Phlebotomy Study Guide

Which needle gauge has the largest lumen? A) 18 B) 20 C) 21 D) 22

A) 18

How large is a normal erythrocyte? A) 4 to 5 um B) 7 to 8 um C) 8 to 10 um D) 10 to 12 um

A) 4 to 5 um

How long should the site be examined to determine if bleeding has stopped? A) 5 to 10 seconds B) 10 to 15 seconds C) 20 to 25 seconds D) 25 to 30 seconds

A) 5 to 10 seconds

The solution normally used to clean the site before routine venipuncture is A) 70% isopropanol B) benzalkonium chloride C) chlorhexidine gluconate D) povidone-iodine

A) 70% isopropanol

Which of the following is an example of a work practice control that reduces risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogens? A) A biohazard symbol B) An exposure control plan C) Hand decontamination D) HBV vaccination

A) A biohazard symbol

When a threshold value of a clinical indicator of QA is exceeded and a problem is identified A) A corrective action plan is implemented B) An incident report must be filed C) The patient specimens must always be redrawn D) The patient's physicians must be notified

A) A corrective action plan is implemented

Which of the following patients would be considered to be in a "steady state" for ABG specimen collection? A) A patient who has been sleeping for 30 minutes while breathing room air B) A patient who has been breathing oxygen while finishing eating lunch C) A patient who has been breathing via a ventilator for the past 15 minutes D) A patient who has just finished a treatment with a respiratory therapist

A) A patient who has been sleeping for 30 minutes while breathing room air

Which of the following is a test of the respiratory system? A) ABGs B) CSF C) ETOH D) UA

A) ABGs

Which type of therapy can increase bilirubin levels? A) Acetaminophen pills B) Blood pressure medication C) Chemotherapy drugs D) Oral contraceptives

A) Acetaminophen pills

Why should a laboratory report form indicate the fact that a specimen has been collected by capillary puncture A) Because test results vary depending on the method of collection B) So that the subsequent specimens will be collected by skin puncture also C) So that the patient nurse can check the site for signs of infection D) To satisfy liability requirements and for billing purposes

A) Because test results vary depending on the method of collection

Why do pregnant patients have lower reference ranges for red blood cell counts? A) Body fluids increases in pregnancy, diluting red blood cells B) Constant nausea leads to hemoconcentration of the blood C) Poor appetite leads to transient anemia D) The growing fetus uses up the mother's iron reserves

A) Body fluids increases in pregnancy, diluting red blood cells

If collected by capillary puncture, which of the following is collected first? A) CBC B) Electrolytes C) Glucose D) Phosphorus

A) CBC

Which rapid diagnostic tests are now commonly used to detect food borne illness? A) CIDTs B) PCRs C) RIDTs D) All of the above

A) CIDTs (Culture Independent Diagnostic Tests)

The patient is just finishing a big breakfast as the phlebotomist arrives to draw a fasting specimen. What should the phlebotomist do? A) Check with the patient's nurse to see if the specimen should still be collected B) Draw the specimen since breakfast was just eaten and probably not absorbed C) Draw the specimen, but write "nonfasting" on the lab requisition D) Refuse to collect the specimen and fill out an incident report slip

A) Check with the patient's nurse to see if the specimen should still be collected

Which class of fire extinguisher uses soda and acid or water to cool a fire? A) Class A B) Class B C) Class C D) Class K

A) Class A

Symptoms of shock include: A) Cold, pale, clammy skin B) Decreased breathing rate C) A rapid, strong pulse D) All of the above

A) Cold, pale, clammy skin

Which of the following collection circumstances is least likely to result in the delayed clotting of a serum sample? A) Collection was difficult, hemolyzing red blood cells B) Patient has an elevated white blood cell count C) Patient is taking an anticoagulant medication D) Specimen is chilled soon after being collected

A) Collection was difficult, hemolyzing red blood cells

The microbiology department in the laboratory performs: A) Compatibility testing B) Culture and sensitivity testing C) Electrolyte monitoring D) Enzyme-linked immunoassay

A) Compatibility testing

You have no choice but to draw a specimen from a site with a hematoma. Where should you obtain the specimen? A) Distal to the hematoma B) In the area of the hematoma C) Proximal to the hematoma D) None of the options above

A) Distal to the hematoma

According to CLSI standards, which tube is filled last when using a syringe A) EDTA B) heparin C) sodium citrate D) sterile SPS

A) EDTA

The medical term for red blood cell is: A) Erythrocyte B) Hepatoccyte C) Leukocyte D) Thrombocyte

A) Erythrocyte

Which blood cell has the ability to pass through the blood vessel walls? A) Erythrocyte B) Leukocyte C) Reticulocyte D) Thrombocyte

A) Erythrocyte

The principles of right and wrong conduct as they apply to professional problems are called: A) Ethics B) Kinesics C) Proxemics D) Rules

A) Ethics

Which test typically requires a refrigerated stool specimen? A) Fecal fat B) Guaiac C) Occult blood D) Ova and parasites

A) Fecal fat

Which situation would be most likely to allow reflux to occur during venipuncture? A) Filling the tube stopper end first B) Lateral redirection of the needle C) Tourniquet release on blood flow D) Using the wrong order of draw

A) Filling the tube stopper end first

Most test result reference ranges are values for: A) Healthy individuals B) Patients who are ill C) People of the same age D) Specific disorders

A) Healthy individuals

The most frequently occurring lab-acquired infection is: A) Hepatitis B B) HIV infection C) Syphilis D) Tuberculosis

A) Hepatitis B

Another name for blood bank A) Immunohematology B) Immunology C) Microbiology D) Serology

A) Immunohematology

A phlebotomist arrives to draw a specimen from an inpatient. The patient's door is closed. What should the phlebotomist do? A) Knock softly, open it slowly, and ask for permission to enter B) Knock softly and wait for someone to come open the door C) Leave to draw another patient and come back later D) Open the door and proceed directly into the room

A) Knock softly, open it slowly, and ask for permission to enter

Which of the following is a proper way to clean up a small blood spill that has dried on a countertop? A) Moisten it with a disinfectant and carefully absorb it with a paper towel B) Rub it with an alcohol pad, and then wipe area with a clean alcohol pad C) Scrape it into a biohazard bag, and wash the surface with soap and water D) Use a disinfectant wipe and scrub it in ever-increasing concentric circles

