed for this student? A) Medication that inhibits the reuptake of serotonin in his presynaptic space B) Drugs that inhibit the accumulation of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) C) Benzodiazepines such as clonazepam that modulate his GABA receptors. D) Cholinesterase inhibitors that potentiate the action of available acetylcholine E) Antipsychotics such as olanzapine

A SSRIs are common pharmacologic treatment modalities for depression. Drugs that inhibit the accumulation of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) (answer B) are usually used in the treatment of bipolar depression. Benzodiazepines address anxiety, while cholinesterase inhibitors are used in the treatment of dementia. Antipsychotics are more often used in cases of schizophrenia.

During a physical exam, the nurse practitioner notes that the patient's optic disk is very pale with a larger size/depth of the optic cup. At this point, they are thinking the patient may have A) glaucoma. B) diabetes retinopathy. C) macular degeneration. D) retinal tear.

A The normal optic disk has a central depression called the optic cup. With progressive atrophy of axons caused by increased intraocular pressure, pallor of the optic disk develops, and the size and depth of the optic cup increase. Diabetes retinopathy, macular degeneration, nor retinal tear has these clinical manifestations.

A 31-year-old female has been recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus and is attending a diabetes education class. Which of the following statements by the woman demonstrates an accurate understanding of her health problem? A) "I'll have to control my blood sugars, my blood pressure, and my cholesterol in order to make sure I don't develop sight problems." B) "I'm grieving the fact that I won't be able to get pregnant without causing permanent damage to my vision." C) "It's surprising that sugar in my blood can accumulate on the lens of my eye and cause a loss of sight." D) "I want to avoid going through the treatments for sight restoration that I would need if my diabetes causes damage to my vision."

A The threat to vision that is posed by poorly controlled blood sugar levels is compounded by high blood pressure and/or cholesterol levels. Pregnant women with diabetes need additional care to monitor their sight, but they will not necessarily lose it. The damage caused by diabetes does not occur on the lens, and restoration of lost visual acuity is not normally possible.

A family physician is performing patient teaching about the influenza virus with each patient who has come to the clinic to receive that year's vaccine. Which of the following statements by the patient best reflects an accurate understanding of the flu virus? A) "I could come down with viral or bacterial pneumonia as a result of a bad flu bug." B) "I know my vaccination is especially important since there aren't any drugs that can treat the flu once I get sick with it." C) "The emphasis on bundling up, staying warm, and drinking lots of fluids is outdated and actually ineffective." D) "Like all vaccines, it is ideal if everyone in a population gets immunized against the flu."

A Viral and bacterial pneumonia are known sequelae of influenza. Antiviral drugs do exist for the flu, and the efficacy of staying warm and increasing fluid consumption have been demonstrated. The flu vaccine is recommended for higher risk individuals, and guidelines do not indicate the need for all individuals to be vaccinated.

The mother of a 7-year-old boy who has recently been diagnosed with childhood asthma has come to the education center to learn more about her son's condition. Which of the following teaching points is most justifiable? A) "Research has shown that viruses may actually be a factor in many children's asthma." B) "The most reliable indicator that your child is having an asthma attack is audible wheezing." C) "Steroids that your child can inhale will likely be the first line of defense." D) "Your son will likely need to limit or avoid exercise and sports."

A Viruses have been implicated as a contributing factor in childhood asthma. Wheezing may or may not be present in children, and inhaled corticosteroids are not common as an initial therapy. Current treatment guidelines do not advise the categorical avoidance of exercise.

A public health nurse is teaching a health promotion class to a group of older adults at a seniors' center. A woman attending states that, "My husband has got dry macular degeneration, and I don't know what we're going to do when he goes blind from it." How can the nurse best respond to the woman's statement? A) "Vitamins C and E as well as zinc and beta carotene may have some value in slowing the progression of his disease." B) "You should talk to your doctor about the surgical options that might help preserve his sight." C) "If your husband can lower his blood pressure and bad cholesterol, it can possibly slow the progression of his disease." D) "Cataract surgery is showing promise as a way of replacing the part of the eye associated with macular degeneration."

A Vitamin E, vitamin C (ascorbic acid), zinc, and beta carotene have shown promise at slowing the progression of the age-related macular degeneration in persons with the disease. Surgical options are not normally available for the dry variety of macular degeneration. Blood pressure control, cholesterol control, and cataract surgery are unlikely to be directly useful.

Which of the following is the most likely course of Wernicke syndrome? A) If the symptoms are correctly diagnosed, most of the effects of the disease can be reversed through better nutrition and supplemental thiamine. B) Wernicke syndrome is uniformly fatal, with death most often occurring within a few months of onset. C) Wernicke syndrome has no treatment, but drugs may be used to treat its associated dyskinesias and behavioral disturbances. D) The course of the disease is relentless, and most affected persons will die of infection within 2 to 10 years.

A Wernicke syndrome is caused by a deficiency of thiamine (vitamin B1), and many of the symptoms are reversed when nutrition is improved with supplemental thiamine.

A COPD patient asks the nurse what medications are prescribed to help his breathing. The nurse, looking at the list of medications, will educate the patient about which of the following medications to help his COPD in the long term? Select all that apply. A) Salmeterol (Serevent), a bronchodilator B) Tiotropium (Spiriva), anticholinergic C) Alprazolam (Xanax), a benzodiazepine D) Sildenafil (Viagra), a vasodilator E) Ketorolac (Toradol), an NSAID

A,B Pharmacologic treatment of COPD includes the use of bronchodilators (Serevent) and anticholinergic drugs (Tiotropium). Benzodiazepines are used for anxiety, and sildenafil is a vasodilator commonly prescribed not only for erectile dysfunction but also for patients with pulmonary hypertension. Toradol (ketorolac) is an NSAID for pain and inflammation.

The neonatologist suspects an infant has developed sepsis with multiorgan system illness. The nurse caring for this infant will note which of the assessment findings support this diagnosis. Select all that apply. A) Decreasing BP with increase in heart rate indicative of shock B) Prolonged PT and PTT and decrease in platelet countC) Frequent voiding of a small amount of light-colored urineD) Bilateral warm feet but pedal pulses hard to palpate E) Positive Moro reflex when loud noise made at crib side

A,B Premature infants' health is severely impacted by early-onset infections and progressive multiorgan system illness. Infants with sepsis frequently present with respiratory failure, shock, meningitis, DIC, acute tubular necrosis, and symmetrical peripheral gangrene. Positive Moro reflex is normal for this infant.

A 70-year-old woman has been brought to the emergency department by her daughter who noticed the woman is weak, confused, and forgetful in recent months, along with uncoordinated movements and visual disturbances at times. Which of the following questions by the physician are most likely to address her probable diagnosis? Select all that apply. A) "What medications is your mother currently taking?" B) "Does your mother drink alcohol?" C) "Does your mother have a history of stroke?" D) "Is your mother facing significant stressors right now?" E) "Is your mother lonely?"

A,B The client's symptoms are characteristic of Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, which is associated with alcohol abuse. Medications can cause numerous cognitive and motor disturbances in elderly clients. Prior CVA and stress are less likely to contribute to her symptomatology.

The nurse caring for a male child with respiratory problems is concerned he may be developing respiratory failure. Upon assessment, the nurse knows that which of the following are clinical manifestations of respiratory failure? Select all that apply. A) Severe accessory muscle retractions B) Nasal flaring C) Grunting on expiration D) Inspiratory wheezes heard E) Swollen glottis

A,B,C Children with impending respiratory failure due to airway or lung disease have rapid breathing; exaggerated use of the accessory muscles; retractions, which are more pronounced in the child than in an adult because of more compliant chest; nasal flaring; and grunting during expiration. Inspiratory wheezes are usually associated with asthma. Swollen glottis can occur with strep throat.

Which of the following clinical manifestations would the nurse assess in the patient with bipolar disorder who is experiencing mania? Select all that apply. A) Labile mood B) Highly distractible C) Inflated self-esteem D) Despondent when asked questions E) Excessive sleepiness

A,B,C Clinical manifestations of mania include decreased need for food and sleep, labile mood, irritability, racing thoughts, high distractibility, rapid and pressured speech, inflated self-esteem, and excessive involvement with pleasurable activities. Despondency is a symptom of the depressive phase.

A patient arrives in the ED after an automobile accident. Which of the following clinical manifestations lead the nurse to suspect a pneumothorax? Select all that apply. A) Respiratory rate 34 B) Asymmetrical chest movements, especially on inspiration C) Diminished breath sounds over the painful chest area D) Pulse oximetry 98%E) ABG pH level of 7.38

A,B,C Manifestations of pneumothorax include increase in respiratory rate, dyspnea, asymmetrical movements of the chest wall, especially during inspiration, hyperresonant sound on percussion, and decreased or absent breath sounds over the area of pneumothorax. The pulse oximetry reading is normal. ABG pH level of 7.38 is a normal finding.

