Pharm Quiz Questions

Q1: The client is taking a 2-mg dose of ropinerol XR. The drug has a half-life of 12 hours. In how many hours will 0.25 mg of this drug remain in the client's system? 24 48 36 3

36

Q10: The clinic nurse is caring for a 39-year-old black, male patient who is 25 pounds overweight and has been newly diagnosed with hypertension after three consecutive blood pressure readings above normal. What will be initial drug therapy for this patient? An ACE inhibitor A beta-blocker A diuretic Angiotensin II receptor blocker

A diuretic

Q4: When caring for a patient diagnosed with a peptic ulcer, the nurse administers omeprazole and amoxicillin. What diagnostic finding indicates therapeutic effects of this drug regimen? Absence of gastroesophageal reflux Absence of dyspepsia Increased appetite and absence of nausea Absence of Helicobacter pylori

Absence of Helicobacter pylori

Q7: A patient is being administered heparin IV and has been started on warfarin. The patient asks the nurse why both medications have been prescribed. What is the nurse's most accurate response? "You will need both warfarin and heparin for several days." "After a certain period of time, you must start warfarin and heparin together." "Warfarin takes 3-5 days to develop anticoagulant effects, and you still need heparin." "Warfarin cannot be given without heparin due to the amount of clotting you need."

"Warfarin takes 3-5 days to develop anticoagulant effects, and you still need heparin."

Q10: What is the nurse's priority assessment question before giving a female patient her prescription for an angiotensin II-receptor blocker (ARB)? "How much physical exercise do you get?" "Do you eat something when you take your medications?" "When was your last menstrual period (LMP)?" "Have you always weighed 130 pounds as an adult?"

"When was your last menstrual period (LMP)?"

Q8: The client has been prescribed cromolyn (Intal) for the treatment of asthma, and the nurse is evaluating the client's understanding of the medication. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further education? "This medication may also be used for allergy disorders." "I will use this medication when I am having an asthma attack." "This medication may cause my throat to become dry." "I may experience wheezing with this medication."

"I will use this medication when I am having an asthma attack."

Q4: The nurse educates a client with peptic ulcer disease resulting from chronic nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) use. The client will soon begin taking misoprostol. What statement by the patient indicates that the patient understands the actions of this drug? "Misoprostol increases the speed of gastric emptying." "Misoprostol protects the stomach's lining." "Misoprostol reduces the stomach's volume of hydrochloric acid." "Misoprostol increases lower esophageal sphincter pressure."

"Misoprostol protects the stomach's lining."

Q8: Allison is talking to her pediatrician about using the inhalers just prescribed to her. The pediatrician instructs Allison to use both an albuterol inhaler and a Beclomethasone inhaler. All of the following are correct statements, with one EXCEPTION. Which statement is not correct? "The effect of beclomethasone is to reduce inflammation in the lung airways." "Rinse your mouth and gargle after using the fluticasone inhaler." "Use the albuterol after the fluticasone for most effectiveness." "Albuterol is used to relax bronchial smooth muscle."

"Use the albuterol after the fluticasone for most effectiveness."

Q4: The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving antacids to relieve GI discomfort. What nursing action is most appropriate? Administer this drug with other drugs or food to prolong therapeutic effects. Administer the antacid 2 hours before, or after other oral medications. Limit fluid intake to decrease dilution of the medication in the stomach. Have the client swallow the antacid whole and do not crush or chew the tablet.

Administer the antacid 2 hours before, or after other oral medications.

Q2: In general, progression from first-generation cephalosporins to fourth-generations results in which of the following? (Select all that apply) A decrease in sensitivity of gram-negative microorganisms. An increase in sensitivity of gram-negative microorganisms. An increase in the sensitivity of viral microorganisms. A decrease in the sensitivity of gram-positive microorganisms. An increase in sensitivity of gram-positive microorganisms.

An increase in sensitivity of gram-negative microorganisms. A decrease in the sensitivity of gram-positive microorganisms.

Q5: A patient asks the nurse to explain parathyroid hormone. The nurse knows that parathyroid hormone has which of the following effects? Decreased intestinal absorption of calcium Bone decalcification Increased renal excretion of calcium Degradation of vitamin D

Bone decalcification

Q7: A 60-year-old patient experienced a sudden onset of chest pain and shortness of breath and was subsequently diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism in the emergency department. The patient has been started on an intravenous heparin infusion. How does this drug achieve therapeutic effect? By promoting the rapid excretion of vitamin K by the gastrointestinal mucosa By inhibiting the action of vitamin K at its sites of action By inhibiting platelet aggregation on vessel walls and promoting fibrinolysis By inactivating clotting factors and thus stopping the coagulation cascade

By inactivating clotting factors and thus stopping the coagulation cascade

Q6: The nurse is preparing to administer a mixture of 12 units regular insulin and 45 units NPH insulin to a patient with a blood sugar of 378 mg/dL. After the nurse draws the medication into the syringe, what is the nurse's next action? Administer the insulin to the patient. Check the dosage with another nurse. Check the patient's blood sugar again. Ensure a meal tray is available.

