Pharm HESI Practice
Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) has been prescribed for a client with hypertension. The client reports hearing that furosemide is more effective and requests a prescription change. How will the nurse respond? - "HCTZ has fewer side effects." - "HCTZ does not cause dizziness." - "HCTZ is only taken when needed." - "HCTZ does not cause dehydration."
"HCTZ had fewer side effects." (Side effects from thiazides generally are minor and rarely result in discontinuation of therapy. Dizziness is a side effect of all diuretics. There is a potential for dehydration with all diuretics. All diuretic medications are taken regularly as directed.)
The nurse provides discharge teaching about ampicillin that is prescribed for a client. The nurse evaluates that the teaching is effective when the client makes which statement? - "I will miss eating grapefruit." - "I must increase my fluid intake." - "I can stop taking this medication any time." - "I should take this medication just after eating."
"I must increase my fluid intake." (The client should increase fluid intake when taking ampicillin to prevent nephrotoxicity; side effects include oliguria, hematuria, proteinuria, and glomerulonephritis. An antibiotic should be continued until the entire prescription is completed; discontinuing before completion lowers its serum level, thereby decreasing its effectiveness. Ampicillin should be taken when the stomach is empty, either 1 to 2 hours before eating or 3 to 4 hours after eating. There are no restrictions on eating grapefruit when taking an antibiotic; this is contraindicated when taking some calcium channel blockers because grapefruit juice increases their serum level.)
A client with tuberculosis asks the nurse why vitamin B 6 (pyridoxine) is given with isoniazid. Which explanation would the nurse provide? - "It will improve your immunologic defenses." - "The tuberculostatic effect of isoniazid is enhanced." - "Isoniazid interferes with the synthesis of this vitamin." - "Destruction of the tuberculosis organisms is accelerated."
"Isoniazid interferes with the synthesis of this vitamin." (Isoniazid often leads to vitamin B 6 (pyridoxine) deficiency because it competes with the vitamin for the same enzyme; this deficiency most often is manifested by peripheral neuritis, which can be controlled by the regular administration of vitamin B 6. Vitamin B 6 does not improve immune status. Pyridoxine does not enhance the effects of isoniazid. Pyridoxine does not destroy organisms.)
Fill in the blank: A client is prescribed 4 mg of hydromorphone intravenously (IV) every 4 hours, as needed. Hydromorphone is supplied at 10 mg/mL. How many milliliters of hydromorphone will the nurse administer per dose? Record your answer using one decimal place and leading zero if applicable.
4 mg
Fill in the blank: An infant weighing 22 lb is prescribed an antibiotic. The prescription reads 10 mg/kg body weight/24 h to be divided into two equal doses and administered every 12 hours. How many milligrams of the antibiotic would the infant receive per dose? Record your answer as a whole number.
50 mg per dose
Fill in the blank: A client who weighs 176 pounds (80 kg) is prescribed 8 mg/kg of cyclosporine each day. How many milligrams will the nurse administer each day? Record your answer using a whole number.
8mg/kg
A primary health care provider prescribes medications to four different clients with vaginal infections. Which client would benefit from clotrimazole? - A client with chlamydia - A client with candidiasis - A client with trichomoniasis - A client with bacterial vaginosis
A client with candidiasis Candidiasis is a vaginal infection caused by a fungus called candida albicans. Antifungal preparations such miconazole and clotrimazole are used to treat candidiasis. Azithromycin is prescribed to clients with chlamydia. Metronidazole and tinidazole are used to treat trichomoniasis. Oral metronidazole is the most effective treatment of bacterial vaginosis.
Which medication is safest to take for pain in the week before a surgical procedure? - Naproxen - Aspirin - Ketorolac - Acetaminophen
Acetaminophen (Acetaminophen is a nonopioid analgesic that inhibits prostaglandins, which serve as mediators for pain; it does not affect platelet function. Naproxen, aspirin, and ketorolac are nonselective nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) that are contraindicated for clients undergoing surgery; nonselective NSAIDs have an inhibitory effect on thromboxane, a strong aggregating agent, and can result in bleeding.)
A client receiving cisplatin therapy developed tumor lysis syndrome (TLS). Which medication would the nurse anticipate administering to this client for treatment of the TLS? - Mesna - Flavoxate - Allopurinol - Aprepitant
Allopurinol (Allopurinol should be administered to this client to promote purine excretion. Cisplatin is a nephrotoxic agent that is used in clients with cancer. TLS is the precipitation of metabolites (purine and potassium) of cell breakdown. Mesna and flavoxate are used to treat hemorrhagic cystitis in clients on chemotherapy; mesna is a protectant whereas flavoxate manages symptoms. Aprepitant is used to prevent nausea and vomiting in a client on the day of chemotherapy.)
