Patho Final Exam
Risk of infection is increased in (Select all that apply.) a. Diabetes mellitus b. stress c. Spleen removal d. Appendix removal e. Use of corticosteroids
Use of corticosteroids Stress Diabetes mellitus Spleen removal
A patient has been exposed to meningococcal meningitis, but is not yet demonstrating signs of this disease. This stage of illness is called the _____ stage. a. Convalescence b. Sequela c. Prodromal d. Latent
Latent
After sitting in a chair for an hour, an older patient develops moderate lower extremity edema. His edema is most likely a consequence of a. arterial obstruction b. right-sided heart failure c. peripheral arterial disease d. isolated left-sided heart failure
Right-sided heart failure
Immune function is likely to be most effective in a a. 7-month-old infant b. 70-year-old c. 30-year-old d. Newborn
30-year-old
The therapy that most directly improves cardiac contractility in a patient with systolic heart failure is a. β-antagonist agents b. digitalis c. afterload reduction d. preload reduction
Digitalis
The most common method of direct disease transmission is a. Inoculate b. Vector c. Airborne d. Droplet
Droplet
Certain autoimmune diseases are associated with the presence of specific proteins on a person's cells. These proteins are called ________ proteins. a. TCR or BCR b. Complement c. antibody receptor d. HLA or MHC
HLA or MHC
An important mediator of a type I hypersensitivity reaction is a. complement b. T cells c. antigen-antibody immune complexes d. histamine
Histamine
Anaphylaxis may occur in which types of hypersensitivity reactions? (Select all that apply.) a. I b. III c. IV d. II
I II
Cystic fibrosis is a single-gene disorder that primarily affects Question 16Answer a. Liver and intestine b. Lungs and pancreas c. Kidney and adrenals d. Brain and heart
Lungs and pancreas
Interleukin-1, interleukin-6, and tumor necrosis factor are inflammatory cytokines secreted by a. neutrophils b. plasma cells c. lymphocytes d. macrophages
Macrophages
A primary effector cell of the type I hypersensitivity response is a. cytotoxic cells b. monocytes c. neutrophils d. mast cells
Mast cells
Renal insufficiency is a common complication of which disease? a. Chronic lymphoid leukemia (CLL) b. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) c. Hodgkin disease d. Myeloma
Myeloma
All these cellular responses are potentially reversible except. a. Metaplasia b. Atrophy c. Necrosis d. Hyperplasia
Necrosis
Somatic death refers to death Question 23Answer a. Of the entire organism b. Of nerve cells c. Secondary to brain damage d. Of a body organ
Of the entire organism
Characteristics of complement include (Select all that apply.) a. enhancing phagocytosis b. being synthesized in the bone marrow c. stimulating chemotaxis d. lysing target cells e. having multiple plasma proteins
lysing target cells stimulating chemotaxis enhancing phagocytosis having multiple plasma proteins
Dramatic hypotension sometimes accompanies type I hypersensitivity reactions because a. toxins released into the blood interfere with cardiac function. b. massive histamine release from mast cells leads to vasodilation. c. anaphylaxis results in large volume losses secondary to sweating. d. hypoxia resulting from bronchoconstriction impairs cardiac function.
massive histamine release from mast cells leads to vasodilation
Dietary zinc is an important defense against infection because it maintains (Select all that apply.) Antioxidant activity Natural killer cell function Lymphocyte activity Complement activity Neutrophil activity
natural killer cell function lymphocyte activity complement activity neutrophil activity
A 5-year-old patient's parents report loss of appetite and fatigue in their child. The parents also state that the child refuses to walk as a result of pain. The child's most likely diagnosis is a. AML (acute myeloid leukemia). b. ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia). c. CLL (chronic lymphoid leukemia). d. CML (chronic myeloid leukemia).
