patho quiz 2 on modules 3 and 4

A patient has been prescribed pharmacologic doses of glucocorticoids. It is most important for the nurse to teach the patient to do what? A.Increase intake of dietary sodium. B.Take antibiotics to prevent infection. C.Never abruptly withdraw therapy. D.Have an eye examination every year.

A.Increase intake of dietary sodium. because: Abrupt withdrawal of glucocorticoids may cause adrenal insufficiency or an adrenal crisis. Infection should be prevented, but the use of antibiotics without a known infection is inappropriate. Sodium intake should be restricted while the patient is taking glucocorticoids. Eye examinations are recommended every 6 months for patients on glucocorticoid therapy.

A patient is prescribed sirolimus [Rapamune] and cyclosporine [Sandimmune] after renal transplantation. It is most important for the nurse to closely monitor which value? A.Serum creatinine B.Aspartate aminotransferase C.Serum potassium D.Partial thromboplastin time

A.Serum creatinine because: Sirolimus combined with cyclosporine poses a significant risk of renal injury. Renal function (serum creatinine, serum blood urea nitrogen, and urinary creatinine clearance) should be monitored.

A nurse is caring for a patient infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Which finding would most concern the nurse? a. High level of macrophages b. Low neutrophil count c.Low red blood cell (RBC) count d.Very low helper T lymphocyte count

d.Very low helper T lymphocyte count

A patient asks the nurse to explain how antibodies protect the body against bacterial diseases. Which statement is an accurate response by the nurse? A."Antibodies that destroy bacteria are part of the body's natural immunity. No prior exposure to the bacteria is needed for the body to respond." B."Antibodies attach to the antigens (or large molecules) on the bacteria surface, creating a way for white blood cells to attach and destroy the bacteria." C."Antibodies are large molecules present on the surface of bacteria. White blood cells are able to neutralize these antibodies and destroy the bacteria." D."Most antibodies that protect against bacteria are called immunoglobulin A. These antibodies are found on the surface of mature B cells."

B."Antibodies attach to the antigens (or large molecules) on the bacteria surface, creating a way for white blood cells to attach and destroy the bacteria." because: Opsonization is coating bacteria with antibodies. This process helps macrophages and neutrophils grab on to bacteria and facilitate phagocytosis. Most antibodies that act as opsonins are immunoglobulin G.

A patient with systemic lupus erythematosus is prescribed prednisone. It is most important for the nurse to monitor the patient for what? A. Hypotension B. Elevated potassium levels C. Neck and back pain D. Hypoglycemia

C. Neck and back pain because: Neck and back pain from a vertebral compression fracture may occur because of the development of osteoporosis as a result of glucocorticoid therapy. Other possible adverse effects of prednisone include hypertension, hypokalemia, and hyperglycemia.

The nurse knows that the production of memory T and B cells will do what? A.Slow the immune response. B.Augment the release of specific cytokines. C.Increase the intensity of the immune response . D.Provide the code for major histocompatibility complexes

C.Increase the intensity of the immune response

A patient receives an organ transplant. Which component of the immune system will recognize self from nonself (the transplanted organ) in this patient? A.Helper T cells (CD4 cells) B.Complement system C.Major histocompatibility complex molecules D.Monokines

C.Major histocompatibility complex molecules because: The sequence of amino acids in MHC molecules produced by one individual differs from the sequence of amino acids in MHC molecules produced by everyone else. MHC molecules from one individual are recognized as foreign (nonself) by the immune systems.

After receiving an allograft liver transplant, a patient is prescribed cyclosporine [Sandimmune] oral solution. What is the most critical component of patient teaching that the nurse should stress? A.The medication will help prevent transplant rejection. B.The oral solution can be mixed with orange juice. C.The medication will be taken every day for life. D.The medication causes reversible increase of hair growth.

C.The medication will be taken every day for life. because: Allograft recipients must take immunosuppressants for life to prevent transplant rejection. The other concepts are important to teach the patient but are not as high a priority.

