Pharmacology Exam 3 Questions
21. Variant angina is best treated with what types of medication? A. calcium channel blockers B. beta-blockers C. nitrates D. only calcium channel blockers and nitrates E. all of these
calcium channel blockers
47. Variant angina is best treated with what types of medication?
calcium channel blockers
63. The mechanism of drug action by which erectile dysfunction is treated
inhibition of phosphodiesterase 5
35. All of the following make cholesterol so important for the body EXCEPT
inhibits formation of nerve covering
12. Select the ion movement that is associated with depolarization of ventricular cardiac muscle.
Na ions move into the cell
15. Select the ion that enters the cardiac cell during phase 2 of the cardiac cycle.
Ca
30. Select the ion that enters the cardiac cell during phase 2 of the cardiac cycle. A. Cl B. Ca C. Na D. K E. Li
Ca
6. Which of the following is an indicator of glycemic control in type 2 DM patients? A. hourly blood glucose values B. HbA1c level C. RBC hematocrit D. blood insulin of 50 IU/dl E. miglitol secretion
HbA1c level
13. According to Vaughn-Williams, procainamide is classified as Class
IA
27. According to Vaughn-Williams, procainamide is classified as Class A. IA B. IB C. IC D. II E. IV
IA
34. All of the following are correct EXCEPT
LDL pulls cholesterol out of plaque and returns it to the liver
8. All of the following are correct EXCEPT A. LDL pulls cholesterol out of plaque and returns it to the liver B. VLDL transports triglycerides C. apolipoproteins B and E contain a cholesterol core to form LDL and HDL, respectively D. foam cells are cholesterol-rich macrophages E. cholesterol is essential for production of myelin sheaths and bile salts
LDL pulls cholesterol out of plaque and returns it to the liver
13. Select the long-acting insulin preparation. A. Apidra B. Novolog C. Lantus D. Symlin E. Afrezza
Lantus
26. Select the ion movement that is associated with depolarization of ventricular muscle. A. Na ions move out of the cell B. K ions move out of the cell C. Na ions move into the cell D. Ca ions move into the cell E. K ions move into the cell
Na ions move into the cell
21. The release of renin causes which of the following? A. activation of RNA mechanism B. vasodilation C. water excretion D. decreased blood pressure E. activation of angiotensin I
activation of angiotensin I
25. The release of renin causes which of the following?
activation of angiotensin I
28. The antiarrhythmic drug with the shortest duration of action that is administered IV in the emergency treatment of supraventricular tachycardia is A. lidocaine B. adenosine C. propranolol D. amiodarone E. verapamil
adenosine
1. The therapeutic actions of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors include A. arterial dilation B. elimination of sodium C. venous dilation D. increased bradykinin (a peptide cause blood vessel to dilate)
all of these
14. The pharmacologic effects of verapamil may include
all of these
15. The therapeutic actions of propranolol to prevent anginal attacks include A. decreased heart rate B. reduced force of myocardial contraction C. decreased oxygen consumption D. decreased cardiac work E. all of these
all of these
20. Propranolol works by doing which of the following? A. decreasing heart rate B. decreasing cardiac work C. decreasing force of contractions D. decreasing oxygen consumption E. all of these
all of these
21. The desired antihypertensive effects of adrenergic beta-blocking drugs include
all of these
29. The pharmacologic effects of verapamil may include A. decreased heart rate B. decreased force of myocardial contraction C. slowed AV conduction D. vasodilation E. all of these
all of these
3. The actions of digoxin (Lanoxin) include A. decreased heart rate (yes) B. inhibition of Na/K ATPase C. increased calcium inside heart muscle D. increase formation of actinomyosin E. all of these
all of these
41. The therapeutic actions of propranolol to prevent anginal attacks include
all of these
46. Propranolol works by doing which of the following?
all of these
5. The causes of heart failure include A. untreated hypertension B. weakening of contractile force C. myocardial infarction D. valvular defects E. all of these