A client diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being treated with antacid therapy. When teaching the client about the antacids, which information would the nurse reinforce? - Antacids should be taken 1 hour before meals. - These should be scheduled at 4-hour intervals. - Antacid tablets are just as fast and effective as the liquid form. - Antacids commonly interfere with the absorption of other medications.
Antacids commonly interfere with the absorption of other medications. Antacids interfere with absorption of medications such as anticholinergics, barbiturates, tetracycline, and digoxin. Liquid antacids are faster acting and more effective than antacid tablets. Antacids should be taken 1 or 2 hours after meals and at bedtime. Antacid tablets may be taken more frequently than every 4 hours.
Which medications increase the risk for upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. - Aspirin - Ibuprofen - Ciprofloxacin - Acetaminophen - Methylprednisolone
Aspirin, Ibuprofen, Methylprednisolone (Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), including acetylsalicylic acid and ibuprofen, and corticosteroids such as methylprednisolone are known causes of medication-induced gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding by causing irritation and erosion of the gastric mucosal barrier. Acetaminophen is a safe alternative to NSAIDs to reduce the risk of GI bleeding. Ciprofloxacin, an antibiotic, has not been associated with GI bleeding.)
A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of heart failure and acute pulmonary edema. The health care provider prescribes furosemide 40 mg intravenous (IV) stat to be repeated in 1 hour. Which nursing action will best evaluate the effectiveness of the furosemide in managing the client's condition? - Performing daily weights - Auscultating breath sounds - Monitoring intake and output - Assessing for dependent edema
Auscultating breath sounds (Maintaining adequate gas exchange and minimizing hypoxia with pulmonary edema are critical; therefore assessing the effectiveness of furosemide therapy as it relates to the respiratory system is most important. Furosemide inhibits the reabsorption of sodium and chloride from the loop of Henle and distal renal tubule, causing diuresis; as diuresis occurs fluid moves out of the vascular compartment, thereby reducing pulmonary edema and the bilateral crackles. Although a liter of fluid weighs approximately 2.2 pounds (1 kg) and weight loss will reflect the amount of fluid lost, it will take time before a change in weight can be measured. Although identifying a greater output versus intake indicates the effectiveness of furosemide, it is the client's pulmonary status that is most important with acute pulmonary edema. Although the lessening of a client's dependent edema reflects effectiveness of furosemide therapy, it is the client's improving pulmonary status that is the best indicator of how furosemide improves the client's condition.)
An adolescent with leukemia is to be given a chemotherapeutic agent. Which time is best for the nurse to administer the prescribed antiemetic? - As nausea occurs - An hour before meals - Just before each meal is eaten - Before each dose of chemotherapy
Before each dose of chemotherapy The purpose of an antiemetic before chemotherapy is to prevent the child from experiencing nausea during and after the administration of the medication. Waiting until nausea has occurred is too late; the medication should be given before nausea occurs. The meals are not causing the nausea; the nausea is caused by the chemotherapy, and if nausea is not prevented, the child will not eat.
A client is taking an estrogen-progestin oral contraceptive. Which adverse effects from the contraceptive would the nurse teach the client to report to the primary health care provider? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. - Dizziness - Chest pain - Bloating - Nausea - Calf tenderness - Breast tenderness
Bloating, Nausea, Breast tenderness Early side effects of oral contraceptives include bloating, nausea, and breast tenderness. Although they may be bothersome enough to lead to discontinuation of the contraceptive, these side effects usually subside in several months. Dizziness is not a common side effect and should be reported to the provider. Contraceptives have been associated with thrombophlebitis; clinical manifestations of thrombophlebitis include calf tenderness and redness and heat over the affected area. If the clot travels, it could present as a pulmonary embolism, so chest pain should be reported as well.
A client receives a cardiac glycoside, a diuretic, an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, and a vasodilator. The client's apical pulse rate is 44 beats/minute. The nurse concludes that the decreased heart rate is caused by which medication? Diuretic Vasodilator ACE inhibitor Cardiac glycoside
Cardiac glycoside A cardiac glycoside such as digoxin decreases the conduction speed within the myocardium and slows the heart rate. The primary effect of a diuretic is on the kidneys, not the heart; it may reduce the blood pressure, not the heart rate. A vasodilator can cause tachycardia, not bradycardia, which is an adverse effect. ACE inhibitors act on the renin-angiotensin system and are not associated with decreased heart rates.
