Pharmacology test bank
________ causes uterine contractions. a. Regu-Mate b. Bovilene C. Oxytocin d. Cystorelin
C. Oxytocin
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Chapter 14
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Chapter 2
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Chapter 9
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A 1000-lb horse will be treated with detomidine at a dosage of 10 mcg/kg IV for abdominal pain. The concentration of detomidine is 10 mg/mL. What quantity will you prepare? a. 0.46 ml b. 1.5 mL C. 2.5 ml d. 4.6 mL
a. 0.46 ml
22. A 15-lb cat will be treated with prednisolone at 0.55 mg/kg once a day for inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). Prednisolone tablets (2.5 mg) will be used. How tablets many will you give each day? a. 1.5 tablets b. 2.5 tablets C. 3 tablets d. 3.5 tablets
a. 1.5 tablets
23. A heifer-calf that weighs 120 lb is found to have Eimeria zurnii. The veterinarian orders amprolium for treatment of the calf. On hand in the pharmacy is Corid liquid (9.6%). The dosage is 10 mg/kg PO for 5 days. What is the dose? How many milliliters should be dispensed to the client to treat this calf? a. 5.7 ml; 28.5 mL b. 4.6 ml: 56.5 ml C. 4.6 ml: 16 mL d. 5.7 ml; 56 ml
a. 5.7 ml; 28.5 mL
The local anesthesia provided by proparacaine HCl usually lasts ___ to ___ minutes. a. 5; 10 b. 30; 60 C. 60; 90 d. 90; 120
a. 5; 10
If proparacaine anesthetizes the cornea for 8 minutes at the usual dose of two drops, how many drops will need to be administered if an ophthalmic procedure takes half an hour? a. 7.5 drops b. 5.5 drops c. 9.5 drops d. 12.5 drops
a. 7.5 drops
Which of the following drugs is a mucolytic that is commonly administered by nebulization for pulmonary uses? a. Acetylcysteine b. Aminophylline c. Hydroxyzine d. Doxapram
a. Acetylcysteine
Which of the following is a brand of polysulfated glycosaminoglycan (PSGAG)? a. Adequan b. Glycoflex c. Cosequin d. Dasuquin
a. Adequan
What category of drug is used to treat cardiac arrest and anaphylactic shock? a. Adrenergic (sympathomimetic) b. Adrenergic blocking agents (sympatholytic) c. Cholinergic blocking agents (parasympatholytic) d. Cholinergic (parasympathomimetic)
a. Adrenergic (sympathomimetic)
Which of the following is a Beta2 adrenergic agonist used as a bronchodilator? a. Albuterol b. Aminophylline c. Hydroxyzine d. Acetylcysteine
a. Albuterol Correct Aminophylline
Which of the following products kills ticks? a. Amitraz b. Advantage II C. Sentinel d. Trifexis
a. Amitraz
Oxybendazole is the main ingredient in which equine paste dewormer? a. Anthelcide EQ b. Quest EQ c. Strongid d. Equimax
a. Anthelcide
are substances that are used to block the effects of histamine. a. Antihistamines b. Decongestants C. Bronchodilators d. Expectorants
a. Antihistamines
Which of the following drugs is not classified as a fluoroquinolone? a. Antirobe b. Baytril C. Orbax d. Zeniquin
a. Antirobe
The trade name for clindamycin is a. Antirobe. b. Lincocin. C. Kefllex. d. Vibramycin.
a. Antirobe.
All the following are true about a veterinarian-client-patient relationship except a. The veterinarian has seen and treated all the client's pets except a dog for which the owner would like to buy heartworm preventative. b. The veterinarian has assumed responsibility for making clinical judgments about the health of the animal(s) and the need for treatment, and the client has agreed to follow the veterinarian's instructions. C. The veterinarian has sufficient knowledge of the animal(s) to issue a diagnosis. The veterinarian must have recently seen the animal and must be acquainted with its husbandry. d. The veterinarian must be available for follow-up evaluation of the patient.
a. The veterinarian has seen and treated all the client's pets except a dog for which the owner would like to buy heartworm preventative. Correct
Which agent is classified as a beta-adrenergic antagonist used to reduce intraocular pressure? a. Timolol b. Cyclopentolate C. Atropine d. Prednisone
a. Timolol
A local anesthetic such as lidocaine may be the drug of choice when an epidural is performed to reposition a prolapsed uterus in a bovine. a. True b. False
a. True
All herbal medicines should be discontinued two to three weeks before an elective procedure is performed. a. True b. False
a. True
Amphotericin B may be used in the treatment of mycotic fungal infections. a. True b. False
a. True
Bethanechol should not be used in patients that have a bladder obstruction. a. True b. False
a. True
Metronidazole is prohibited by the FDA for use in food-producing animals. a. True b. False
a. True
NSAIDS that spare COX-1 and selectively inhibit COX-2 would reduce inflammation and eliminate negative effects. a. True b. False
a. True
Organophosphate compounds inhibit the action of acetylcholinesterase. a. True b. False
a. True
Otitis interna, inflammation of the inner ear, may cause clinical signs such as ataxia, circling, and head tilt. a. True b. False
a. True
Otomax is an antibacterial and anti-inflammatory otic agent used to treat infections caused by Staphylococcus spp. or Pseudomonas spp. a. True b. False
a. True
Ruminants remasticate food to facilitate the digestion process. a. True b. False
a. True
Shampoos should be left on the animal's skin for 5 to 10 minutes before rinsing. a. True b. False
a. True
Uremic patients should have reduced doses of anesthetic drugs such as xylazine, ketamine, and barbiturates. a. True b. False
a. True
Two veterinary-approved insulin products include ______ a. Vetsulin and Prozinc b. Glargine and Humulin R c. Prozinc and Lente d. NPH and Humulin R
a. Vetsulin and Prozinc
_______ are gram negative intracellular bacteria living in the body of both immature and adult heartworm. a. Wolbachia b. Microfilaria C. Musca autumnalis d. Moraxella
a. Wolbachia
Enalapril is an example of a(n) a. ace inhibitor. Correct b. anticholinergic. c. adrenergic antagonist. d. calcium channel blocker
a. ace inhibitor.
The neurotransmitter for cholinergic sites in the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems is a. acetylcholine b. norepinephrine C. epinephrine d. dopamine
a. acetylcholine Correct
Bronchioles terminate in small, saclike structures called a. alveoli. b. goblet cells. C. capillaries. d. cilia.
a. alveoli.
Azathioprine is classified as ____ drug. a. an antimetabolite b. a corticosteroid C. an alkylating d. a fibrinolytic
a. an antimetabolite
Hydralazine is a(n) ______ used to treat hypertension and as an adjunctive treatment for congestive heart failure secondary to mitral valve insufficiency. a. arterial vasodilator b. venous vasodilator C. mixed vasodilator d. ace inhibitor
a. arterial vasodilator
Axons carry electric-like messages (from) the nerve cell, and dendrites carry electric-like messages (from) the nerve cell. a. away; toward b. toward; away
a. away; toward
Cushing's syndrome is caused by an excess of circulating _____ a. cortisol b. ТЗ C. estrogen d. insulin
a. cortisol
NSAIDS work by inhibiting an enzyme called ______which synthesizes prostaglandins. a. cyclooxygenase b. phospholipase c. lipoxygenase d. leukotrienes
a. cyclooxygenase
The name of the sweat gland found in the footpads of dogs is a. eccrine. b. apocrine. C. sebaceous. d. ceruminous.
a. eccrine.
All the following drugs are gonadotropins, except _____ a. estradiol cypionate b. cystorelin C. factrel d. fertagyl
a. estradiol cypionate
The antimicrobial ophthalmic agent most commonly used to treat keratitis caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a. gentamicin. b. chloramphenicol. c. cephalosporin. d. amphotericin B.
a. gentamicin.
All of the following drugs may be used to treat anemia associated with chronic renal failure except a. heparin. b. epogen. C. androgens. d. winstrol-V.
a. heparin.
