Patho Final TB

What type of fracture generally occurs in children? a. Greenstick b. Stress c. Nightstick d. Colles

a. Greenstick

A malignant bone-forming tumor is referred to as a(n) a. rhabdosarcoma. b. liposarcoma. c. osteosarcoma. d. chondrosarcoma.

c. osteosarcoma.

Deep pressure ulcers usually a. appear first as reddened areas that do not blanch. b. begin in the dermal and epidermal skin layers. c. result from thrombosis of deep vessels. d. are an unavoidable consequence of immobility.

c. result from thrombosis of deep vessels.

Impetigo is usually caused by a a. virus. b. fungus. c. protozoan. d. bacteria.

d. bacteria.

A 4-year-old is brought to the clinic for evaluation of dry, scaly, itchy patches on the face, antecubital areas, and behind the ears and knees. The skin is dry overall, and there is evidence of scratching. This is likely a case of a. impetigo. b. atopic dermatitis c. psoriasis. d. scabies.

b. atopic dermatitis

The most important preventative measure for hemorrhagic stroke is a. anticoagulation. b. blood pressure control. c. thrombolytics. d. management of dysrhythmias.

b. blood pressure control.

The goal of nutritional support of the burned individual is to a. limit the glucose available to infectious organisms. b. create a positive nitrogen balance. c. protect the kidney from excessive protein intake. d. avoid hyperlipidemia.

b. create a positive nitrogen balance.

The presence of a widely distributed pruritic maculopapular rash and erythema is commonly associated with a. psoriasis. b. drug reaction. c. scleroderma. d. bedbug bites.

b. drug reaction.

In older women, osteoporosis is thought to be primarily due to a. dietary inadequacies. b. estrogen deficiency. c. malabsorption syndrome. d. inactivity.

b. estrogen deficiency.

Paget's disease is characterized by a. overactivity of osteoblasts leading to multiple bone tumors. b. excessive bone resorption followed by excessive formation of fragile bone. c. inflammatory disorder resulting in fusion of spine joints. d. failure of resorption by osteoclasts resulting in hard bones.

b. excessive bone resorption followed by excessive formation of fragile bone.

A topical therapy that would tend to dry the skin because it is an astringent is a. lotion. b. gel. c. cream. d. ointments.

b. gel.

The primary aim of burn wound management is to prevent a. trauma to burned tissue. b. microbial colonization of the wound. c. the wound from drying out. d. premature wound closure.

b. microbial colonization of the wound.

A post-infective painful neuralgia can occur as a complication of a. shingles. b. herpes simplex. c. impetigo. d. verrucae.

a. shingles.

The immediate management of a thermal burn victim once the fire has been extinguished is to a. cover with blankets to prevent shock. b. monitor for signs of respiratory impairment. c. apply lubricant to the burn area. d. start an IV line.

b. monitor for signs of respiratory impairment.

Cerebral aneurysm is most frequently the result of a. embolic stroke. b. subarachnoid hemorrhage. c. subdural hemorrhage. d. meningitis.

b. subarachnoid hemorrhage.

Manifestations of acute brain ischemia (Cushing reflex) are due primarily to a. parasympathetic nervous system activation. b. sympathetic nervous system activation. c. autoregulation of body systems. d. loss of brainstem reflexes.

b. sympathetic nervous system activation.

A risk factor for osteoporosis is a. endometriosis. b. early menopause. c. late menopause. d. ovarian cysts.

b. early menopause.

It is true that vitiligo a. occurs as a result of a genetic lack of melanin production. b. is a depigmented patch of skin. c. occurs most commonly in light-skinned individuals. d. is a warning sign for malignant melanoma.

b. is a depigmented patch of skin.

A patient diagnosed with diabetes, smokes a pack of cigarettes daily and eats very few green leafy vegetables. After experiencing a fractured toe, this patient is at risk for a. delayed healing. b. malunion. c. nonunion. d. dysunion.

a. delayed healing.