When caring for a 21-year-old female patient, post kidney transplantation, who is taking cyclosporine [Sandimmune] and repaglinide [Prandin], what should the nurse do? A.Administer the medication with grapefruit juice. B.Monitor the patient for hyperglycemia. C.Encourage the patient to take an oral contraceptive. D.Assess the patient for signs and symptoms of infection

D.Assess the patient for signs and symptoms of infection because: Cyclosporine increases the risk of infections, which develop in 74% of those treated. Activation of latent infection with the BK virus can result in kidney damage, primarily in kidney recipients. Patients should be warned about early signs of infection (fever, sore throat) and instructed to report them immediately. Grapefruit juice should be avoided. Grapefruit juice alters the metabolism of cyclosporine, resulting in elevated serum levels of the drug. Cyclosporine can increase levels of repaglinide [Prandin], a drug for diabetes, and can thereby cause hypoglycemia. The blood glucose level should be monitored closely.•Patients taking cyclosporine should be advised to use a mechanical form of contraception (condom, diaphragm) rather than oral contraceptives.

A patient is admitted to the unit for treatment for an infection. The patient receives IV amikacin [Amikin] twice a day. When planning for obtaining a peak aminoglycoside level, when should the nurse see that the blood is drawn? a. 30 minutes after the IV infusion is complete b. 1 hour after the IV infusion is complete c. 1 hour before administration of the IV infusion d. A peak level is not indicated with twice-daily dosing.

a. 30 minutes after the IV infusion is complete

A patient will be discharged home to complete treatment with intravenous cefotetan with the assistance of a home nurse. The home care nurse will include which instruction when teaching the patient about this drug treatment? a. Abstain from alcohol consumption during therapy. b. Avoid dairy products while taking this drug. c. Take an antihistamine if a rash occurs. d. Use nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), not acetaminophen, for pain.

a. Abstain from alcohol consumption during therapy.

A patient who is taking gentamicin and a cephalosporin for a postoperative infection requests medication for mild postsurgical pain. The nurse will expect to administer which of the following medications? a. Acetaminophen b. Aspirin c. Ibuprofen d. Morphine

a. Acetaminophen

A patient is diagnosed with an infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus, and the prescriber orders intravenous gentamicin and penicillin (PCN). Both drugs will be given twice daily. What will the nurse do? a. Administer gentamicin, flush the line, and then give the penicillin. b. Give the gentamicin intravenously and the penicillin intramuscularly. c. Infuse the gentamicin and the penicillin together to prevent fluid overload. d. Request an order to change the penicillin to vancomycin.

a. Administer gentamicin, flush the line, and then give the penicillin.

A nurse transcribes a new prescription for potassium penicillin G given intravenously (IV) every 8 hours and gentamicin given IV every 12 hours. Which is the best schedule for administering these drugs? a. Give the penicillin at 0800, 1600, and 2400; give the gentamicin [Garamycin] at 1800 and 0600. b. Give the penicillin at 0800, 1600, and 2400; give the gentamicin [Garamycin] at 1200 and 2400. c. Give the penicillin at 0600, 1400, and 2200; give the gentamicin [Garamycin] at 0600 and 1800. d. Give the penicillin every 8 hours; give the gentamicin [Garamycin] simultaneously with two of the penicillin doses.

a. Give the penicillin at 0800, 1600, and 2400; give the gentamicin [Garamycin] at 1800 and 0600.

A nurse is providing education about tetracycline [Sumycin]. Which statement by the patient best demonstrates understanding of the administration of this medication? a. I should not take this medication with milk or other dairy products. b. I should not worry if I experience an acnelike rash with this medication. c. I should take an antacid, such as Tums, if I experience gastrointestinal distress. d. I should take this antibiotic with a calcium supplement to improve absorption.

a. I should not take this medication with milk or other dairy products.

A pregnant adolescent patient asks the nurse whether she should continue to take her prescription for tetracycline [Sumycin] to clear up her acne. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. Tetracycline can be harmful to the baby's teeth and should be avoided. b. Tetracycline is safe to take during pregnancy. c. Tetracycline may cause allergic reactions in pregnant women. d. Tetracycline will prevent asymptomatic urinary tract infections.

a. Tetracycline can be harmful to the baby's teeth and should be avoided.