all of these
53. Select the cells involved in the immune response.
all of these
56. Which of the following are uses for interferons?
all of these
6. Select the cells involved in the immune response.
all of these
7. The therapeutic actions of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors include
all of these
9. The actions of digoxin (Lanoxin) include
all of these
9. Which of the following are uses for interferons?
all of these
18. A decrease in the formation of angiotensin II and an increase in the concentration of bradykinin explains the vasodilator action of A. alpha-blockers B. beta-blockers C. angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors D. angiotensin receptor blockers E. renin inhibitors
angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
23. A decrease in the formation of angiotensin II and an increase in the concentration of bradykinin explains the vasodilator action of
angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
12. Vasodilators decrease afterload by affecting
arteries
5. Vasodilators decrease afterload by affecting A. veins B. arteries C. the SA node D. myocardial contraction E. venous return
arteries
33. The greatest reduction in circulating LDL is associated with which hypolipidemic drug?
atorvastatin (Lipitor)
7. The greatest reduction in circulating LDL is associated with which hypolipidemic drug? A. gemfibrozil (Lopid) B. nicotinic acid (Niacor) C. atorvastatin (Lipitor) D. colesevelam (Welchol) E. clopidogrel (Plavix)
atorvastatin (Lipitor)
11. Select the causes of type 1 diabetes.
autoantibody destruction of beta cells
14. Select the causes of type 1 diabetes. A. autoantibody destruction of beta cells B. malformed beta cells C. failure of target tissue to respond to insulin D. hyperinsulinemia E. increase in the secretion of incretins
autoantibody destruction of beta cells
14. The primary site of action of thiazide diuretics in the nephron is
the distal convoluted tubule
57. Water-soluble hormones work by
binding receptors on the cell membranes
2. The mechanism of action of triamterene (Dyrenium) is to A. block aldosterone receptors B. increase sodium excretion at loop of Henle C. block sodium channels (ENaC) at nephron collecting ducts D. increase the release of aldosterone E. decrease the release of ADH
block sodium channels (ENaC) at nephron collecting ducts
8. The mechanism of action of triamterene (Dyrenium) is to
block sodium channels (ENaC) at nephron collecting ducts
5. Which is NOT a mechanism of action of an oral antidiabetic drug?
direct stimulation of insulin receptors in skeletal muscle
7. Which of these is NOT true with regard to loop diuretics? A. can cause hyperuricemia B. can cause hyperglycemia C. can be used to reduce ascites due to malignancy D. can cause metabolic acidosis E. the diuresis is not refractory
can cause metabolic acidosis
11. Which medication reduces edema by blocking the reabsorption of sodium in the distal tubules?
chlorothiazide
4. Which medication reduces edema by blocking the reabsorption of sodium in the distal tubules? A. eplerenone B. torsemide C. triamterene D. chlorothiazide E. lasix
chlorothiazide
31. All of the following are correct about cholesterol or these hypolipidemic drugs EXCEPT
cholesterol is lowered by a diet rich in saturated fats
4. All of the following are correct about cholesterol or these hypolipidemic drugs EXCEPT A. cholesterol is lowered by a diet rich in saturated fats B. cholesterol is elevated in people with primary hypercholesterolemia C. nicotinic acid is used to treat hyper cholesterolemia D. fenofibrate primarily affects VLDL and triglycerides E. macrophages consume LDL to form cholesterol-rich foam cells
cholesterol is lowered by a diet rich in saturated fats
20. The antihypertensive drug that decreases sympathetic activity by an action on the vasomotor center in the medulla oblongata is A. hydralazine B. clonidine C. diltiazem D. losartan E. captopril
clonidine
24. Verapamil would be useful to treat hypertension in individuals who also suffer from A. coronary artery disease B. CHF C. supraventricular arrhythmias D. coronary artery disease and supraventricular arrhythmias E. all of these
coronary artery disease and supraventricular arrhythmias
28. Verapamil would be useful to treat hypertension in individuals who also suffer from
coronary artery disease and supraventricular arrhythmias
3. The immunosuppressive drug that forms a toxic metabolite and that can cause hemorrhagic cystis is
cyclophosphamide and azathioprine
50. The immunosuppressive drug that forms a toxic metabolite and that can cause hemorrhagic cystis is
cyclophosphamide and azathioprine
2. The immunosuppressive drug that inhibits the production of interleukin-2 is
cyclosporine
49. The immunosuppressive drug that inhibits the production of interleukin-2 is
cyclosporine
55. Select the drug that is non cytotoxic.
cyclosporine
8. Select the drug that is non cytotoxic.
cyclosporine
11. The mechanism by which tacrolimus inhibits interleukin-2 (IL-2) production in activated T cells most closely resembles the pharmacodynamic action of
cyclosporine.