Following a bone fracture, the most likely event to occur is a. development of a blood clot beneath the periosteum. b. leukocyte infiltration into bone tissue. c. blood vessel growth at the fracture site. d. migration of osteoblasts to the fracture site.

a. development of a blood clot beneath the periosteum.

The third element essential to survival after major burn injury is a. excision of the burn followed by skin grafting. b. frequent wound debridement to encourage wound healing. c. hyperbaric oxygen therapy. d. continuous topical antibiotic therapy.

a. excision of the burn followed by skin grafting.

Muscular dystrophy includes a number of muscle disorders that are a. genetically transmitted. b. easily prevented and managed. c. autoimmune in nature. d. demyelinating focused.

a. genetically transmitted.

The most common type of osteomyelitis is a. hematogenous. b. contiguous focus. c. Brodie abscess. d. direct invasion.

a. hematogenous.

Acute, painful inflammation with vesicles along the distribution of a spinal nerve (dermatome) is characteristic of a. herpes zoster. b. herpes simplex. c. human papillomavirus. d. tinea.

a. herpes zoster.

The stroke etiology with the highest morbidity and mortality is a. intracranial hemorrhage. b. intracranial thrombosis. c. intracranial embolization. d. cardiac arrest.

a. intracranial hemorrhage.

A necessary intervention when managing burns associated with automobile airbag injury include a. irrigation with water. b. application of steroid cream. c. IV infusion of antibiotics. d. debridement of skin.

a. irrigation with water.

The most common site affected in Paget's disease is the a. lower spine. b. skull. c. pelvis. d. joints.

a. lower spine.

Healing of a fractured bone with a poor alignment is called a. malunion. b. nonunion. c. disunion. d. delayed union.

a. malunion.

Pain with passive stretching of a muscle is indicative of a. noncontractile tissue injury. b. contractile tissue injury. c. vascular insufficiency. d. skeletal muscle damage.

a. noncontractile tissue injury.

The disease that is similar to osteomalacia and occurs in growing children is a. rickets. b. osteosarcoma. c. Paget disease. d. osteopenia.

a. rickets.

Psoriasis is characterized by a. silvery scale on the skin. b. itching, oozing rash. c. thickened, discolored nails. d. whitish coating on the tongue.

a. silvery scale on the skin.

In the acute phase of stroke, treatment is focused on a. stabilization of respiratory and cardiovascular function. b. risk factor modification. c. prevention of bedsores and contractures. d. neurologic rehabilitation.

a. stabilization of respiratory and cardiovascular function.

The displacement of two bones in which the articular surfaces partially lose contact with each other is called a. subluxation. b. subjugation c. sublimation. d. dislocation.

a. subluxation.

A unique characteristic feature of fibromyalgia is the presence of a. tender point pain. b. head pain. c. contractures. d. muscle atrophy.

a. tender point pain.

Which type of dermatitis is associated with cradle cap in newborns? a. Irritant b. Seborrheic c. Atopic d. Stasis

b. Seborrheic

Which finding indicates a need for further evaluation of a nevus mole? a. The presence of light pigmentation b. Variations in color within the nevus c. Very dark coloration of the mole d. Diameter less than 2 mm

b. Variations in color within the nevus

Most muscle strains are due to a. a tear in an adjoining tendon. b. abnormal muscle contraction. c. muscle asymmetry. d. bleeding into the muscle.

b. abnormal muscle contraction.

Assessment of an extremity six hours after surgical alignment and casting demonstrates pulselessness and pallor. The priority action to take is to a. increase the administration his pain medication. b. initiate action to have the cast split or removed. c. note the increase in pain in his chart, and recheck the extremity in 30 minutes. d. elevate the extremity to relieve swelling.

b. initiate action to have the cast split or removed.

Anticholinesterase inhibitors may be used to manage a. muscular dystrophy. b. myasthenia gravis. c. fibromyalgia. d. rheumatoid arthritis.

b. myasthenia gravis.

Electrical injury may cause extensive damage to low-resistance tissues, particularly a. bone and muscle. b. nerves and blood vessels. c. epidermis. d. dermis and subcutaneous tissue.

b. nerves and blood vessels.