A) Moisten it with a disinfectant and carefully absorb it with a paper towel

The statute of limitations timing can begin: A) On the day the negligent act took place B) The first day in a series of medical treatments C) The first day of consulting with a lawyer D) A month after the injury was discovered

A) On the day the negligent act took place

The clear, slightly hazy pale-yellow fluid mixed with fibrinogen found in the top layer after centrifuging a sample, containing anticoagulants, is called ____________. A) Plasma B) Serum C) Red blood cells D) White blood cells

A) Plasma

Which of the following is a function of the urinary system? A) To maintain electrolyte balance B) To receive environmental stimuli C) To remove CO2 from the body D) To return fluid to the body

A) To maintain electrolyte balance

Why are EDTA specimens obtained before other specimens when collected by skin puncture? A) To minimize the effects of platelet clumping B) To minimize tissue fluid contamination C) To prevent contamination from carryover D) To reduce possible hemolysis

A) To minimize the effects of platelet clumping

Pseudoanemia can be caused by: A) a change in position from standing to lying down B) drawing a blood specimen through an IV valve C) leaving the tourniquet on longer than one minute D) using too large of a needle to collect a specimen

A) a change in position from standing to lying down

Which of the following is used by that laboratory to identify a specimen throughout the testing process? A) accession number B) hospital number C) mnemonic code D) password ID

A) accession number

When collecting a blood culture specimen directly from a butterfly into blood culture bottles. Which should be filled first? A) aerobic B) anaerobic C) either aerobic or anaerobic, it does not matter D) neither, a discard tube must be drawn first

A) aerobic

The priority designation for a test request is based on all of the following except? A) age and gender B) diet restriction C) patient condition D) timed collection

A) age and gender

Doing this during vein selection process is bad for the specimen A) allowing the patient to pump his or her fist B) lowering the patient's arm C) palpating the antecubital D) using a warm towel to increase blood flow

A) allowing the patient to pump his or her fist

Which of the following specimens needs to be chilled? A) ammonia B) bilirubin C) cold agglutinin D) serum protein

A) ammonia

Which type of specimen must be protected from light? A) amniotic fluid B) cerebrospinal fluid C) sputum sample D) tissue biopsy

A) amniotic fluid

Capillary puncture blood most closely resembles A) arterial blood B) intracellular fluid C) tissue fluid D) venous blood

A) arterial blood

Which of the following is the most common arterial puncture complication even when proper technique is used? A) arteriospasm B) hematoma formation C) infection D) thrombus formation

A) arteriospasm

When performing a GTT, the timing should begin A) as soon as the patient finishes the drink B) one-half hour after the drink is finished C) right after the patient arrives in the lab D) when the fasting specimen is collected

A) as soon as the patient finishes the drink

Which fluid is aspirated from the peritoneal cavity? A) ascites B) gastric C) sputum D) synovial

A) ascites

Drawing a patient's blood without his or her permission can result in a charge of A) assault and battery B) break of confidentiality C) invasion of privacy D) respondeat superior

A) assault and battery

The receiving chambers of the heart are the A) atria B) chordae tendineae C) vena cavae D) ventricles

A) atria

The last choice vein for venipuncture is the _____________________ vein. A) basilic B) cephalic C) femoral D) median

A) basilic

The slanted tip of the needle that enters the vein is called the A) bevel B) gauge C) hub D) lumen

A) bevel

A positive FIT test indicates: A) bleeding in the colon or rectum B) C. diff colonization of intestines C) presence of intestinal parasites D) sizeable fecal accumulation

A) bleeding in the oclon or rectum

Which test requires strict skin antisepsis procedures before specimen collection? A) blood culture B) blood urea nitrogen C) complete blood count D) type and crossmatch

A) blood culture

A first morning specimen is unacceptable for urine cytology because: A) cells may have disintegrated in the bladder overnight B) concentrated urine has many interfering shedding of cells into the bladder C) shedding of cells into the bladder at night is minimal D) the pH level is usually too high for testing purposes

A) cells may have disintegrated in the bladder overnight

Which fluid is obtained by lumbar puncture? A) cerebrospinal B) peritoneal C) pleural D) synovial

A) cerebrospinal

Only the second vowel of the ending is pronounced in the word A) chordae B) dyspnea C) nuclei D) protozoa

A) chordae

Which of the following test requires 24-hour urine specimen? A) creatinine clearance B) culture and sensitivity C) fibrin split products D) glucose tolerance test

A) creatinine clearance

This is a source of preanalytical error that occurs before specimen collection A) dehydrated patient B) misidentified patient C) mislabeled specimen D) wrong collection tube

A) dehydrated patient

TDM is used by physicians to A) determine a beneficial drug dose for a patient B) maintain "peak" levels of a drug in a patient's system C) maintain "trough" levels of a drug in a patient's system D) screen inpatients for abuse of prescriptive drugs

A) determine a beneficial drug dose for a patient

Lymphatic fluid originates from A) excess tissue fluid B) glomerular filtrate C) the kidneys D) the pancreas

A) excess tissue fluid

The main principles involved in radiation exposure are A) exposure time, distance, and shielding B) exposure time, radiation level, and glove use C) time of day, amount of radiation, and source D) time of day, distance, and eye protection

A) exposure time, distance, and shielding

A good blood smear should exhibit a ________________________ edge. A) feathered B) round C) square D) pointy

A) feathered

An arm that is paralyzed: A) has no muscle function B) has sensory damage also C) is a permanent condition D) is the result of a stroke

A) has no muscle function

A condition in which blood components that cannot easily leave the bloodstream become concentrated in the smaller plasma volume is known as ____________________. A) hemoconcentration B) hemolysis C) hemostasis D) thrombosis

A) hemoconcentration

Prolonged tourniquet application may cause a change in the blood composition primarily because of A) hemoconcentration B) hemoglobin C) hemolysis D) homeostasis

A) hemoconcentration

Removing blood on a regular basis or in large amounts can lead to ____________________ anemia. A) iatrogenic B) hemolytic C) sickle cell D) aplastic

A) iatrogenic

When the additive from a tube "backwashes" into the patient, it is known as ____________________. A) reflux B) hemolysis C) hemoconcentration D) thrombosis