All of the following are parts of the small intestine, except the _____ a. ilium b. duodenum c. jejunum d. ileum
a. ilium
A loading dose of a drug a. is an initial higher dose of a drug given to increase the drug concentration to therapeutic level in a short period of time. Correct b. is an initial lower dose of a drug given to increase the drug concentration to the therapeutic level over a long period of time. C. a low maintenance dose given over a long period of time to keep the amount of drug at the appropriate therapeutic level. d. is useful for drugs that have a short systemic half-life.
a. is an initial higher dose of a drug given to increase the drug concentration to the therapeutic level in a short period of time.
The drug of choice for treating blastomycosis is a. itraconazole. b. doxycycline. C. metronidazole. d. lincocin.
a. itraconazole.
The removal of excess keratin and loosening and exfoliation of the outer layer of the skin is called a. keratolytic. b. keratoplastic. c. antiseborrheic. d. keratinization.
a. keratolytic
The diagnostic method of choosing a drug is based on all of the following except a. practical experience Correct b. assessment of the patient c. obtaining a history d. performing laboratory tests
a. practical experience
Temaril-P is a combination product that contains a centrally acting antitussive (trimeprazine tartrate) and ______ a. prednisolone b. Aminophylline C. furosemide d. theophylline
a. prednisolone
The drug name that is chosen by the manufacturer and that is the exclusive property of that company is called a. proprietary b. generic C. chemical d. compendial
a. proprietary
Omeprazole is classified as a(n) a. proton pump inhibitor. b. antacid, C. gastromucosal protectant. d. antidiarrheal.
a. proton pump inhibitor.
H2 receptor antagonists promote the healing of Gl ulcers by ______ a. reducing the secretion of hydrochloric acid by gastric mucosal cells b. increasing the secretion of hydrochloric acid by gastric mucosal cells c. activating histamine receptors d. promoting the actions of histamine
a. reducing the secretion of hydrochloric acid by gastric mucosal cells
Benzoyl peroxide is a topical antimicrobial shampoo used to treat all of the following conditions except a. seborrhea sicca. b. seborrhea oleosa. c. skin fold dermatitis. d. pyoderma.
a. seborrhea sicca.
The term entropion means a. the eyelid folds inward, toward the cornea. b. the eyelid folds outward, away from the cornea. c. misdirected eyelashes emerging at the eyelid causing corneal irritation. d. the nictitating membrane is inflamed.
a. the eyelid folds inward, toward the cornea.
A 12-lb cat will be given buprenorphine (0.3 mg/mL) squirted into the mouth at a dosage of 0.02 mg/kg for postsurgical pain. What quantity will you prepare? a. 0.1 ml b. 0.37 ml C. 0.8 mL d. 1.4 ml
b. 0.37 ml
A dog weighing 45 pounds is prescribed Enacard at 0.5 mg/kg po bid to treat glomerulonephritis. Enacard is available in 10 mg tablets. How many milligrams should the patient receive for one dose? How many tablets should be given for one dose? a. 10.23 mg: 1 tablet b. 22.5 mg; 2.25 tablets c. 5.12 mg; % tablet d. 20.46 mg; 2 tablets 23. A cat is prescribed Amlodipine at 0.18 mg/kg po sid for hypertension. The cat weighs 8 pounds. Amlodipine is available in 2.5 mg tablets. How many milligrams dose? How many tablets should the cat receive each day? should the cat receive for one a. 0.18 mg; % tablet b. 0.66 mg; % tablet C. 1.44 mg; % tablet d. 1.22 mg: % tablet
b. 0.66 mg; % tablet
A 12-pound is prescribed buprenorphine for pain. The dosage is 0.05 mg/kg SQ. The concentration on the bottle is 0.3 mg/mL. How many milliliters will you draw up in the syringe? a. 0.5 ml b. 0.9 mL C. 1.5 ml d. 2 mL
b. 0.9 mL
A 12-year-old dog weighing 30 Ib is experiencing urinary incontinence and will be treated with phenylpropanolamine at a dosage of 2 mg/kg. Proin tablets (25 mg) are available. How many tablets will you give? a. 0.5 b. 1 c. 2 d. 2.5
b. 1
A 50-lb Golden Retriever with hypothyroidism will be treated with Soloxine at 0.02 mg/kg twice day. Soloxine tablets (0.5 mg) will be used. How many tablets will you give with each dose? a. 1/2 tablet b. 1 tablet C. 1 1/2 tablets d. 2 tablets
b. 1 tablet
Previcox is prescribed for a 44-kilogram dog to be administered orally at a dosage of 5 mg/kg PO SID. Previcox is available in 227 mg tablets; the box contains 60 chewable tablets. How many tablets will you give for each dose? How many doses will one box provide? a. 2 tablets; 30 doses b. 1 tablet; 60 doses c. 1 tablet; 30 doses d. 0.5 tablet; 120 doses
b. 1 tablet; 60 doses
A 40-lb dog with lymphoma is being treated with a chemotherapy protocol that includes doxorubicin. The dosage of doxorubicin is 30 mg/m2 IV. The concentration of the doxorubicin is 2 mg/mL. How many milliliters would you draw up and what precautions should be used in its administration? a. 8.6 mL b. 10.4 mL C. 12.4 ml d. 17.6 ml
b. 10.4 mL
20-lb poodle with pituitary-dependent hyperadrenocorticism will be treated with trilostane (Vetoryl) at a dosage of 3 mg/lb once a day for 2 weeks. How many 60-mg capsules will you dispense? a. 7 capsules b. 14 capsules c. 21 capsules d. 28 capsules
b. 14 capsules
A 1200-lb Holstein cow will be treated for an ovarian cyst with 100 mcg of Cystorelin. Cystorelin contains 50 mcg/mL. How much of the product will you draw up? а. 1 ml b. 2 ml C. 3 ml d. 4 ml
b. 2 ml
A hyperthyroid, hypertensive 8-lb cat will be treated with atenolol at 7 mg/kg, once a day for 3 weeks. Tenormin tablets (25 mg) will be dispensed. How many will you dispense? a. 11 tablets b. 21 tablets c. 42 tablets d. Not enough information
b. 21 tablets
A 4-month-old, 40-lb female Labrador retriever is presented to the veterinarian. The pup is diagnosed with deep pyoderma. The veterinarian orders cephalexin to be given at a dosage rate of 25 mg/kg PO, BID for 7 days. On hand in the pharmacy are cephalexin (250 mg) capsules and cephalexin (500 mg) capsules. What is the dose the patient should receive? Which size capsules should be chosen? How many capsules should be dispensed? a. 909 mg; 500 mg; 7 capsules b. 454.5 mg; 500 mg; 14 capsules c. 238 mg; 250 mg; 7 capsules d. 312.5 mg; 500 mg; 14 capsules
b. 454.5 mg; 500 mg; 14 capsules
A 13-lb cat will be treated for acute musculoskeletal pain with robenacoxib at 1 mg/kg once a day for 5 days. Onsior tablets (6 mg/tablet) will be used. How many tablets will you dispense? a. 2 tablets b. 5 tablets C. 10 tablets d. 15 tablets
b. 5 tablets
A 58 Ib dog is prescribed spironolactone at a dosage of 2 mg/kg/day po. The drug is available in 50 mg tablets. How many milligrams will be given each day? How many tablets will be given in each dose? a. 26.36 mg; % tablet b. 52.72 mg; 1 tablet c. 79.08 mg; 1.5 tablets d. 127.6 mg; 2.5 tablets
b. 52.72 mg; 1 tablet
A 12-lb cat with anorexia due to chronic renal failure will be treated with cyproheptadine at a dosage of 0.35 mg/kg. Cyproheptadine tablets (4 mg/tablet) will be used twice a day for 1 week. How many tablets will you dispense? a. 3.5 tablets b. 7 tablets C. 9 tablets d. 14 tablets
b. 7 tablets
Which of the following drugs is an antidote for acetaminophen (Tylenol) toxicity? a. Guaifenesin b. Acetylcysteine с. Albuterol d. Aminophylline
b. Acetylcysteine
Which of the following is commonly used as an antibiotic for stomatitis and can be used as an antiparasitic for toxoplasmosis? a. Albon b. Antirobe C. Doxycycline d. Convenia
b. Antirobe
Which of the following drugs is a central acting emetic that stimulates dopamine receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone activating the vomiting center? a. Xylazine b. Apomorphine c. Syrup of ipecac d. Chlorpromazine
b. Apomorphine
______ is also known as acetylsalicylic acid. a. Phenylbutazone b. Aspirin C. DMSO d. Acetaminophen
b. Aspirin
Which of the following drugs is classified as a macrolide? a. Azithromycin b. Clindamycin C. Marbofloxacin d. Enrofloxacin
a. Azithromycin
Which of the following is classified as an antifungal agent used to treat Malassezia otitis? a. Clotrimazole b. MalAcetic C. TrizChlor d. Tobrex
a. Clotrimazole
An agent with a low minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) is a more potent anesthetic than an agent with a high MAC. a. Correct b. False
a. Correct
Which of the following is not a way by which the cardiovascular system may increase its output during times of need, such as during athletic performance or to compensate for cardiac disease? a. Decreasing heart rate to such an extent that the myocardium is protected from damage caused by the increased workload b. Increasing the stroke volume c. Increasing the efficiency of the heart muscle d. Physiologic heart enlargement; the heart is composed of muscle that responds to work by increasing its size and becoming stronger.
