Patho: Review Exam 3

Lakukan tugas rumah & ujian kamu dengan baik sekarang menggunakan Quizwiz!

Which complication is associated with prostatic hyperplasia? A. Urine retention B. Testicular cancer C. Scrotal edema D. Hypospadias

A. Urine retention

The nurse is teaching a community class about early screening for malignant melanoma. The nurse should be concerned with which questions/concerns raised by audience members? A. "I have noticed that the mole on my back is changing shape and has developed an irregular border." B. "My moles are so tiny, I can hardly see them without my glasses on." C. "My mole has stayed the same size and color for the past 40 years." D. "I have a mole on my back that looks like the perfect circle."

A. "I have noticed that the mole on my back is changing shape and has developed an irregular border." ABCD rule has been developed to aid in early diagnosis and timely treatment of malignant melanoma. The ABCD acronym stands for asymmetry, border irregularity, color variegation, and diameter greater than 6 mm (1/4 inch or pencil eraser size). People should be taught to watch for these changes in existing nevi or the development of new nevi, as well as other alterations such as bleeding or itching. Because of the existence of small-diameter melanomas (i.e., <6 mm in diameter), it has been suggested that people routinely screen their skin for all possible manifestations of skin cancer.

A client is diagnosed with hyperthyroidism and is exhibiting weight loss, diarrhea, and tachycardia. What does the nurse understand that these clinical manifestations are related to? A. A hypermetabolic state B. A decrease in sympathetic nervous system activity C. A decrease in the level of glucose D. A decrease in oxygen consumption

A. A hypermetabolic state

The nurse is assessing a client with thyrotoxicosis and the nurse is explaining how the thyroid gland is stimulated to release thyroid hormones. The nurse should describe what process? A. Action of releasing hormones from hypothalamus B. Steady-state continuous release C. Direct neural stimulation D. Homeostatic receptors on surface of gland

A. Action of releasing hormones from hypothalamus

Most common uncomplicated urinary tract infections are caused by ____ that enter through the urethra. A. Escherichia coli B. Pseudomonas C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Group B Streptococcus

A. Escherichia coli

A 25-year-old female client exhibits exophthalmos of both eyes. The health care provider recognizes this as a manifestation of: A. Graves disease B. Hashimoto thyroiditis C. Acquired hypothyroidism D. Myxedema

A. Graves disease

Select the most common symptoms of diabetes. Select all that apply. A. Polyphagia B. Polyhydramnios C. Polydipsia D. Polycythemia E. Polyuria

A. Polyphagia, C. Polydipsia, E. Polyuria

The nurse planning a sun safety community education class should include the information that the increased melanin produced by dark-colored skin decreases the risk for: A. Skin cancer B. Pruritis C. Lichenification D. Acne vulgaris

A. Skin cancer

A 34-year-old woman presents with an abrupt onset of shaking chills, moderate to high fever, and a constant ache in her lower back. She is also experiencing dysuria, urinary frequency, and a feeling of urgency. Her partner states that she has been very tired the last few days and that she looked like she may have the flu. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute renal failure B. Acute pyelonephritis C. Renal cell carcinoma D. Renal calculi

B. Acute pyelonephritis

What disease results from the degeneration of the dopamine nigrostriatal system of the basal ganglia? A. Guillain-Barré syndrome B. Parkinson disease C. Huntington disease D. myasthenia gravis

B. Parkinson disease The aminoglycoside antibiotics (e.g., gentamicin) may produce a clinical disturbance similar to botulism by preventing the release of acetylcholine from nerve endings. These drugs are particularly dangerous in persons with preexisting disturbances of neuromuscular transmission, such as myasthenia gravis. The other answers are incorrect.

The nurse is providing client education to a client newly diagnosed with Parkinson disease. The nurse most accurately describes the disease progression as: A. Parkinson's has no known effective treatment. B. Parkinson's is a chronic condition and treatment aims to manage symptoms. C. Parkinson's disease, while chronic, will likely improve over time. D. Parkinson's is an acute disorder that can be surgically corrected.