A) reflux

A specimen that has been clotted and spun down yields ______________________. A) serum B) plasma C) antigens D) blood

A) serum

A patient who has been at rest and has not had any changes in respiratory therapy for 20-30 minutes is in a ____________________ state. A) steady B) unsteady C) stressed D) high

A) steady

Blood that is flowing back to the heart is _____________________ blood. A) venous B) capillary C) artillery D) oxygenated

A) venous

Examples of nosocomial infections include A) when a catheter site of a patient in the ICU becomes infected B) when a healthcare worker contracts hepatitis from a needlestick C) when a patient is admitted with symptoms of Hanta Virus D) when a patient breaks out with measles the day after admission

A) when a catheter site of a patient in the ICU becomes infected

Mucus or phlegm from the lungs is called _________________________. A) sputum B) amniotic fluid C) gastric fluid D) synovial fluid

A)sputum

Never leave a tourniquet on for more than A) 30 seconds B) 1 minute C) 2 minutes D) 3 minutes

B) 1 minute

Individuals who wish to donate blood in most states must be at least: A) 16 years old and weigh at least 105 lb B) 17 years old and weigh at least 110 lb C) 18 years old and weigh at least 120 lb D) 21 years old and weigh at least 125 lb

B) 17 years old and weigh at least 110 lb

When making a routine blood smear, the "pusher slide" is normally used at an angle of how many degrees? A) 15 B) 30 C) 45 D) 60

B) 30

How long before specimen collection should drugs known to interfere with testing be discontinued? A) 1 to 4 hours B) 4 to 24 hours C) 24 to 36 hours D) 48 to 72 hours

B) 4 to 24 hours

What is PKU? A) A contagious condition caused by lack of phenylalanine B) A hereditary inability to metabolize phenylalanine C) An acquired condition caused by lack of phenylalanine D) An inherited condition caused by lack of thyroid hormone

B) A hereditary inability to metabolize phenylalanine

What word means "hardening of the artery"? A) Arteriopathy B) Arteriosclerosis C) Arteriospasm D) Arteritis

B) Arteriosclerosis

After obtaining a specimen for a cold agglutinin test, the blood must be transported: A) As a "STAT" test B) At body temperature C) In a cold rack D) Protected from light

B) At body temperature

A factor that contributes to the phlebotomist's professional image is ______________. A) Age B) Attitude C) Heritage D) Religion

B) Attitude

Which test must be performed on whole blood? A) BUN B) CBC C) CPK D) PTT

B) CBC

Proof of participation in workshops to upgrade skills required by some agencies to renew certification is/are called A) Accreditation B) CEU's C) Essentials D) IACET

B) CEU's

A patient has several short lengths of IV-type tubing protruding from the chest. This is most likely a(n): A) A-lin B) CVC C) port D) PICC

B) CVC (Central Venous Catheter)

Which of the following represents improper aliquot preparation? A) Removing the stopper behind a splash shield B) Carefully pouring the contents into the aliquot tube C) Covering or capping the aliquot tube D) None of the above

B) Carefully pouring the contents into the aliquot tube

The test performed in the following department are typically collected in a tube with a light blue stopper A) Chemistry B) Coagulation C) Hematology D) Microbiology

B) Coagulation

A member of the clergy is with the patient when you arrive to collect a routine specimen. What should you do? A) Ask the patient's nurse what you should do B) Come back after the clergy person has gone C) Fill out a form saying you were unable to collect the specimen D) Say "Excuse me, I need to collect a specimen from this patient."

B) Come back after the clergy person has gone

A delta check refers to: A) Checking the wristband with the requisition B) comparing current test results with previous ones C) Documenting all of the results of the QC checks D) Reporting new infection control precautions

B) Comparing current test results with previous ones

Which federal agencies regulate the transporting of biological specimens offsite? A) CLIA and EPA B) DOT and IATA C) EPA and CLSI D) All of the above

B) DOT (Department of Transportation) and IATA (International Air Transport Agency)

What is the first thing the phlebotomist should do in the event of an accidental needlestick? A) Check the patient's medical records for BBP status B) Decontaminate the site and fill out an incident form C) Go to the employee health service and get a tetanus booster D) Leave the area sot the patient does not notice the injury

B) Decontaminate the site and fill out an incident form

Which additive is usually present in a tube with a lavender stopper? A) citrate B) EDTA C) heparin D) oxalate

B) EDTA

Which of the following basic tissue types covers and lines organs, vessels, and cavities? A) Connective B) Epithelial C) Muscle D) Nerve

B) Epithelial

A tourniquet is used in venipuncture to: A) Concentrate the blood specimen B) Find and enter the veins more easily C) Keep the vein from collapsing D) All of the above

B) Find and enter the veins more easily

Which of the following represents the proper direction of blood flow? A) From arteries to veins to capillaries B) From arterioles to capillaries to venules C) From capillaries to arterioles to arteries D) From veins to venules to capillaries

B) From arterioles to capillaries to venules

Which of the following is an example of negative kinesics? A) Eye contact B) Frowning C) Touching D) Smiling

B) Frowning

What test evaluates the body's ability to metabolize sugar by monitoring the patient's tolerance to high levels of sugar without adverse affects? A) HCG B) GTT C) HLA D) PTT

B) GTT (Glucose Tolerance Test)

A phlebotomist has attempted twice to draw a partial thromboplastin time (PTT) specimen from a patient with difficult veins. Both times the phlebotomist has been able to draw only a partial tube. What should the phlebotomist do? A) Collect the specimen by skin puncture B) Have another phlebotomist attempt to draw the specimen C) Pour the two tubes together and mix well D) Submit the fullest tube for testing, noting the draw was difficult

B) Have another phlebotomist attempt to draw the specimen

Which of the following is a test that measures packed cell volume? A) hCG B) Hct C) INR D) TnT

B) Hct

Early equipment used for bloodletting included all of the following except the _____________. A) Fleam B) Hemostat C) Lancet D) Leech

B) Hemostat

ABG supplies include: A) 18-gauge needles B) Heparinized syringes C) Tourniquets D) All of the above

B) Heparinized syringes

The transverse plane divides the body: A) Diagonally into upper and lower portions B) Horizontally into upper and lower portions C) Vertically into front and back portions D) Vertically into right and left portions