a. Decreasing heart rate to such an extent that the myocardium is protected from damage caused by the increased workload
______ is the anticoagulant of choice when a WBC differential is performed. a. EDTA b. Diatomaceous earth C. Sodium citrate d. Hерarin
a. EDTA
Frontline Gold contains which active ingredients? a. Fipronil, s-methoprene, pyriproxyfen b. Fipronil, s-methoprene, permethrin c. Pyriproxyfen, fipronil, afoxolaner d. s-methoprene, permethrin, imidacloprid
a. Fipronil, s-methoprene, pyriproxyfen
_____ is a medical term for bloody urine. a. Hematuria b. Hemolysis c. Hematopoiesis d. Uremia
a. Hematuria
Which of the following is not a hemostatic? a. Heparin b. Clotisol C. Celox d. Silver nitrate
a. Heparin
_______is(are) a major chemical mediator(s) of the allergic response. a. Histamine b. Prostaglandins C. Pyrogens d. Hormones
a. Histamine
Most drug excretion occurs via which of the following? a. Kidneys b. Liver c. Spleen d. Intestine
a. Kidneys
Which of the following is a local anesthetic and antiarrhythmic drug used to control premature ventricular contractions and used for the treatment of ventricular tachycardia? a. Lidocaine b. Procainamide c. Quinidine d. Propranolol
a. Lidocaine
Which of the following is used as a NSAID as a single, one-time subcutaneous injection in cats for surgical pain? a. Meloxicam b. Firocoxib C. Deracoxib d. Robenacoxib
a. Meloxicam
Which of the following topical antimicrobial ointments is approved by the FDA for the treatment of bacterial skin infections and superficial pyoderma? a. Muricin b. Clindamax c. Chlorhexidine d. Medalone
a. Muricin
Which of the following is classified as an opioid antagonist? a. Naloxone b. Atipamezole C. Acetylcysteine d. Yohimbine
a. Naloxone
The trade name for pyrantel pamoate is a. Nemex. b. Drontal. c. Cestex. d. Droncit.
a. Nemex.
The release of oxytocin by the posterior pituitary is controlled by what type of mechanism? a. Neurohormonal reflex b. Inhibition of the uterus C. Inhibition of the cerebral cortex associated with nursing d. Both b and c
a. Neurohormonal reflex
Which product should never be used on cats? a. Permethrin b. Imidacloprid C. Fluralaner d. Nitenpyram
a. Permethrin
______ is a pyrazolone derivative. a. Phenylbutazone b. Carprofen C. Etodolac d. Deramaxx
a. Phenylbutazone
Which of the following agents is an alpha-1-agonist vasoconstrictor used to induce mydriasis and may be used in the treatment of Horner's syndrome? a. Phenylephrine b. Brinzolamide c. Pilocarpine d. Carbachol
a. Phenylephrine
Which one of the following is most accurate with respect to precision vaporizers? a. Precision vaporizers are best positioned when placed out of the breathing circuit. b. Precision vaporizers are best positioned when placed in the breathing circuit. C. Precision vaporizers convert a gas anesthetic into a liquid anesthetic. d. Precision vaporizers are affected by temperature and affect the concentration delivered to the patient.
a. Precision vaporizers are best positioned when placed out of the breathing circuit.
_____ is the amount of blood that fills the ventricles during diastole. a. Preload b. Afterload C. Stroke volume d. Cardiac output
a. Preload
What is the diagnostic procedure called that evaluates tear production? a. Schirmer test b. Fluorescein test c. Rose Bengal test d. Schiotz test
a. Schirmer test
Which one of the following is an opioid, approved by the FDA, for the use in cats as a subcutaneous injection given once daily, for up to 3 days and provides 24 hours of continuous pain control? a. Simbadol b. Buprenex C. Fentanyl d. Torbugesic
a. Simbadol
Which of the following diuretics is also referred to as an aldosterone antagonist? a. Spironolactone b. Mannitol C. Furosemide d. Acetazolamide
a. Spironolactone
Which of the following is classified as a potassium-sparing diuretic? a. Spironolactone b. Mannitol c. Furosemide d. Chlorothiazide
a. Spironolactone
Which of the following agents is used to dilate the pupil? a. Pilocarpine b. Atropine C. Carbachol d. Demecarium bromide
b. Atropine
Propranolol and atenolol are what type of antiarrhythmic drugs? a. Calcium channel blockers b. Beta-adrenergic blockers c. Sodium channel blockers d. Potassium channel blockers
b. Beta-adrenergic blockers
Torbugesic is the trade name for a. Torbutrol. b. Butorphanol. c. Buprenorphine d. Buprenex.
b. Butorphanol.
Which of the following kills adult fleas within 30 minutes and can be repeated once daily? a. Certifect b. Capstar c. Sentinel d. Advantage
b. Capstar
Morphine sulfate is an ophthalmic analgesic used for corneal ulcer pain relief and to decrease blepharospasms. What class of controlled substance is morphine sulfate? a. Class I b. Class II C. Class III d. Class IV
b. Class II
Which of the following is a beta-lactamase-resistant penicillin? a. Cephalosporin b. Cloxacillin C. Bacitracin d. Clindamycin
b. Cloxacillin
What is the term for a hair follicle that loses the hair and becomes blocked with sebaceous secretions and keratin? a. Panniculus b. Comedo C. Pyoderma d. Dermatophyte
b. Comedo
Bronchodilation is produced by parasympathetic stimulation that results in increased production of mucus secretions. a. True b. Correct
b. Correct
Neurotransmitters cannot be mimicked or blocked by the use of appropriate drugs, and that is why patients with nervous system disorders do not have a very good prognosis. a. True b. Correct
b. Correct
All of the following are ocular antifungal agents except a. itraconazole. b. amphotericin B. c. natamycin. d. amikacin. Which of the following agents is used to treat keratoconjunctivitis sicca in the dog? a. Itraconazole b. Cyclosporine c. Acyclovir d. Chloramphenicol
b. Cyclosporine
are drugs that reduce the congestion of nasal membranes by reducing associated swelling. a. Antihistamines b. Decongestants c. Bronchodilators d. Expectorants
b. Decongestants
Parasympathomimetic ocular agents cause which of the following: a. Mydriasis b. Decreased intraocular pressure C. c. Increased ocular pressure d. Relaxation of the intraocular muscle
b. Decreased intraocular pressure
An antinflammatory solvent that acts as a carrier of other agents through the skin, when applied topically. a. Hydrocortisone b. Dimethyl sulfoxide c. Dexamethasone d. Tерохаlin
b. Dimethyl sulfoxide
Which of the following species has no gallbladder? a. Canines b. Equines C. Felines d. Bovines
b. Equines
Vitamin K is needed for the synthesis of which clotting factors? a. Factors I, V, VII, X b. Factors II, VII, IX, X C. Factors II, III, VIII, IX d. Factors IV, V, VII, X
b. Factors II, VII, IX, X
A vermifuge is an anthelmintic that kills internal parasite worms. a. True b. False
b. False
An adverse drug reaction is always life threatening. a. True b. False
b. False
Compounded drugs are approved by the FDA. a. True b. False
b. False
Diabetic ketoacidosis is a life-threatening complication of diabetes mellitus in which hypoglycemia occurs and the production of ketone bodies? a. True b. False Insulin should be frozen to prolong its effectiveness. a. True b. False
b. False
First-generation cephalosporins are less effective against gram positive bacteria and more effective against gram negative bacteria. a. True b. False
b. False
Goiter is a hyperthyroid condition that is caused by inadequate levels of iodide in the diet. a. True b. False
b. False
Insulin should be frozen to prolong its effectiveness. a. True b. False
b. False
Naxcel is not approved for use in lactating dairy animals. a. True b. False
b. False
Nutraceuticals are evaluated by the Food and Drug Administration. a. True b. False
b. False
Regenerative medicine harvests stem cells only from the bone marrow or blood. a. True b. False
b. False
The NDC (National Drug Code) number found on a drug label identifies the manufacturer, the drug formulation, and the package size of a drug and is required by the FDA. a, True b. False
b. False
The intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of blood coagulation do not converge into a common pathway in the final steps of clot formation because the endothelial layer of blood vessels has the ability to regenerate itself. a. True b. False
b. False
Veterinarians commonly dispense aminoglycosides to patients with renal insufficiency. а. True b. False
b. False
Bismuth subsalicylate compounds should be used with caution in what species? a. Canine b. Feline c. Caprine d. Equine
b. Feline
Bravecto for dogs contains which active ingredient? a. Afoxolaner b. Fluralaner C. Lufenuron d. Spinosad
b. Fluralaner Lufenuron
Which of the following drugs is classified as a loop diuretic? a. Mannitol b. Furosemide c. Spironolactone d. Chlorothiazide
b. Furosemide
An inhibitory neurotransmitter that is widely distributed in the brain is called a. glutamate. b. GABA. c. epinephrine. d. norepinephrine.
