Pediatrics_Infectious and Communicable Diseases_final

The mother of a 6-year-old child arrives at a clinic because the child has been experiencing itchy, red, and swollen eyes. The nurse notes a discharge from the eyes and sends a culture to the laboratory for analysis. Chlamydial conjunctivitis is diagnosed. On the basis of this diagnosis, the nurse determines that which requires further investigation? 1. Possible trauma 2. Possible sexual abuse 3. Presence of an allergy 4. Presence of a respiratory infection

Rationale:3 Conjunctivitis is an inflammation of the conjunctiva. A diagnosis of chlamydial conjunctivitis in a child who is not sexually active should signal the health care provider to assess the child for possible sexual abuse. Trauma, allergy, and infection can cause conjunctivitis, but the causative organism is not likely to be Chlamydia.

The nurse caring for a child diagnosed with rubeola (measles) notes that the pediatrician has documented the presence of Koplik's spots. On the basis of this documentation, which observation is expected? 1. Pinpoint petechiae noted on both legs 2. Whitish vesicles located across the chest 3. Petechiae spots that are reddish and pinpoint on the soft palate 4. Small, blue-white spots with a red base found on the buccal mucosa

Rationale: 4 In rubeola (measles), Koplik's spots appear approximately 2 days before the appearance of the rash. These are small, blue-white spots with a red base that are found on the buccal mucosa. The spots last approximately 3 days, after which time they slough off. Based on this information, the remaining options are all incorrect.

An infant receives a diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis (DTaP) immunization at a well-baby clinic. The parent returns home and calls the clinic to report that the infant has developed swelling and redness at the site of injection. Which intervention should the nurse suggest to the parent? 1. Monitor the infant for a fever. 2. Bring the infant back to the clinic. 3. Apply a hot pack to the injection site. 4. Apply a cold pack to the injection site.

Rationale:4 On occasion, tenderness, redness, or swelling may occur at the site of the DTaP injection. This can be relieved with cold packs for the first 24 hours, followed by warm or cold compresses if the inflammation persists. Bringing the infant back to the clinic is unnecessary. Option 1 may be an appropriate intervention but is not specific to the subject of the question, a localized reaction at the injection site. Hot packs are not applied and can be harmful by causing burning of the skin.

The nurse is caring for a child with a diagnosis of roseola. The nurse provides instructions to the mother regarding prevention of the transmission to siblings and other household members. Which instruction should the nurse provide? 1. Isolate the child from others for 2 weeks because the virus is transmitted by breathing and coughing. 2. Wash sheets and towels used by the child separately in bleach to prevent spread of the infection to others. 3. Have the child use a separate bathroom for urination and bowel movements to prevent the spread of infection. 4. Avoid allowing the children to share drinking glasses or eating utensils because the disease is transmitted through saliva.

Rationale:4 Roseola is transmitted via saliva, so others should not share drinking glasses or eating utensils. The remaining options are not accurate instructions regarding the prevention of the transmission of roseola.

The nurse is providing anticipatory guidance to the mother of a 10-month-old child. The mother asks how soon her daughter will be able to receive the chickenpox (varicella) vaccine. What is the best nursing response? 1. "She will receive it today." 2. "She can receive it when she is 12 months old." 3. "She can receive it any time before her first birthday." 4. "She will receive it before entry into kindergarten, at 4 to 6 years of age."

Rationale:2 The varicella vaccination is recommended to be administered when the child is between 12 and 18 months of age; therefore, the remaining options are incorrect.

A mother brings her 6-year-old child to the clinic because the child has developed a rash on the trunk and scalp. The mother reports that the child has had a low-grade fever, has not felt like eating, and has been tired. The child is diagnosed with chickenpox. The mother inquires about the communicable period associated with chickenpox, and the nurse bases the response on which statement? 1. The communicable period is unknown. 2. The communicable period ranges from 2 weeks or less to 4 weeks. 3. The communicable period is 10 days before the onset of symptoms to 15 days after the rash appears. 4. The communicable period is 1 to 2 days before the onset of the rash to 6 days, when crusts have formed.