A 20-year-old female patient has suprapubic discomfort, pyuria, dysuria, and bacteriuria greater than 100,000/mL of urine. Which are the most likely diagnosis and treatment? a. Uncomplicated lower urinary tract infection treatable with short-course therapy b. Complicated lower urinary tract infection treatable with single-dose therapy c. Uncomplicated upper urinary tract infection requiring 14 days of oral antibiotics d. Complicated upper urinary tract infection requiring parenteral antibiotics

a. Uncomplicated lower urinary tract infection treatable with short-course therapy

A patient who is receiving intravenous ciprofloxacin for pneumonia develops diarrhea. A stool culture is positive for Clostridium difficile. The nurse will expect the provider to: a. add metronidazole [Flagyl]. b. increase the dose of ciprofloxacin. c. restrict dairy products. d. switch to gemifloxacin.

a. add metronidazole [Flagyl].

A patient with high-risk factors for tuberculosis will begin therapy for latent TB with isoniazid and rifampin. The nurse learns that this patient takes oral contraceptives. The nurse will counsel this patient to discuss ____ with her provider. a. another birth control method b. reducing the rifampin dose c. reducing the isoniazid dose d. increasing the oral contraceptive dose

a. another birth control method

A patient newly diagnosed with tuberculosis asks the nurse why oral medications must be given in the clinic. The nurse will tell the patient that medications are given in the clinic so that: a. clinic staff can observe adherence to drug regimens. b. nurses can monitor for drug toxicities. c. providers can adjust doses as needed. d. the staff can ensure that the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) regulations are met.

a. clinic staff can observe adherence to drug regimens.

A patient who has been receiving intravenous gentamicin for several days reports having had a headache for 2 days. The nurse will request an order to: a. discontinue the gentamicin. b. obtain a gentamicin trough before the next dose is given. c. give an analgesic to control headache discomfort. d. obtain renal function tests to evaluate for potential nephrotoxicity.

a. discontinue the gentamicin.

A patient will be discharged from the hospital with a prescription for TMP/SMZ [Bactrim]. When providing teaching for this patient, the nurse will tell the patient that it will be important to: a. drink 8 to 10 glasses of water each day. b. eat foods that are high in potassium. c. take the medication with food. d. take folic acid supplements.

a. drink 8 to 10 glasses of water each day.

A patient taking a glucocorticoid for arthritis reports feeling bloated. The nurse notes edema of the patient's hands and feet. Which action by the nurse is correct? a. Ask the patient about sodium intake. b. Obtain a blood glucose level. c. Suggest the patient limit potassium intake. d. Tell the patient to stop taking the drug.

a. Ask the patient about sodium intake.

A nurse is teaching a nursing student what is meant by generations of cephalosporins. Which statement by the student indicates understanding of the teaching? a. Cephalosporins are assigned to generations based on their relative costs to administer. b. Cephalosporins have increased activity against gram-negative bacteria with each generation. c. First-generation cephalosporins have better penetration of the cerebrospinal fluid. d. Later generations of cephalosporins have lower resistance to destruction by beta-lactamases.

b. Cephalosporins have increased activity against gram-negative bacteria with each generation.

A patient is taking erythromycin ethylsuccinate for a chlamydial infection and develops vaginal candidiasis. The prescriber orders ketoconazole to treat the superinfection. What will the nurse do? a. Administer the erythromycin and the ketoconazole as ordered. b. Contact the provider to discuss changing to a different antifungal medication. c. Contact the provider to discuss increasing the dose of erythromycin. d. Contact the provider to suggest using erythromycin stearate.

b. Contact the provider to discuss changing to a different antifungal medication.

A patient receiving a cephalosporin develops a secondary intestinal infection caused by Clostridium difficile. What is an appropriate treatment for this patient? a. Adding an antibiotic, such as vancomycin, to the patient's regimen b. Discontinuing the cephalosporin and beginning fidaxomicin c. Discontinuing all antibiotics and providing fluid replacement d. Increasing the dose of the cephalosporin and providing isolation measures

b. Discontinuing the cephalosporin and beginning fidaxomicin

A patient will receive oral ciprofloxacin [Cipro] to treat a urinary tract infection. The nurse provides teaching for this patient. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. I may have abdominal pain and nausea, but these are usually mild. b. I should take this medication with food or milk to improve absorption. c. I should stop taking the medication immediately if I experience heel pain. d. I will need to use sunscreen every time I go outdoors.

b. I should take this medication with food or milk to improve absorption.

A woman complains of burning on urination and increased frequency. The patient has a history of frequent urinary tract infections (UTIs) and is going out of town in 2 days. To treat the infection quickly, the nurse would expect the healthcare provider to order: a. aztreonam [Azactam]. b. fosfomycin [Monurol]. c. trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole [Bactrim]. d. vancomycin [Vancocin].

b. fosfomycin [Monurol].