b. GABA.
The active ingredient(s) in Advantage Multi is a. Fluralaner. b. Imidacloprid, moxidectin. c. Fipronil, permethrin. d. Fipronil.
b. Imidacloprid, moxidectin.
Chlorhexidine is classified as a(n) a. antifungal. b. antiseptic. c. antipruritic. d. antiseborrheic.
b. antiseptic.
When situations cause spontaneous depolarization of cardiac muscle or abnormalities of the conduction system, ______ may occur. a. bradycardia b. arrhythmia c. tachycardia d. automaticity
b. arrhythmia
The antagonist (antidote) for cholinergic toxicity is a. acetylcysteine. b. atropine. c. atipamezole. d. Naloxone
b. atropine.
Erythrocytes are formed in the _______ in response to stimulation by erythropoietin. a. spleen b. bone marrow C. liver d. heart
b. bone marrow
Parenteral drugs are administered a. orally b. by injection c. by nasogastric tube d. by orogastric tube
b. by injection Correct
An anti-infective drug that is prohibited in all food producing animals is a. cephalexin. b. chloramphenicol. c. erythromycin. d. lincomycin.
b. chloramphenicol.
During the repair phase of wound healing, fibroblasts produce _____ and other connective tissue proteins. a. angiogenesis b. collagen c. comedones d. hyperpigmentation
b. collagen
Cytoxan is the trade name for a. azathioprine. b. cyclophosphamide. C. vincristine. d. piroxicam.
b. cyclophosphamide.
An ophthalmic application used for the treatment of keratoconjunctivitis sicca and atopic dermatitis is a. azathioprine. b. cyclosporine. c. interferon. d. cyclophosphamide.
b. cyclosporine.
Concurrent use of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs may_____ the effectiveness of captopril. a. increase b. decrease
b. decrease
Skin scrapings are commonly used to identify all of the following except a. sarcoptes. b. dermatophytes. c. demodex. d. cheyletiella.
b. dermatophytes.
The tympanic membrane of the ear is also called the a. auditory ossicle. b. ear drum. C. eustachian tube. d. cochlea.
b. ear drum.
The nervous system carries out activity very rapidly by sending electric-like messages over a network of nerve fibers. The system works much more slowly by sending chemical messengers through the bloodstream to target structures. a. hematopoietic b. endocrine C. exocrine d. cytokine
b. endocrine
All of the following are important factors that increase antimicrobial resistance except a. over use of an antibiotic. b. following the full course of treatment. preemptive use. d. subtherapeutic dosing.
b. following the full course of treatment.
The heart is a _____ -chambered pump that is responsible for moving blood through the vascular system. a. two b. four C. three d. five
b. four
Yunnan Bai Yao is used as a(n) a. anticoagulant. b. hemostatic. c. diuretic. d. detoxifier.
b. hemostatic.
Furosemide may cause _____in patients. a. hypoadrenocorticism b. hypokalemia c. hypocalcemia d. hypothyroidism
b. hypokalemia
Levothyroxine is used in the treatment of _____ in all species. a. hypoglycemia b. hypothyroidism c. hypokalemia d. hypocalcemia
b. hypothyroidism
All of the following are examples of nutraceuticals and chondroprotectives except a. coenzyme Q. b. milk thistle. c. glucosamine. d. chondroitin sulfate.
b. milk thistle.
Bromfenac is classified as a(n) a. steroidal anti-inflammatory agent. b. nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agent. C. antimicrobial agent. d. antifungal agent.
b. nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agent.
The agent used as an ocular anesthetic during tonometry or for the relief of corneal pain during an ocular examination is a. carbachol. b. proparacaine. C. pilocarpine. d. timolol.
b. proparacaine.
The enzyme produced by the kidney that regulates blood pressure and converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I is a. erythropoietin. b. renin. C. aldosterone. d. Urea
b. renin.
The term used to describe a wound that cannot be closed with sutures due to increased tension on the wound margins is called a. primary intention. b. secondary intention. C. maturation. d. debridement.
b. secondary intention.
The area of the brain that serves to relay information from the spinal cord and brainstem to the interpretation center in the cerebrum is the a. cerebellum b. thalamus c. hypothalamus d. hippocampus
b. thalamus
The ANS is that portion of the nervous system controls body activities. a. conscious b. unconscious
b. unconscious
Extra-label use means a. sold over the counter (OTC) b. using a drug in a way not specified by the label c. using a drug according to the empirical method d. deciding how long the drug should be given
b. using a drug in a way not specified by the label Correct
All of the following are potential adverse side effects associated with the use of antineoplastic drugs except a. hypersensitivity reaction, anorexia, and immunosuppression. b. weight gain, increased hunger and thirst, and constipation. C.. vomiting, diarrhea, and anorexia. d. hypersensitivity reaction, immunosuppression, and dyspnea.
b. weight gain, increased hunger and thirst, and constipation.
Which of the following antitussives can be purchased over the counter? a. Butorphanol b. Hycodan c. Dextromethorphan d. Theophylline
c. Dextromethorphan
What drug is safe to use in rabbits? a. Ampicillin b. Clindamycin c. Enrofloxacin d. Lincomycin
c. Enrofloxacin
are used to prevent or treat anemia. a. Vesicants b. Propionic acid derivatives c. Hematinics d. NSAIDS
c. Hematinics
Hyaluronic acid is commonly administered by what route to treat osteoarthritis and inflammatory joint disease in horses? a. Subcutaneous b. Oral c. Intra-articular d. Intramuscular
c. Intra-articular
Which of the following statements about Robenacoxib is not true? a. It is a selective COX-2 inhibitor. b. It is a COX-1 sparing NSAID. c. It is only approved for the use in dogs. d. Can be given for up to three days in the cat.
c. It is only approved for the use in dogs.