While a travel during a vacation via car, the mother notes that her 14-year-old child is getting sick. The mother suspects motion sickness. Which of the following clinical manifestations would confirm this diagnosis? Select all that apply. A) Rapid breathing B) Feeling faint C) Red, flushed face D) Rapid pulse rate E) Severe balance problems

A,B,D Autonomic signs (of motion sickness) including lowered BP, tachycardia, and excessive sweating may occur. Hyperventilation produces changes in blood volume and pooling of blood in the lower extremities, leading to postural hypotension and sometimes syncope. Red, flushed face is usually associated with elevated temperature. Severe balance problems are usually associated with irritation or damage of the vestibular end organs.

A nurse is providing care for a client who has been admitted to a medical unit with a diagnosis of bronchiectasis. Which of the following signs and symptoms should the nurse expect to find during physical assessment of the client and the review of the client's history? Select all that apply. A) Recurrent chest infections B) Production of purulent sputum C) A barrel chest D) Low hemoglobin levelsE) Recent surgery

A,B,D Chest infections, copious production of purulent sputum, and anemia are all associated with bronchiectasis. A barrel chest is more commonly evident with emphysema, and recent surgery is not a noted factor.

Which of the following individuals would be considered at high risk for developing cataracts? Select all that apply. A) An 88-year-old female with osteoporosis and congestive heart failure B) A 51-year-old female whose rheumatoid arthritis is controlled with oral corticosteroids C) A 50-year-old male who takes nebulized bronchodilators four times daily for the management of his emphysema D) A 39-year-old woman with a history of open-angle glaucoma and poorly controlled diabetes E) A 29-year-old artist who spends long hours in sunlight painting landscapes

A,B,D,E Advanced age, steroid use, and sunlight exposure are all significant risk factors for the development of cataracts. Metabolically induced cataracts are caused by disorders of carbohydrate metabolism (diabetes). Use of bronchodilators is not noted to be strongly associated with cataracts.

When assessing a patient diagnosed with brain stem ischemia complaining of vertigo, the nurse will likely observe which of the following clinical manifestations? Select all that apply. A) Inability to coordinate voluntary muscular movements B) Difficulty in articulating words C) Feelings of ear fullness D) Deafness E) Facial weakness

A,B,E Inability to coordinate voluntary muscular movements (ataxia), difficulty in articulating words (dysarthria), and facial weakness are usually associated with brain stem ischemia. Fullness in the ear is often a sign of Ménière disease. Deafness is usually not associated with brain stem ischemia.

A patient with pulmonary hypertension may display which of the following clinical manifestations? Select all that apply. A) Shortness of breath B) Decreased exercise tolerance C) Nasal flaring D) Grunting on expiration E) Swelling (edema) of the legs and feet

A,B,E Symptoms of PAH typically progress from shortness of breath and decreasing exercise tolerance to right heart failure, with marked peripheral edema and functional limitations. Other common symptoms include fatigue, angina, and syncope (fainting) or near-syncope. Nasal flaring and expiratory grunting are usually seen in infants experiencing respiratory distress.

The nurse knows that the patient admitted for opioid addiction may benefit from which of the following treatment modalities? Select all that apply. A) Prescription for dolophine (Methadone) B) Administration of a long-term pain reliever like duragesic (Fentanyl) C) Involvement in a self-help group like Opioid Anonymous (an offshoot of Alcoholics Anonymous) D) Intense exercise therapy under supervision of a body builder E) Administering beta-blocking medications to minimize agoraphobia symptoms

A,C Methadone, used in opiate addictions, has the narcotic properties of addiction and sedation, but lacks the euphoric effects of heroin. Naltrexone is used in treatment of alcohol and opiate addictions and works by blocking the opioid receptors and euphoric effects. Fentanyl is a pain medication, and Benadryl is an antihistamine.

A patient who has been on a high-protein diet comes to the emergency department with respiratory symptoms. Upon analysis of arterial blood gases (ABGs), the patient is diagnosed with hypercapnia. The nurse will note the ABG results that confirm this diagnosis include: Select all that apply. A) pH 7.31 (normal 7.35 to 7.45). B) PO2 of 97%. C) PCO2 of 58 mm Hg (normal 38 to 42). D) Serum HCO3of -33 mEq/L (normal 22 to 28). E) Serum K+ (potassium)of 3.6 mmol/L (normal 3.5 to 5.0).

A,C,D Hypercapnia affects a number of body functions, including acid-base balance and renal, neurological, and CV functions. Elevated levels of PCO2 (38 to 42) produce a decrease in pH (7.35 to 7.45) and respiratory acidosis. Compensatory mechanisms result in an increase in serum HCO3 (22 to 28). In this example, the PO2 level is within normal range. Serum K+ is not part of the ABG analysis.

A premature infant who is receiving care in a neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) has just been identified as having necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC). Of the following clinical manifestations, identify those most likely to contribute to the diagnosis of NEC. Select all that apply. A) Feeding intolerance B) Inability to pass stool within the first 10 days of life C) Hard, taut abdomen with increasing distention D) Blood noted in stools E) Hypoactive bowel sounds on right lower quadrant

A,C,D Immature immunity, shunting of circulation away from the GI tract, and infectious processes have all been implicated in the etiology of NEC. The classic initial symptoms are usually feeding intolerance, abdominal distention, and bloody stools shortly after the first week of life.

During a prenatal education class, a participant has related a story about how her friend's infant died of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). What can the educator tell the group about how they can prevent SIDS when they have their babies? Select all that apply. A) "The best sleeping position for your baby is on his back." B) "Children are at particular risk of SIDS when they have a cold or flu, so these times require extra vigilance."C) "Using drugs during pregnancy has been shown to be associated with SIDS after birth, which is one more reason for mothers to avoid them." D) "It's important if anyone in your home smokes to make sure they only do it outside." E) "The exact cause of SIDS still isn't known, so there's little that you can do to prevent this tragic event."

A,C,D Prone or side-lying position, intrauterine drug exposure, and postnatal exposure to cigarette smoke are all associated with SIDS. Upper respiratory infections are not noted to present a particular risk, and though the exact etiology is not known, preventative measures do exist.

Which of the following patients would be considered high risk for developing papilledema? Select all that apply. A) A 2-year-old patient who has a shunt placed following delivery where he was diagnosed with hydrocephalus B) A 55-year-old male with substernal chest pain radiating down both arms and experiencing nausea C) A 43-year-old male with diabetes, renal insufficiency, and BP 200/107 D) A 25-year-old motorcyclist who was in an accident and has a potential subdural hematoma E) An 18-year-old female complaining of severe cramps with her menstrual bleeding

A,C,D The most common conditions causing increased intracranial pressure include cerebral tumors, subdural hematoma, hydrocephalus, and malignant hypertension. Possible MI is not one of the causes of increased intracranial pressure.

Which of the following clients are displaying known risk factors for the development of pulmonary emboli? Select all that apply. A client who is: A) immobilized following orthopedic surgery. B) experiencing impaired Cl- and Na+ regulation. C) taking amiodarone for the treatment of premature ventricular contractions. D) a smoker and who takes oral contraceptives. E) undergoing radiation therapy for the treatment of breast cancer.

A,D Postsurgical immobility, smoking, and the use of oral contraceptives are all identified risk factors for the development of pulmonary emboli. Impaired Cl- and Na+ regulation are associated with cystic fibrosis, while amiodarone and radiation therapy are linked to interstitial lung diseases.

A 4-year-old boy has had otitis media with effusion (OME) for several weeks, and his condition has recently progressed to acute otitis media (AOM). Which of the following factors could have contributed to his AOM? Select all that apply. A) Reflux of fluid from the boy's nose into his middle ear B) A deficiency in immunoglobulin M C) Accumulation of cerumen in the external acoustic meatus D) Sensorineural deficits in the auditory control apparatus E) Exposure to respiratory virus

A,E Reflux via the eustachian tubes, IgG deficiency, and exposure to RSV have all been implicated in the development of AOM. Cerumen accumulation in the outer ear, deficient IgM, and sensorineural deficits are unlikely to contribute to AOM.

A 37-year-old male has survived a logging accident in which the severing of his femoral artery and consequent blood loss resulted in cardiogenic shock. On recovery, one of the deficits that he finds most frustrating is a significant loss of visual acuity. Which is the most likely rationale for his vision damage? A) Decreased cerebral perfusion results in progressive damage to the optic nerve. B) Circulatory collapse causes rapid death of retinal neurons. C) Lack of oxygen results in a distortion of the fovea. D) The visual cortex is susceptible to hypoxic necrosis.

B Acute decreased circulation can result in sight damage from edema and death of retinal neurons. Damage to the optic nerve, the fovea, and the visual center are not likely to be contributing factors.

A 51-year-old female client who is 2 days postoperative in a surgical unit of a hospital is at risk of developing atelectasis as a result of being largely immobile. Which of the following teaching points by her nurse is most appropriate? A) "Being in bed increases the risk of fluid accumulating between your lungs and their lining, so it's important for you to change positions often." B) "You should breathe deeply and cough to help your lungs expand as much as possible while you're in bed." C) "Make sure that you stay hydrated and walk as soon as possible to avoid us having to insert a chest tube." D) "I'll proscribe bronchodilator medications that will help open up your airways and allow more oxygen in."