B) Horizontally into upper and lower portions

Which of the following abbreviations is on The Joint Commission's "Do Not Use" list? A) cc B) IU C) mL D) UTI

B) IU

What is the purpose of warming the site of skin puncture? A) It is comforting to the patient B) It increases blood flow up to seven times C) It makes the veins more visible D) It minimizes hemolysis of the specimen

B) It increases blood flow up to seven times

Common chemistry tests performed by POCT instruments include: A) Hgb and Hct B) Na and K C) PT and PTT D) T4 and TSH

B) Na and K

Which of the following would be omitted from a lab-generated computer label? A) Collector's initials B) Patient diagnosis C) Physician's name D) Time of collection

B) Patient diagnosis

With which other hospital department would the laboratory coordinate therapeutic drug monitoring? A) Nuclear Medicine B) Pharmacy C) Physical Therapy D) Radiology

B) Pharmacy

Which of the following is a type of serous fluid? A) Amniotic fluid B) Pleural fluid C) Spital fluid D) Synovial

B) Pleural fluid

Blood in which type of tube normally clots within five minutes? A) PST B) RST C) SPS D) SST

B) RST (Rapid Serum Tube)

The patient asks if the specimen about to be drawn is for her diabetes test. How should the question be answered? A) If the test is for glucose, say, "Yes, it is." B) Say, "It's best to discuss that with the doctor." C) Say, "No," even if the test is for diabetes D) Tell the patient that you don't know

B) Say, "It's best to discuss that with the doctor."

The clear, pale-yellow fluid found in the top layer after allowing a blood sample to coagulate and centrifuge is called _______________. A) Plasma B) Serum C) Red blood cells D) White blood cells

B) Serum

Which of the following types of muscle is under voluntary control? A) Cardiac B) Skeletal C) Smooth D) Visceral

B) Skeletal

Capillary bilirubin specimen should be protected from ________________________. A) heat B) UV light C) ice D) darkness

B) UV light

A capillary puncture should be done rather than a venipuncture in the following situations except when A) a child is less than 1-year-old B) a light blue top is needed C) the patient has difficult veins D) the test uses very little blood

B) a light blue top is needed

The fluid found around a fetus is known as __________________________. A) sputum B) amniotic C) cerebrospinal D) gastric

B) amniotic

According to standard first aid procedures, severe external bleeding is best controlled by A) applying tourniquet B) applying pressure C) keeping injured area below the heart D) raising the victims head above the level of the injury

B) applying pressure

You must draw a protime specimen from a patient with IV's in both arms. Which of the following is the best thing to do? Draw the specimen A) above an IV B) below an IV C) from an ankle vein D) from an IV

B) below an IV

Examples of timed tests include: A) basic metabolic panel, potassium, and glucose B) blood cultures, cardiac enzymes, and cortisol C) calcium, ferritin, and complete blood count D) creatinine, lactic acid, and reticulocyte

B) blood cultures, cardiac enzymes, and cortisol

Capillary action is a term used to describe how: A) arterial blood enters the capillaries B) blood fills a microhematocrit tube C) cells spread across a blood smear D) warming can increase blood flow

B) blood fills a microhematocrit tube

Which specimen can be centrifuged immediately upon arrival in specimen processing? A) blood culture in an SPS tube B) calcium in a green top tube C) CBC in a lavender stopper tube D) creatinine is an SST tube

B) calcium in a green top tube

What is the root word in the word "electrocardiogram"? A) electro B) cardi C) cardiogram D) gram

B) cardi

Which of the following specimens are least likely to require special handling? A) bilirubin and serum folate B) cholesterol and uric acid C) gastrin and lactic acid D) homocysteine and renin

B) cholesterol and uric acid

If the blood is drawn too quickly from a small vein, the vein will tend to A) bruise B) collapse C) disintegrate D) roll

B) collapse

A capillary puncture site should not appear _____________________, which is described as being bluish from lack of oxygen. A) yellow B) cyanotic C) orange D) red

B) cyanotic

The relaxing phase of the cardiac cycle is called A) bradycardia B) diastole C) infarction D) systole

B) diastole

After performing arterial puncture, check the pulse A) directly over the ulnar artery B) distal to the puncture site C) medial to the puncture site D) proximal to the puncture site

B) distal to the puncture site

An autologous blood transfusion is a transfusion of blood A) directly from the donor to the patient B) donated by the patient for the patient C) donated by a compatible relative D) given by an anonymous donor

B) donated by the patient for the patient

To prevent introducing a contaminating substance into a trace-element collection tube, it is suggested that the phlebotomist A) collect the trace-element tube last in the order of draw B) draw it by itself using a syringe or evacuated tube system C) use a syringe and transfer blood into a royal blue tube last D) use only a royal blue short-draw tube with heparin or EDTA

B) draw it by itself using a syringe or evacuated tube system

The purpose of wiping away the first drop of blood during skin puncture is to A) avoid bacterial contamination B) eliminate tissue fluid contamination C) minimize platelet aggregation D) reduce effects of hemoconcentration

B) eliminate tissue fluid contamination

Computer networking caused Congress to take steps to eliminate patient confidentiality violations by: A) barring certain interfaces B) enacting the HIPAA law C) limitations the network size D) regulating the ethernet

B) enacting the HIPAA law

Glass particles present in separator tubes A) deter coagulation B) enhance clotting C) inhibit glycolysis D) prevent hemolysis

B) enhance clotting

If a phlebotomist _____________, he or she is negligent A) does not obtain a specimen from combative patient B) fails to put the needle and holder in the sharps container C) puts the bedrail in an upright position when leaving D) reports obvious changes in the patient's condition

B) fails to put the needle and holder in the sharps container

Which artery is typically the easiest to access during low cardiac output? A) brachial B) femoral C) radial D) ulnar

B) femoral

This test involves intravenous administration of histamine or pentagastrin A) bone marrow biopsy B) gastric analysis C) glucose tolerance test D) sweat chloride

B) gastric analysis

The letter "g" is pronounced like "j" in A) gamete B) gestation C) glycolysis D) guaiac

B) gestation

Capillary puncture blood reference ranges are higher for this analyte A) calcium B) glucose C) phosphorus D) total protein