MIC represents the degree of susceptibility of an organism to a specific concentration of a particular antimicrobial drug. What does MIC stand for? a. Minimum immunodiffusion concentration b. Minimum immunomodulatory concentration c. Minimum inhibitory concentration d. Minimum inflammatory concentration
c. Minimum inhibitory concentration
Which of the following is a vasodilator, used as a topical cream, for the treatment of laminitis in horses? a. Hydralazine b. Nitroprusside c. Nitroglycerin d. Prazosin
c. Nitroglycerin
11. is the complex sequence of events that occurs after a drug is administered to a patient. a. Half-life b. Metabolism (biotransformation) c. Pharmacokinetics d. Residue
c. Pharmacokinetics Correct
Which of the following is a beta-adrenergic blocking agent used to treat tachycardia associated with hyperthyroidism? a. Methimazole b. Levothyroxine c. Propranolol d. Florinef
c. Propranolol
Which of the following diagnostic ophthalmic test should be run first so that you obtain accurate results? a. Fluorescein test b. Tonometry c. Schirmer test d. Does not matter which order the above tests are run
c. Schirmer test
Which product contains lufenuron as its active ingredient? a. Trifexis b. Nexgard c. Sentinel d. Bravecto
c. Sentinel
_____ is a faster-than-normal heart rate. a. Bradycardia b. Arrhythmia c. Tachycardia d. Automaticity
c. Tachycardia
Which of the following is not a parasite with zoonotic potential? a. Toxoplasma gondii b. Toxocara canis c. Trichuris vulpis d. Ancylostoma caninum
c. Trichuris vulpis
Where is the pituitary gland located? a. Next to the thalamus b. Dorsal to the hypothalamus c. Ventral to the hypothalamus d. Dorsal to the thalamus
c. Ventral to the hypothalamus
All of the following are alpha-2-adrenergic agonists except a. Dexmedetomidine. b. Xylazine. c. Yohimbine. d. Romifidine.
c. Yohimbine.
A Xanthine oxidase inhibitor used to treat or prevent the formation of uric acid crystals is a. methionine. b. phenylpropanolamine. c. allopurinol. d. ammonium chloride
c. allopurinol.
Stanozolol is a(n) a. growth hormone. b. nonsteroidal. c. anabolic steroid. d. sex steroid.
c. anabolic steroid.
Colloidal oatmeal shampoo is classified as a(n) a. antiseptic. b. antifungal. c. antipruritic. d. antibacterial.
c. antipruritic.
A long acting injectable antibiotic used in cats that maintains concentrations at the site of infection for up to 2 weeks is a. cephalexin. b. clindamycin. c. convenia. d. ceftiofur.
c. convenia.
The three lavers of the skin include all but a. dermis. b. epidermis. c. keratin. d. hypodermis.
c. keratin.
An osmotic diuretic used to treat oliguric acute renal failure & to reduce intracranial pressure is a. spironolactone. b. furosemide. c. mannitol. d. chlorothiazide.
c. mannitol.
Aminophylline and theophylline are _________ derivatives. a. adrenergic b. cholinergic c. methylxanthine d. acetylcysteine
c. methylxanthine
The basic functional unit of the kidney is the a. tubules. b. glomerular filtrate. c. nephron. d. medulla.
c. nephron.
Viokase-V powder is used to treat a. giardiasis. b. myasthenia gravis. c. pancreatic exocrine insufficiency. d. constipation.
c. pancreatic exocrine insufficiency.
The ______?is the largest organ in the body. a. liver b. spleen c. skin d. stomach
c. skin
The primary goal of dietary management of heart disease is restriction of ______ a. taurine b. calcium c. sodium d. protein
c. sodium
All of the following drugs may cause hypokalemia except a. furosemide. b. chlorothiazide. c. spironolactone. d. acetazolamide
c. spironolactone.
The alveoli are lined with a chemical called _______ which helps to keep them from collapsing. a. protein b. mucin c. surfactant d. defensis
c. surfactant
_______is used to treat acetaminophen toxicity. a. Atipamezole b. Naloxone c. Flumazenil d. Acetylcysteine
d. Acetylcysteine
What category of drugs cause bronchodilation? a. Antihistamines b. Methylxanthines C. Beta2 adrenergics d. All of the above
d. All of the above
Which of the following factors affect glomerular filtration? a. Plasma osmotic pressure b. Changes in blood flow c. Glomerular blood pressure d. All of the above
d. All of the above
Which of the following topical agents is classified as a corticosteroid? a. Betamethasone b. Triamcinolone C. Isoflupredone acetate d. All of the above
d. All of the above
What FDA approved aminoglycoside is used for intrauterine infusion in mares? a. Spectinomycin b. Neomycin c. Gentamicin d. Amikacin
d. Amikacin
Which terms best describes the degree to which a drug is absorbed and reaches systemic circulation? a. Biotransformation b. Metabolism С. Excretion d. Bioavailability
d. Bioavailability
Which of the following drugs is an agonist/antagonist with antitussive activity? a. Temaril-P b. Codeine c. Dextromethorphan d. Butorphanol
d. Butorphanol
Which antibiotic is prohibited for use in all food-producing animals? a. Penicillin b. Macrolides c. Lincosamides d. Chloramphenicol
d. Chloramphenicol
Drug products with codeine alone are in what schedule of controlled substances? a. Class I b. Class III C. Class V d. Class II
d. Class II
Which bacteriostatic drug is commonly used to treat Lyme disease? a. Clindamycin b. Lincomycin c. Cephalosporins d. Doxycycline
d. Doxycycline
Which of the following hormones is secreted by the kidney that communicates with the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells? a. Steroids b. Thyroid hormones c. Estrogen d. Erythropoietin
d. Erythropoietin
_________ are drugs that liquefy and dilute viscid secretions of the respiratory tract, thereby helping to evacuate those secretions. a. Antitussives b. Decongestants C. Bronchodilators d. Expectorants
d. Expectorants
Which of the following is an NSAID used in horses for colic? a. Salicylates b. Carprofen C. DMSO d. Flunixin meglumine
d. Flunixin meglumine
What classification of anti-infective agent can cause impaired cartilage development when given to young growing animals? a. Cephalosporins b. Macrolides c. Lincosamides d. Fluoroquinolones
d. Fluoroquinolones
Which of the following topical antiparasitic agents contain fipronil and (s)-methoprene? a. Vectra b. Advantage C. Revolution d. Frontline Gold
d. Frontline Gold
______block the action of phospholipase to reduce inflammation and stabilize the phospholipid membrane of the cell. a. NSAID b. Lipoxygenase c. Leukotrienes d. Glucocorticoids
d. Glucocorticoids
______ tissue is formed during healing of wounds of the soft tissue that consists of connective tissue cells and ingrown young vessels, which ultimately form a scar. a. Collagen b. Keratolytic C. Callus d. Granulation
d. Granulation
Which classification of disinfectant preparations is bactericidal, fungicidal, virucidal, and sporicidal? a. Quaternary ammonium compounds b. Alcohol c. Chlorhexidine d. Halogens
d. Halogens
Which of the following statements is not true of the pituitary gland? a. It is referred to as the "master gland." b. Hormones produced by the anterior pituitary are TSH and ACTH. c. Hormones produced by the posterior pituitary include oxytocin and vasopressin. d. Hormones produced by the posterior pituitary are called indirect-acting hormones.
d. Hormones produced by the posterior pituitary are called indirect-acting hormones.
What area of the brain plays an important role in hormone production and acts as a mediator between the endocrine and nervous systems? a. Cerebellum b. Cerebrum C. Medulla d. Hypothalamus
d. Hypothalamus
5. Which of the following are included in a drug regimen? a. Route of administration b. Frequency of administration C. Dose of the drug d. Duration of time that the drug will be given e. All of the above
e. All of the above
What diuretic is used most commonly in the treatment of heart failure? a. Chlorothiazide b. Lasix c. Spironolactone d. Mannitol
b. Lasix
The only product currently available for the treatment of adult heartworms is a. Lufenuron. b. Melarsomine. c. Diethylcarbamazine. d. Moxidectin.
b. Melarsomine.