B Atelectasis is characterized by incomplete lung expansion and can often be prevented by deep breathing and coughing. Pleural effusion, not atelectasis, is associated with fluid accumulation between the lungs and their lining, and neither chest tube insertion nor bronchodilators are common treatments for atelectasis.

While working at the triage desk in the local emergency department, which of the following patients is likely having a medical emergency and needs to be seen first? A) A 17-year-old high school student who has a red, itchy eye B) A 55-year-old truck driver complaining of sudden onset of ocular pain and blurred vision C) A 45-year-old school teacher complaining of a red eye that is draining yellow secretions D) An infant with red eyes who is irritable and refusing to eat

B Attacks of increased intraocular pressure are manifested by ocular pain and blurred vision caused by corneal edema. Acute angle-closure glaucoma is an ophthalmic emergency. Treatment is directed at reducing the intraocular pressure, usually with pharmacologic agents.

Which of the following individuals is most likely to be diagnosed with a central vestibular disorder? A) A man who got up quickly from his bed and sustained an injury after he "blacked out" B) A woman who has ongoing difficulty in balancing herself when walking C) A woman who suffered a loss of consciousness after being struck on the head during a soccer game D) A man who states that he feels car sick whenever he rides in the back seat of a vehicle

B Central vestibular disorders are marked by a sensation of motion that interferes with balance but that is mild and constant and chronic in duration. It should be differentiated from postural hypotension, loss of balance from a head injury, or motion sickness.

The father of a third grade girl has brought his daughter to a walk-in clinic because he believes the girl has pink eye, which has been going around the students in her class. The nurse at the clinic concurs with the father's suspicion of conjunctivitis. Which follow-up explanation by the nurse is most accurate? A) "The insides of her eyelids have become infected. This often produces severe discomfort." B) "The surfaces of her eyes have bacteria or a virus established, and it's important to maintain good hand hygiene until it goes away." C) "An antibiotic ointment will likely resolve her infection, but pain control will be necessary in the mean time." D) "It's important to aggressively treat this in children, since damage to her sight can result if it's not treated."

B Conjunctivitis often spontaneously resolves. The pain associated with conjunctivitis usually produces only mild discomfort compared with severe discomfort associated with corneal lesions or deep and severe pain associated with acute glaucoma. Conjunctivitis may spread to other family members. The corneal surface is not primarily involved, and pain that is severe suggests corneal involvement rather than conjunctivitis. Sight damage is not likely to result.

Following a serious bout of bacterial meningitis, the parents of a 14-month-old has noted the child is not responding to verbal commands. The nurse will explain the pathophysiologic principle behind this by educating the patients by which of the following statements? A) "This could be caused by the same organism that caused the meningitis, infecting the child's tympanic membrane." B) "This may be due to a loss of hair cells and damage to the auditory nerve." C) "The ear and the lining of the brain that was infected are all connected together." D) "It is common for meningitis to use up all the natural killer cells and therefore increase the risk of having brain tumors develop."

B Deafness or some degree of hearing impairment is the most common serious complication of bacterial meningitis in infants and children. The mechanism causing hearing impairment seems to be suppurative labyrinthitis or neuritis resulting in the loss of hair cells and damage to the auditory nerve. There is no direct connection between the meninges of the brain and the tympanic membrane. Bacterial meningitis is not associated with an increased risk of developing a brain tumor.

Which of the following phenomena is most likely occurring during a child's alveolar stage of lung development? A) Terminal alveolar sacs are developing, and surfactant production is beginning. B) A single capillary network exists, and the lungs are capable of respiration. C) The conducting airways are formed, but respiration is not yet possible. D) Primitive alveoli are formed, and the bronchi and bronchioles become much larger.

B During the alveolar stage of lung development from late fetal to early childhood, a single capillary network appears, and the lungs are ready to perform respiration. The development of alveolar sacs and production of surfactant are associated with the saccular period, and formation of the conducting airways occurs during the pseudoglandular period. Formation of primitive alveoli takes place during the canalicular period.

In the grocery store, a nurse overhears a teenage mother intentionally shaming and verbally reprimanding a child in public. The mother also grabbed the child's stuffed animal and tore the limbs off. From what the nurse remembers about abuse, this would be classified as a form of A) physical abuse. B) emotional abuse. C) sexual abuse. D) neglect.

B Emotional abuse or psychological maltreatment includes methods of verbal abuse, shaming, destruction of child's personal property, harming or killing child's pet, and bullying.

A 30-year-old woman has sought care because of her recurrent photophobia, tearing, and eye irritation. During assessment, her care provider asks about any history of cold sores or genital herpes. What is the rationale for the care provider's line of questioning? A) Herpes simplex virus (HSV) conjunctivitis indicated a need for antiviral rather than antibacterial treatment. B) HSV infection of the cornea is a common cause of corneal ulceration and blindness. C) Chronic viral infection of the eyes can result in HSV autoinoculation of the mouth and labia. D) A history of HSV with eye irritation is suggestive of glaucoma.

B Herpes simplex virus (HSV) keratitis (not conjunctivitis) with stromal scarring is the most common cause of corneal ulceration and blindness in the Western world. Autoinoculation from the eyes to other sites is not common, and glaucoma is not noted to be a consequence or symptom of HSV infection.

A pneumonia that occurs 48 hours or more after admission to the hospital is considered A) community-acquired pneumonia. B) hospital-acquired pneumonia. C) viral pneumonia. D) immunocompromised pneumonia.

B Hospital-acquired pneumonia is defined as a lower respiratory tract infection that was not present or incubating on admission to the hospital. Usually, infections occurring 48 hours or more after admission are considered hospital acquired. Community- acquired pneumonia is diagnosed within 48 hours after admission. Most hospital- acquired pneumonia is bacterial.

If the anterior-posterior dimension of the eyeball is too long, the focus point for an infinitely distant target is anterior to the retina. This patient would be diagnosed as having A) hyperopia. B) myopia. C) cycloplegia. D) presbyopia.

B If the anterior-posterior dimension of the eyeball is too long, the focus point for an infinitely distant target is anterior to the retina. This condition is called myopia or nearsightedness. People with myopia can see close objects without problems. Hyperopia is farsightedness. Cycloplegia is paralysis of the ciliary muscle, with loss of accommodation. Presbyopia refers to a decrease in accommodation that occurs because of aging.

A 44-year-old female has been diagnosed with major depression. Which of the following neuroimaging findings is most congruent with the woman's diagnosis? A) Decreased brain activity in the pons and brain stem B) Reduced activity and gray matter volume in the prefrontal cortex C) Atrophy and decreased blood flow in the amygdala D) Enlargement of the lateral and third ventricles and reduction in frontal and temporal volumes

B In some cases of familial major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder, PET and MRI studies have demonstrated a reduction in the volume of gray matter in the prefrontal cortex, with an associated decrease in activity in the region. Brain stem involvement is not common, and the amygdala tends to have increased blood flow and oxygen consumption during depression. Enlargement of the lateral and third ventricles and reduction in frontal and temporal volumes are associated with schizophrenia.

What topic should health promotion initiatives emphasize if the target audience is parents of preschoolers and the goal is to minimize mortality? A) Handwashing as an infection control measure B) Injury prevention especially when the child is near water C) Identifying signs of child abuse and neglect D) The importance of good nutrition

B Injuries are the leading cause of death in children aged 1 to 4. While handwashing does prevent many infections, these are not commonly fatal. Likewise, child abuse and poor nutrition are valid educational topics, but they do not relate as directly and frequently to childhood death as do injuries.

A 62-year-old female smoker is distraught at her recent diagnosis of small cell lung cancer (SCLC). How can her physician most appropriately respond to her? A) "I'm sure this is very hard news to hear, but be aware that with aggressive treatment, your chances of beating this are quite good." B) "This is very difficult to hear, I'm sure, and we have to observe to see if it spreads because that often happens." C) "I'm very sorry to have to give you this news; I'd like to talk to you about surgical options, however." D) "This is a difficult diagnosis to receive, but there is a chance that the cancer may go into remission."

B Metastases are common with SCLC. Survival rates are very low; surgical options do not exist; and remission is very unlikely.

A 70-year-old woman with a diagnosis of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is receiving teaching from her physician about her diagnosis. The client is eager to avoid future episodes of vertigo and has asked the physician what she can do to prevent future episodes. How can the physician best respond? A) "Unfortunately there aren't any proven treatments for your condition." B) "There are some exercises that I'll teach you to help reorient your inner ear and prevent vertigo." C) "Although they involve some risks, there are some options for ear surgery that can prevent future vertigo." D) "We usually don't actively treat BPPV unless it starts to affect your hearing."

B Nondrug therapies for BPPV using habituation exercises and canalith repositioning are successful in many people. Canalith repositioning involves a series of maneuvers in which the head is moved to different positions in an effort to reposition the free- floating debris in the endolymph of the semicircular canals. Surgery is not a noted treatment option, and even in the absence of hearing loss, treatment is warranted.