ALL
Which disorder is considered a primary immunodeficiency disease? a. Malnutrition immunodeficiency b. Radiation immunodeficiency c. HIV/AIDS d. Cancer immunodeficiency
HIV/AIDS
Which disorder is caused by inhalation of organic substances? a. Hypersensitivity pneumonitis b. Acute respiratory distress syndrome c. Diffuse interstitial lung disease d. Sarcoidosis
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
There is a disease of the spleen, which can result in an excessive destruction of RBCs. This increase in RBC destruction can lead to which of the of following? a. Hypoxia b. Hypobilirubinemia c. An increase in platelets d. All of the above
Hypoxia
A child with a history of recent strep throat infection develops glomerulonephritis. This is most likely a type _____ hypersensitivity reaction. a. III b. IV c. II d. I
III
The hypersensitivity reaction that does not involve antibody production is type a. IV b. I c. III d. II
IV
The effects of histamine release include a. bronchodilation b. increased vascular permeability c. vasoconstriction d. decreased gut permeability
Increased vascular permeability
The major cause of death from leukemia disease is a. hypovolemic shock b. malnutrition c. kidney failure d. infection
Infection
The patient diagnosed with acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL) must undergo several weeks of chemotherapy. The most serious complication of chemotherapy is a. alopecia b. anemia c. vomiting d. infection
Infection
Reperfusion injury to cells a. Occurs following nutritional injury b. Involves formation of free radicals c. Results in very little cellular damage d. Results from calcium deficiency in cells
Involves formation of free radicals
The primary function of eosinophils is to a. Stop viral replication b. kill bacteria c. Phagocytize fungi. d. Kill parasitic helminths (worms).
Kill parasitic helminths (worms)
Drug resistance of microbes occurs secondary to a. Patient allergy to a drug b. Mutation of the microbe c. Enhanced pathogenicity of the microbe d. Using high doses of drugs
Mutation of the microbe
The term used to describe fungal infections is a. amebiasis b. mycoses c. sepsis d. Chlamydia
Mycoses
A patient is seen in the clinic for reports of severe back pain. Her chest x-ray demonstrates generalized bone demineralization and compression fracture. Blood studies demonstrate elevated calcium levels. The most likely diagnosis is a. Hodgkin disease b. Myeloma c. Back trauma d. Leukemia
Myeloma
A patient is seen in the clinic for reports of severe back pain. Her chest x-ray demonstrates generalized bone demineralization and compression fracture. Blood studies demonstrate elevated calcium levels. The most likely diagnosis is a. Leukemia b. Hodgkin disease c. Myeloma d. Back trauma
Myeloma
The membrane attack complex formed by complement is similar in function to a. CD4+ b. Perforin c. Granzymes d. CD8
Perforin
Obstructive sleep apnea would most likely be found in a patient diagnosed with a. Pickwickian syndrome b. myasthenia gravis c. poliomyelitis d. pneumonia
Pickwickian syndrome
Bacteria cause injury to cells by which mechanisms? (Select all that apply.) a. Producing endotoxins b. Producing destructive enzymes c. Producing exotoxins d. Evoking an immune reaction e. Reproducing inside of host cells altering cellular function
Producing endotoxins Producing destructive enzymes Producing exotoxins Evoking an immune reaction
Which person is at greatest risk for developing a pulmonary embolism? a. A 28-year-old woman in the first trimester of a normal pregnancy b. A 25-year-old man with asthma c. A 67-year-old man with a deep vein thrombosis in the femoral vein d. A 42-year-old woman with a broken ankle
A 67-year-old man with a deep vein thrombosis in the femoral vein
Mitral stenosis is associated with a. Left ventricular hypertrophy b. A prominent S4 heart sounds c. A muffled second heart sound (S2) d. A pressure gradient across the mitral valve
A pressure gradient across the mitral valve
RhoGAM is given to an Rh-negative mother in order to prevent a. anaphylactic response of the mother. b. the primary immunodeficiency of the newborn. c. the formation of Rh-positive antibodies. d. a type III hypersensitivity disorder.