17. Select the actions of beta-blockers.
decrease heart rate and decrease automaticity of ventricular muscle
61. Which of the following is not true of mineralocorticoids like fludrocortisone?
decrease inflammation
32. Select the actions of beta-blockers. A. decrease heart rate B. increase AV conduction C. decrease automaticity of ventricular muscle D. decrease heart rate and decrease automaticity of ventricular muscle E. all of these
decreased heart rate and decrease automaticity of ventricular muscle
23. Clonidine works to reduce blood pressure by which of the following actions? A. decreasing sympathetic nerve activity B. stimulating inhibitory alpha-2 receptors C. decreasing release of renin D. decreasing sympathetic nerve activity and decreasing release of renin E. all of these
decreasing sympathetic nerve activity and stimulating inhibitory alpha-2 receptors
25. Select the medication administered IV that is primarily indicated for the treatment of malignant hypertension. A. guanabenz B. diazoxide C. carvedilol D. terazosin E. chlorothiazide
diazoxide
7. Which is NOT a mechanism of action of an oral antidiabetic drug? A. increased insulin sensitivity in target tissues B. inhibit or delay the breakdown of carbohydrates in the intestine C. direct action on the beta cell membrane-bound receptors D. direct stimulation of insulin receptors in skeletal muscle E. inhibit renal glucose transport proteins
direct stimulation of insulin receptors in skeletal muscle
15. When a diuretic is refractory, it does which of the following? A. produces a decreased response to a decreased amount of drug B. produces an increased response to an increased amount of drug C. doesn't produce a greater response to an increased amount of drug D. doesn't produce any response to a decrease in the amount of drug E. inhibits the secretion of antidiuretic hormone
doesn't produce a greater response to an increased amount of drug
6. All of the following are correct about the statin drugs EXCEPT A. all drugs in this class have the same mechanism of action B. dosing is recommended for the evening because the patient won't experience adverse effects while sleeping C. these are systemic drugs meaning they have to be absorbed into the blood D. they are used as adjunct treatment to diet adjustment E. they may cause mental confusion and memory loss
dosing is recommended for the evening because the patient won't experience adverse effects while sleeping
10. Which of the following are not risk factors for atherosclerosis? A. male over the age of 45 B. smoker C. hypothyroidism D. low HDL levels E. elevated HDL levels
elevated HDL levels
36. Which of the following are not risk factors for atherosclerosis?
elevated HDL levels
7. Which of the following is correct about polyuria in types 1 and 2 DM?
excess glucose spills into the urine and osmotically attracts water into the renal tubule
9. Which of the following is correct about polyuria in types 1 and 2 DM? A. excess glucose spills into the urine and osmotically attracts water into the renal tubule B. antidiuretic hormone is no longer secreted in DM C. GLUT2 receptors move glucose from the blood into the renal tubule D. sulfonylurea drugs interact with their receptors in the kidney to increase urine flow E. glucose transport proteins in the renal tubules are blocked
excess glucose spills into the urine and osmotically attracts water into the renal tubule
9. All of the following make cholesterol so important for the body EXCEPT A. building block for glucocorticoids B. essential for building cell membranes C. needed to help form myelin sheath D. helps in digestion of dietary fats E. inhibits formation of nerve covering
inhibits formation of nerve covering
10. The most effective drug to relieve edema and congestion in acute heart failure would be
furosemide (Lasix)
3. The most effective drug to relieve edema and congestion in acute heart failure would be A. hydralazine (Apresoline) B. furosemide (Lasix) C. metoprolol (Lopressor) D. hydrochlorothiazide (HyroDIURIL) E. digoxin (Lanoxin)
furosemide (Lasix)
3. Which of the following oral agents is categorized as a secretagogue?
glipizide
4. Which of the following oral agents is categorized as a secretagogue? A. metformin B. glipizide C. sitagliptin D. miglitol E. dapagliflozin
glipizide
4. Which of the following hormones would be elevated during a fast?
glucagon
5. Which of the following hormones would be elevated during a fast? A. insulin B. glucagon C. humulin D. GnRH
glucagon
10. Loop diuretics increase the excretion of all of the following EXCEPT A. sodium B. uric acid C. water D. potassium E. glucose
glucose
15. Loop diuretics increase the excretion of all of the following EXCEPT
glucose
10. Which of the following when used together have complementary actions that increase insulin secretion? A. regular human insulin and insulin glargine B. DPP-4 inhibitor sitagliptin and metformin C. amylin and glucagon D. glyburide and incretin mimetics E. SGLT2 inhibitor canagliflozin and metformin