A 41-year-old male client has presented to the emergency department with an acute onset of increased respiratory rate and difficulty breathing. STAT chest x-ray indicates diffuse bilateral infiltrates of his lung tissue, and ECG displays no cardiac dysfunction. What is this client's most likely diagnosis? A) Cor pulmonale B) Acute lung injury C) Pulmonary hypertension D) Sarcoidosis

B Rapid onset of respiratory distress accompanied by diffuse bilateral infiltrates of lung tissue and an absence of cardiac changes are associated with acute lung injury/acute respiratory distress syndrome. These particular signs and symptoms are not as closely associated with cor pulmonale, pulmonary hypertension, or sarcoidosis.

A client with a newborn infant is also the caregiver for her 75-year-old mother, who lives with them and who has diabetes. The client requests pneumonia vaccinations for her entire household. Which vaccine is most likely to be effective for the baby? A) Since the baby's immune system is mature at birth, regular vaccine is appropriate. B) There is no effective vaccine for newborn infants. C) The 23-valent vaccine will be effective. D) No vaccine is necessary for the baby if the nursing mother is immunized.

B S. pneumoniae capsular polysaccharides would be especially appropriate for the client and her diabetic, elderly mother but is not effective in the immune system of anyone younger than 2 years old. Fortunately, a newer, 7-valent vaccine was designed to protect infants as young as 7 months. However, because their immune system is immature, the antibody response to most flu shots is poor or inconsistent in children younger than 2 years of age.

As the eyes rotate upward, the upper eyelid reflexively retracts. Which cranial nerve is primarily responsible for this response? A) Cranial nerve I B) Cranial nerve III C) Cranial nerve VI D) Cranial nerve IV

B The CN III (oculomotor) nucleus, which extends through a considerable part of the midbrain, contains clusters of lower motor neurons for each of the five eye muscles it innervates. Because of its plane of attachment, the inferior oblique rotates the eye in the frontal plane pulling the top of the eye laterally. In other words, as the eyes rotate upward, the upper eyelid is reflexively retracted, and in the downward gaze, it is lowered, restricting exposure of the conjunctiva to air and reducing the effects of drying. CN I is involved in olfactory function; CN VI (abducens nerve) innervates the lateral rectus, which abducts the eye. CN IV (trochlear nerve) innervates the superior oblique muscle, which depresses, rotates laterally, and intorts the eyeball.

Which of the following statements on the final diagnostic report regarding a computerized tomography (CT) of the head with contrast would lead health care providers to diagnose a patient with Alzheimer disease? A) Large area of ischemia noted in the temporal lobe B) Too numerous to count beta-amyloid (βA) deposits noted C) Ninety percent obstruction in the posterior cerebral artery D) Mural thrombus of vertebrobasilar arteries

B The major microscopic features of Alzheimer disease are the presence of neuritic (senile) plaques, neurofibrillary tangles, and amyloid angiopathy. Distracters A, C, and D are causes for a stroke.

A 3-year-old boy has developed croup following a winter cold. His care provider would recognize that which of the following microorganisms and treatments is most likely to be effective? A) Respiratory syncytial virus treated with intubation B) Parainfluenza virus treated with a mist tent and oxygen therapy C) Haemophilus influenza treated with appropriate antibiotics D) Staphylococcus aureus treated with bronchodilators and mist tent

B The majority of croup cases are caused by parainfluenza viruses, and common treatment modalities are humidified air or mist tents as well as supplementary oxygen. Respiratory syncytial virus accounts for some croup diagnoses, but intubation is not normally required. Haemophilus influenza is responsible for epiglottitis, while Staphylococcus aureus is not commonly responsible for croup.

An adult, who was sexually abused as a child, has been displaying some stress. She seems to complain of increasing medical problems when she is under more stress. The nurse would classify this as an example of A) vitamin deficiency. B) the stress-diathesis theory. C) mendelian research. D) parental disassociation.

B The stress-diathesis model of psychiatric disorders evolved from a recognition that genetics (diathesis) and environment (stress) both contribute to the development of psychiatric disorders. Adults who report significant traumatic experiences such as an emotional, physical, or sexual abuse as children show a graded positive response; that is, the more trauma experienced, the more both medical and mental illness occur later in life. Vitamin deficiency has not been implicated as a cause of increasing medical complaints when experiencing stress. Mendelian research studies genetics and describes the way in which genes modulate behavior and psychological traits. Parental nurturing mediates this epigenetic response, but in the absence of nurturing (dissociation), children have difficulties with attention and following directions. As teenagers, they are more likely to engage in high-risk behaviors and, as adults, show increased aggression, impulsive behavior, weakened cognition, and an inability to discriminate between real and imagined threats.

A nurse is providing care for an older, previously healthy adult male who has been diagnosed today with pneumococcal pneumonia. Which of the following signs and symptoms is the nurse most likely to encounter? A) The man will be hypotensive and febrile and may manifest cognitive changes. B) The patient will have a cough producing clear sputum, and he will have faint breath sounds and fine crackles. C) The patient will have copious bloody sputum and diffuse chest pain and may lose his cough reflex. D) The patient will lack lung consolidation and will have little, if any, sputum production.

B The typical onset of pneumococcal pneumonia involves production of clear sputum, along with faint breath sounds and fine crackles. The patient is less likely to be hypotensive, have copious bloody sputum, or have chest pain. A lack of lung consolidation or sputum production is more closely associated with atypical pneumonias.

A patient is admitted for a relapse for sarcoidosis. Knowing this is usually caused by an inflammatory process, the nurse can anticipate administering A) a bronchodilator. B) a corticosteroid. C) aspirin. D) an albuterol inhaler.

B Treatment is directed at interrupting the granulomatous inflammatory process that is characteristic of the disease and managing the associated complications. When treatment is indicated, corticosteroid drugs are used. Bronchodilators may be used if there is wheezing, but this is not a normal medication for this disease. Aspirin is a blood thinner. Albuterol is a short-term bronchodilator for acute asthma.

A care aide at a long-term care facility has informed a resident physician that an 80-year-old woman's eyes appear to be inflamed and that her eyelids are caked with sticky secretions. The woman has been subsequently diagnosed with posterior blepharitis. Which of the following treatments is the physician likely to initiate? A) Surgical repair of the woman's blocked meibomian glands B) Warm compresses to be applied regularly to her eyes in addition to oral antibiotics C) Regularly scheduled cleansing of the woman's eyes with normal saline D) Intravenous steroids coupled with topical antibiotic ointment

B Treatment of posterior blepharitis is determined by associated conjunctival and corneal changes. Initial therapies can include warm compressing of the lids and use of flaxseed or fish oil tablets to provide omega-3 fatty acid benefits to meibomian oil secretions. Long-term, low-dose systemic antibiotic therapy guided by results of bacterial cultures along with short-term topical steroids may also be needed.

A nurse who works in a neonatal intensive care unit is providing care for an infant born at 26 weeks' gestation. Which of the following assessments would lead the nurse to suspect that the infant has developed respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)? A) The infant's blood pressure and temperature are normal measurements as expected. B) Infant is grunting and has notable intercostal retractions with respirations. C) Infant has poor motor skills and limited limb range of motion. D) Infant has apnea lasting 5 to 10 seconds with a decrease in heart rate, which reverses with tactile stimulation.

B While premature birth is associated with numerous potential health problems, including variations in vital signs, impaired motor function, and neurological deficits, the most common complications of prematurity involve respiratory function.

he nursery has just admitted a new infant born 1 hour ago. While performing an assessment, the nurse suspects the infant may have hypoglycemia based on which of the following assessment data? Select all that apply. A) Heel stick glucose value of 50 mg/dL B) Infant having periods of apnea requiring physical stimulation C) Muscle twitching noted while lying in crib undisturbed by nurses D) Hyperactive reflexes noted especially when crying E) Poor suck reflex resulting in an inability to feed properly

B,C,E In neonates, glucose levels stabilize to a value of 50 mg/dL or higher within the first 3 hours of life. Concentrations below 45 mg/dL should be considered abnormal. Signs and symptoms of neonatal hypoglycemia include cyanosis, apnea, hypothermia, hypotonia, poor feeding, lethargy, and seizures.

A 14-year-old boy has experienced a pronounced growth spurt over the last several months. While discussing this with his parents, the nurse educates what normal male growth patterns contain. Of the following, which are accurate statements to relay to the parents? Select all that apply. A) Most males will complete their growth spurt by age 16. B) It is not usual for their son to gain up to 30 kg in weight. C) With parathyroid hormone involvement, your son may be at risk for fractures. D) Expect the thorax to become broader and for the pelvis to remain narrow. E) Some children have stunted growth in their arms or legs.

B,D In males, they may continue to gain height until 18 to 20 years of age and gain from 7 to 30 kg of weight. Parathyroid hormone does not have roles that relate to the adolescent growth spurt. In males, the thorax becomes broader and the pelvis remains narrow. In girls, the opposite occurs. Growth in the arms, legs, hands, feet, and neck is followed by increases in the hip and chest months later.