All of the following are corticosteroids except a. Prednisone. b. Meloxicam. C. Triamcinolone. d. Flumethasone.
b. Meloxicam.
is the body's ability to change a drug chemically from the form in which it was administered into a form that can be eliminated from the body. a. Half-life b. Metabolism (biotransformation) C. Pharmacokinetics d. Residue
b. Metabolism (biotransformation) Correct
Which of the following drugs is used to treat hyperthyroidism in cats? a. Levothyroxine b. Methimazole c. Thyroid stimulating hormone d. Florinef
b. Methimazole
Which atrioventricular valve is located between the left atrium and left ventricle? a. Tricuspid b. Mitral c. Pulmonic d. Aortic
b. Mitral
______ is a full agonist opioid; all other opioids are compared with this drug to measure potency. a. Fentanyl b. Morphine с. Терохаlin d. Carprofen
b. Morphine
What is the tradename for Afoxolaner? a. Trifexis b. Nexgard C. Sentinel d. Bravecto
b. Nexgard
Which of the following drugs is a proton pump inhibitor used for the treatment of gastric ulcers in horses? a. Ranitidine b. Omeprazole c. Sucralfate d. Chlorpromazine
b. Omeprazole
Which of the following drugs is used to stimulate milk letdown during lactation? a. Megestrol acetate b. Oxytocin c. Estrogen d. Corticosteroids
b. Oxytocin
12. Which of the following drugs is approved for use in horses as an injectable NSAID that must be given intravenously? a. Banamine b. Phenylbutazone C. Ketoprofen d. Carprofen
b. Phenylbutazone
Which of the following is an inodilator? a. Propranolol b. Pimobendan C. Procainamide d. Epinephrine
b. Pimobendan
The use of loop diuretics can lead to a dangerous loss of what electrolyte? a. Sodium b. Potassium c. Glucose d. Calcium
b. Potassium
Which of the following is an approved injectable heartworm preventative that protects dogs for 6 months against heartworm disease? a. Advantage b. Proheart c. Centragard d. Revolution
b. Proheart
Which product contains selamectin as its active ingredient and is Indicated for the treatment sarcoptic mange? a. Bravecto b. Revolution C. Sentinel spectrum d. Trifexis
b. Revolution
Which antimicrobial drug inhibits acid synthesis? a. Tetracycline b. Sulfonamides c. Lincosamides d. Aminoglycosides
b. Sulfonamides
Which of the following is not true of neuroleptanalgesia? a. It is a combination of an opioid analgesic and a tranquilizer. b. The combination will not enhance CNS depressant effects of each drug. Correct c. The opioid portion can be reversed with an opioid antagonist. d. Commonly used for short procedures such as wound suturing.
b. The combination will not enhance CNS depressant effects of each drug.
Telazol is an injectable anesthetic that consists of a combination of which two drugs? a. Zolazepam and meperidine b. Tiletamine and zolazepam C. Tiletamine and diazepam d. Ketamine and tiletamine
b. Tiletamine and zolazepam
The trade name for butorphanol is a. Fentanyl. b. Torbugesic. C. Buprenex. d. Simbadol.
b. Torbugesic.
What part of the kidney is responsible for the reabsorption, or the secretion, of certain substances? a. Nephrons b. Tubules c. Glomerular filtrate d. Extracellular fluid
b. Tubules
Which of the following drugs is used to stimulate respirations in xylazine overdose? a. Naloxone b. Yobine C. Doxapram d. Theophylline
b. Yobine
Which of the following is a topical enzymatic shampoo that is used for itchy inflamed skin? a. MalAcetic b. Zymox c. Nolvasan d. SulfoxyDex
b. Zymox
The tendency of a drug to combine with a receptor is called its a. efficacy b. affinity c. potency d. therapeutic index
b. affinity
All of the following are functions of the respiratory system, except a. oxygen-carbon dioxide exchange b. regulation of acid-base balance С. production of sodium bicarbonate to aid in regulation of acid-base balance d. body temperature regulation
С. production of sodium bicarbonate to aid in regulation of acid-base balance
What is the active ingredient of Metamucil? a. Lactulose b. Petrolatum с. Psyllium d. Probiotic
с. Psyllium
Which of the following products is used for the treatment of fleas, ticks, heartworm prevention, ear mites, and sarcoptic mange in dogs? a. Sentinel b. Trifexis с. Revolution d. Nexgard
с. Revolution
Epinephrine (adrenaline) is responsible for all of the following except a. can cause an increase in metabolic rate b. can cause an increase in heart rate and cardiac output с. communication with stem cells in the bone marrow d. can constrict blood vessels in the skin
с. communication with stem cells in the bone marrow
What category of drug would be used to suppress a non-productive cough in a dog? a. Antihistamine b. Expectorant C. Antitussive d. Bronchodilator
C. Antitussive
_____ mimic the action of natural acetylcholine by directly stimulating cholinergic receptors a. Ace inhibitors b. Anticholinergics C. Cholinergic agonists d. Antidiuretics
C. Cholinergic agonists
Fluorescein stain is commonly used to stain the cornea in which corneal damage is suspected. The stain can also be used for what purpose? a. Measure eye pressure b. Quantify tear production C. Determine patency of the nasolacrimal ducts d. Detect the presence of viral keratitis
C. Determine patency of the nasolacrimal ducts
Which of the following describes the movement of a drug from systemic circulation into the tissues? a. Absorption b. Metabolism C. Distribution d. Elimination
C. Distribution
You are assisting in the delivery of a litter of puppies and you deliver one that is not breathing adequately, What drug would the veterinarian instruct you to give? a. Meloxicam b. Diazepam C. Doxapram d. Propofol
C. Doxapram
Which of the following is the antibiotic of choice to kill Wolbachia? a. Febantel b. Dichlorvos C. Doxycycline d. Albendazole
C. Doxycycline
The active ingredient in Bravecto, which kills fleas and ticks for up to 12 weeks in the dog, is a. Imidacloprid. b. Spinetoram. C. Fluralaner. d. Fipronil.
C. Fluralaner.
Where in the body is erythropoietin produced? a. Liver b. Bone C. Kidney d. Spleen
C. Kidney
Lomotil, a narcotic analgesic, is effective in the control of diarrhea due to its ability to do all of the following except a. increase segmental contractions. b. decrease intestinal secretions. C. enhance intestinal absorption. d. drug of choice in cats.
d. drug of choice in cats.
All the following are basic functions of the GI system, except ______ a. intake of food and fluid into the body b. absorption of nutrients and fluid C. excretion of waste products d. excretion of urine
d. excretion of urine
Fluorouracil is contraindicated in ______ because of adverse side effects. a. caprines b. ovines C. avians d. felines
d. felines
Fatty acid supplementation is useful in treating all of the following except a. cardiovascular disorders. b. arthritis. C. flea allergy dermatitis and atopic dermatitis. d. gastrointestinal disorders.
d. gastrointestinal disorders.
GNRH is classified as a/an ____ a. direct acting hormone b. antidiuretic hormone C. growth hormone d. gonadotropin
d. gonadotropin
Heparin test tubes have a ____ top. a. blue b. gray c. lavender d. green
d. green
GNRH is produced in the _____ a. pancreas b. thymus c. thyroid gland d. hypothalamus
d. hypothalamus
The primary function of erythrocytes is to a, ensure that the blood has a red color b. absorb erythropoietin c. absorb as much CO2 as possible d. carry 02 to the tissues
d. carry 02 to the tissues
A 15-year-old dog with advanced osteosarcoma will be euthanized with a pentobarbital solution (Beuthanasia solution). The dog weighs 85 lbs and the dosage of Beuthanasia is 1 ml/10 pounds. How many milliliters will you prepare? a. 0.8 mL b. 3.8 ml C. 8.8 mL d. 10.8 ml
C. 8.8 mL
All the following agencies regulate animal health products except a. FDA b. EPA C. AVMA d. USDA adverse
C. AVMA Correct
_____ is the most commonly used formamidine in veterinary medicine. a. Dichlorvos b. Propoxur C. Amitraz d. Selamectin
C. Amitraz
Which of the following drugs is a tricyclic antidepressant and anxiolytic drug? a. Phenazopyridine b. Phenylpropanolamine C. Amitriptyline d. Ephedrine sulfate
C. Amitriptyline
Most biotransformation of drugs occurs in which of the following? a. Kidney b. Liver C. Spleen d. Pancreas
B.