How would the nurse determine if a client is experiencing the therapeutic effect of Valsartan? - Check a lipid profile. - Assess an apical pulse. - Measure urinary output. - Check the blood pressure.
Check Blood Pressure (Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs) are antihypertensive medications that lower the blood pressure. ARBs do not directly affect lipid profile, apical pulse, or urinary output.)
Which outcome does Allopurinol produce to prevent acute gouty attacks? - Promotes uric acid excretion - Decreases synovial swelling - Decreases uric acid production - Prevents crystallization of uric acid
Decreases Uric Acid Production (Allopurinol interferes with the final steps in uric acid formation by inhibiting the production of xanthine oxidase. This medication does not promote uric acid excretion. It does not affect bone density. Allopurinol has no effect on swelling of the synovial membranes. This medication prevents the synthesis of uric acid, not its crystallization.)
Which factor would the nurse assess in a client reporting constipation? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. Some correct answers were not selected - Diet - Fluid intake - Use of laxatives - Date of last bowel movement - Use of opioid pain medications
Diet, Fluid intake, Use of laxatives, Date of last bowel movement, Use of opioid pain medications If a client complains of constipation, the nurse would inquire about factors related to constipation including diet, fluid intake, laxative use, date of last bowel movement, and whether or not the client is taking opioid pain medications.
Which hormonal deficiency would increase the client's risk for fractures? - Growth hormone - Follicle-stimulating hormone - Thyroid-stimulating hormone - Adrenocorticotropic hormone
Growth Hormone (Growth hormone deficiency causes decrease in bone density, thereby increasing the risk of fractures. Follicle-stimulating hormone deficiency causes amenorrhea, decreased libido, and infertility in women and impotence in men. Thyroid-stimulating hormone deficiency causes menstrual abnormalities and hirsutism. Adrenocorticotropic hormone deficiency causes hypoglycemia and hyponatremia.)
Which assessment findings during the administration of intravenous Penicillin prompt the nurse to stop the infusion? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. - Hives - Itching - Nausea - Skin rash - Shortness of breath
Hives, Itching, Skin Rash, Shortness of Breath (Penicillin administration carries a high rate of allergic reaction, so the nurse monitors the client for signs of allergy. Hives, itching, skin rash, and shortness of breath are all indications of allergic reaction and warrant cessation of the infusion and contact with the health care provider. Nausea is not an indication of allergic reaction.)
A child with type 1 diabetes is receiving 15 units of regular insulin and 20 units of NPH insulin at 7:00 AM each day. Which time would the nurse anticipate a hypoglycemic reaction from the NPH insulin to occur? - Before noon - In the afternoon - Within 30 minutes - During the evening
In the afternoon NPH insulin is an intermediate-acting insulin that peaks approximately 6 to 8 hours after administration. It was administered at 7:00 AM, so between 1:00 PM and 3:00 PM is when the nurse would anticipate that a hypoglycemic reaction would occur. Noon is when a reaction from a short-acting insulin is expected. Short-acting insulin peaks 2 to 4 hours after administration. Within 30 minutes of administration is when a reaction from a rapid-acting insulin is expected. Rapid-acting insulin peaks 30 to 60 minutes after administration. During the evening or nighttime is when a reaction from a long-acting insulin is expected. Long-acting insulin has a small peak 10 to 16 hours after administration.
The nurse is caring for several clients with type 1 diabetes, and they each have a prescription for a specific type of insulin. Which insulin would the nurse conclude has the fastest onset of action? - NPH insulin - Insulin lispro - Regular insulin - Insulin glargine
Insulin Lispro (Insulin Lispro has an onset of 0.25 hours, a peak action of 0.5 to 1.5 hours, and a duration of 3 to 4 hours. Insulin glargine has an onset of 1 to 1.5 hours, no peak action, and a duration of 20 to 24 hours. Neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) or intermediate-acting insulin has an onset of 1.5 hours, a peak action of 4 to 12 hours, and a duration of 18 to 24 hours. Regular insulin has an onset of 0.5 hours, a peak action of 1 to 5 hours, and a duration of 6 to 10 hours.)