Stepping out of a mall and into the sunshine has caused a man's pupils to constrict. Place the following anatomical components of the man's pupillary reflex in the ascending chronological order that they responded to the light. Use all the options. A) Oculomotor nuclei B) Retinal ganglionic cells C) Preganglionic neurons D) Pretectal nuclei

B,D,C,A Pretectal areas on each side of the brain are connected, explaining the binocular aspect of the light reflex. The afferent stimuli for pupillary constriction arise in the ganglionic cells of the retina and are transmitted to the pretectal nuclei at the junction of the thalamus and the midbrain and from there to preganglionic neurons in the oculomotor (CN III) nuclei via the pretectooculomotor tract.

As a consequence of a long-standing lung disease, a client is in a chronic state of hypoxia. Which of the following phenomena would the client's care team be most justified in anticipating? Select all that apply. A) Metabolic alkalosis B) Increased erythropoietin production C) Pulmonary vasodilation D) Hyperventilation E) Personality changes

B,D,E Increased production of erythropoietin, hyperventilation, and cognitive and personality changes are all associated with hypoxemia. Acidosis, not alkalosis, and vasoconstriction rather than vasodilation are likely to occur.

Upon admission to the ICU, a patient with a history of cor pulmonale will likely be exhibiting which of the following clinical manifestations of right heart failure? Select all that apply. A) Fine crackles throughout both lung fieldsB) +4 pitting edema in lower extremities C) Expectorating copious amounts of frothy, pink sputum D) Jugular vein distension E) Altered level of consciousness

B,D,E Signs of right-sided HF include venous congestion (jugular vein distension), peripheral edema (+4 pitting edema in feet), shortness of breath, and productive cough. Altered level of consciousness may occur as the result of carbon dioxide retention. Fine crackles in all lung fields and frothy, pink sputum are common in left-sided HF.

Which of the following preoperative teaching points related to corneal transplantation is most justified? A) "You should know that there is a significant risk that your body will reject the transplant." B) "The cornea is highly vascular, and therefore you will be at risk for hemorrhage." C) "Your new cornea would come from someone who has recently died." D) "You run a risk of developing a major inflammatory response post-op and will need frequent follow-up appointments."

C Advances in ophthalmologic surgery permit corneal transplantation using a cadaver cornea. The low rejection rate is due to several factors: the cornea is avascular, which limits perfusion by immune elements; major histocompatibility complexes are virtually absent in the cornea; antigen-presenting cells are not present in great numbers; the cornea secretes immunosuppressive factors; and corneal cells secrete substances that protect against apoptosis, thereby minimizing inflammation.

When educating the parents of a child who has just had tympanostomy tube insertion, the nurse should provide further teaching if the parents say which of the following statements? A) "I will call the physician if I see that the tube has come out." B) "I will be looking for any drainage coming from the ears." C) "I'm so glad that we can take the child swimming next week when we go on vacation." D) "I'm so glad we had the child tested for allergies prior to having these tubes placed."

C After tube insertion, the ears of children with tubes must be kept out of water. All of the other distracters are normal post-op teaching for this procedure. Anytime a device comes out after surgery, the physician should be notified. Routine post-op education includes looking for infection, which in this case could be fever, increase in drainage from the ear, or restlessness. Prior to surgery, most children with recurrent otitis media have allergy testing performed.

In the early morning, an African American woman brings her 5-year-old son to the emergency room. The boy is wheezing, is short of breath, and has a dry cough. The mother states that he has always been very healthy. He went to bed with only a slight cold and a runny nose but woke her with his coughing shortly after 4 AM. His symptoms worsened so dramatically that she brought him to the hospital. The care team would most likely suspect that he has A) respiratory syncytial virus. B) influenza. C) asthma. D) pneumonia.

C Although the child may have an infectious disease, his symptoms and the timing of them (both in terms of his age and the time of symptom onset) are classic for asthma. They are not as closely associated with RSV, influenza, or pneumonia.

A 60-year-old man has presented to his family physician following an earache that has become progressively more painful in recent days. Following a history and examination with an otoscope, the man has been diagnosed with otitis externa. Which of the physician's following statements to the man is most accurate? A) "You'll need to avoid getting any water in your ear until you finish your course of antibiotic pills." B) "I'm going to instill some warm water into your ear to flush out debris and bacteria." C) "I'll prescribe some ear drops for you, and in the mean time, it's important not to use ear swabs." D) "This likely happened because your ears aren't draining like they should, but antibiotics that you'll put in your ears will resolve this."

C Antimicrobial ear drops are the standard treatment for otitis externa, and the ears must be protected from trauma during infection. Oral antibiotics are not commonly used, and flushing the ears is not indicated for the condition. A lack of normal ear drainage is not part of the etiology of otitis externa.

Which of the following clinical findings would be most closely associated with a client who has interstitial lung disease in comparison to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? A) Audible wheezing on expiration B) Reduced expiratory flow rates C) Decreased tidal volume D) Normal forced expiratory volume

C Because it takes less work to move air through the airways at an increased rate than it does to stretch a stiff lung to accommodate a larger tidal volume, interstitial lung disease is commonly associated with an increased respiratory rate but decreased tidal volume. Wheezing and decreased expiratory flow rate are more closely associated with COPD.

During a procedure to remove impacted cerumen, the nurse should be assessing the patient for which of the following most critical complications? A) Excessive bleeding from the ear B) Pain related to instillation of warm fluids to soften the cerumen C) Symptomatic bradycardia from vagal nerve innervation D) Respiratory distress related to fluid entering bronchiole tubes

C Because the external auditory canal is innervated by the auricular branch of the vagus nerve, coughing or even cardiac deceleration can result from stimulation of the canal by cerumen impactions or removal attempts. Since this just involves irrigation using a bulb syringe and warm tap water, bleeding should not occur. Pain may occur but is not a critical complication. Since the fluid is going into the ear canal, there should be no fluid entering the respiratory system.

A geriatrician and social worker are facilitating a family meeting for the children and wife of a 79-year-old man who has been diagnosed with Alzheimer disease. What goal of treatment will the clinicians most likely prioritize in their interactions with the family? A) Modest reversal of brain plaque formation and improved symptomatology through cholinesterase inhibitors B) Surgical treatment of the underlying ischemic changes that underlie the manifestations of the man's disease C) The use of medications such as donepezil and rivastigmine to slow the progression of the disease D) Cognitive and behavioral therapy to counteract the agitation, depression, and suspiciousness associated with Alzheimer disease

C Cholinesterase inhibitors like donepezil and rivastigmine may slow the progression of Alzheimer's but do not reverse the organic brain changes that characterize the etiology. Ischemic changes are associated with vascular dementia, and cognitive therapy is of limited use in treatment.

A 66-year-old male presents to the emergency room accompanied by his wife who claims that he has been acting confused. The man is complaining of a sudden onset of severe weakness and malaise and has a dry cough and diarrhea. His temperature is 102.8°F, and his blood work indicates his sodium level at 126 mEq/L (normal 135 to 145 mEq/L). Based on this assessment, the nurse suspects the patient has A) bronchopneumonia. B) Mycoplasma pneumonia. C) Legionella pneumonia. D) pneumococcal pneumonia.

C Confusion, dry cough, diarrhea, and hyponatremia are associated with Legionnaire disease and less so with bronchopneumonia, Mycoplasma pneumonia, or pneumococcal pneumonia.

A health educator is performing a health promotion workshop with the staff of a large, urban homeless shelter, and a component of the teaching centers around tuberculosis. One of the staff members comments, "Anyone who's had contact with tuberculosis in the past can give it to any of the other residents of the shelter, even if they didn't get sick themselves." How could the educator best respond to this comment? A) "Many people do manage to fight off the infection, but you're right: they can still spread it by coughing or sneezing." B) "If someone has been previously exposed to tuberculosis, they are particularly infectious because they are often unaware of the disease." C) "Actually, people who have the latent form of the disease won't be sick and can't spread it either." D) "There isn't any real risk of them spreading it, but we would like to vaccinate everyone who's had any contact with it in the past."

C Contact with M. tuberculosis without the development of progressive primary tuberculosis results in a latent infection that is not communicable. Vaccination is not a common intervention in the United States.

As part of the diagnostic workup for a client's long-standing vertigo, a clinician wants to gauge the eye movements that occur in the client. Which of the following tests is the clinician most likely to utilize? A) Romberg test B) Rotational tests C) Electronystagmography (ENG) D) Caloric stimulation

C ENG is an examination that records eye movements in response to vestibular, visual, cervical (vertigo triggered by somatosensory input from head and neck movements), rotational, and positional stimulation. With ENG, the velocity, frequency, and amplitude of spontaneous or induced nystagmus and the changes in these measurements brought by a loss of fixation, with the eyes open or closed, can be quantified. The Romberg test, rotational tests, and caloric stimulation do not allow for these data.

17. A patient has sought medical attention because of a loss of different half-fields in the two eyes. Knowing the potential causes of this complaint, the nurse anticipates that the physician will order tests looking for A) metal fragments in the eyes. B) hemorrhages in the capillaries of both eyes. C) an enlarging pituitary tumor. D) subarachnoid hemorrhage.