glyburide and incretin mimetics
8. Which of the following when used together have complementary actions that increase insulin secretion?
glyburide and incretin mimetics
48. The immune cell that when activated stimulates the activity of killer T-cells and B-cells is
helper T-cell
1. The immune cell that when activated stimulates the activity of killer T-cells and B-cells is
helper t-cell
10. Which of the following is correct?
hypoglycemia is the most common adverse effect of many antidiabetic drugs
12. Which of the following is correct? A. lipodystropy is exacerbated by alpha glucosidase inhibitors miglitol and acarbose B. insulin is the preferred treatment in type 2 DM because there are no drug interactions C. oral antidiabetic drugs include pramlintide D. hypoglycemia is the most common adverse effect of many antidiabetic drugs E. metformin is the drug of choice in patients with metabolic acidosis
hypoglycemia is the most common adverse effect of many antidiabetic drugs
12. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors (statins) work by doing which of the following? A. blocking the intestinal absorption of cholesterol B. inhibiting triglyceride lipase C. inhibiting the production of mevalonic acid D. decreasing hepatic VLDL-triglyceride synthesis E. blocking the reabsorption of cholesterol in the kidney
inhibiting the production of mevalonic acid
62. Which of these effects is not associated with long-term steroidal hormone therapy?
increased muscle strength
4. The monoclonal antibody that inhibits tumor necrosis factor-alpha in the treatment of Crohn's disease is
infliximab
51. The monoclonal antibody that inhibits tumor necrosis factor-alpha in the treatment of Crohn's disease is
infliximab
12. A 15-year-old female has severe inflammatory bowel disease. She has been treated with mesalamine. Recently, frequent flares of her disease have increased the need for oral prednisone and antibiotics. Her gastroenterologist considers treatment with an anti-tumor necrosis factor alpha (anti-TNF-) antibody. Refer to the case above. This drug is most likely to be
infliximab.
38. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors (statins) work by doing which of the following?
inhibiting the production of mevalonic acid
10. A 52-year-old male heart transplant recipient is on an immunosuppressant regimen with cyclosporine, prednisolone, and azathioprine. Cyclosporine binds to cyclophilin. The resulting complex
inhibits the phosphatase activity of calcineurin, a cell-signaling protein that mediates T-cell activation.
11. Beta cells secrete the following substances: A. insulin and amylin B. glucagon C. incretins D. acetate E. GLP1 and GIP
insulin and amylin
9. Beta cells secrete the following substances:
insulin and amylin
1. Which of the following insulins would provide a patient diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus a constant release of insulin over a 24-hour period?
insulin glargine
2. Which of the following insulins would provide a patient diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus a constant release of insulin over a 24-hour period? A. regular insulin B. insulin aspart C. insulin glargine D. insulin lispro E. aerosolized insulin powder
insulin glargine
6. Which of the following is correct about type 2 DM?
insulin is secreted by the beta cells and insulin resistance is present
8. Which of the following is correct about type 2 DM? A. insulin is secreted by the beta cells and insulin resistance is present B. insulin cannot be used in type 2 DM C. patients are only prone to persistent infections in type 1 DM D. oral antidiabetic drugs cannot be combined to achieve glycemic control E. oral antidiabetic drugs are ineffective
insulin is secreted by the beta cells and insulin resistance is present
1. Which of the following is correct: 75 to 80 percent of total cholesterol in the body A. is synthesized in the liver B. enters the body as dietary cholesterol C. is transported as chylomicrons in the blood D. is transported as HDL E. causes hyperlipidemia
is synthesized in the liver
29. Which of the following is correct: 75 to 80 percent of total cholesterol in the body
is synthesized in the liver
18. The drug that is best described as a venodilator that decreases preload (venous return) in the treatment of angina is A. propranolol B. verapamil C. nifedipine D. isosorbide dinitrate E. amlodipine
isosorbide dinitrate
44. The drug that is best described as a venodilator that decreases preload (venous return) in the treatment of angina is
isosorbide dinitrate
9. Which drugs are NOT routinely used in the clinical management of hypertension? A. thiazide diuretics B. chlorthalidone C. isosorbide mononitrate D. triamterene E. metolazone
isosorbide mononitrate
2. All of the following are correct about "bad" cholesterol EXCEPT A. it is a high-density lipoprotein B. high levels of LDL contribute to atherosclerosis C. it is a lipoprotein D. it contains more fat and less protein than "good cholesterol" E. the liver produces more LDL to transport cholesterol as the cholesterol level rises