B. Parkinson's is a chronic condition and treatment aims to manage symptoms.

What are the hallmark signs of diabetes mellitus? A. Polyuria, polyphagia, and polycythemia B. Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia C. Polyuria, polydipsia, and pheochromocytoma D. Polycythemia, polydipsia, and pheochromocytoma

B. Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia

The nurse is caring for a client who states that he is suddenly having severe pain at a leg fracture site. The nurse notes increased swelling in the limb and difficulty palpating a pulse. The nurse suspects that the client may have: A. Fracture blisters B. Reflex sympathetic dystrophy C. Compartment syndrome D. Hematogenous osteomyelitis

C. Compartment syndrome The hallmark symptom of acute compartment syndrome is severe pain out of proportion to the original injury. One of the most important causes of compartment syndrome is bleeding and edema caused by fractures and bone surgery. Edema or swelling may make it difficult to palpate a pulse. -Reflex sympathetic dystrophy, while characterized by pain out of proportion to the injury, does not exhibit decreased pulses. -Fracture blisters are areas of epidermal necrosis with separation of epidermis from the underlying dermis by edema fluid. They are a warning sign of compartment syndrome.- Hematogenous osteomyelitis originates with infectious organisms that reach the bone through the blood stream.

Which assessment is most likely to reveal a potential exacerbation in a 70-year-old client's diagnosis of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)? A. Urine testing for microalbuminuria B. Sperm morphology testing C. Digital rectal examination D. Blood test for white blood cells and differential

C. Digital rectal examination

When teaching the client with gout about the cause of the disease, which cause should the nurse relate? A. Urea, in the form of blood urea nitrogen, causes gout. B. High blood pressure causes gout. C. Increased levels of uric acid in the blood cause gout. D. Retention of sodium can cause gout.

C. Increased levels of uric acid in the blood cause gout.

Restoration of the integrity of myelin sheaths would likely result in a slowing or stopping of the progression of: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) C. Multiple sclerosis (MS) D. Paralysis caused by Clostridium botulinum

C. Multiple sclerosis (MS)

The nurse recognizes that parathyroid hormone (PTH) has what relationship to bone formation? A. PTH blocks bone growth. B. PTH increases phosphate levels. C. PTH is a regulator of calcium and phosphate. D. PTH causes bone breakdown.

C. PTH is a regulator of calcium and phosphate.

Which structure controls the functions of the greatest number of target glands and cells? A. Adrenal cortex B. Pancreas C. Pituitary gland D. Thyroid gland

C. Pituitary gland

A nurse is teaching a client diagnosed with osteoarthritis about the joint capsule. Which statement made by the client indicates that teaching was successful? A. "A moveable joint is called a synarthrosis." B. "The bursae are sac-like structures that sit between the articular cartilage surfaces." C. "The menisci are fibrocartilaginous structures that produce synovial fluid." D. "The synovial fluid in my joint capsule acts as a lubricant and helps the movement of the joint's articulating surfaces."

D. "The synovial fluid in my joint capsule acts as a lubricant and helps the movement of the joint's articulating surfaces."

Acute pyelonephritis is a result of: A. Renal failure B. Chronic reflux C. Viral infection D. Bacterial infection

D. Bacterial infection

Pressure injuries can occur quickly in older adult clients and in client who are immobile. What is a method for preventing pressure injuries? A. preventing dehydration B. infrequent changing of incontinent clients C. use of water-based skin moisturizers D. frequent position changes

D. frequent position changes

A nurse at a long term care facility provides care for an 85 year-old man who has had recent transient ischemic attacks (TIAs). Which statement best identifies future complications associated with TIAs? A. TIAs resolve rapidly but may place the client at an increased risk for stroke. B. TIAs are caused by small bleeds that can be a warning sign of an impending stroke. C. TIAs are an accumulation of small deficits that may eventually equal the effects of a full CVA. D. TIAs are a relatively benign sign that necessitate monitoring but not treatment.