B) glucose

Which of the following word parts is a prefix? A) aer B) hypo C) lysis D) my

B) hypo

To maintain the integrity of an ABG specimen collected in a plastic syringe, it should be A) analyzed within 30 minutes B) immediately place in ice C) protected from light D) transported at 37 ̊C

B) immediately place in ice

An example of a preanalytical error happening during specimen processing is A) faulty collection technique B) inadequate centrifugation C) insufficient specimen D) patient stress and anxiety

B) inadequate centrifugation

Class C fires A) involve combustible metals B) involve electrical equipment C) occur with flammable liquids D) occur with ordinary materials

B) involve electrical equipment

What part of the term "osteochondritis" is the suffix? A) chondr B) itis C) osteo D) tis

B) itis

Creatine clearance is a measure of: A) glucose metabolism B) kidney function C) liver function D) muscular activity

B) kidney function

A refrigerated stool sample would be unsuitable for this test A) fat analysis B) ova and parasite C) urobilinogen D) All of the above

B) ova and parasite

A breath test can be used to detect organisms that cause: A) meningitis B) peptic ulcers C) tuberculosis D) whooping cough

B) peptic ulcers

A fistula is a(n) A) implanted port to an indwelling line B) permanent fusion of an artery and vein C) special winged infusion set left in a patient arm D) temporary fusion of an artery and vein

B) permanent fusion of an artery and vein

Which of the following tubes can be used to collect blood for a type and crossmatch? A) ETS gray top B) pink top EDTA tube C) royal blue top D) serum separator tube

B) pink top EDTA tube

Heparin is used in ABG specimen collection to A) increase the flow of blood B) prevent clotting of specimen C) reduce the among of pain D) stabilize oxygen and CO2

B) prevent clotting of specimen

When an area is supplied with blood from more than one artery, there is ________________________ circulation. A) collateral B) pulmonary C) systemic D) slow

B) pulmonary

When latex or vinyl strap tourniquets become soiled with blood, it is best to A) autoclave and reuse them B) throw them away C) wash them in bleach D) wipe them with alcohol

B) throw them away

A blood smear made from an EDTA specimen should be made A) anytime after collection B) within 1 hour of collection C) within 4 hours of collection D) within 12 hours of collection

B) within 1 hour of collection

What is the Clinical and Laboratory Standard Institute (CLSI) recommended maximum depth of heel puncture? A) 1.0 mm B) 1.4 mm C) 2.0 mm D) 2.4 mm

C) 2.0 mm

The most common needle size for routine radial ABG specimen collection is A) 18 gauge B) 20 gauge C) 22 gauge D) 25 gauge

C) 22 gauge

At what interval is the blood blotted during a bleeding time test? A) 15 seconds B) 20 seconds C) 30 seconds D) 45 seconds

C) 30 seconds

Which of the following is the proper needle insertion angle for radial artery puncture? A) 15 ̊ B) 25 ̊ C) 45 ̊ D) 90 ̊

C) 45 ̊

The normal composition of blood is approximately: A) 10% plasma, 90% formed elements B) 30% plasma, 70% formed elements C) 55% plasma, 45% formed elements D) 91% plasma, 9% formed elements

C) 55% plasma, 45% formed elements

Which of the following situations involves a HAI (Healthcare Associated Infection)? A) A man has a bladder infection upon hospital admission B) An employee contracts hepatitis B from a needlestick C) A patient in the ICU has an incision that becomes infected D) A baby in the nursery has a congenial herpes infection

C) A patient in the ICU has in incision that becomes infected

The resting metabolic state of the body early in the morning after fasting for approximately 12 hours is referred to as _____________. A) Hemostatic state B) Homeostatic state C) Basal state D) None of the above

C) Basal state

This organization develops standards for specimen handling and processing A) CDC B) CLIA C) CLSI D) FDA

C) CLSI

A national organization that develops guidelines and sets standards for laboratory procedures is the: A) CAP B) CLIAC C) CLSI D) NAACLS

C) CLSI (Clinical and Laboratory Safety Institute)

The CLIA federal regulations are administered by: A) CAP B) CLSI C) CMS D) CoW

C) CMS (Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services)

Outpatient phlebotomy, such as in a physician's office or patient care service center, will be assigned a code for reimbursement using which of national coding system A) AHCCCS B) APC C) CPT D) HIPPA

C) CPT

Which is a nonspecific marker of systemic inflammation? A) ACT B) BNP C) CRP D) TnT

C) CRP (C-Reactive Protein) made in the liver to respond to inflammation

Which type of urine specimen is the best one for detecting a UTI? A) 24-hour B) First morning C) Clean-catch D) Random

C) Clean catch

Levels of this analyte can differ by 50% or more between morning and late afternoon A) BUN B) CBC C) Cortisol D) Sodium

C) Cortisol

Which of the following is a test of the urinary system? A) Cholinesterase B) Creatine Kinase C) Creatinine clearance D) Pleuracentesis

C) Creatinine clearance

Which of the following example is unrelated to quality control A) Checking expiration dates of evacuated tubes B) Documenting maintenance on centrifuge C) Employees filling out their time sheets daily D) Recording refrigerator temperature daily

C) Employees filling out their time sheets daily

What type of specimen is needed for a guaiac test? A) Blood B) Breath C) Feces D) Urine

C) Feces

Which of the following veins is not an antecubital vein? A) Basilic B) Cephalic C) Femoral D) Median

C) Femoral

What is the proper order of putting on protective clothing? A) Gloves first, then gown, mask last B) Gown first, then gloves, mask last C) Gown first, then mask, gloves last D) Mask first, then gown, gloves last

C) Gown first, then mask, gloves last

The hormone detected in positive urine pregnancy tests is A) ACTH B) GH C) HCG D) TSH

C) HCG

Which type of sample is commonly used to identify arsenic poisoning in agricultural workers? A) Blood B) Feces C) Hair D) Saliva

C) Hair

It is improper telephone protocol to: A) Answer phone promptly B) Clarify and record information C) Hang up on an angry caller D) Prioritize callers if necessary

C) Hang up on an angry caller

Lavender-top tubes are most commonly used to collect: A) Chemistry tests B) Coagulation specimens C) Hematology tests D) Immunology tests