it is a high-density lipoprotein
30. All of the following are correct about "bad" cholesterol EXCEPT
it is a high-density lipoprotein
64. Choose the correct action of antidiuretic hormone on the body.
it regulates water balance
1. Which of the following parameters would help to differentiate between type 1 and type 2 diabetes? A. blood glucose level B. hemoglobin A1c level C. ketoacidosis D. cholesterol level E. glucagon levels
ketoacidosis
5. Which of the following mechanisms of action is correct? A. ezetimibe (Zetia) acts in the intestinal lumen to bind and trap cholesterol B. fibric acid derivatives act at the brush border of the intestine wall C. nicotinamide stimulates lipoprotein lipase to lower triglycerides D. lovastatin (Mevacor) inhibits an enzyme in the cholesterol synthetic pathway E. niacin interrupts the cholesterol synthetic pathway
lovastatin (Mevacor) inhibits an enzyme in the cholesterol synthetic pathway
32. Which of the following mechanisms of action is correct?
lovastatin inhibits an enzyme in the cholesterol synthetic pathway
16. A class IB antiarrhythmic drug, like lidocaine, does which of the following?
mildly decrease in Phase 0 depolarization
31. A class IB antiarrhythmic drug, like lidocaine, does which of the following? A. mildly decrease in Phase 0 depolarization B. prolongation of ventricular repolarization C. decrease in AV conduction D. increase in PR interval E. decrease Phase 4 automaticity
mildly decrease in phase 0 depolarization
59. A patient taking prednisone long term (chronically) might develop which of the following adverse effects?
moon face or buffalo hump
17. In the treatment of variant angina, the drug that is an arterial dilator without direct effects on the heart is A. nitroglycerin B. metoprolol C. nifedipine D. verapamil E. diltiazem
nifedipine
43. In the treatment of variant angina, the drug that is an arterial dilator without direct effects on the heart is
nifedipine
16. The desired antihypertensive effects of adrenergic beta-blocking drugs include A. decrease in heart rate B. decrease in release of renin C. decrease in cardiac output D. only decrease in heart rate and decrease in cardiac output E. all of these
only decrease in heart rate and decrease in cardiac output
16. The pharmacologic actions of verapamil include A. decreased AV conduction B. increased myocardial contraction C. decreased heart rate D. only decreased AV conduction and decreased heart rate E. all of these
only decreased AV conduction and decreased heart rate
42. The pharmacologic actions of verapamil include
only decreased AV conduction and decreased heart rate
22. Thiazide diuretics help treat hypertension by A. decreasing peripheral resistance B. increasing cardiac output C. increasing excretion of sodium D. only decreasing peripheral resistance and increasing excretion of sodium E. all of these
only decreasing peripheral resistance and increasing excretion of sodium
26. Thiazide diuretics help treat hypertension by
only decreasing peripheral resistance and increasing excretion of sodium
3. Chronically elevated blood lipid levels may cause A. pancreatitis when cholesterol is 80 to 100 mg/dL B. plaque when HMG-CoA reductase is 80 to 100 mg/dL C. plaque when LDL cholesterol exceeds 160 mg/dL D. arthritis and edema E. hematomas
plaque when LDL cholesterol exceeds 160 mg/dL
52. Which of the following are roles of macrophages?
process and present foreign antigens
12. All potassium-sparing diuretics A. produce a mild diuresis without acid/base disturbance B. inhibit aldosterone receptors C. produce hypokalemia D. produce similar adverse effects to thiazide diuretics E. increase the excretion of potassium ions
produce a mild diuresis without acid/base disturbance
17. All potassium-sparing diuretics
produce a mild diuresis without acid/base disturbance
19. Select the areas of the kidneys where water is reabsorbed.
proximal convoluted tubule and collecting ducts
54. Corticosteroids work by doing which of the following?
reduce the number of T- and B-cells and inhibit synthesis of inflammatory mediators