C Enlarging pituitary tumors can produce longitudinal damage through the optic chiasm with loss of medial fibers of the optic nerve representing both nasal retinas and both temporal visual half-fields. The loss of different half-fields in the two eyes is called a heteronymous loss. Metal fragments can get in the eye from welding. Hemorrhages in both eyes have numerous causes like uncontrolled hypertension and diabetes. Subarachnoid hemorrhages are usually trauma related.

A child with rhinosinusitis should be monitored for complications. Which of the following assessment findings would alert the nurse that a complication is developing? A) Purulent nasal discharge B) Temperature of 100.8°F C) Periorbital edema D) Complaints of headache

C Expected s/s of acute viral rhinosinusitis include facial pain, headache, purulent nasal discharge, decreased sense of smell, and fever. Complications can lead to intracranial and orbital wall problems. Facial swelling over the involved sinus, abnormal extraocular movements, protrusion of the eyeball, periorbital edema, or changes in mental status may indicate intracranial complications.

A toddler brought up in a chaotic, nonnurturing environment may suffer neurological consequences if the parent does not achieve attachment with the child. The nurse knows that which of the following nervous systems listed below is the first to respond to the safety needs of the child? A) Parasympathetic nervous system B) Autonomic nervous system C) Sympathetic nervous system D) Limbic system

C If the ventral vagus is utilized and fails to provide safety, the SNS is recruited first. The other distracters are not the first to respond.

Which of the following statements best captures the current understanding of the etiology of mental illness? A) The role of "nurture," experiences, and relationships has been largely disproven. B) Mental illness can be attributed to organic brain changes and pathophysiological processes. C) Mental illness exists from the interplay of biologic factors and psychosocial influences. D) Current understanding of mental illness has shown that both biologic psychiatry and psychosocial psychiatry are incorrect.

C Mental illness is currently thought to be the outcome of anatomical and/or physiological influences and psychosocial factors. Neither factor can attribute for 100% of the diagnoses and manifestations of mental illness. Both biologic psychiatry and psychosocial psychiatry have their merits and demerits; neither is wholly incorrect.

A short, nonsmoking 44-year-old male presents to the emergency room with left- sided chest pain and a cough. He states that the pain started abruptly and worsens with deep breathing and coughing. He denies recent injury. Assessment includes shallow respirations with a rate of 36, normal breath sounds, and no cyanosis. Which condition is most likely causing his symptoms? A) Myocardial infarction B) Spontaneous pneumothorax C) Pleuritis related to infection D) Obstructive atelectasis

C Pleuritis, which frequently accompanies infections that cause cough, is unilateral, starts abruptly, and is worsened by coughing or deep breathing. The client's shallow, rapid breathing may be due to anxiety but also is a way of maintaining adequate air intake while avoiding deep breathing, which exacerbates the pain of pleuritis. His cough may be an indication of infection, especially as he is not a smoker. The pain of myocardial infarction is not worsened by deep breathing or coughing. Spontaneous pneumothorax would be very unlikely in a short, nonsmoking middle-aged man. Tachypnea might indicate obstructive atelectasis, but normal breath sounds and lack of cyanosis argue against it.

While assessing a premature infant born at 25 weeks' gestation, the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) nurse would suspect which diagnosis when the infant displays poor muscle tone, apnea, and a new onset of somnolence? A) Hydrocephalus B) Airway obstruction C) Intraventricular hemorrhage D) Sepsis

C Prematurity is a risk for IVH. Clinical manifestations are determined by the level of involvement. The most common symptoms are poor muscle tone, lethargy, apnea, decreased hematocrit, and somnolence.

As part of a health promotion initiative, a public health nurse is meeting with a group of older adult residents of an assisted living facility. Which of the following teaching points about hearing loss in the elderly should the nurse include in the teaching session? A) "It is actually a myth that seniors have worse and worse hearing as they age." B) "Most hearing loss in older adults is the result of easily fixed problems, such as impacted ear wax." C) "Experts don't quite know what causes seniors to lose their hearing with age, but drugs like aspirin can contribute to the problem." D) "With older adults, the goal is to adjust lifestyle to accommodate diminished hearing rather than trying to treat the hearing loss itself."

C Presbycusis is an identified phenomenon that is thought to be multifactorial, and ototoxic drugs are known to contribute significantly to hearing loss in the elderly. Sensorimotor etiologies are most common, and while lifestyle modifications are often necessary, this does not rule out treatment of the hearing loss.

Which of the following residents of a long-term care facility is most likely to be exhibiting the signs and symptoms of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? A) A 79-year-old lifetime smoker who is complaining of shortness of breath and pain on deep inspiration B) An 81-year-old smoker who has increased exercise intolerance, a fever, and increased white blood cells C) An 81-year-old male who has a productive cough and recurrent respiratory infections D) An 88-year-old female who experiences acute shortness of breath and airway constriction when exposed to tobacco smoke

C Productive cough and recurrent respiratory infections are associated with COPD, while pain, fever, and increased white cells are not common signs and symptoms of COPD. Acute shortness of breath and bronchoconstriction are associated with asthma.

Which of the following statements made by parents of high schoolers would be a cause for the concern the child may be thinking about suicide? A) "My child seems to eat all the time. He tells me that all of his friends are eating a lot as well." B) "My child seems to go shopping at the mall every day after school with her friends. I think they hang out at the mall." C) "My child has never had problems in school until now. He is failing classes and getting in trouble." D) "My child used to talk to me about anything. Now she spends most of her time in her room texting friends."

C Risk factors for suicide in adolescents include substance abuse, personal or family history of depression, anxiety disorders, problems at school, problems communicating with parents, having a friend who committed suicide, and family ownership of a handgun.

When educating a student who lives in a crowded apartment and diagnosed with tuberculosis, the college school nurse will emphasize, A) "Once your fever goes away, you can stop taking the streptomycin injection." B) "If isoniazid makes you nauseous, we can substitute something milder."C) "To destroy this bacterium, you must strictly adhere to a long-term drug regimen." D) "You will have to wear an N95 mask while on campus at all times."

C Success of chemotherapy for prophylaxis and treatment of tuberculosis depends on strict adherence to a lengthy drug regimen that includes isoniazid (INH), rifampin, ethambutol, pyrazinamide, and streptomycin (or some combination of these).

Due to rapid neural growth, a child can begin to control the bowel and bladder sphincters by what age? A) 12 months B) 18 months C) 2 years D) 4 years

C The cephalocaudal proximodistal principle is followed as myelinization of the cortex, brain stem, and spinal cord is completed. The spinal cord is usually completely myelinated by 2 years of age. At that time, control of anal and urethral sphincters and motor skills of locomotion can be achieved.

A college junior calls his mother, a nurse, complaining of "not being able to see." When questioned further, he describes, "A gray curtain just went down my right visual field. I don't know what to do." The nurse should recognize this symptom as which of the following conditions and have her teenager go to the emergency department immediately. A) Glaucoma B) Strabismus C) Retinal detachment D) Macular degeneration

C The primary symptom of retinal detachment consists of painless changes in vision. Commonly, flashing lights or sparks, followed by small floaters or spots in the field of vision, occur as the vitreous pulls away from the posterior pole of the eye. As detachment progresses, the person perceives a shadow or dark curtain progressing across the visual field.

Parents of a 16-year-old male who has been behaving in increasingly bizarre ways in recent months are distraught that he has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. Which of the mother's following statements about her son's diagnosis demonstrates an accurate understanding of the disease? A) "It's disturbing to know that what I did when I was pregnant and the way we raised him contributed to this." B) "We are somewhat relieved that psychotherapy and a supportive environment will resolve most of the positive and negative symptoms." C) "This makes us even more worried about his younger brother and whether he might develop schizophrenia." D) "We're committed to lovingly but firmly convincing him that his delusions aren't based in reality."

C The risk of developing schizophrenia is much higher in individuals with a first-degree relative who has the disease. Prenatal behavior and child-rearing techniques are not strongly linked with the development of schizophrenia, and therapy and support alone are not likely to eliminate symptoms. Delusions are not normally amenable to reason.

New parents were just told by their physician that their son is two standard deviations above the mean. The parents later asked the nurse what that means. The nurse will explain by stating, A) "If your child is one standard deviation from the norm that translates to mean, he will be taller than 50% of his peers." B) "This is great news since it means you will have a larger baby than most." C) "Being two standard deviations above the mean translates into that your child will likely be taller than 95% of children in the population." D) "With the mean being average at 50%, two standard deviations means that your child will be at least 99.7% taller than his brother."

C The standard deviation determines how far a value varies or deviates from the mean. The points one standard deviation above or below the mean should include 68% of all values and two standard deviations 95% of all values. If a child's height is within one standard deviation of the mean, he is as tall as 68% of children in the population.

A 3-year-old girl has been diagnosed with amblyopia. Which of the following pathophysiological processes is most likely to underlie her health problem? A) The child may have a congenital deficit of rods and/or cones. B) The girl may have chronic bacterial conjunctivitis. C) She may have been born with infantile cataracts. D) The child may have a neural pathway disorder.