C) Hematology tests

Which of the following test specimens can be analyzed without being centrifuged? A) Bilirubin in an amber microtube B) Cholesterol in a gel barrier tube C) Hemoglobin A1c in an EDTA tube D) STAT potassium in a heparin gel tube

C) Hemoglobin A1c in an EDTA tube

What may happen if you mix a specimen too vigorously A) Glycolysis B) Hemoconcentration C) Hemolysis D) Microclot formation

C) Hemolysis

Cystitis means: A) Blueness of the skin B) Cellular type of infection C) Inflammation of the bladder D) Pertaining to the cells

C) Inflammation of the bladder

What color is the stopper of a CTAD tube, for what type of test is it used, and why? A) Gray; blood alcohol; inhibits volatilization of alcohol B) Lavender; molecular genetic testing; preserves DNA C) Light blue; coagulation; to inhibit platelet activation D) Orange; special chemistry, to decrease clotting time

C) Light blue; coagulation; to inhibit platelet activation

There is a request to draw specimen from an inpatient by the name of John Doe. Which of the following is an acceptable way to confirm the patient's identity? A) Ask the patient, "Are you Mr. John Doe? and see if he says "Yes" B) Check the patient's ID band and say, "I see that you are Mr. John Doe." C) Match the ID band and requisition with his verbal statement of ID D) See if the ID band matches the requisition to be sure of his identity

C) Match the ID band and requisition with his verbal statement of ID

State and federally funded insurance is called: A) ACO B) HIPAA C) Medicaid D) Medicare

C) Medicaid

Which of the following is a nervous system disorder? A) Acute nephritis B) Chronic hepatitis C) Multiple sclerosis D) Rheumatoid arthritis

C) Multiple sclerosis

Which of the following terms means kidney inflammation? A) Cystitis B) Hepatitis C) Nephritis D) Neuritis

C) Nephritis

The blood specimen for which test is placed in circles on special filter paper? A) Bilirubin B) CBGs C) PKU D) Malaria

C) PKU

Which of the following structures in the skin give rise to fingerprints? A) Arrector pili B) Hair follicles C) Papillae D) Sebaceous glands

C) Papillae

Which statement describes proper centrifuge operation? A) Centrifuge serum specimens before they start to form noticeable clots B) Never centrifuge both serum and plasma specimens in the same centrifuge C) Place tubes of equal size and volume opposite one another for balance D) Remove evacuated tube stoppers before placing them in the centrifuge

C) Place tubes of equal size and volume opposite one another for balance

All blood specimens transported by a courier must be: A) Centrifuged prior to transportation B) Placed in a refrigerated container C) Protected from direct sun exposure D) Transported horizontally for safety

C) Protected from direct sun exposure

The only phlebotomist in an outpatient drawing center is not familiar with the test that a physician has ordered. What is the most appropriate action to take? A) Call the physician's office for assistance B) Draw both a serum and a plasma sample C) Refer to the collection manual for instruction D) Send the patient to another drawing center

C) Refer to the collection manual for instruction

Sudoriferous glands are: A) Connected to hair follicles B) Endocrine system structures C) Referred to as sweat glands D) Responsible for goose bumps

C) Referred to as sweat glands

The OSHA HAZCOM Standard is also commonly called the A) Disclosure law B) MSDS Act C) Right-to-Know law D) UN Placard System

C) Right-to-Know law

A trace element-free tube stopper is: A) Green/gray B) Lavender C) Royal blue D) Yellow

C) Royal blue

The following test have all been ordered at the same time on different inpatients. There is only one phlebotomist on duty. Which test should the phlebotomist collect first? A) ASAP CBC in the cardia unit B) Routine Hgb in the long-term unit C) STAT electrolytes in the ER D) Times blood culture in ICU

C) STAT electrolytes in the ER

Which of the following would not violate a patient's right to confidentiality? A) Indicating the nature of patient's disease on the door B) Listing all HIV+ patients in the laboratory computer C) Sharing collection site information on a difficult patient D)Tacking a patient's laboratory results on the bulletin board

C) Sharing collection site information on a difficult patient

A procedure called iontophoresis is used in the collection of what specimen? A) CSF B) Saliva C) Sweat D) Synovial

C) Sweat

Which instance may lead you to suspect that you have accidentally punctured an artery A) A hematoma starts to form instantly B) The blood obtained is dark red C) The blood pulses into the tube D) There is no way to tell

C) The blood pulses into the tube

Which of the following is the safest area for infant heel puncture? A) The area of the arch B) The central area C) The lateral plantar surface D) The posterior curvature

C) The lateral plantar surface

Which of the following would cause you to suspect that a thrombus had formed in the artery while you were collecting an ABG? A) A hematoma quickly forms at the site B) The patient complains of extreme pain C) The pulse distal to the site is very weak D) All of the above

C) The pulse distal to the site is very weak

Veins that feel hard and cord-like when palpated may be: A) Collapsed B) Fistulas C) Thrombosed D) Venules

C) Thrombosed

What word means "condition of clotting"? A) Hemostasis B) Leukopenia C) Thrombosis D) Vasoconstriction

C) Thrombosis

An individual's blood type is determined by the presence or absence of a certain type of A) antibody present on the red blood cells B) antibody present on the white blood cells C) antigen present on the red blood cells D) antigen present on the white blood cells

C) antigen present on the red blood cells

The layer(s) of the skin containing blood vessels is/are A) epidermis and dermis B) epidermis only C) dermis and subcutaneous D) subcutaneous only

C) dermis and subcutaneous

Which of the following test may require special "chain of custody" documentation when collected? A) blood culture B) crossmatch C) drug screen D) TDM

C) drug screen

A blood clot circulating in the bloodstream is called a/n A) aneurysm B) embolism C) embolus D) thrombus

C) embolus

The abbreviations "ESR" means A) energy saving respiration B) eosinophil survival response C) erythrocyte sedimentation rate D) estimated survival rate

C) erythrocyte sedimentation rate

What does the term "calcaneus" mean? A) bone infection B) contains calcium C) heel bone D) osteomyelitis

C) heel bone

Identify the condition in which a unit of blood is withdrawn from a patient as treatment A) acute leukemia B) analogous donation C) hemochromatosis D) Rh incompatibility

C) hemochromatosis

A tube with a green stopper normally contains A) EDTA B) citrate C) heparin D) oxalate