Bone healing may be impaired by a. excessive vitamin C. b. nicotine use. c. a high-protein diet. d. immobilization.

b. nicotine use.

An elevated lesion containing purulent material is a a. nodule. b. pustule. c. macule. d. vesicle. e. papule.

b. pustule.

Compartment syndrome occurs secondary to a. bone infarction. b. soft-tissue damage. c. muscle necrosis. d. breakdown of RBCs.

b. soft-tissue damage.

Complete healing of a bone fracture occurs when a. no movement of the break is detectable. b. the callus has been completely replaced with mature bone. c. the fracture site and surrounding soft tissue are pain free. d. a cast is no longer required to stabilize the break.

b. the callus has been completely replaced with mature bone.

Scleroderma is characterized by a. large, weeping, open sores. b. thickening and decreased elasticity of the skin. c. butterfly rash on the face. d. hair loss and ulcer formation on the extremities.

b. thickening and decreased elasticity of the skin.

The person at highest risk of a greenstick fracture from falling off a tall ladder is age a. 68. b. 44. c. 8. d. 23.

c. 8.

Which group of clinical findings indicates the poorest neurologic functioning? a. Spontaneous eye opening, movement to command, oriented to self only b. Eyes open to light touch on shoulder, pupils briskly reactive to light bilaterally c. Assumes decorticate posture with light touch, no verbal response d. No eye opening, responds to painful stimulus by withdrawing

c. Assumes decorticate posture with light touch, no verbal response

What is the most deadly form of skin cancer? a. Basal b. Squamous c. Melanoma d. Actinic keratosis

c. Melanoma

The disorders characterized by softening and then enlargement of bones is referred to as a. osteomyelitis. b. osteoporosis. c. Paget disease. d. rickets.

c. Paget disease.

Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease in which a. neuronal demyelination disrupts nerve transmission. b. muscles become increasingly bulky but weakened. c. acetylcholine receptors are destroyed or dysfunctional. d. acetylcholine release from motor neurons is disrupted.

c. acetylcholine receptors are destroyed or dysfunctional.

At puberty when sebaceous gland secretion increases, follicle obstruction and infection may occur, resulting in a. psoriasis. b. eczema. c. acne vulgaris. d. pemphigus.

c. acne vulgaris.

Risk factors for hemorrhagic stroke include a. atherosclerosis. b. dysrhythmias. c. acute hypertension. d. sedentary lifestyle.

c. acute hypertension.

The complication which is not likely to result from a compound, transverse fracture of the tibia and fibula is a. bone infection. b. fat emboli. c. air embolus. d. compartment syndrome.

c. air embolus.

Impetigo is a skin infection caused by a. fungus. b. yeast. c. bacteria. d. parasite.

c. bacteria.

Leakage of CSF from the nose or ears is commonly associated with a. epidural hematoma. b. temporal skull fracture. c. basilar skull fracture. d. cerebral aneurysm.

c. basilar skull fracture.

The majority of electrical burns in children are caused by a. playing with electrical outlets. b. playing with defective electrical cords. c. biting on extension cords. d. putting fingers in electrical sockets.

c. biting on extension cords.

The most common symptom of multiple myeloma is a. pathologic fracture. b. fever. c. bone pain. d. osteomyelitis.

c. bone pain.

Secondary injury after head trauma refers to a. brain injury due to the initial trauma. b. focal areas of bleeding. c. brain injury due to the body's response to tissue damage. d. injury as a result of medical therapy.

c. brain injury due to the body's response to tissue damage.

Shingles is caused by the same virus that causes a. measles. b. mumps. c. chicken pox. d. rubella.

c. chicken pox.

Onycholysis is characterized by a. silvery plaques on the skin. b. itching, oozing rash. c. destruction of the nails. d. whitish coating on the tongue.

c. destruction of the nails.

The first priority when rescuing a burned individual is a. establishing a patent airway. b. removing his or her clothing. c. eliminating the source of the burn. d. covering the wounds with wet sheets.

c. eliminating the source of the burn.