A type III hypersensitivity disorder
Active immunity involves (Select all that apply.) a. Vaccines with dead or altered organisms b. Injection of human immune globulin c. Injection of preformed human antibodies d. Injection with preformed animal antibodies e. Active infections
Active infections Vaccines with dead or altered organisms
While in the hospital for management of acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL), a patient develops severe thrombocytopenia. The most appropriate action for this condition is a. anticoagulant therapy b. chemotherapy c. isolation d. activity restriction
Activity restriction
Proteins that are increased in the bloodstream during acute inflammation are called a. Membrane attack complexes b. Selection receptors c. Major histocompatibility complexes d. Acute-phase proteins
Acute-phase proteins
Direct cell membrane destruction may result from which of the following? a. Complement activiation b. Bacterial enzymes c. Free radicals d. All of the above
All of the above
Surfactant is a phospholipid that reduces a. Pulmonary vascular capacitance b. Pulmonary capillary fragility c. Elastic recoil force d. Alveolar surface tension
Alveolar surface tension
Autoimmune diseases result from which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. increase in self-tolerance b. overactive immune function c. failure of the immune system to differentiate self and nonself molecules d. environmental toxin exposure e. communicable infections
B. overactive immune function C. failure of the immune system to differentiate self and nonself molecules D. environmental toxin exposure
A patient with a productive cough and parenchymal infiltrates on x-ray is demonstrating symptomology of a. acute respiratory distress syndrome b. tuberculosis c. viral pneumonia d. bacterial pneumonia
Bacterial pneumonia
Autoimmune diseases result from which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. environmental toxin exposure b. increase in self-tolerance c. overactive immune function d. failure of the immune system to differentiate self and nonself molecules e. communicable infections
C. overactive immune function D. failure of the immune system to differentiate self and nonself molecules A. environmental toxin exposure
Which is true about lung compliance? (Select all that apply.) a. Represents lung expandability b. Is decreased in emphysema c. Decreases in the elderly d. Is affected by body position e. Affected by obesity
Decreases in the elderly Is affected by body position Affected by obesity
Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) syndrome is an example of a(n) a. primary acquired immunodeficiency b. hypersensitivity reaction c. excessive immune response d. deficient immune response
Deficient immune response
The mononuclear phagocyte system consists of (Select all that apply.) a. Tissue macrophages b. Antibody-secreting plasma cells c. Basophils d. Bone marrow stem cells e. Dendritic cells f. Monocytes
Dendritic cells Tissue macrophages Monocytes
Patients with immunodeficiency disorders are usually first identified because they a. run high fevers b. Develop brain infections c. develop recurrent infections d. have unusually high WBC counts
Develop recurrent infections
Characteristics of immunization include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Immunization provides life-long immunity b. Giving injections of preformed antibodies provides immediate immunity c. Immunization with killed vaccines may lad to infection from the agent d. Lack of immunization may lead to an epidemic. e. Herd immunity controls disease without immunizing everyone in the population
E. Herd immunity controls disease without immunizing everyone in the population B. Giving injections of preformed antibodies provides immediate immunity D. Lack of immunization may lead to an epidemic
The principle Ig mediator of type I hypersensitivity reactions is a. IgG b. IgA c. IgE d. IgM
IgE
Allergic (extrinsic) asthma is associated with a. irreversible airway obstruction b. unknown precipitating factors c. IgE-mediated airway inflammation d. hyporesponsiveness of airways
IgE-mediated airway inflammation
Myasthenia gravis is a type II hypersensitivity disorder that involves a. symptoms of hyperthyroidism b. symptoms glomerular disease c. symptoms of arthritis or polyarthralgia d. Impaired muscle function
Impaired muscle function
Which clinical finding is most indicative of acute bacterial infection? a. Elevated WBC count b. Increased (band) neutrophils c. Elevated temperature d. Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
Increased (band) neutrophils
Chronic bronchitis often leads to cor pulmonale because of a. ventricular hypoxia b. left ventricular strain c. increased pulmonary vascular resistance d. hypervolemia
Increased pulmonary vascular resistance
Blood is transported from the right ventricle to the lungs by the a. pulmonary veins b. bronchial arteries c. aorta d. pulmonary artery