C) heparin

Malpractice is a claim of A) assault and battery B) breach of confidentiality C) improper treatment D) invasion of privacy

C) improper treatment

Heparin prevents blood from clotting by A) activating calcium B) binding calcium C) inhibiting thrombin D) preserving thrombin

C) inhibiting thrombin

It is necessary to control the depth of lancet insertion during capillary puncture to avoid A) bacterial contamination B) excessive bleeding C) injuring heel bone D) puncturing an artery

C) injuring heel bone

Two phlebotomists are discussing a patient's condition in the elevator. They are overheard by the patient's daughter. This is an example of A) failure to exercise due care B) improper or unskilled care C) invasion of privacy D) res ipsa loquitur

C) invasion of privacy

A proper cleaning solution for preparing an arterial puncture site is A) heparin B) lidocaine C) isopropyl alcohol D) sodium hypochlorite

C) isopropyl alcohol

Which instance most closely resembles basal state? A patient who has A) been lying down for an hour B) just arrived for a fasting blood test C) just awakened at 0600 after fasting all night D) worked all night but did not eat at work

C) just awakened at 0600 after fasting all night

The medical term for white blood cell is A) erythrocyte B) hepatocyte C) leukocyte D) thrombocyte

C) leukocyte

Which of the following would not be considered a preanalytical error? A) failing to mix an additive tube B) mislabeling an aliquot tube C) misreporting patient results D) using the wrong order of draw

C) misreporting patient results

Neonatal screening is the testing of: A) babies for contagious diseases B) infants with certain symptoms C) newborns for certain disorders D) pregnant women for diseases

C) newborns for certain disorders

A specimen would most likely be accepted for testing despite this problem: A) expired evacuated tube B) incomplete identification C) no phlebotomist initials D) quantity not sufficient

C) no phlebotomist initials

The purpose of an antiglycolytic agent is to A) enhance clotting B) inhibit microbes C) preserve glucose D) prevent clotting

C) preserve glucose

16. The purpose of "protective" isolation is to A) prevent airborne transmission of contagious diseases B) protect others from patients with transmissible diseases C) protect susceptible patients from outside contamination D) provide a safe environment for psychiatric patients

C) protect susceptible patients from outside contamination

This test required a specimen with a 9:1 ratio of blood to anticoagulant A) ethanol B) glycohemoglobin C) prothrombin time D) red cell count

C) prothrombin time

Which microcollection container would be used to collect a specimen for CBC? A) gray top B) green top C) purple top D) red top

C) purple top

The artery of choice for ABG collection is A) brachial B) femoral C) radial D) ulnar

C) radial

Tiny red spots that appear on a patient's arm when the tourniquet is applied are a sign that the: A) patient is allergic to nitrile B) patient has anemia C) site may bleed excessively D) veins are sclerosed

C) site may bleed excessively

What is the most important factor in choosing which gauge needle to use for venipuncture? A) age and weight of the patient B) number of tubes to be drawn C) size and condition of the vein D) type of test being performed

C) size and condition of the vein

What additional information is typically required when labeling a nonblood specimen? A) biohazard warning B) ordering physician's name C) special handling needs D) specimen type and source

C) special handling needs

A refractometer can be used to measure urine: A) clarity and color B) protein level C) specific gravity D) urobilinogen

C) specific gravity

The most critical aspect of blood culture collection is A) amount of specimen B) skin antisepsis C) specimen handling D) the needle gauge

C) specimen handling

A first morning specimen is preferred for HCG testing because it is A) less likely to be contaminated B) more likely to have a higher pH C) typically, more concentrated D) All of the above

C) typically, more concentrated

As a general rule, serum or plasma should be removed from the cells within: A) 30 min B) 60 min C) 90 min D) 120 min

D) 120 min

A 2-hour postprandial specimen should be drawn A) 2 hours before the patient arrives for the test B) 2 hours after the patient arrives for the test C) 2 hours before the patient has a meal D) 2 hours after the patient has had a meal

D) 2 hours after the patient has had a meal

According to CLSI, the maximum time limit for separating serum or plasma from cells is A) 15 minutes from the time of collection B) 30 minutes from the time of collection C) 1.0 hour from the time of collection D) 2.0 hours from the time of collection

D) 2.0 hours from the time of collection

Prior to ABG collection, a patient should have been in a steady state for a least: A) 5 - 10 min B) 10 - 15 min C) 15 - 20 min D) 20 - 30 min

D) 20 - 30 min

Reverse isolation may be used for: A) A patient with the measles B) An adult patient with the flu C) A patient with tuberculosis D) A patient with severe burns

D) A patient with severe burns

Alcohol testing of urine is problematic because: A) alcohol can evaporate from uncapped specimens B) fermentation by bacteria can cause false positives C) results may not correlate with blood alcohol levels D) All of the above

D) All of the above

Drugs of abuse can be detected in A) hair B) saliva C) urine D) All of the above

D) All of the above

The ratio of blood to anticoagulant is most critical for: A) Coagulation specimens B) Light blue stoppers C) Sodium citrate tubes D) All of the above

D) All of the above

Thixotropic gel is found in: A) PPTs B) PSTs C) SSTs D) All of the above

D) All of the above

Which additive(s) prevents coagulation by binding to calcium ions? A) EDTA B) Sodium citrate C) Potassium oxalate D) All of the above

D) All of the above

What is the purpose of waiting 30 seconds for the alcohol to dry before needle insertion? A) To let evaporation help destroy microbes B) To avoid a stinging sensation C) To prevent hemolysis D) All of the above options are correct

D) All of the above options are correct

Promoting good public relations is a part of the phlebotomist's role because A) a phlebotomist is a representative of the laboratory throughout the facility B) good public relations promote a harmonious relationship with the staff C) patients often equate venipuncture experiences with the overall hospital care D) All of the answers are correct

D) All of the answers are correct

Which of the following is an example of a barrier to effective communication with a patient? The patient A) does not speak English B) is a very young child C) is emotionally upset D) All of the answers are correct

D) All of the answers are correct

Tests that can be performed using special POCT instrument or skin test kits include A) arterial blood gasses B) glucose C) occult blood D) All the answers are correct