A nurse is performing a physical assessment on a patient with tuberculosis who takes rifampin [Rifadin]. What would be an expected finding? a. Crystalluria b. Myopathy c. Peripheral neuropathy d. Red-orange-tinged urine

d. Red-orange-tinged urine

An older adult patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) develops bronchitis. The patient has a temperature of 39.5°C. The nurse will expect the provider to: a. obtain a sputum culture and wait for the results before prescribing an antibiotic. b. order empiric antibiotics while waiting for sputum culture results. c. treat symptomatically, because antibiotics are usually ineffective against bronchitis. d. treat the patient with more than one antibiotic without obtaining cultures.

b. order empiric antibiotics while waiting for sputum culture results.

A patient who is taking azathioprine [Imuran] to prevent rejection of a renal transplant develops gout and the provider orders allopurinol. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss: a. decreasing the allopurinol dose. b. decreasing the azathioprine dose. c. increasing the allopurinol dose. d. increasing the azathioprine dose.

b. decreasing the azathioprine dose.

A patient with second-degree burns is treated with silver sulfadiazine [Silvadene]. A nursing student asks the nurse about the differences between silver sulfadiazine and mafenide [Sulfamylon], because the two are similar products, and both contain sulfonamides. What does the nurse tell the student about silver sulfadiazine? a. It causes increased pain when the medication is applied. b. It has a broader spectrum of antimicrobial sensitivity. c. It has antibacterial effects related to release of free silver. d. It suppresses renal excretion of acid, causing acidosis.

c. It has antibacterial effects related to release of free silver.

A nurse is caring for a patient who takes an ACE inhibitor and an ARB medication who will begin taking TMP/SMZ to treat a urinary tract infection. Which serum electrolyte will the nurse expect to monitor closely? a. Calcium b. Chloride c. Potassium d. Sodium

c. Potassium

A patient has an infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. The prescriber has ordered dicloxacillin PO. What will the nurse do? a. Administer the medication as ordered. b. Contact the provider to suggest giving the drug IV. c. Question the need for a penicillinase-resistant penicillin. d. Suggest ordering vancomycin to treat this infection.

c. Question the need for a penicillinase-resistant penicillin.

A patient is about to receive penicillin G for an infection that is highly sensitive to this drug. While obtaining the patient's medication history, the nurse learns that the patient experienced a rash when given amoxicillin [Amoxil] as a child 20 years earlier. What will the nurse do? a. Ask the provider to order a cephalosporin. b. Reassure the patient that allergic responses diminish over time. c. Request an order for a skin test to assess the current risk. d. Suggest using a desensitization schedule to administer the drug.

c. Request an order for a skin test to assess the current risk.

A patient who is taking immunosuppressant medications develops a urinary tract infection. The causative organism is sensitive to sulfonamides and to another, more expensive antibiotic. The prescriber orders the more expensive antibiotic. The nursing student assigned to this patient asks the nurse why the more expensive antibiotic is being used. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. Immunosuppressed patients are folate deficient. b. Patients who are immunosuppressed are more likely to develop resistance. c. Sulfonamides are bacteriostatic and depend on host immunity to work. d. Sulfonamides intensify the effects of immunosuppression.

c. Sulfonamides are bacteriostatic and depend on host immunity to work.

A patient who has been taking linezolid [Zyvox] for 6 months develops vision problems. What will the nurse do? a. Reassure the patient that this is a harmless side effect of this drug. b. Tell the patient that blindness is likely to occur with this drug. c. Tell the patient that this symptom is reversible when the drug is discontinued. d. Tell the patient to take tyramine supplements to minimize this effect.

c. Tell the patient that this symptom is reversible when the drug is discontinued.

A patient who breast-feeds her infant asks the nurse about the immunity the infant receives from breast milk. What does the nurse tell the patient about immunity through breast-feeding? a. The immunity protects the infant from hypersensitivity reactions. b. The immunity provides phagocytes to help the infant fight infections. c. The immunity results from the transfer of IgA through the breast milk. d. The immunity protects the infant from respiratory and gastrointestinal (GI) microbes

c. The immunity results from the transfer of IgA through the breast milk.