7. Corticosteroids work by doing which of the following?
reduce the number of T- and B-cells and inhibit synthesis of inflammatory mediators
13. The main therapeutic effects of the statins include A. reducing LDL and CRP levels B. reducing HDL levels C. reducing hepatic CYP3A4 levels D. reducing acetyl CoA levels E. reducing triglyceride secretion at the intestine's brush border
reducing LDL and CRP levels
39. The main therapeutic effects of the statins include
reducing LDL and CRP levels
17. The antihypertensive action of hydrochlorothiazide (thiazide class) includes A. reduction of blood volume B. blockade of alpha adrenergic receptors C. relaxation of vascular smooth muscle D. only reduction of blood volume and relaxation of vascular smooth muscle E. all of these
reduction in blood volume
22. The antihypertensive action of hydrochlorothiazide (thiazide class) includes
reduction of blood volume
19. The main mechanisms of action of nitrates include A. increasing the venous return to the heart B. reducing atherosclerosis in the arteries C. increasing cardiac work D. relaxation of systemic veins and arteries E. increasing oxygen consumption
relaxation of systemic veins and arteries
45. The main mechanisms of action of nitrates include
relaxation of systemic veins and arteries
5. Which of the following are roles of macrophages?
release interleukins and recognize foreign antigens
60. Which of the following is not a function of secreted glucocorticoids?
retention of sodium
2. Which of the following oral antidiabetic agents increases the incretin's duration of action?
sitagliptin
3. Which of the following oral antidiabetic agents increases the incretin's duration of action? A. sitagliptin B. acarbose C. nateglinide D. tolbutamide E. exenatide
sitagliptin
13. The main effects of beta blockers include
slowing the heart rate
6. The main effects of beta blockers include A. slowing the heart rate B. increasing the release of renin C. increasing ADH D. increasing aldosterone E. increasing sodium retention
slowing the heart rate
27. Clonidine works to reduce blood pressure by which of the following actions?
stimulating inhibitory alpha-2 receptors
8. The primary site of action of thiazide diuretics in the nephron is A. the proximal tubule B. the loop of Henle C. the distal tubule D. the capsule area of glomerular filtration E. the osmotic urea channel
the distal tubule
58. Which of the following is correct about mineralocorticoids?
their principal action is to reduce blood pressure
11. Which of these medications is NOT used to treat hyperlipidemia? A. statins B. thiazides C. nicotinic acid D. fibric acid derivatives E. gemfibrozil (Lopid) and fenofibrate (Tricor)
thiazides
37. Which of these medications is NOT used to treat hyperlipidemia?
thiazides
14. The nitroglycerin dosage form providing the longest duration of action is A. sublingual nitroglycerin tablets B. nitroglycerin ointment C. transdermal nitroglycerin D. IV nitroglycerin (bolus injection) E. sublingual spray
transdermal nitroglycerin
40. The nitroglycerin dosage form providing the longest duration of action is
transdermal nitroglycerin
13. Tubular reabsorption involves which of the following? A. movement of small molecules into the glomerulus B. nephron production of calcium carbonate C. transport of ions into the blood D. movement of sodium ions into circulation E. increased glucose concentration in the urine
transport of ions into the blood
18. Tubular reabsorption involves which of the following?
transport of ions into the blood
11. All of the following are true EXCEPT A. anuria is a state where no urine is formed B. the major tubular secretory function of the nephron involves hydrogen and potassium ions C. uremia is an accumulation of nitrogen waste products D. tubular reabsorption of water is diuresis E. diuretics are a significant drug therapy for hypertension
tubular reabsorption of water is diuresis
16. All of the following are true EXCEPT
tubular reabsorption of water is diuresis
14. Kidneys maintain acid balance in the body by which of the following actions? A. tubular secretion of hydrogen ions B. increasing the pH of the urine C. neutralizing cell waste products D. decreasing the production of bicarbonate ions E. excreting excess silenium ions
tubular secretion of hydrogen ions
20. Kidneys maintain acid balance in the body by which of the following actions?
tubular secretion of hydrogen ions
19. The drug that is classified as an arterial vasodilator and that also has a direct effect to decrease heart rate and cardiac contractility is A. verapamil B. propranolol C. prazosin D. captopril E. nifedipine
verapamil
24. The drug that is classified as an arterial vasodilator and that also has a direct effect to decrease heart rate and cardiac contractility is
verapamil