Pulmonary artery
Left-sided heart failure is characterized by a. pulmonary congestion b. peripheral edema c. decreased systemic vascular resistance d. jugular vein distention
Pulmonary congestion
Hypertrophy of the right ventricle is a compensatory response to a. pulmonary embolus b. tricuspid stenosis c. aortic stenosis d. aortic regurgitation
Pulmonary embolus
Primary pulmonary hypertension is a. more common in men b. rapidly progressive c. readily treatable d. Caused by genetic mutation
Rapidly progressive
Transfusion reactions involve RBC destruction caused by a. Recipient T cells b. Donor antigens c. donor T cells d. Recipient antibodies
Recipient antibodies
The common denominator in all forms of heart failure is a. reduced cardiac output b. tissue ischemia c. pulmonary edema d. poor diastolic filling
Reduced cardiac output
Emphysema results from destruction of alveolar walls and capillaries, which is because of a. autoantibodies against the pulmonary basement membrane b. excessive α1 antitrypsin c. air trapping with resultant excessive alveolar pressure d. release of proteolytic enzymes from immune cells
Release of proteolytic enzymes from immune cells
The amount of gas remaining in the lungs after a maximal expiration is called the a. expiratory reserve volume b. residual volume c. vital capacity d. functional residual capacity
Residual volume
Atherosclerotic plaques with large lipid cores are prone to a. attachment b. rupture c. dislodgement d. binding
Rupture
A patient with significant aortic stenosis is likely to experience a. Hypertension b. Aorta hypertrophy c. Syncope d. Peripheral edema
Syncope
Functions of B cells include a. secreting cytokines b. Killing antigen-presenting cells c. Synthesizing antibodies d. stimulating B cells
Synthesizing antibodies
Bacterial pneumonia leads to hypoxemia caused by a. accumulation of alveolar exudates b. upper airway obstruction c. interstitial edema d. cardiogenic pulmonary edema
accumulation of alveolar exudates
Functions of antibodies include (Select all that apply.) a. antigen agglutination b. antigen precipitation c. phagocytosis d. complement activation e. opsonization
antigen agglutination antigen precipitation complement activation opsonization
The spleen is an important defense against infection, because it a. initiates inflammation b. Activates the complement cascade c. filters the blood d. controls phagocytosis
Filters the blood
Immunity to a specific organism can be determined by a. WBC count b. active phase protein count c. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate d. antibody titer
Antibody titer
The classical pathway for activation of the complement cascade is triggered by a. First recognition of an antigen b. Activation of C3 c. Antigen-antibody complexes d. Inflammation
Antigen-antibody complexes
Chronic activation of stress hormones can lead to (Select all that apply.)/ a. Autoimmune disease b. Depression c. Impaired cognitive function d. Overactive immune function e. Cardiovascular disease
Autoimmune disease depression Impaired cognitive function cardiovascular disease
An important difference between skeletal and cardiac muscle is that a. Only skeletal muscle is dependent upon actin-myosin cross-bridging. b. Cardiac muscle has calcium channels on the cell surface for calcium entry. c. Calcium does not leave the sarcoplasmic reticulum in cardiac cells d. Cardiac muscle is not striated.
Cardiac muscle has calcium channels on the cell surface for calcium entry
Hypotension, distended neck veins, and muffled heart sounds are classic manifestations of a. Congestive heart failure b. Cardiomyopathy c. Myocardial infarction d. Cardiac tamponade
Cardiac tamponade
In relation to disease development, the term "etiology" refers to which of the following? a. Number of people with the disease b. Cause of the disease c. Definition of the disease d. Outcome of the disease
Cause of the disease
Activation of the complement cascade results in (Select all that apply.) a. antibody production b. Autoimmunity c. chemotaxis d. Inflammation e. Immunosuppression
Chemotaxis inflammation
Which is a characteristic of some bacteria? a. Cannot replicate extracellularly b. Composed of RNA or DNA c. Contains cell wall endotoxin d. Intracellular parasite
Contains cell wall endotoxin
Characteristics of telomerase include (Select all that apply.) a. Deficiency in cancer cells b. Synthesizing upon initiation c. Contribution to cancer cell immortality d. Activity allowing a cell to replicate indefinitely e. Promoting synthesis of telomere ends
Contribution to cancer cell immortality, Activity allowing a cell to replicate indefinitely, Promoting synthesis of telomere ends
A common characteristic of viral pneumonia is a. alveolar infiltrates on a chest x-ray. b. dry cough. c. increased white blood cell count. d. high fever.