A. TIAs resolve rapidly but may place the client at an increased risk for stroke.

A client experiences an increase in thyroid hormone as a result of a thyroid tumor. Which hormonal response demonstrates the negative feedback mechanism? A. Increased follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) B. Decreased thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) C. Decreased adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) D. Increased thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)

B. Decreased thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

The client develops osteomyelitis that has originated from infectious organisms that reach the bone through the bloodstream. This is known as which type of osteomyelitis? A. Chronic B. Hematogenous C. Direct penetration D. Vascular insufficiency

B. Hematogenous

Release and synthesis of anterior pituitary hormones are mainly regulated by which part of the body? A. Thymus gland B. Hypothalamus C. Cell receptors D. Adrenal gland

B. Hypothalamus

Which clinical manifestation would lead the health care provider to diagnose the sunburn as severe? A. Some peeling and itching occur several days after the initial burn. B. There is blistering of the skin and associated fever and chills. C. Skin is red and warm to touch. D. There is a pruritic rash over the sunburned skin area.

B. There is blistering of the skin and associated fever and chills.

A client is admitted to the hospital with second-degree burns over 30% of the body. What is a characteristic of second-degree burns? A. They involve the dermis only. B. They involve the dermis and the epidermis. C. They are dry. D. There is usually no blister formation.

B. They involve the dermis and the epidermis.

The most common cause of ischemic stroke is: A. vasospasms. B. thrombosis. C. arterial vasculitis. D. cryptogenesis.

B. thrombosis.

Which components of the nervous system make up the central nervous system? A. Astrocytes and Schwann cells B. Neurohormones and neurosecretory granules C. Brain and spinal cord D. Dendrites and axons

C. Brain and spinal cord

The client with diabetes mellitus has fatigue, nausea, a fruity odor to the breath, and polyuria. Which should the nurse do first? A. Offer oral care. B. Administer an antiemetic. C. Check blood glucose. D. Provide a glass of water.

C. Check blood glucose.

A client is concerned about the possibility of having bladder cancer after his brother was diagnosed with it 2 years ago. Which assessment data obtained by the nurse would indicate that the client should be screened for this disease? A. Client reports that his urine has a foul smell and it is cloudy. B. Client reports pain when he urinates. C. Client reports that he occasionally has blood in his urine but has no pain with it. D. Client reports diminished stream.

C. Client reports that he occasionally has blood in his urine but has no pain with it.

The nurse is caring for a client with several fractures that have been immobilized. Which assessment finding would be most indicative of a potential complication? A. Peripheral capillary refill 2 seconds B. Pulse 105 bpm, blood pressure 134/86 mm Hg C. Pulses palpable with warm skin D. Deep, severe, unrelenting pain

D. Deep, severe, unrelenting pain

A client suffering a thrombotic stroke is brought into the emergency department by ambulance and the health care team is preparing to administer a synthetic tissue plasminogen activator for which purpose? A. Hemostasis B. Thrombogenesis C. Thrombolysis D. Hemolysis

C. Thrombolysis

The emergency department physician explains to the nurse that the trauma client has a subluxation injury of the shoulder. The nurse understands this injury is a type of: A. Strain B. Fracture C. Sprain D. Dislocation

D. Dislocation

A client is admitted to the emergency department with a muscle strain to the back. What is an appropriate statement for the nurse to make to this client? A. "Hospitalization and bed rest are common treatments for a strain." B. "You need to consent to surgery to treat this condition." C. "A strain will require traction." D. "A strain is a stretching injury. You need to rest your back."