Rationale:4 Chickenpox is transmitted via direct contact, droplet (airborne) spread, and contaminated objects. The communicable period for chickenpox is 1 to 2 days before the onset of the rash to 6 days after the first crop of vesicles, when crusts have formed. In roseola, the communicable period is unknown. A communicable period ranging from 2 weeks or less to 4 weeks describes diphtheria. A communicable period of 10 to 15 days describes rubella.

The nurse is caring for a child diagnosed with erythemia infectiosum (fifth disease). Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to note in the child? 1. An intense fiery red edematous rash on the cheeks 2. Pinkish-rose maculopapular rash on the face, neck, and scalp 3. Reddish and pinpoint petechiae spots found on the soft palate 4. Small bluish-white spots with a red base found on the buccal mucosa

Rationale:1 Fifth disease is characterized by the presence of an intense fiery red edematous rash on the cheeks, which gives an appearance that the child has been slapped. Options 2 and 3 are manifestations related to rubella (German measles). Koplik's spots (option 4) are found in rubeola (measles).

The nurse is caring for a hospitalized child with a diagnosis of measles (rubeola). In preparing to care for the child, which supplies should the nurse bring to the child's room to prevent transmission of the virus? 1. Mask and gloves 2. Gown and gloves 3. Goggles and gloves 4. Gown, gloves, and goggles

Rationale:1 Rubeola is transmitted via airborne particles or direct contact with infectious droplets. Respiratory isolation is required, and a mask should be worn by those in contact with the child. Gloves are also worn as necessary to prevent contact with infectious droplets. Gowns and goggles are not specifically indicated for care of the child with rubeola. Any articles that are contaminated should be bagged and labeled.

A child diagnosed with scarlet fever is being cared for at home. The home health nurse performs an assessment on the child and checks for which clinical manifestations of this disease? Select all that apply. 1. Pastia's sign 2. Koplik's spots 3. White strawberry tongue 4. Edematous and beefy-red pharynx 5. Petechial red, pinpoint spots on the soft palate 6. Small red spots with a bluish-white center and a red base located on the buccal mucosa

Rationale:1,3,4 Pastia's sign describes a rash seen in scarlet fever that will blanch with pressure except in areas of deep creases and the folds of joints. The tongue initially is coated with a white furry covering, with red projecting papillae (white strawberry tongue). By the fourth to fifth day, the white strawberry tongue sloughs off, leaving a red swollen tongue (strawberry tongue). The pharynx is edematous and beefy red. Koplik's spots are associated with rubeola (measles). These are small red spots with a bluish-white center and a red base located on the buccal mucosa. Petechial red, pinpoint spots occurring on the soft palate are characteristic of rubella (German measles).

A child who is 4 years old is seen for a well-child checkup. He has been regularly receiving immunizations. Which immunizations should the child receive at this visit? Select all that apply. 1. Varicella vaccine 2. Rotavirus vaccine 3. Inactivated polio vaccine 4. Meningococcal conjugate vaccine 5. Haemophilus influenzae type B vaccine 6. Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine

Rationale:1,3,6 At age 4, the child will receive the diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis vaccine, inactivated polio vaccine, MMR, and varicella vaccine.

A child is scheduled to receive immunizations. The child's mother reports to the nurse that the child has been receiving long-term immunosuppressive therapy. The nurse prepares the scheduled immunizations knowing that which vaccine is contraindicated? 1. Hepatitis B 2. MMR (measles, mumps, and rubella) 3. Hib (Haemophilus influenzae type b) 4. DTaP (diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis)

Rationale:2 Known altered immunodeficiency from long-term immunosuppressive therapy is a contraindication to MMR immunization because a live vaccine is given. The vaccines identified in the remaining options are not live vaccines and can be administered.

A child with rubeola (measles) is being admitted to the hospital. In preparing for the admission of the child, the nurse should plan to place the child on which precautions? 1. Enteric 2. Airborne 3. Protective 4. Neutropenic

Rationale:2 Rubeola is transmitted via airborne particles or direct contact with infectious droplets. Airborne droplet precautions are required, and persons in contact with the child should wear masks. The child is placed in a private room if hospitalized, and the hospital room door remains closed. Gowns and gloves are unnecessary, but standard precautions are used. Articles that are contaminated should be bagged and labeled. Special enteric precautions and protective (neutropenic) isolation are not indicated in rubeola.