The nurse has been caring for a patient who has been taking antibiotics for 3 weeks. Upon assessing the patient, the nurse notices the individual has developed oral thrush. What describes the etiology of the thrush? a.Antibiotic resistance b.Community-acquired infection c.Nosocomial infection d.Superinfection

d.Superinfection

A patient recently began receiving clindamycin [Cleocin] to treat an infection. After 8 days of treatment, the patient reports having 10 to 15 watery stools per day. What will the nurse tell this patient? a. The provider may increase the clindamycin dose to treat this infection. b. This is a known side effect of clindamycin, and the patient should consume extra fluids. c. The patient should stop taking the clindamycin now and contact the provider immediately. d. The patient should try taking Lomotil or a bulk laxative to minimize the diarrheal symptoms.

c. The patient should stop taking the clindamycin now and contact the provider immediately.

A 30-year-old male patient reports having two to four urinary tract infections a year. What will the nurse expect to teach this patient? a. Make sure you void after intercourse and drink extra fluids to stay well hydrated. b. We will treat each infection as a separate infection and treat with short-course therapy. c. You will need to take a low dose of medication for 6 months to prevent infections. d. You will need to take antibiotics for 4 to 6 weeks each time you have an infection.

c. You will need to take a low dose of medication for 6 months to prevent infections.

A patient has been taking isoniazid [Nydrazid] for 4 months for latent tuberculosis. The patient reports bilateral tingling and numbness of the hands and feet, as well as feeling clumsy. The nurse expects the provider to: a. discontinue the isoniazid. b. lower the isoniazid dose and add rifampin. c. order pyridoxine 100 mg per day. d. recheck the tuberculin skin test to see whether it worsens.

c. order pyridoxine 100 mg per day.

A patient presents to the emergency department with complaints of chills, severe flank pain, dysuria, and urinary frequency. The patient has a temperature of 102.9°F, a pulse of 92 beats/min, respirations of 24 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 119/58 mm Hg. The nurse would be correct to suspect that the patient shows signs and symptoms of: a. acute cystitis. b. urinary tract infection. c. pyelonephritis. d. prostatitis.

c. pyelonephritis.

A nurse is caring for a patient who is taking sirolimus to prevent transplant rejection. What other medications would the nurse expect the patient to be taking? Select ALL a. Rifampin b. Carbamazepine and phenobarbital c. Glucocorticoids d. Cyclosporine

c. Glucocorticoids d. Cyclosporine

A recent campaign, initiated by the Centers for Disease Control (CDC), to delay the emergence of antibiotic resistance in hospitals, has what as one of its objectives? a. Allowing patients to stop antibiotics when symptoms subside b. Allowing prescribers to develop their own prescribing guidelines c. Increased adherence to prescribed antibiotics d. Increased use of antibiotics among parents of young children

c.Increased adherence to prescribed antibiotics

A young, nonpregnant female patient is experiencing dysuria, urinary urgency and frequency, and suprapubic pain of 3 days' duration. She is afebrile. A urine culture is positive for more than 100,000/mL of urine. The nurse caring for this patient knows that which treatment is most effective? a. A 14-day course of amoxicillin with clavulanic acid [Augmentin] b. A 7-day course of ciprofloxacin [Cipro] c. A single dose of fosfomycin [Monurol] d. A 3-day course of trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole [Bactrim]

d. A 3-day course of trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole [Bactrim]

Which patient with a urinary tract infection will require hospitalization and intravenous antibiotics? a. A 5-year-old child with a fever of 100.5°F, dysuria, and bacteriuria b. A pregnant woman with bacteriuria, suprapubic pain, and fever c. A young man with dysuria, flank pain, and a previous urinary tract infection d. An older adult man with a low-grade fever, flank pain, and an indwelling catheter

d. An older adult man with a low-grade fever, flank pain, and an indwelling catheter

A nurse teaches a patient about sulfonamides. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. I need to drink extra fluids while taking this medication. b. I need to use sunscreen when taking this drug. c. I should call my provider if I develop a rash while taking this drug. d. I should stop taking this drug when my symptoms are gone.

d. I should stop taking this drug when my symptoms are gone.

The nurse is caring for a patient who will begin receiving intravenous ciprofloxacin [Cipro] to treat pyelonephritis. The nurse learns that the patient has a history of myasthenia gravis. Which action by the nurse is correct? a. Administer the ciprofloxacin and monitor the patient for signs of muscle weakness. b. Ask the provider whether the ciprofloxacin can be given orally. c. Request an order for concurrent administration of metronidazole [Flagyl]. d. Suggest that the provider order a different antibiotic for this patient.

d. Suggest that the provider order a different antibiotic for this patient.