The health care provider prescribes Metformin as monotherapy for the client with type 2 diabetes. The nurse will teach the client to monitor for which adverse effect? - Weight gain - Constipation - Lactic acidosis - Hypoglycemia
Lactic Acidosis Metformin carries a black box warning regarding the possibility of lactic acidosis; clients must know how to monitor for this condition. An advantage of metformin over some other antidiabetic medications is that it does not cause weight gain and may actually result in weight loss for some clients. Constipation is not a problem, but many clients will develop diarrhea initially. Metformin does not increase pancreatic production of insulin and, when used without other antidiabetic medications, will not cause hypoglycemia.
A client with severe diarrhea is prescribed intravenous fluids, sodium bicarbonate, and an antidiarrheal medication. Which antidiarrheal medication would the nurse anticipate administering? - Psyllium - Bisacodyl - Loperamide - Docusate sodium
Loperamide Loperamide inhibits peristalsis and prolongs transit time by its effect on the nerves in the muscle wall of the intestines. Bisacodyl is a laxative, not an antidiarrheal; it increases gastrointestinal motility. Psyllium is not an antidiarrheal; it is a bulk laxative that promotes easier expulsion of feces. Docusate sodium corrects constipation, not diarrhea; water and fat are increased in the intestine, permitting easier expulsion of feces.
What action is most appropriate for the nurse to take for a client who began receiving furosemide 2 days ago and has a serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L (2.8 mmol/L)? - Hold the morning dose of the diuretic and have the laboratory repeat the test. - Continue to monitor the level to ensure that it stays within the normal limits. - Notify the primary health care provider of the critically low result. - Anticipate a prescription for an increase in the dosage of the furosemide.
Notify the primary health care provider of the critically low result. (The health care provider should be notified because a potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L (2.8 mmol/L) is low. Normal range for serum potassium is 3.5 to 5 mEq/L (3.5-5 mmol/L). Clients who are on diuretics require monitoring of serum electrolytes, especially potassium and sodium, because they also are excreted with water. The nurse should not hold the diuretic or repeat the laboratory test unless advised by the health care provider. The client's serum potassium level is critically below the normal limit, and the health care provider should be notified. An increase in furosemide would cause an increased loss of potassium.)
After completing a week of antibiotic therapy, an infant develops oral thrush. Which medication is indicated for treatment of this condition? - Acyclovir - Vidarabine - Nystatin - Fluconazole
Nystatin White, adherent patches on the tongue, palate, and inner aspects of the infant's cheeks indicate oral candidiasis (thrush). Oral candidiasis is caused by a fungus called Candida albicans. Nystatin is an antifungal agent prescribed to treat oral thrush in an infant. Acyclovir and vidarabine are antiviral agents and are not used to treat oral candidiasis in the infant. Fluconazole can effectively treat oral thrush, but its use in infants is not approved by the US Food and Drug Administration.
Which medication would the nurse instruct a client to avoid while taking Alprazolam? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. - Opioids - Alcohol - Barbiturates - Antidepressants - First-generation antipsychotics
Opioids, Alcohol, Barbiturates (Respiratory depression can occur if a client combines benzodiazepines with opioids, alcohol, or barbiturates. Antidepressants and first-generation antipsychotics are safe to take with benzodiazepines.)
Clients who take Rifampin should not take medications from which class? - Loop diuretics - Oral contraceptives - Proton pump inhibitor - Intermediate-acting insulin
Oral Contraceptives (Rifampin increases metabolism of oral contraceptives, which may result in an unplanned pregnancy. Rifampin does not interact with a loop diuretic, a proton pump inhibitor, or intermediate-acting insulin.)
Which therapeutic outcomes are expected after administering Ibuprofen? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. - Diuresis - Pain relief - Temperature reduction - Bronchodilation - Anticoagulation - Reduced inflammation
Pain relief, Temperature, Reduced Inflammation (Prostaglandins accumulate at the site of an injury, causing pain; nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like ibuprofen inhibit COX-1 and COX-2 (both are isoforms of the enzyme cyclooxygenase), which inhibit the production of prostaglandins, thereby contributing to analgesia. NSAIDs inhibit COX-2, which is associated with fever, thereby causing the temperature to decline. NSAIDs inhibit COX-2, which is associated with inflammation, thereby reducing inflammation. NSAIDs do not cause diuresis; reversible renal ischemia and renal insufficiency in clients with heart failure, cirrhosis, or hypovolemia can be potential adverse effects of NSAIDs. NSAIDs do not cause bronchodilation. Anticoagulation is an adverse effect, not a desired outcome; NSAIDs can impair platelet function by inhibiting thromboxane, an aggregating agent, resulting in bleeding.)