C There are multiple potential causes of amblyopia, including cataracts. A deficit of rods or cones, a neural pathway disorder, and chronic conjunctivitis are not noted to be common precursors.

The neonatal ICU nurse is aware that type II alveolar cells produce surfactant, and they usually develop at how many weeks of gestation? A) 17 to 18 weeks B) 19 to 20 weeks C) 24 to 28 weeks D) 34 to 38 weeks

C Type II alveolar cells begin to develop at approximately 24 weeks. These cells produce surfactant, a substance capable of lowering the surface tension of the air-alveoli interface. By the 28th to 30th week, sufficient amounts of surfactant are available to prevent alveolar collapse when breathing begins.

A nurse is performing a 5-minute Apgar score on a newborn female. Which of the following characteristics of the infant's current condition would not be reflected in the child's Apgar score? A) The baby's heart rate is 122 beats/minute. B) The infant displays a startle reflex when the crib is accidentally kicked. C) The child's temperature is 35.0°C (95°F) by axilla. D) The infant's skin is pink in color.

C While heart rate, color, and presence or absence of crying are all assessment criteria in the determination of an Apgar score, temperature is not a parameter that is measured.

Which of the following assessment findings of a male infant 14 hours postpartum would be considered abnormal and would require further assessment and possible intervention? A) The baby's first stool appears to contain blood. B) The child is unable to breathe through his mouth. C) The baby's skin has a yellowish orange hue. D) The child's suck is weak when placed at his mother's breast.

C While not an uncommon event in early postnatal life, jaundice requires further assessment and possibly intervention. Meconium often contains blood, and young infants are exclusive nose breathers. A child's suck is frequently weak before it becomes established in the days to follow.

A physician is providing care for a child who has a diagnosis of cystic fibrosis (CF). Place the following events in the etiology of CF in ascending chronological order. Use all the options. A) Airway obstruction B) Recurrent pulmonary infections C) Impaired Cl- transport D) Decreased water content of mucociliary blanket E) Increased Na+ absorption

C,E,D,A,B CF is associated with impaired Cl- transport and a consequent increase in Na+ absorption. These result in a lowered water content of the mucociliary blanket making it more viscid. These changes to the mucociliary blanket cause airway obstruction and, ultimately, pulmonary infections.

Which of the following infants most likely requires medical intervention? A) A 2-day-old baby boy who has caput succedaneum B) An infant 4 hours postpartum who has visible coning of his head following vaginal delivery C) A girl 3 days postpartum with noticeable unilateral cephalhematoma D) A male infant whose vertex delivery resulted in a brachial plexus injury

D While caput succedaneum, cephalhematoma, and head coning are all frequently able to resolve independently, a brachial plexus injury is likely to require treatment and rehabilitation.

A stroke affecting which of the following areas of the brain would be most likely to leave an individual's vestibular system intact and posture and balance maintained? A) The brain stem B) The thalamus C) The temporal and parietal cortex D) The limbic system of the cerebrum

D While the brain stem, thalamus, and temporal and parietal cortex are components of the vestibular apparatus, the limbic system is not a central component of the maintenance of posture and balance.

Which of the following conditions can be experienced normally, but if length of time increases it becomes a disorder? A) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B) wernickle-korsakoff syndrome C) Huntington disease D) depression

D Depression is diagnosed by the simultaneous presence of five or more symptoms during a 2 week period

A 77-year-old lifetime smoker has been diagnosed with a tumor in his lung at the site of an old tubercle scarring site, located in a peripheral area of his bronchiolar tissue. What is this client's most likely diagnosis? A) Squamous cell carcinoma B) Small cell lung cancer C) Large cell carcinoma D) Adenocarcinoma

D Adenocarcinoma is associated with the periphery of the lungs, often at the site of scarring, and can occur in alveolar or bronchiolar tissue. Squamous cell carcinoma, small cell lung cancer, and large cell carcinoma are less commonly associated with these traits.

A 10-year-old boy has a body mass index that places him in the 96th percentile for his age and gender. While educating the parents about obesity, the nurse should emphasize that his weight may predispose him to the development of A) scoliosis. B) respiratory infections. C) gastrointestinal disorders. D) type 2 diabetes.

D Adolescent obesity is associated with an increased risk of type 2 diabetes. He is less likely to face a heightened risk of scoliosis, respiratory infections, or GI disorders.

While rock climbing, a 22-year-old male has endured a severe head injury. Which of the following statements best captures expected clinical manifestations and treatments for his immediate condition? A) Oxygen therapy is likely to decrease his respiratory drive and produce an increase in PCO2. B) Cheyne-Stokes breathing is likely but will respond to bronchodilators. C) The client is unlikely to respond to supplementary oxygen therapy due to impaired diffusion. D) Hypoventilation may exist, resulting in increased PCO2 and hypoxemia that may require mechanical ventilation.

D Brain injuries and accompanying hypoventilation are often associated with increased PCO2 and by hypoxemia that responds to oxygen therapy. Persons with COPD are more vulnerable to diminished respiratory drive secondary to oxygen therapy, while Cheyne-Stokes breathing is not identified as a likely consequence of brain injury. Impaired alveolar diffusion is not an aspect of the client's injury.

8. Distraught at the persistent ringing in his ears and his inability to alleviate it, a 50- year-old man has visited his health care provider. After diagnostic testing, no objective cause (like impacted cerumen or vascular abnormality) was found. Given these testing results, which of the following teaching points by the care provider is most appropriate? A) "This is most often the result of a psychological disturbance, and therapy is often useful in relieving tinnitus." B) "There are many drugs such as blood pressure pills, relaxants, heart medications, and antihistamines that can cause tinnitus." C) "A specialist can listen with a sensitive microphone to determine whether you are actually hearing these sounds." D) "There are some treatments like tinnitus retraining therapy, which includes the extended use of low-noise generators, which has shown good success."

D Current treatment modalities for tinnitus address the symptoms of the problem rather than curing the underlying etiology. While therapy can be of some use, it is inaccurate to characterize tinnitus as a psychological disturbance. Medications, including antihistamines, anticonvulsant drugs, calcium channel blockers, benzodiazepines, and antidepressants, have been used for tinnitus alleviation; they are not implicated as a cause. While listening to differentiate between objective and subjective tinnitus is possible, the absence of objective sounds does not mean that tinnitus does not exist, rather that it is subjective. The use of tinnitus retraining therapy, which includes directive counseling and extended use of low-noise generators to facilitate auditory adaptation to the tinnitus, has met with considerable success.

Around 3 weeks after razing an old chicken house, a 71-year-old retired farmer has developed a fever, nausea, and vomiting. After ruling out more common health problems, his care provider eventually made a diagnosis of histoplasmosis. Which of the following processes is most likely taking place? A) Toxin production by Histoplasma capsulatum is triggering an immune response. B) Antibody production against the offending fungi is delayed by the patient's age and the virulence of the organism. C) Spore inhalation initiates an autoimmune response that produces the associated symptoms. D) Macrophages are able to remove the offending fungi from the bloodstream but can't destroy them.

D Disseminated histoplasmosis results from the inability of macrophages of the reticuloendothelial system to destroy the fungi. Fungi do not produce toxins, and antibody production and autoimmune responses are not involved in the pathophysiology of this fungal infection.

A woman has recently determined that she is pregnant, and her clinician believes that the conception occurred around 8 weeks prior. Since the embryo is in the third stage of embryonic development, which of the following events and processes in growth and development would be expected to be taking place? A) Transition from a morula to a blastocyst B) Ossification of the skeleton and acceleration of body length growth C) Rapid eye movement and early support of respiration D) Formation of upper limbs and opening of the eyes

D Limb formation and eye opening are associated with the third stage of the embryonic stage of development. The transition from a morula to a blastocyst occurs before the second week of gestation, while ossification of the skeleton and acceleration of body length growth do not take place until the early fetal period. Rapid eye movement and early pulmonary function emerge during the 26th through 29th weeks.

A 30-year-old woman has presented to her family doctor complaining of three distressing episodes over the last several months during which she got extremely dizzy, had loud ringing in her ears, and felt like her ears were full of fluid. She states that her hearing diminishes, and she feels nauseous during these episodes. What diagnosis is the physician most likely to first suspect? A) Acute otitis media B) Acute vestibular neuronitis C) Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) D) Ménière disease

D Ménière disease is characterized by fluctuating episodes of tinnitus, feelings of ear fullness, and violent rotary vertigo that often renders the person unable to sit or walk. There is a need to lie quietly with the head fixed in a comfortable position, avoiding all head movements that aggravate the vertigo. Symptoms referable to the autonomic nervous system, including pallor, sweating, nausea, and vomiting, usually are present. The more severe the attack, the more prominent are the autonomic manifestations. A fluctuating hearing loss occurs with a return to normal after the episode subsides. Her symptomatology is not characteristic of AOM, acute vestibular neuronitis, or BPPV.