A child with otitis media has had three ear infections in the past year. The child has just completed a 10-day course of amoxicillin [Amoxil] with no improvement. The parent asks the nurse why this drug is not working, because it has worked in the past. What will the nurse tell the patient? a. Amoxicillin is too narrow in spectrum. b. The bacteria have developed a three-layer cell envelope. c. The bacteria have developed penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs) that have a low affinity for penicillins. d. The bacteria have synthesized penicillinase.

d. The bacteria have synthesized penicillinase.

A patient who is taking nitrofurantoin calls the nurse to report several side effects. Which side effect of this drug causes the most concern and would require discontinuation of the medication? a. Anorexia, nausea, and vomiting b. Brown-colored urine c. Drowsiness d. Tingling of the fingers

d. Tingling of the fingers

A patient develops CDAD. Which antibiotic is recommended for treating this infection? a. Chloramphenicol b. Clindamycin [Cleocin] c. Linezolid [Zyvox] d. Vancomycin

d. Vancomycin

A patient who has drug-sensitive tuberculosis has completed 2 months of the standard four-drug therapy and asks the nurse how long he will have to take medication. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. As long as you remain symptomatic, you will not have to take more medication. b. The four-drug regimen will continue for 3 more months. c. You will have to take maintenance drugs indefinitely. d. You will need to take only two drugs for the next 4 months.

d. You will need to take only two drugs for the next 4 months.

A nurse is caring for an African American patient who has been admitted to the unit for long-term antibiotic therapy with sulfonamides. The patient develops fever, pallor, and jaundice. The nurse would be correct to suspect that the patient has developed: a. Stevens-Johnson syndrome. b. kernicterus. c. hepatotoxicity. d. hemolytic anemia.

d. hemolytic anemia.3

A pregnant patient is treated with trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMZ) [Bactrim] for a urinary tract infection at 32 weeks' gestation. A week later, the woman delivers her infant prematurely. The nurse will expect to monitor the infant for: a. birth defects. b. hypoglycemia. c. rash. d. kernicterus.

d. kernicterus.

A patient is about to begin treatment with isoniazid. The nurse learns that the patient also takes phenytoin [Dilantin] for seizures. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss: a. increasing the phenytoin dose. b. reducing the isoniazid dose. c. monitoring isoniazid levels. d. monitoring phenytoin levels.

d. monitoring phenytoin levels.

A nurse preparing to administer intravenous gentamicin to a patient notes that the dose is half the usual dose for an adult. The nurse suspects that this is because this patient has a history of: a. antibiotic resistance. b. interpatient variation. c. liver disease. d. renal disease.

d. renal disease.

A patient who is taking calcium supplements receives a prescription for ciprofloxacin [Cipro] for a urinary tract infection. The nurse will teach this patient to: a. consume extra fluids while taking the ciprofloxacin to prevent hypercalciuria. b. stop taking the calcium supplements while taking the ciprofloxacin. c. take the two medications together to increase the absorption of both. d. take the calcium either 6 hours before or 2 hours after taking the ciprofloxacin.

d. take the calcium either 6 hours before or 2 hours after taking the ciprofloxacin.

The patient's history indicates they are receiving cyclosporine, prednisone, and azathioprine. The nurse will contact the provider to request an alternative if _____ was ordered: a. Amoxicillin b. Penicillin c. APAP d. Azithromycin

d. Azithromycin

A 48h post-op kidney transplant patient begins to have fever and signs and symptoms of kidney failure. The patient is more than likely experiencing which of the following? a. Type I hypersensitivity b. Type III hypersensitivity c. Host-versus-graft disease d. Graft-versus-host disease

d. Graft-versus-host disease

The nurse is caring for a patient on a medical-surgical unit who has a fever of unknown origin. The prescriber has ordered a broad-spectrum antibiotic. Which intervention is the priority? a.Administering the antibiotic immediately b.Administering antipyretics as soon as possible c.Delaying administration of the antibiotic until the culture results are available d.Obtaining all cultures before the antibiotic is administered

d.Obtaining all cultures before the antibiotic is administered