Which medication turns urine reddish-orange in color? - Amoxicillin - Ciprofloxacin - Nitrofurantoin - Phenazopyridine
Phenazopyridine Phenazopyridine is a topical anesthetic that is used to treat pain or burning sensation associated with urination. It also imparts a characteristic orange or red color to urine. Amoxicillin is a penicillin form that could cause pseudomembranous colitis as a complication; it is not associated with reddish-orange colored urine. Ciprofloxacin is a quinolone antibiotic used for treating urinary tract infections (UTIs) and can cause serious cardiac dysrhythmias and sunburns. It is not, however, responsible for reddish-orange colored urine. Nitrofurantoin is an antimicrobial medication prescribed for UTIs. This medication may affect the kidneys but is not associated with reddish-orange colored urine.
Which assessment findings indicate a client is experiencing an allergic reaction to antibiotic therapy? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. - Pruritus - Confusion - Wheezing - Muscle aches - Bronchospasm
Pertussis, Wheezing, bronchospasm Manifestations of an allergic reaction to antibiotic therapy include pruritus, wheezing, and bronchospasm. Confusion and muscle aches are not specifically identified as being manifestations of an allergic reaction to antibiotic therapy.
Which medication is unsafe to administer as an intravenous (IV) bolus? - Saline flush - Potassium chloride - Naloxone - Adenosine
Potassium Chloride Potassium chloride given as an IV bolus can cause cardiac arrest. It must be diluted and infused slowly through an IV infusion pump. Saline flush, naloxone, and adenosine are appropriate to be given as an IV bolus undiluted.
A client is scheduled to have a thyroidectomy. Which medication is indicated for decreasing the size and vascularity of the thyroid gland before surgery? - Vasopressin - Levothyroxine - Propylthiouracil - Potassium iodide
Potassium Iodide Potassium iodide adds iodine to the body fluids, exerting negative feedback on the thyroid tissue and decreasing its metabolism and vascularity. Vasopressin is a pituitary hormone. Propylthiouracil interferes with production of thyroid hormone but causes increased vascularity and size of the thyroid. Levothyroxine is a thyroid hormone that may be administered after a thyroidectomy if the client develops hypothyroidism.
Which information about a client who has heart failure would the nurse communicate to the health care provider before administration of the prescribed digoxin? - Apical pulse rate 96 beats/minute - Bilateral foot and ankle pitting edema - Crackles heard at the base of both lungs - Potassium level of 2.3 mEq/L (2.3 mmol/L)
Potassium Level of 2.3 mEq/L (2.3 mmol/L) Symptoms of digoxin toxicity, including life-threatening dysrhythmias, can occur when digoxin is administered to a client with hypokalemia. The nurse would hold the digoxin and notify the health care provider, anticipating that potassium supplements would be prescribed before administration of digoxin. An apical pulse of 96 beats per minute is at the upper end of normal and would not be a reason to hold digoxin. Lower extremity edema is a sign of heart failure, which would be improved with administration of digoxin. Crackles at the lung bases are common in clients with heart failure and not a reason to hold digoxin.
Which over-the-counter medication would the nurse teach a client taking antihypertensive medication to avoid? - Omeprazole - Acetaminophen - Docusate sodium - Pseudoephedrine
Pseudoephedrine Pseudoephedrine stimulates the sympathetic nervous system and may increase blood pressure; it should be avoided by clients with hypertension. Omeprazole does not interact with antihypertensives. Acetaminophen does not have to be avoided when receiving an antihypertensive. Docusate sodium does not have to be avoided when receiving an antihypertensive.
Which assessment finding indicates a need for the nurse to consult with the health care provider before administering the prescribed metoprolol to a client with stable angina? - Blood pressure 142/90 mm Hg - Report of chest pain when walking - Sinus bradycardia, rate 54 on monitor - Large Q waves on the electrocardiogram
Sinus Bradycardia, rate 54 on monitor (Because beta blockers such as metoprolol decrease heart rate, the nurse would communicate with the health care provider before giving metoprolol to a client with a slow heart rate. Administration of metoprolol to a client with a mildly elevated blood pressure is appropriate, because beta blockers lower blood pressure. Chest pain with exertion indicates possible myocardial ischemia and metoprolol will decrease cardiac oxygen demand and ischemia. Large Q waves on the electrocardiogram indicate that the client may have a history of myocardial infarction and metoprolol is appropriate to prevent further ischemia.)