A woman has a long-running compulsion to repeatedly check if the doors of her home are locked and has received a diagnosis of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Her husband is at a loss to understand her irrational behavior and has sought help from a therapist himself to deal with the effect that his wife's OCD is having on their daily lives. Which of the husband's following statements would require correction? A) "It's a relief to know that this can be changed if she continues with therapy and the medications she's been prescribed." B) "It's odd that someone like her and someone who's depressed might both respond positively to the same drugs." C) "I thought that this was something exceedingly rare, but I'm actually a bit relieved to learn that others have this disorder as well." D) "I'm glad that this is something that's a result of life stressors and is not associated with any dysfunction in her brain."

D OCD is thought to have a neurophysiological component and is not a consequence of stress. Medications combined with behavioral therapy provide a good prognosis, and SSRI antidepressants are often used. OCD has a prevalence of 2%.

Which of the following would be considered an abnormal finding when the nurse practitioner uses an otoscope to look at a toddler's ear? The tympanic membrane is described as A) "transparent." B) "a shallow, oval cone pointing inward toward apex." C) "small, whitish cord seen traversing the middle ear from back to front." D) "yellow, amber discoloration noted."

D Otoscopic signs of middle ear effusion will be seen in the tympanic membrane as a yellow, amber discoloration. All of the other distracters are normal findings.

As part of a diagnostic workup of a 22-year-old male with recently diagnosed schizophrenia, a neurologist wants to examine the levels of metabolic activity in particular areas of the client's brain. Which of the following diagnostic procedures is the physician most likely to order? A) Computed tomography (CT) B) Electroencephalography (EEG) C) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) D) Positron emission tomography (PET)

D PET is rooted in the selective brain uptake of radiolabeled isotopes. As such, it can measure brain metabolic activity. CT and MRI offer visualization of structural components, while EEG measures electrical activity.

Which of the following situations would be most deserving of a pediatrician's attention? A) The mother of an infant 2 days postpartum notes that her baby has intermittent periods of hyperventilation followed by slow respirations or even brief periods of apnea. B) A volunteer in the nursery notes that one of the infants, aged 2 weeks, appears unable to breathe through his mouth, even when his nose is congested. C) A neonate is visibly flaring her nostrils on inspiration. D) A midwife notes that a newborn infant's chest is retracting on inspiration and that the child is grunting.

D Retraction and grunting indicate a significant increase in the work of breathing that can be indicative of respiratory distress syndrome, a situation that would require medical intervention. Periods of hyperventilation interspersed with reduced breathing rates are common during the transition to postpartum ventilation, and infants are commonly unable to mouth breathe. Nostril flaring could be a sign of dyspnea, but it can also be a compensatory mechanism that the infant uses to increase oxygen intake; this situation would not be considered as serious as an infant who has chest retractions and grunting.

A 4-month-old infant and his mother are at an appointment with a pediatrician to follow up his nonaccommodative strabismus and to determine a treatment plan. Which of the following treatments is most likely to prevent future loss of vision? A) Prescribing glasses once the infant is 6 months of age B) Use of beta-adrenergic blockers and latanoprost eye drops C) Regularly scheduled eye exams and monitoring of self-correction of his eyes D) Surgical correction of the musculature

D Strabismus is ideally treated by surgery rather than with glasses in the case of infants. The condition will not resolve independently, and medications are unlikely to help the condition.

A 46-year-old male has presented to the emergency department because of the eye pain, severe headache, and blurred vision that have followed an eye exam at an optometrist's office earlier in the day. The client tells the triage nurse that he received eye drops during the exam "to keep my pupils wide open." What differential diagnosis will the care team first suspect? A) Infectious conjunctivitis B) Keratitis C) Corneal trauma D) Angle-closure glaucoma

D Symptoms of acute angle-closure glaucoma are related to sudden, intermittent increases in intraocular pressure. These occur after prolonged periods in the dark, emotional upset, and other conditions that cause extensive and prolonged dilation of the pupil. Administration of pharmacologic agents such as atropine that cause pupillary dilation (mydriasis) also can precipitate an acute episode of increased intraocular pressure in persons with the potential for angle-closure glaucoma. Attacks of increased intraocular pressure are manifested by ocular pain and blurred or iridescent vision. The man's symptomatology is not characteristic of conjunctivitis, corneal trauma, or keratitis.

Which of the following statements best captures the etiology of the acute response phase of extrinsic (atopic) asthma? A) IgG production is heightened as a consequence of exposure to an allergen. B) Airway remodeling results in airflow limitations. C) Epithelial injury and edema occur along with changes in mucociliary function. D) Chemical mediators are released from presensitized mast cells.

D The acute response phase of extrinsic asthma is characterized by the release of chemical mediators from mast cells that have been sensitized. Epithelial injury and edema, as well as airway remodeling, are not associated with the acute phase, and IgE, not IgG, is primarily involved in asthma.

As part of a public health initiative, a nurse is teaching a group of older adults about ways to promote and maintain their health. Recognizing that the common cold is a frequent source of ailment, the nurse is addressing this health problem. Which of the following teaching points about the common cold is most accurate? A) "You shouldn't be taking antibiotics for a cold until your doctor has confirmed exactly which bug is causing your cold." B) "It's important to both cover your mouth when you cough or sneeze and encourage others to do so, since most colds are spread by inhaling the germs." C) "Scientists don't yet know exactly what virus causes the cold, and there is not likely to be a vaccine until this is known." D) "Use caution when choosing over-the-counter drugs for your cold; most people do best with rest and antifever medications."

D The efficacy of over-the-counter cold remedies is minimal, and all have a risk of unwanted side effects; rest and antipyretics are normally sufficient since cold viruses are normally self-limiting. No cold-causing virus will respond to antibiotics, and most colds are spread by the fingers. There is no one specific virus that causes the common cold, and numerous different viruses cause similar symptoms.

During descent, an airplane passenger is complaining that his "ears are plugged." What aspect of the structure and function of the ear best accounts for the passenger's complaint? A) The inner ear adjusts its volume in response to atmospheric pressure, increasing during low pressure and decreasing in high pressure. B) The eustachian tubes must remain patent to equalize pressure between the middle ear and inner ear. C) The tympanic membrane is selectively permeable in order to accommodate pressure changes, and this capacity is often impaired during upper respiratory infections. D) Air must be able to flow between the middle ear and nasopharynx in order to accommodate pressure changes.

D The eustachian tubes between the middle ear and nasopharynx must be patent to allow for changes in atmospheric pressure. Pressure is not accommodated by changing the volume of the middle ear, and the tympanic membrane is not selectively permeable to air.

The exasperated parents of a 4-month-old infant with colic have asked their health care provider what they can do to alleviate their child's persistent crying. Based on their concerns, the nurse should educate/discuss with the parents which of the following? A) Encouraging them to walk away from the infant when they can no longer tolerate it B) Recommending them to reduce the amount of commercial formula and increase breast-feeding C) Discussing the use of prescribed antiflatulent medication that will help more than changing the formula D) Demonstrating how to use a soothing voice and slow rocking back and forth as a way to calm the infant

D The lack of a single etiologic factor makes treatment of colic difficult. The incidence is similar with both breast-feeding and formula, and while antiflatulents are sometimes used, the problem is not always attributable to intestinal gas. Even though it is a common problem that does resolve with time, parents need support. Nonpharmacologic interventions include soothing voices, singing, swaddling, and slow rhythmic rocking.

Which of the following is a negative symptom of schizophrenia? A) Hallucinations B) Incoherence C) Word salad D) Affective flattening

D The negative symptoms of schizophrenia reflect the absence of normal social and interpersonal behaviors and include alogia (tendency to speak very little), avolition (lack of motivation for goal-oriented activity), apathy, affective flattening (lack of emotional expression), and anhedonia (an inability to experience pleasure in things that ordinarily are pleasurable). Positive symptoms are those that reflect the presence of abnormal behaviors and include disorganized, incomprehensible speech; delusions (e.g., that one is being controlled by an outside force); hallucinations (hearing voices is the most common); and grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior.

After surviving an ischemic stroke, a 79-year-old male has demonstrated significant changes in his emotional behavior, with his family noting that he now experiences wide mood swings with exaggerated responses of empathy, anger, and sadness to situations. His care team would most likely attribute these responses to ischemic changes in which of the following brain structures? A) The man's occipital lobe B) The client's temporal lobe in general and Wernicke area in particular C) The man's parietal lobe D) The components of the client's limbic system

D The neural structures that constitute the limbic system are primarily responsible for the regulation of emotion. Clinical studies have suggested that this area of the brain is important for mood states and has extensive connections with the limbic system. The occipital lobe interprets visual information, while language is the domain of the Wernicke area. The parietal lobe processes sensory input.

A 32-year-old man is complaining of burning, itching, photophobia, and severe pain in his right eye after swimming in the ocean. To determine that the eye condition was a corneal rather than a conjunctival disease, which of the following would be the distinguishing symptom? A) Burning B) Itching C) Photophobia D) Severe pain

D While burning, itching, and photophobia are all important symptoms of conjunctivitis, severe pain suggests corneal rather than conjunctival disease.