A child is sent to the school nurse by the teacher. On assessment of the child, the nurse notes the presence of a rash. The nurse suspects that the child has erythema infectiosum (fifth disease) based on which assessment finding? 1. A discrete rose-pink maculopapular rash on the trunk 2. Erythema on the face, giving a "slapped cheeks" appearance 3. A highly pruritic, profuse macule-to-papule rash on the trunk 4. A discrete pinkish-red maculopapular rash on the arms and trunk

Rationale:2 The classic rash of erythema infectiosum, or fifth disease, affects the face. The discrete rose-pink maculopapular rash is the rash of exanthema subitum (roseola). The highly pruritic, profuse macule-to-papule rash is the rash of varicella (chickenpox). The discrete pinkish-red maculopapular rash is the rash of rubella (German measles).

An infant is brought to the clinic for his third diphtheria, tetanus toxoid, and acellular pertussis vaccination (DTaP). The mother reports that the infant developed a 99.4º F (37.4º C) temperature after the last DTaP. Which action is most appropriate? 1. Withhold the vaccination. 2. Administer the vaccination. 3. Draw blood for a pertussis titer. 4. Notify the primary health care provider.

Rationale:2 The vaccination should be given. Mild fever after the DTaP is not uncommon, and the vaccination would not be withheld for that reason. A vaccination is withheld for true contraindications such as a previous anaphylactic reaction or sensitivity to a product in the vaccination. Drawing blood for determination of a pertussis titer would not be indicated. It is not necessary to notify the primary health care provider about this side effect.

A child seen in the clinic is found to have rubeola (measles), and the mother asks the nurse how to care for the child. The nurse should tell the mother to implement which action? 1. Keep the child in a room with dim lights. 2. Give the child warm baths to help prevent itching. 3. Allow the child to play outdoors because sunlight will help the rash. 4. Take the child's temperature every 4 hours and administer 1 baby aspirin for fever.

Rationale:1 A nursing consideration in rubeola is eye care. The child usually has photophobia, so the nurse should suggest that the parent keep the child out of brightly lit areas. Warm baths and sunlight will aggravate itching. Additionally, the child needs to rest. Children with viral infections are not to be given aspirin because of the risk of Reye's syndrome.

The clinic nurse is assessing a child who is scheduled to receive a live virus vaccine (immunization). What are the general contraindications associated with receiving a live virus vaccine? Select all that apply. 1. The child has symptoms of a cold. 2. The child had a previous anaphylactic reaction to the vaccine. 3. The mother reports that the child is having intermittent episodes of diarrhea. 4. The mother reports that the child has not had an appetite and has been fussy. 5. The child has a disorder that caused a severely deficient immune system. 6. The mother reports that the child has recently been exposed to an infectious disease.

Rationale:2,5 The general contraindications for receiving live virus vaccines include a previous anaphylactic reaction to a vaccine or a component of a vaccine. In addition, live virus vaccines generally are not administered to individuals with a severely deficient immune system, individuals with a severe sensitivity to gelatin, or pregnant women. A vaccine is administered with caution to an individual with a moderate or severe acute illness, with or without fever. Options 1, 3, 4, and 6 are not contraindications to receiving a vaccine.

The clinic nurse prepares to administer a measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine to a 5-year-old child. The nurse should administer this vaccine by which method? 1. Subcutaneously in the gluteal muscle 2. Intramuscularly in the deltoid muscle 3. Subcutaneously in the outer aspect of the upper arm 4. Intramuscularly in the anterolateral aspect of the thigh

Rationale:3 MMR vaccine is administered subcutaneously in the outer aspect of the upper arm. The gluteal muscle is not recommended for injections. MMR vaccine is not administered by the intramuscular route.

A child is scheduled to receive inactivated poliovirus vaccine (IPV), and the nurse who is preparing to administer the vaccine reviews the child's record. The nurse questions the administration of IPV if which is documented in the child's record? 1. Recent recovery from a cold 2. A history of frequent respiratory infections 3. A history of anaphylactic reaction to neomycin 4. A local reaction at the site of injection of a previous IPV

Rationale:3 IPV contains neomycin. A history of anaphylactic reaction to neomycin is considered a contraindication to IPV. The presence of a minor illness such as the common cold is not a contraindication. In addition, a history of frequent respiratory infections is not a contraindication to receiving a vaccine. A local reaction to an immunization is not a contraindication to receiving a vaccine.