Which direction would the nurse give to a client at 6 weeks' gestation who reports using an over-the-counter herbal product as a health supplement? Select all that apply. - Stop taking the supplement immediately. - Discuss the use of the supplement with the health care provider. - Increase the dosage of the supplement as pregnancy progresses. - Ask the pharmacist whether the supplement is safe for use during pregnancy. - Discuss the use of any other over-the-counter products with the health care provider.
Stop taking the supplement immediately. Stopping the supplement is appropriate until more instructions are received from the health care provider. It is the health care provider's responsibility to counsel the client regarding all prescriptions, over-the-counter medications, and supplements. Continuing or increasing the dose of the supplement is unsafe; it may be detrimental to both the client and the fetus. The nurse may not prescribe medications of any kind, and to do so is functioning outside of the legal definition of nursing practice. It is primarily the health care provider's responsibility, not the pharmacist's, to counsel the client regarding all prescriptions, over-the-counter medications, and supplements.
Which medication would the nurse administer as priority nursing care for a client who has a severe, unilateral throbbing headache that has lasted for 2 days? - Gabapentin - Sumatriptan - Propranolol - Botulinum toxin A
Sumatriptan (A client with a unilateral throbbing headache that lasts from 4 to 72 hours is likely experiencing a migraine. The nurse would administer sumatriptan to reduce the symptoms of migraines, but it is most effective when taken at the onset of a migraine headache. Gabapentin is an antiseizure medication that is used in migraine prevention. Propranolol is an antihypertensive used as a prophylactic treatment. Botulinum toxin A is an effective prophylactic medication for treating chronic migraines and for migraines that do not respond to other medications.)
Which information would be included in the teaching plan for the older adult client with peptic ulcer disease who is taking an antacid and Sucralfate? - Antacids should be taken 30 minutes before a meal. - Sucralfate should be taken on an empty stomach 1 hour before meals. - Sucralfate is prescribed for the long-term maintenance of peptic ulcer disease. - Sodium bicarbonate is an inexpensive over-the-counter antacid with few adverse effects.
Sucralfate should be taken on an empty stomach 1 hour before meals. Sucralfate works best in a low pH environment; therefore it should be given on an empty stomach either 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals. Sucralfate also should be administered no sooner than 30 minutes before or after an antacid. The acid-neutralizing effects of antacids last approximately 30 minutes when taken on an empty stomach and 3 to 4 hours when taken after meals. When sucralfate and an antacid are both prescribed, they are each most effective when the sucralfate is scheduled an hour before meals and the antacid is scheduled after meals. Sucralfate is prescribed for the short-term treatment of peptic ulcers. Its use is limited to 4 to 8 weeks. The client should follow the recommendations of the primary health care provider with regard to antacid selection. Sodium bicarbonate can produce acid-base imbalances, which could be harmful, especially in older adult clients.
Which medication therapy lowers a child's resistance to Varicella? - Anticonvulsant - Systemic steroid - Antihypertensive - Topical antibiotic
Systemic Steroids (Individuals who are taking steroids have lowered resistance and may become fatally ill if exposed to the varicella virus. Anticonvulsants and antihypertensives do not lower body resistance; therefore, they do not increase susceptibility. Topical antibiotics do not affect body resistance because topical antibiotics do not have systemic effects.)
A client is prescribed Albuterol to relieve severe asthma. Which adverse effects will the nurse instruct the client to anticipate? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. - Tremors - Lethargy - Palpitations - Bronchoconstriction - Decreased pulse rate
Tremors, Tachycardia, Palpitations (Albuterol's sympathomimetic effect causes central nervous system (CNS) stimulation, precipitating tremors, tachycardia, and palpitations. Lethargy is an adverse effect of medications that cause CNS depression, not CNS stimulation. Albuterol causes bronchodilation, not bronchoconstriction. Albuterol will cause tachycardia, not bradycardia.)
A client receiving morphine is being monitored by the nurse for adverse effects of the medication. Which clinical findings warrant immediate follow-up by the nurse? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. - Polyuria - Unconsciousness - Bradycardia - Dilated pupils - Bradypnea
Unconsciousness, Bradycardia, Bradypnea The central nervous system (CNS) depressant effect of morphine, if severe, can cause unconsciousness. The CNS depressant effect of morphine causes bradycardia and bradypnea. Morphine does not increase urine output. Morphine causes constriction of pupils.