Dry cough
Leukocytes is with a "shift to the left" refers to a. Elevated immature neutrophils b. Elevated segmented neutrophils c. Decreased monocytes d. decreased immature neutrophils
Elevated immature neutrophils
Leukocytes is with a "shift to the left" refers to a. Elevated segmented neutrophils b. decreased immature neutrophils c. Decreased monocytes d. Elevated immature neutrophils
Elevated immature neutrophils
An infectious disease that is common in a community is termed a. Pandemic b. Endemic c. Epidemic d. Partdemic
Endemic
A patient with high blood pressure who is otherwise healthy is counseled to restrict sodium intake. This is an example of: Question 29Answer a. Secondary prevention b. Tertiary prevention c. Disease prevention d. Primary prevention
Secondary prevention
An obese but otherwise healthy teen is given a prescription for a low-calorie diet and exercise program. This is an example of: Question 24Answer a. Primary prevention b. Secondary prevention c. Tertiary prevention d. Disease treatment
Secondary prevention
The most common primary immune deficiency that affects only B cells is a. selective IgA b. Wiskott-Aldrich c. DiGeorge d. Bruton agammaglobulinemia
Selective IgA
A laboratory test that should be routinely monitored in patients receiving digitalis therapy is a. albumin b. serum potassium c. serum calcium d. serum sodium
Serum potassium
Functions of T cells include (Select all that apply.) a. Secreting cytokines b. Killing virally infected cells c. Synthesizing antibodies d. Stimulating B cells e. Killing antigen-presenting cells
Stimulating B cells Killing antigen-presenting cells Killing virally infected cells Secreting cytokines
Functions of T cells include (Select all that apply.) a. Synthesizing antibodies b. Stimulating B cells c. Killing antigen-presenting cells d. Killing virally infected cells e. Secreting cytokines
Stimulating B cells Killing antigen-presenting cells Killing virally infected cells Secreting cytokines
CQ was recently exposed to group A hemolytic Streptococcus and subsequently developed a pharyngeal infection. His clinic examination reveals an oral temperature of 102.3°F, skin rash, dysphagia, and reddened throat mucosa with multiple pustules. He complains of sore throat, malaise, and joint stiffness. A throat culture is positive for Streptococcus, and antibiotics have been prescribed. The etiology of C.Q.'s disease is: a. Pharyngitis b. Streptococcal Infection c. Genetic Susceptibility d. A Sore Throat
Streptococcal infection
Creatine phosphate is a. synthesized when ATP levels are high. b. a waste product of cellular metabolism. c. an indicator of myocardial cell damage. d. enzymatically degraded to form creatine kinase
Synthesized when ATP levels are high
Which disorder is associated with a type III hypersensitivity mechanism of injury? a. Erythroblastosis fetalis b. Systemic lupus erythematosus c. Seasonal allergic rhinitis d. Graves' disease
Systemic lupus erythematosus
A fetus is most vulnerable to environmental teratogens during a. Conception b. Birth c. The first trimester d. The last trimester
The first trimester
A patient receiving zidovudine and a protease inhibitor to manage HIV infection is found to have an undetectable viral load. This means that the a. zidovudine can be discontinued. b. dosage of both agents should be reduced. c. therapy is effective. d. HIV virus has been eliminated.
Therapy is effective
Passive immunity is provided by (Select all that apply.) a. Vaccines with dead or altered organisms b. Injection of human immune globulin c. Active infections d. Transfer of performed human antibodies e. Injection with preformed animal antibodies
Transfer of performed human antibodies Injection with preformed animal antibodies Injection of human immune globulin
Which diseases are due to type IV hypersensitivity? (Select all that apply.) a. Brucellosis b. Goodpasture syndrome c. Tuberculosis d. Leprosy e. System lupus erythematosus
Tuberculosis Brucellosis Leprosy
Antigen-presenting cells function to a. initiate the complement cascade by way of the alternative pathway b. phagocytosis and degrade foreign antigens c. stimulate cytokine production by macrophages d. display foreign antigen on their cell surfaces bound to MHC.
display foreign antigen on their cell surfaces bound to MHC
Secondary immune deficiency problems may be caused by which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. genetic disorders b. surgery c. high blood sugar d. corticosteroids e. low protein level
high blood sugar low protein level corticosteroids surgery