A mother of a child with mumps calls the health care clinic to tell the nurse that the child has been lethargic and vomiting. What instruction should the nurse give to the mother? 1. To continue to monitor the child 2. That lethargy and vomiting are normal with mumps 3. To bring the child to the clinic to be seen by the pediatrician 4. That, as long as there is no fever, there is nothing to be concerned about

Rationale:3 Mumps generally affects the salivary glands, but it can also affect multiple organs. The most common complication is septic meningitis, with the virus being identified in the cerebrospinal fluid. Common signs include nuchal rigidity, lethargy, and vomiting. The child should be seen by the pediatrician.

Several children have contracted rubeola (measles) in a local school, and the school nurse conducts a teaching session for the parents of the schoolchildren. Which statement made by a parent indicates a need for further teaching regarding this communicable disease? 1. "Small blue-white spots with a red base may appear in the mouth." 2. "The rash usually begins on the face and spreads downward toward the feet." 3. "The disease can be spread to others from 10 days before any sign of the disease appears to 15 days after the rash appears." 4. "Respiratory symptoms such as a profuse runny nose, cough, and fever occur before the development of a rash."

Rationale:3 The communicable period for rubeola ranges from 4 days before to 5 days after the rash appears, mainly during the prodromal stage. All other options are accurate descriptions of rubeola, so they would not indicate a need for further teaching. The small blue-white spots found in this communicable disease are called Koplik's spots. The incorrect option describes the incubation period for rubella, not rubeola.

The nurse should expect to administer the first dose of the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine at which age? 1. 2 years 2. 4 years 3. 12 months 4. 22 months

Rationale:3 The first dose of the measles, mumps, and rubella vaccine should be administered at 12 to 15 months of age. A second dose is administered at 4 to 6 years of age.

A child is receiving a series of the hepatitis B vaccine and arrives at the clinic with his parent for the second dose. Before administering the vaccine, the nurse should ask the child and parent about a history of a severe allergy to which substance? 1. Eggs 2. Penicillin 3. Sulfonamides 4. A previous dose of hepatitis B vaccine or component

Rationale:4 A contraindication to receiving the hepatitis B vaccine is a previous anaphylactic reaction to a previous dose of hepatitis B vaccine or to a component (aluminum hydroxide or yeast protein) of the vaccine. An allergy to eggs, penicillin, and sulfonamides is unrelated to the contraindication to receiving this vaccine.

The nursing student is assigned to administer immunizations to children in a clinic. The student should question whether to administer immunizations to a child with which condition? 1. A cold 2. Otitis media 3. Mild diarrhea 4. A severe febrile illness

Rationale:4 A severe febrile illness is a reason to delay immunization but only until the child has recovered from the acute stage of the illness. Minor illness, such as a cold, otitis media, or mild diarrhea, is not a contraindication to immunization.

A parent brings her 4-month-old infant to a well-baby clinic for immunizations. The child is up to date with the immunization schedule. The nurse should prepare to administer which immunizations to this infant? 1. Varicella, hepatitis B vaccine (HepB) 2. Diphtheria, tetanus, acellular pertussis (DTaP); measles, mumps, rubella (MMR); inactivated poliovirus vaccine (IPV) 3. MMR, Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib), DTaP 4. DTaP, Hib, IPV, pneumococcal vaccine (PCV), rotavirus vaccine (RV)

Rationale:4 DTaP, Hib, IPV, PCV, and RV are administered at 4 months of age. DTaP is administered at 2, 4, and 6 months of age; at 15 to 18 months of age; and at 4 to 6 years of age. Hib is administered at 2, 4, and 6 months of age and at 12 to 15 months of age. IPV is administered at 2, 4, and 6 months of age and at 4 to 6 years of age. PCV is administered at 2, 4, and 6 months of age and at 12 to 15 months of age. The first dose of MMR vaccine is administered at 12 to 15 months of age; the second dose is administered at 4 to 6 years of age (if the second dose was not given by 4 to 6 years of age, it should be given at the next visit). The first dose of HepB is administered at birth, the second dose is administered at 1 month of age, and the third dose is administered at 6 months of age. Varicella-zoster vaccine is administered at 12 to 15 months of age and again at 4 to 6 years of age.