An example of inappropriate treatment for head trauma would be a. head elevation. b. free water restriction. c. hypoventilation. d. bed rest.

c. hypoventilation.

A nonpalpable spot that is not elevated or depressed is a a. nodule. b. pustule. c. macule. d. vesicle. e. papule.

c. macule.

A bone disorder that results from insufficient vitamin D is referred to as a. rickets. b. osteoporosis. c. osteomalacia. d. subluxation.

c. osteomalacia.

Itchy linear burrows on the hands and wrists are associated with a. tick bites. b. Rocky Mountain spotted fever. c. scabies. d. contact dermatitis.

c. scabies.

The most common cause of burn injuries in children is a. house fires. b. cigarette burns. c. scalding with hot water. d. contact with chemical agents.

c. scalding with hot water.

It is true that second-degree, superficial partial-thickness burns a. are less painful than third-degree burns. b. involve only the epidermis. c. usually heal in 7 to 21 days. d. are rarely associated with scar formation.

c. usually heal in 7 to 21 days.

Which finding is characteristic of oral candidiasis? a. Silvery plaques on the skin b. Itching, oozing rash c. Thickened, discolored nails d. Whitish coating on the tongue

d. Whitish coating on the tongue

Manifestations of herpes zoster include a. multiple fluid-filled vesicles on the lips, tongue, and hands. b. generalized, painful maculopapular rash. c. red, itchy palms and soles of feet. d. a dermatomal distribution of lesions and pain.

d. a dermatomal distribution of lesions and pain.

A compound, transverse fracture is best described as a bone that is a. broken in two or more pieces. b. cracked but not completely separated. c. broken along the long axis. d. broken and protruding through the skin.

d. broken and protruding through the skin.

Inflammation of the sacs that overlie bony prominences is called a. epicondylitis. b. arthritis. c. tendinitis. d. bursitis.

d. bursitis.

The difference between chickenpox and measles is that chickenpox a. is caused by a virus, whereas measles is caused by a bacterium. b. causes a widespread rash, whereas measles causes a macular rash. c. is a childhood infection, but measles can evolve into shingles in adults. d. causes vesicles that scab, whereas measles remains a macular rash.

d. causes vesicles that scab, whereas measles remains a macular rash.

Pain in fibromyalgia involves a. muscle inflammation. b. autoimmune destruction of muscle tissue. c. nerve inflammation. d. changes in pain transmission in the spinal cord.

d. changes in pain transmission in the spinal cord.

Atopic dermatitis (eczema) is due to a. parasitic infestation of the skin. b. superficial staphylococcal infection. c. superficial fungal infection. d. contact with skin allergens.

d. contact with skin allergens.

The time between the end of burn shock and closure of the burn to less than 20% of total body surface area is called the ________ phase. a. postshock b. rehabilitation c. critical d. emergent

d. emergent

Burn shock is the direct result of a. hypovolemia. b. cardiac depression. c. infection. d. increased capillary permeability.

d. increased capillary permeability.

Clinical manifestations of a stroke within the right cerebral hemisphere include a. cortical blindness. b. right visual field blindness. c. expressive and receptive aphasia. d. left-sided muscle weakness and neglect.

d. left-sided muscle weakness and neglect.

The cancer considered to be the most malignant is a. hyperkeratosis. b. basal cell carcinoma. c. squamous cell carcinoma. d. melanoma.

d. melanoma.

It is true that covering a burn with cool wet sheets a. promotes comfort. b. facilitates healing. c. prevents fluid loss. d. promotes hypothermia.

d. promotes hypothermia.

Corticosteroids are commonly administered for the management of skin disorders because they a. are analgesics. b. prevent infection. c. enhance collagen production. d. reduce inflammation.

d. reduce inflammation.

Rupture of a cerebral aneurysm should be suspected if the patient reports a. ringing in the ears. b. transient episodes of numbness. c. transient episodes of vertigo. d. sudden, severe headache.

d. sudden, severe headache.

A small blister is referred to as a a. nodule. b. pustule. c. macule. d. vesicle. e. papule.

d. vesicle.