Check the dosage with another nurse.

Q5: A nurse is caring for a patient with hypothyroidism. The nurse would know that the effects of hypothyroidism include: Nervousness and restlessness Fever Decreased cardiac output Increased blood pressure

Decreased cardiac output

Q10: The pharmacology instructor is discussing management of hypertension using angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors. According to the instructor, ACE inhibitors are considered first-line antihypertensive agents for patients with what disease or condition? Diabetes mellitus Asthma Glaucoma Unstable angina pectoris

Diabetes mellitus

Q8: Your neighbor's child has been given a prescription for an ipratropium inhaler. Your neighbor is calling you to ask for information. Which of the following adverse effects will you advise your neighbor to be monitoring for? Irritability, nervousness Bruising, bleeding gums Elevated blood glucose, prone to infections Dry mouth, urine retention

Dry mouth, urine retention

Q9: A patient has edema of the lower extremities with crackles in the lung bases. What diuretic is most likely to be prescribed for a patient assessed with lower extremity edema and bilateral lung crackles? Furosemide Spironolactone Hydrochlorothiazide Mannitol

Furosemide

Q6: The nurse is interviewing a patient who was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes four months ago. The client does not records glucometer readings but reports no concerns. What laboratory test does the nurse anticipate the health care provider will order for this client? Stat urine for glucose HbA1c Fasting blood glucose in the AM Insulin level

HbA1c

Q5: A client diagnosed with metastatic cancer has developed adrenocortical insufficiency. What clinical manifestations would serve to support the diagnosis of adrenocortical insufficiency? (Select All That Apply) Hypotension Hyperkalemia Hypertension Hyponatremia Hyperglycemia

Hypotension Hyperkalemia Hyponatremia

Q4: A 75-year-old patient is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, osteoporosis, and gastric ulcer disease. She is prescribed PPIs. The nurse is aware that long-term (greater than 1 year) administration of PPIs may lead to what problem for this patient? Increased risk for gastric cancer Increased risk for peptic ulcer disease Increased risk for hip fractures Increased risk for hypercalcemia

Increased risk for hip fractures

Q7: A patient is receiving warfarin. Which would the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of therapy? (Select all that apply.) International normalized ratio Prothrombin time Whole blood clotting time Partial thromboplastin time Vitamin K levels

International normalized ratio Prothrombin time

Q8: Which medication is a parasympathetic receptor blocker? Ipratropium Albuterol Cromolyn Beclomethasone

Ipratropium

Q2: The pharmacology instructor is explaining combination drugs to the nursing class. The instructor tells the students that the combination of a beta-lactamase inhibitor and a penicillin produces what effect? It reduces the likelihood of anaphylaxis in clients who are hypersensitive to penicillins. It reduces the side effects of high-dose penicillin. It increases the absorption of the penicillin. It extends the spectrum of antibacterial activity of the penicillin.

It extends the spectrum of antibacterial activity of the penicillin.

Q6: A patient has refused a scheduled dose of metformin, stating that he/she is worried about inducing hypoglycemia because his/her blood glucose level is currently 66 mg/dL (3.66 mmol/L). The nurse should convey what teaching points to the client? Metformin does not cause hypoglycemia. Hypoglycemia is only a risk in clients with type 1 diabetes. Overuse of metformin creates a risk for hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia. If the client has been taking metformin for more than 3 to 4 weeks, there is no risk for hypoglycemia.

Metformin does not cause hypoglycemia.

Q6: A patient prescribed metformin is scheduled to undergo diagnostic testing with the administration of parenteral radiographic contrast media containing iodine. What fact should direct the nurse's plan of care for this patient? The patient will be prescribed an extra dose of metformin due to address the contrast material's effect on the body. Metformin should be discontinued at least 48 hours before and after diagnostic tests that use contrast medias. The patient needs to be encouraged to drink 1 to 2 L of water to flush the contrast media out the kidneys. The metformin will be temporarily substituted for with insulin, to address the risk of potential kidney failure.

Metformin should be discontinued at least 48 hours before and after diagnostic tests that use contrast medias.