Which of the following drugs is classified as a calcium channel blocker used to treat hypertension in cats with renal failure? a. Dopamine b. Hydralazine C. Amlodipine d. Enalapril
C. Amlodipine
A 40-lb dog will be treated with naloxone for respiratory depression due to morphine overdosage. The dosage for naloxone is 0.04 mg/kg and the concentration of the naloxone is 0.4 mg/mL. How many milliliters will you prepare? a. 0.3 mL b. 3 mL C. 1.8 mL d. 18 mL
C. 1.8 mL
A 12-lb cat with hypertension due to chronic renal failure will be treated with benazepril tablets (5 mg) at a dosage of 0.5 mg/kg. How many tablets will be given in each dose? a. 2 tablets b. 1 tablet c. 1/2 tablet d. 1/4 tablet
C. 1/2
A 1200-lb horse will be treated for acute abdominal pain with flunixin meglumine at 1.1 mg/kg IV. Banamine injection (50 mg/mL) will be used. How much will you draw up? a. 10 mL b. 26.4 ml C. 12 ml d. 8 mL
C. 12 ml
A 22-lb dog with moderate heart failure will be treated with pimobendan at a dosage of 0.5 mg/kg, once daily, for 2 weeks. The tablets to be used are 5 mg. How many will you dispense? a. 1 tablet b. 7 tablets C. 14 tablets d. 28 tablets
C. 14 tablets
A 42 Ib dog is prescribed cimetidine at a dosage of 10 mg/kg po every 8 hours. Cimetidine is available in 200 mg tablets. How many milligrams should the patient receive for each dose? How many tablets should the patient receive each day? a. 420 mg; 2 tablets b. 420 mg; 3 tablets C. 191 mg; 3 tablets d. 191 mg; 1 tablet
C. 191 mg; 3 tablets
A 28-pound dog is prescribed Otomax otic solution. The dosage is 4 drops (0.2 mL) in each ear bid for 7 days. How much solution in mL will be used for the entire 7 days? a. 3.2 mL b. 11.2 ml C. 22.4 mL d. 28.2 ml
C. 22.4 mL
A 12-lb cat with lymphosarcoma is being treated with a protocol that includes asparaginase at a dosage of 10,000 units/m2. The concentration of the asparaginase solution is 1000 U/mL. How many milliliters would you draw up? a. 1.1 ml b. 2.1 mL C. 3.1 ml d. 4.1 ml
C. 3.1 ml
The trade name for Cephalexin is a. Cefa-tabs. b. Cefazolin. C. Rilexine. d. Ceftiofur.
C. Rilexine.
All FDA-approved veterinary drugs are listed in the publication entitled a. USDA (US Department of Agriculture) b. INAD (Investigational New Animal Drug) C. The Green Book Correct d. AMDUCA (Animal Medicinal Drug Use Clarification Act)
C. The Green Book
. Which of the following drugs is not classified as an emetic, but is considered the drug of choice to induce vomiting in cats? a. Hydrogen peroxide b. Apomorphine C. Xylazine d. Syrup of ipecac
C. Xylazine
Miconazole is classified as a topical a, antimicrobial, b. antiseptic. C. antifungal. d. antipruritic.
C. antifungal.
Propranolol is classified as a(n) a. anticholinergic. b. alpha-adrenergic antagonist. C. beta-adrenergic antagonist. d. cholinergic.
C. beta-adrenergic antagonist
Digitalis is a (an) ______ It is obtained from the dried leaves of the plant Digitalis purpurea. a. catecholamine drug b. bipyridine derivative C. cardiac glycoside d. antiarrhythmic drug
C. cardiac glycoside
All of the following drugs are contraindicated if gastrointestinal obstruction is suspected except a. erythromycin. b. ranitidine. C. diltiazem. d. metoclopramide.
C. diltiazem.
Magnesium sulfate is found in ____ a. magnalax boluses b. fleet enemas C. epsom salts d. milk of magnesia
C. epsom salts
Drugs are absorbed from a(n) injection site at a faster rate than from a(n) injection site. a. subcutaneous; intramuscular b. intramuscular; intravenous C. intramuscular; subcutaneous d. subcutaneous; intravenous
C. intramuscular; subcutaneous
Prozinc insulin is classified as a(n) a. short-acting insulin. b. intermediate-acting insulin. C. long-acting insulin. d. there is no classification for ProZinc insulin.
C. long-acting insulin.
The trade name for cyclosporine is a. acyclovir. b. viroptic. C. optimmune. d. terramycin.
C. optimmune.
Solu-Delta-Cortef is the trade name for ______ a. prednisolone b. dexamethasone C. prednisolone sodium succinate d. fluticasone propionate
C. prednisolone sodium succinate
A substance that can initiate a fever is called a(n). _____ a. prostaglandin b. endorphin C. pyrogen d. pyometra
C. pyrogen
A sodium channel blocker drug that is an alkaloid obtained from cinchona plants used to treat ventricular arrhythmias and atrial fibrillation is a. digitalis. b. dobutamine. C. quinidine. d. atenolol.
C. quinidine.
Clients should purchase herbal products from reputable manufacturers approved by _____ a. the Food and Drug Administration b. the North American Veterinary Nutraceutical Council C. the National Animal Supplement Council d. the Dietary Supplement Health and Education Administration
C. the National Animal Supplement Council
The relationship between a drug's ability to achieve a desired effect and its tendency to produce a toxic effect is called a. agonist b. efficacy C. therapeutic index d. affinity
C. therapeutic index
Pain arising from abdominal or thoracic organs is called ______ pain. a. somatic b. deep C. visceral d. delayed
C. visceral
All the following drugs are classified as penicillins, except_______ a cephalexin b. amoxicillin c. ampicillin d. cloxacillin
a cephalexin
All the following are benzodiazepines except ________ a. yohimbine b. diazepam C. alprazolam d. zolazepam
a. yohimbine
A 30-lb dog will be treated with Cerenia for vomiting associated with pancreatitis. The dosage is 1 mg/kg and the Cerenia solution contains 10 mg/mL. How much will you draw up? a. 0.14 mL b. 0.4 ml c. 1.4 mL d. 3 ml
c. 1.4 mL
A 45-pound dog is prescribed Droncit tablets for tapeworms. Droncit tablets are available in 34 mg tablets. The dosage is 5 mg/kg PO once. How many tablets will you give for the treatment? a. 1 tablet b. 2 tablets c. 3 tablets d. 4 tablets
c. 3 tablets
A 25-lb dog with acute pulmonary edema will be treated with aminophylline at a dosage of 5 mg/kg three times a day for 5 days. There are 100-mg tablets available. How many will you dispense? a. 0.5 tablets b. 1.5 tablets c. 7.5 tablets d. 10 tablets
c. 7.5 tablets
What type of drug toxicity is acetylcysteine an antidote for? a. Opioid b. Aspirin c. Acetaminophen d. Antifreeze
c. Acetaminophen
Doxirubicin is classified as what type of chemotherapeutic drug? a. Alkylating b. Antimetabolite c. Anthracycline d. Antitubulin
c. Anthracycline
Which of the following is a dopamine agonist that is the drug of choice for inducing vomiting in dogs? a. Butorphanol b. Xylazine c. Apomorphine d. Ipecac syrup
c. Apomorphine
Nitenpyram is the active ingredient in a. Nexgard. b. Revolution. c. Capstar. d. Vectra 3D.
c. Capstar.