Conditions caused by a virus include a. athlete's foot. b. boils. c. warts. d. impetigo.

c. warts.

Rickets is characterized by soft, weak bones resulting from a deficiency of a. calcium. b. estrogen. c. phosphate. d. vitamin D.

d. vitamin D.

A small, palpable bump is a a. nodule. b. pustule. c. macule. d. vesicle. e. papule.

e. papule.

People who have osteoporosis are at risk for a. rhabdomyolysis. b. osteomyelitis. c. osteomalacia. d. bone fractures.

d. bone fractures.

A large, palpable bump is a a. nodule. b. pustule. c. macule. d. vesicle. e. papule.

a. nodule.

Acceleration-deceleration movements of the head often result in polar injuries in which a. injury is localized to the site of initial impact. b. widespread neuronal damage is incurred. c. bleeding from venules fills the subdural space. d. focal injuries occur in two places at opposite poles.

d. focal injuries occur in two places at opposite poles.

The pathophysiology of osteomalacia involves a. increased osteoclast activity. b. collagen breakdown in the bone matrix. c. crowding of cells in the osteoid. d. inadequate mineralization in the osteoid.

d. inadequate mineralization in the osteoid.

Characteristics of scoliosis include (Select all that apply.) a. involvement of lateral curvature of the spine. b. increase during periods of rapid growth. c. more common in boys. d. identifiable by uneven shoulders or scapular prominence. e. possibility of leading to respiratory complications.

ANS: A, B, D, E a. involvement of lateral curvature of the spine. b. increase during periods of rapid growth. d. identifiable by uneven shoulders or scapular prominence. e. possibility of leading to respiratory complications.

Manifestations of fibromyalgia often include (Select all that apply.) a. generalized pain. b. sensitivity to heat. c. headaches. d. fatigue. e. sleep disturbance.

ANS: A, C, D, E a. generalized pain. c. headaches. d. fatigue. e. sleep disturbance.

Herpes simplex I infection (select all that apply) a. causes both oral and genital infections. b. begins with a burning or tingling sensation. c. reactivates with stress, sun exposure, menses. d. is painless. e. remains latent in spinal ganglia between outbreaks.

ANS: B, C, E b. begins with a burning or tingling sensation. c. reactivates with stress, sun exposure, menses. e. remains latent in spinal ganglia between outbreaks.

A major difference between a vesicle and a wheal is that vesicles a. contains fluid, but wheals are edematous tissue. b. are palpable, but a wheal is not. c. are larger than wheals. d. are smaller than wheals.

a. contains fluid, but wheals are edematous tissue.

Subarachnoid hemorrhage is usually managed with volume expansion and blood pressure support to enhance cerebral perfusion. This is necessary because subarachnoid hemorrhage predisposes to a. cerebral vasospasm. b. hypotension. c. excessive volume loss. d. increased intracranial pressure.

a. cerebral vasospasm.

A fracture in which bone breaks into two or more fragments is referred to as a. comminuted. b. open. c. greenstick. d. stress.

a. comminuted.

What is the most common, benign form of skin cancer? a. Basal b. Squamous c. Melanoma d. Actinic keratosis

a. Basal

Which disorder usually causes skeletal pain and involves significant bone demineralization from vitamin D deficiency? a. Osteomalacia b. Osteopenia c. Osteomyelitis d. Osteoporosis

a. Osteomalacia

Which skin disorder is thought to be caused by an autoimmune reaction and is characterized by bullous eruptions? a. Pemphigus b. Psoriasis c. Pityriasis rosea d. Lichen planus

a. Pemphigus

The most common source of osteomyelitis is a. an infection that migrates via the bloodstream. b. direct invasion from a fracture. c. surgical contamination. d. a joint prosthesis.

a. an infection that migrates via the bloodstream.

The physiologic change most likely to lead to an increase in intracranial pressure is a. cerebral vasodilation. b. hypernatremia. c. respiratory hyperventilation. d. REM sleep.

a. cerebral vasodilation.