Q9: The pharmacology instructor Geoffrey is discussing effects on the heart of different medication. What is the term the instructor would use to describe the effect of a medication that increases the force of the contractions of the heart? Positive chronotropic Positive inotropic Negative inotropic Negative dromotropic

Positive inotropic

Q7: A patiet exhibits signs and symptoms of heparin overdose. The nurse would anticipate administering: Vitamin K Protamine sulfate Urokinase Drotrecogin alfa

Protamine sulfate

Q9: The nurse assesses a patient before administering digoxin. What finding would cause the nurse to withhold the drug and notify the health care provider? Respiratory rate below 14 History revealing liver failure Pulse 44 beats/min Blood pressure 102/66 mm Hg

Pulse 44 beats/min

Q6: Which condition must be met in order for glyburide treatment to be effective? The client must have hemoglobin A1C of ≤7%. The client must have functioning pancreatic beta cells. The client must not have hyperglycemia. The client must be able to self-administer the medication.

The client must have functioning pancreatic beta cells.

Q1: How would the dosage of a partly protein-bound drug be altered if another drug having a higher attraction to albumin than the first drug is administered? The dosage of the first drug may have to be increased. The dosages of both the first and the second drugs should be reduced equally. The dosage of the first drug may have to be decreased. The dosage of the second drug may have to be increased.

The dosage of the first drug may have to be decreased.

Q1: What is the initial step in the process that occurs in the absorption of an oral drug? The drug is delivered to the circulatory system for transport. The drug moves from the small intestine directly into the portal venous system. Liver enzymes break down the drug into metabolites. A portion of the drug reaches the tissues before getting to the liver.

The drug moves from the small intestine directly into the portal venous system.

Q1: What is the effect of a significant first-pass effect on the metabolism of a medication? The medication is biotransformed extensively in the client's liver. The medication must pass through the client's bloodstream several times in order to generate a therapeutic effect. The medication's effectiveness increases with each subsequent dose. The medication must pass through the renal tubules and is excreted in large amounts.

The medication is biotransformed extensively in the client's liver.

Q8: A client diagnosed with asthma has been prescribed a leukotriene receptor antagonist. What information should the nurse include when discussion medication instructions with this client? The effectiveness of the medication is enhanced when taken with food The medication should be taken 30 minutes before a meal The medication is most effective when taken at breakfast The medication should be taken on an e

The medication should be taken on an e

Q5: Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that ketoconazole (Nizoral) therapy is effective? The patient has increased urination at night. The patient has weight gain. The patient has a decreased blood glucose level. The patient has decreased pain.

The patient has a decreased blood glucose level.

Q9: A triage nurse in the emergency department suspects that a 78-year-old patient is experiencing severe digoxin toxicity with significant cardiac arrhythmia. If the nurse is correct, which action is likely to be taken? The patient's digoxin dosage will be reduced. The patient will be given digoxin immune fab. The patient will be given sodium chloride. The patient will be monitored to see if symptoms resolve without action.

The patient will be given digoxin immune fab.

Q2: A nursing student has questioned why a patient's health care provider has prescribed a narrow-spectrum antibiotic rather than a broad-spectrum drug in the treatment of an infection. Which facts provide the best rationale for the use of narrow-spectrum antibiotics whenever possible? Broad-spectrum antibiotics confound the results of subsequent culture and sensitivity testing. Narrow-spectrum antibiotics normally require a shorter duration of treatment. The efficacy of most narrow-spectrum antibiotics has not been proven. The use of broad-spectrum antibiotics can create a risk for a superinfection.

The use of broad-spectrum antibiotics can create a risk for a superinfection.

Q10: The nurse is preparing to administer sublingual nitroglycerin to a patient for the first time. What effect might the patient experience right after administration? Nervousness or paresthesia Throbbing headache or dizziness Drowsiness or blurred vision Tinnitus or diplopia.

Throbbing headache or dizziness

Q2: The nurse is caring for a 23-year-old female patient who uses oral contraceptives and has been prescribed amoxicillin for treatment of a respiratory infection. What information is most important for the nurse to share with this patient? Do not take your oral contraceptives while you are taking this medication. Use a type of barrier birth control while you are taking this antibiotic. Your menstrual cycle will have a heavier flow while on this medication. Taking this antibiotic with your oral contraceptives will cause an increased chance of bleeding.

Use a type of barrier birth control while you are taking this antibiotic.