Which of the following increases intraocular pressure and should not be used in animals with glaucoma? a. Pilocarpine b. Carbachol c. Cyclopentolate d. Latanoprost
c. Cyclopentolate
Atipamezole is a reversal agent for a. xylazine b. opioids C. organophosphates d. dexmedetomidine ___________
d. dexmedetomidine
Congestive heart failure (CHF) results when the pumping ability of the heart is impaired to the extent that Na and H20 are retained in an effort to compensate for inadequate cardiac output. It is associated with all of the following, except _____ a. exercise intolerance b. pulmonary edema C. ascites d. diaphragmatic hernia
d. diaphragmatic hernia
22. A lagomorph is presented to the veterinarian with Pasteurella multocida. The rabbit weighs 4.5 Ib. The veterinarian orders enrofloxacin at a dosage of 5 mg/kg SC for 5 days. On hand in the pharmacy is enrofloxacin injectable with a concentration of 22.7 mg/mL. How many milliliters should the rabbit get for one dose? a 0.90 mL b. 0.75 mL C. 0.55 mL d. 0.45 mL
d. 0.45 mL
A 1200-lb horse with heaves (RAO) will be treated with Ventipulmin syrup (72.5 mcg/mL) at a dosage of 0.8 mcg/kg daily for 3 days. How many milliliters will you dispense? a. 6 ml b. 9.4 ml C. 12 ml d. 18 mL
d. 18 mL
An Airedale terrier is diagnosed with Lyme disease. The dog weighs 60 Ib. The veterinarian orders doxycycline for treatment at a dosage of 10 mg/kg PO q24h for 21 days. On hand in the pharmacy are doxycycline capsules (100 mg) and doxycycline capsules (250 mg). What is the dose for this patient? What size capsule is best to use? How many capsules need to be dispensed for this dog? a. 132.5 mg; 100 mg; 21 capsules b. 234.6 mg; 250 mg; 28 capsules c. 545 mg; 250 mg; 42 capsules d. 272.7 mg; 250 mg; 21 capsules
d. 272.7 mg; 250 mg; 21 capsules
A shelter dog with mild canine infectious respiratory disease (CIRD) will receive two Temaril-P tablets twice a day for 4 days and then 1 tablet twice a day for 6 days. How many tablets will you prepare? a. 14 tablets b. 20 tablets c. 22 tablets d. 28 tablets
d. 28 tablets
An 8-lb cat with hyperthyroidism will be treated with methimazole at 2.5 mg twice a day for 3 weeks. Felimazole tablets (2.5 mg) will be used. How many will you dispense? a. 14 tablets b. 21 tablets C. 24 tablets d. 42 tablets
d. 42 tablets
Spironolactone is prescribed at 1.5 mg/kg q12h for a Labrador Retriever weighing 65 Ilb. What is the dose this dog should receive? a. 13 mg q12h b. 97.5 mg q12h c. 48.75 mg q12h d. 44.33 mg q12h
d. 44.33 mg q12h
A herd of 55 Hereford cows need to be dewormed using Dectomax. The average weight of the individuals in the herd is 1050 lb. On hand in the pharmacy is Dectomax (10 mg/mL). The dose for this drug is 1 ml/110 lb of weight. How many total milliliters does the client need for deworming his herd? a. 530 mL b. 630 ml C. 728 ml d. 528 mL
d. 528 mL
The débridement stage of wound healing usually begins to occur about_hour(s) after injury. a. 2 b. 3 C. 1 d. 6
d. 6
18. A miniature schnauzer named Miss Peepers is presented to the veterinarian with reports from the client that she is straining to urinate and that blood is present in the urine. The veterinarian suspects possible infection-induced struvite uroliths in the urinary bladder and prescribes methionine for the dog at 100 mg/kg q12h, with the hope that the drug will help to dissolve any forming or formed uroliths. The client cannot afford radiography or ultrasonography on this particular office visit. Miss Peepers weighs 13.5 lb. In the pharmacy, there are methionine (200- mg tablets) and methionine (500-mg tablets). What is the dose the dog should receive q12h? How many tablets of each dosage need to be dispensed for a month's supply if the 500-mg tablets cost $0.50/each and the 200-mg tablets cost $0.25/each? a. 1350 mg q12h; methionine (500 mg x 90 tablets) b. 675 mg q12h; methionine (500 mg x 90 tablets) C. 600 mg q12h; methionine (500 mg x 60 tablets and 200 mg tablets x 60 tablets) d. 614 mg q12h; methionine (500 mg x 60 tablets and 200 mg tablets x 30 cut in halves)
d. 614 mg q12h; methionine (500 mg x 60 tablets and 200 mg tablets x 30 cut in halves)
Which of the following is considered the "true" stomach in ruminants? a. Reticulum b. Omasum C. Rumen d. Abomasum
d. Abomasum
All of the following are types of corticosteroids except ______ a. Dexamethasone b. Predef C. Vetalog d. Ketoprofen
d. Ketoprofen
_______ is an antiemetic that can be administered in a continuous intravenous drip in severe cases of vomiting and is also used to treat gastric motility disorders? a. Chlorpromazine b. Meclazine c. Maropitant d. Metoclopramide
d. Metoclopramide
Which of the following herbal medicines can be used for liver support? a. Ginseng b. Ginkgo C. Marshmallow d. Milk thistle
d. Milk thistle
Which route of administration of a drug produces the slowest onset of action but a longer duration action? a. Intravenous b. Subcutaneous C. Intramuscular d. Oral
d. Oral
Which of the following is a drug that can be purchased without a prescription and contains ingredients that are safe or have low concentrations of active ingredients? a. Controlled substance b. Legend drug c. Prescription drug d. Over-the-counter drug
d. Over-the-counter drug Correct
Iron deficiency anemia is a problem in what species? a. Sheep b. Kittens C. Foals d. Piglets
d. Piglets
If an owner saw roundworms in their dogs stool and wanted to purchase an over-the-counter dewormer for roundworms they would choose a. Metronidazole. b. Drontal. C. Ivermectin. d. Piperazine.
d. Piperazine.
All of the following drugs are used to treat tapeworms in dogs and cats except a. Epsiprantel. b. Praziquantel. c. Fendbendazole. d. Pyrantel pamoate.
d. Pyrantel pamoate.
All of the following are androgens, except _____a. Winstrol-V b. Equipoise c. Danazol d. Regu-Mate
d. Regu-Mate
Which of the following products is used'for seborrhea sicca and allergic dermatitis? a. Benzoyl peroxide b. Chlorhexidine C. Hydrocortisone d. Salicylic acid
d. Salicylic acid
What is the main active ingredient in Revolution? a. Fipronil b. Imidacloprid C. Permethrin d. Selamectin
d. Selamectin
Which of the following products is an antiseborrheic drug that should not be used on cats? a. Precipitated sulfur b. Salicylic acid c. Benzoyl peroxide d. Selenium sulfide
d. Selenium sulfide
All of the following are ocular antifungal agents except a. itraconazole. b. amphotericin B. c. natamycin. d. amikacin.
d. amikacin.
Cimetidine is ______ a. a proton pump inhibitor b. an antacid C. a gastromucosal protectant d. an H2 receptor antagonist
d. an H2 receptor antagonist
All of the following drugs are used to treat feline ocular herpes virus infections except a. trifluridine. b. idoxuridine. C. cidofovir. d. betamethasone.
d. betamethasone.
The amount of blood that the heart is capable of pumping per minute is called _____ a. stroke volume b. preload C. afterload d. cardiac output
d. cardiac output
A synthetic antibiotic/antiinflammatory agent used to treat giardiasis and anaerobic bacterial infection in animals is called _____ a. cimetidine b. erythromycin c. metoclopramide d. metronidazole
d. metronidazole
The trade name for tropicamide is a. altafrin. b. timoptic. C. xalatan. d. mydriacyl.
d. mydriacyl.
The is the fundamental unit of the nervous system. a. hepatocyte b. nephron C. beta cell d. neuron
d. neuron
Pheromones are ______ released by an animal that influence the behavior of other animals of the same species. a. hormones b. gonadotropins c. steroids d. odors
d. odors
U-40 syringes have a/an ______ top. а. green b. purple C. orange d. red
d. red
Blood from the general circulation returns to the heart by way of the vena cava to the_____ a. left ventricle b. left atrium C. right ventricle d. right atrium
d. right atrium
Antinematodal agents are used to treat all of the following internal parasite worms except a. roundworms. b. hookworms. C. whipworms. d. tapeworms.
d. tapeworms.
Estriol is an estrogen hormone used to treat a. enteritis. b. bladder hypo-contractility. c. constipation. d. urinary incontinence.
d. urinary incontinence.
Endometrium lines the _____ a. kidney b. stomach C. intestines d. uterus
d. uterus
All of the following are used as appetite stimulants in cats except a. diazepam. b. cyproheptadine. с. охаzераm. d. xylazine.
d. xylazine.
Xylazine is antagonized by a. naloxone b. detomidine HCI C. valium d. yohimbine
d. yohimbine