D. "A strain is a stretching injury. You need to rest your back."

Which client may be experiencing the effects of neuropathic pain? A. An older adult woman with a stage III pressure injury B. A man whose pain is caused by gastric cancer C. A girl whose playground accident resulted in an arm fracture D. A man with pain secondary to his poorly controlled diabetes

D. A man with pain secondary to his poorly controlled diabetes

A client has just been diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS). The nurse recognizes that the client's condition is a result of: A. Degenerative changes in the musculoskeletal system B. Circulating antibodies attacking the postsynaptic acetylcholine levels C. Degeneration of the lower cell bodies of the lower motor neurons in the gray matter D. An immune-mediated response that is caused by the demyelinization of the myelin sheath of the white matter of the brain, spinal cord, and optic nerve.

D. An immune-mediated response that is caused by the demyelinization of the myelin sheath of the white matter of the brain, spinal cord, and optic nerve.

While discussing hormonal control of bone formation, one should note that which hormone lowers blood calcium levels and decreases bone resorption? A. Prolactin B. Phosphate C. Vitamin D D. Calcitonin

D. Calcitonin

What term describes an injury to the soft tissue of the body? A. Fracture B. Ligament tear C. Tendon rupture D. Contusion

D. Contusion

A client comes in with a mild sunburn. Which term best describes the sunburn. A. Photosensitivity reaction B. Second-degree burn C. Immune reaction to UV light D. First-degree burn

D. First-degree burn

Which substance provides the majority of the fuel needs of the neurologic system? A. Triglycerides B. Amino acids C. Glycogen D. Glucose

D. Glucose

The nurse is performing an assessment for a client who has hyperthyroidism that is untreated. When obtaining vital signs, what is the expected finding? A. Blood pressure 180/110 mm Hg B. Respiratory rate 14 C. Temperature 96°F (35.5°C) D. Heart rate 110 and bounding

D. Heart rate 110 and bounding

A nurse is assessing a client's risk for developing a hospital-acquired urinary tract infection (UTI) and determines that which of the following places the client at greatest risk? A. Increased sexual activity B. Prostate enlargement C. Impaired bladder emptying D. Indwelling urinary catheter

D. Indwelling urinary catheter

A client sustains a musculoskeletal injury of the wrist. Which manifestation would the nurse expect to accompany the strain? A. False motion and discoloration B. Joint deformity and swelling C. Catching and limited motion D. Pain and stiffness

D. Pain and stiffness

What is the most common sign of bladder cancer? A. Hyperproteinuria B. Hyperphosphaturia C. Severe oliguria D. Painless hematuria

D. Painless hematuria

A nurse is interviewing a light-skinned client to complete a detailed health history and functional health assessment. The client's work environment involves daily exposure to sunlight. Based on this assessment, the nurse determines that the client is at risk for which problem? A. Seborrheic keratosis and acne B. Contact dermatitis and eczema C. Rashes and urticaria D. Skin cancer and wrinkles

D. Skin cancer and wrinkles Because of their skin color, dark-skinned people are better protected against skin cancer, premature wrinkling, and aging of the skin that occurs with sun exposure. Some skin disorders common to people of African, Hispanic, or East Indian descent are not commonly found in people of European descent. Similarly, some skin disorders, such as skin cancers, affect light-skinned people more commonly than dark-skinned people.

The nurse is caring for a client with significant benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) and hydronephrosis who is fearful of having corrective surgery. Which information is important for the nurse to convey? A. If not treated promptly, this condition may become cancerous. B. Herbal preparations can be helpful and are free from side effects. C. Medications which shrink prostate tissue will begin to work in a week or so. D. The obstruction is causing urine to flow backward and cause kidney dysfunction.

D. The obstruction is causing urine to flow backward and cause kidney dysfunction.


Set pelajaran terkait

Chapter 37: Thyroid and Parathyroid Agents

View Set

Chapter 14: Assessing Skin, Hair, and Nails

View Set

Chapter 23: The French Revolution

View Set

Practice Questions Respiratory, Cardiac and Hematological exam 2

View Set

Ford and Carter Presidencies, Reagan Era and End of the Cold War, Foreign Policy Challenges of the 90s, Domestic and International Terrorism, Contemporary Domestic Issues

View Set