Q7: A patient who is receiving warfarin has blood in the urinary drainage bag. What medication will likely be prescribed by the health care provider? Aminocaproic acid Vitamin K Platelets Protamine sulfate

Vitamin K

Knowing that thyroid hormones are principally concerned with the increase in metabolic rate of tissues, which symptom would a nurse observe in a client with uncontrolled hyperthyroidism? (Select all that apply.) Low body temperature Weight loss Tachycardia Hypotension Sleepiness

Weight loss Tachycardia

Q10: A 26-year-old white male patient has been prescribed captopril for hypertension. A nurse has been assigned to the patient to provide education regarding the use of this drug. The nurse will advise the patient that: the first dose of the medication should be taken at breakfast. if sore throat, fever, and swollen hands or feet occur, do not be alarmed. These manifestations will subside. a persistent, dry cough may occur; however, it is not serious. he should use a salt substitute containing potassium to avoid hypokalemia.

a persistent, dry cough may occur; however, it is not serious.

Q8: The nurse teaching a client about theophylline will include the identification of which possible symptoms of toxicity? Polyuria and polyphagia Confusion and decreased level of consciousness Agitation and arrhythmias Chest pain and shortness of breath

agitation and arrhythmias

Q5: The nurse assesses a client closely for which serious adverse reaction associated with propylthiouracil? myocardial infarction agranulocytosis severe hyperglycemia pancytopenia

agranulocytosis

Q1: Dosage form is a major determinant of which drug characteristic? bioavailability protein-binding capacity water-soluble metabolites minimum effective concentration (MEC)

bioavailability

Q7: A 70-year-old resident of a long-term care facility has experienced increasing pain, swelling, and redness to her lower leg over the past 12 hours, prompting the care providers at the facility to have the woman brought to the local emergency department. Diagnostic testing has confirmed deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and an IV infusion of alteplase (Activase) has been initiated. Unlike anticoagulants, a thrombolytic such as alteplase can break down existing clots. prevent the formation of new clots. inhibit platelet aggregation. potentiate the action of vitamin K

break down existing clots.

Q2: The health care provider is selecting an antibiotic for a patient with a known penicillin allergy. The provider knows that cephalosporins are a poor choice for this patient because cephalosporins: are ineffective in patients who are allergic to penicillins. can cause kidney damage in patients who are allergic to penicillins. are derived from penicillin. can cause allergic reactions in patients who are allergic to penicillins.

can cause allergic reactions in patients who are allergic to penicillins.

Q9: A 49-year-old patient reports frequent muscle cramps while on hydrochlorothiazide therapy. The nurse would advise the patient to do which? drink plenty of fluids. eat potassium-rich foods. take calcium supplements. include high-sodium foods in her diet.

eat potassium-rich foods.

Q4: A male client is taking misoprostol. Which adverse effect is more likely to occur with cimetidine than with other histamine2 receptor antagonists? hypertension hypoxia seizures gynecomastia

gynecomastia

Q10: What information identified by the patient's history should the nurse consider to be a contraindication for the administration of a nonselective beta-adrenergic blocker? implanted pacemaker history of exercise-induced asthma history of gallbladder disease a current urinary tract infection

history of exercise-induced asthma

Q9: A 66-year-old woman has a complex medical history that includes poorly-controlled type 1 diabetes, renal failure as a result of diabetic nephropathy and chronic heart failure (CHF). Her care provider has recently added spironolactone (Aldactone) to the woman's medication regimen. The nurse should consequently assess for signs and symptoms of atrial fibrillation. thrombophlebitis. hyperkalemia. leukocytosis.

hyperkalemia.

Q4: A client has a magnesium-based antacid prescribed for administration as needed. Which condition contraindicates the administration of this classification of medications? renal dysfunction hypertension stress ulcer heart rate of 68

renal dysfunction

Q2: Successful treatment with bacteriostatic antibiotics depends upon: using broad-spectrum antibacterial drugs to treat viral infections. stopping drug therapy when symptoms have subsided. the ability of the host's immune system to eliminate the inhibited bacteria and an adequate duration of drug therapy. the type of drug-resistant bacterial strains that can reproduce in the presence of antimicrobial drugs.

the ability of the host's immune system to eliminate the inhibited bacteria and an adequate duration of drug therapy.

Q1: A nurse determines that medications are known by different names.What are the different classifications of names assigned to medications? Select all that apply. trade name chemical name generic name metabolic name off brand name

trade name chemical name generic name

Q6: The nurse is caring for a patient taking insulin. The nurse realizes the patient is experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia when the patient displays: weakness, sweating, and decreased mentation. increased pulse rate and fruity smelling breath. decreased respiratory rate and hot, dry skin. increased thirst and increased urine output.

weakness, sweating, and decreased mentation.