D) All the answers are correct

What happens to an ABG specimen left at room temperature for a prolonged period? A) blood cells continue to consume oxygen B) continued metabolism produces acids C) levels of carbon dioxide increase D) All the answers are correct

D) All the answers are correct

A national organization that sets standards for phlebotomy procedures is the A) ASCP B) NAACLS C) NCA D) CLSI

D) CLSI

Which of the following specimens can be centrifuged immediately? A) Bilirubin collected in a red-top tube B) CBC collected in a lavender top C) Creatine collected in an SST D) Electrolytes collected in a PST

D) Electrolytes collected in a PST

All of the following are required PPE when processing specimens EXCEPT: A) Chin-length face shields B) Disposable gloves C) Fluid-resistent lab coats D) Fluid-resistent shoe covers

D) Fluid-resistent shoe covers

Which additive prevents coagulation by inhibiting thrombin? A) EDTA B) Sodium citrate C) Potassium oxalate D) Heparin

D) Heparin

The ability of the body to repair and maintain itself to achieve a "steady state" defines what term? A) Anabolism B) Catabolism C) Hemostasis D) Homeostasis

D) Homeostasis

Which of the following blood specimens requires cooling during transportation? A) Beta-carotene B) Cold agglutinin C) Electrolytes D) Homocysteine

D) Homocysteine

When does a blood glucose level in normal individuals typically peak after glucose ingestion? A) In 15 -20 min B) In 30 - 60 min C) In 60 - 90 min D) In roughly 120 min

D) In roughly 120 min

Which of the following communicates unprofessionalism? A) Clean laboratory coat B) Long hair pulled back C) Short, clean fingernails D) Intense odor of cologne or perfume or cigarettes

D) Intense odor of cologne or perfume or cigarettes

What is the most critical error a phlebotomist can make? A) Collecting a times specimen late B) Failing to collect a specimen C) Giving a patient a hematoma D) Misidentifying a patient specimen

D) Misidentifying a patient specimen

An unconscious patient is not wearing an ID band. There is an ID band taped to the patient's IV pole with information that matched the requisition. What should the phlebotomist do? A) Call the laboratory supervisor and ask how to proceed B) Draw the specimen and fill out an incident report form C) Draw the specimen and then ask the nurse to ID the patient D) Only draw the specimen after an ID band has been applied

D) Only draw the specimen after an ID band has been applied

The initials for the title granted after successful completion of the American Society for Clinical Pathology phlebotomy examination are: A) CLPl B) CLT C) CPT D) PBT

D) PBT (Phlebotomy Technician)

Which of the following vascular access devices is placed in a peripheral vein for the purpose of blood collection and administration of medication? A) fistula B) heparin lock C) implanted port D) PICC

D) PICC

An example of employee screening for infection control is A) HBV vaccination B) Immune globulin shots C) Measles vaccination D) PPD testing

D) PPD testing

What does the suffix -algia mean? A) Between B) Condition C) Disease D) Pain

D) Pain

The disease involving the body's overproduction of RBCs and the most common reason for performing therapeutic phlebotomy is called ___________. A) Hemochromatosis B) Polymyositis C) Tuberculosis D) Polycythemia

D) Polycythemia

The best way to tell that a specimen is arterial is the blood: A) Has lots of air bubbles B) Looks bright red in color C) Needs to be aspirated D) Pulses into the syringe

D) Pulses into the syringe

When exiting an isolation room, which item of PPE must be removed outside the room? A) Gloves B) Gown C) Mask D) Respirator

D) Respirator

Which department is responsible for administering oxygen therapy? A) Cardiodiagnostics B) Electroencephalography C) Physical therapy D) Respiratory therapy

D) Respiratory therapy

Which of the following examples of potential exposure to blood borne pathogens involves a parenteral route of transmission? A) Chewing gum while collecting blood specimens B) Eating a snack while accessing specimens C) Licking fingers while turning lab manual pages D) Rubbing eyes while processing specimens

D) Rubbing eyes while processing specimens

Which of the following is not one of the code words for NFPA order of action in the event of fire A) Alarm B) Confine C) Rescue D) Smother

D) Smother

A specimen was mislabeled on the floor. The phlebotomist is required to fill out an incident form. What information is not part of the report? A) Description of the consequence B) Details of the corrective action taken C) Explanation of the problem D) Suggestion of new guidelines

D) Suggestion of new guidelines

Which test requires four special tubes collected using a special order of draw? A) ETOH B) OGTT C) PT / INR D) TB-Gold

D) TB-Gold

The NPSGs are: A) CLSI's voluntary standards and guidelines B) NAACLS national educational guidelines C) Safety rules set down by CDC and OSHA D) TJC's annual safety requirement goals

D) TJC's annual safety requirement goals

Which of the following laboratory professionals is responsible for the administration of a specific clinical area, such as chemistry? A) Laboratory manager B) Medical laboratory scientist C) Medical laboratory technician D) Technical supervisor

D) Technical supervisor

The "standard of care" in the practice of phlebotomy is influenced by which of the following organizations? A) The Environmental Protection Agency B) The U.S. Food and Drug Administration C) The Health Insurance Privacy Agency D) The Joint Commission

D) The Joint Commission

Which of the following is the oldest and largest healthcare standards-setting body in the nation? A) American Medical Association B) Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services C) College of American Pathologists D) The Joint Commission

D) The Joint Commission

Which manual describes the necessary steps to follow in patient preparation for laboratory tests? A) The patient record B) The procedure manual C) The safety manual D) The test catalog

D) The test catalog

Rapid syphilis tests detect: A) Clostridium difficile B) Neisseria meningitidis C) Streptococcus pneumoniae D) Treponema pallidum

D) Treponema pallidum

You are in the process of collecting a specimen by venipuncture. You hear a hissing sound, there is a spurt of blood into the tube, and blood flow stops. What has most likely happened? A) Collapsed vein B) Needle went too deep C) Reflux of tube contents D) Tube vacuum escaped

D) Tube vacuum escaped

Sputum samples are typically collected to diagnose A) Diphtheria B) H. pylori C) Meningitis D) Tuberculosis

D) Tuberculosis

What would be the system of choice to identify laboratory specimens from an unconscious, unidentified woman in the emergency room? A) Assign a name to the patient such as Jane Doe B) Assign a number to the patient until admitted C) Process the specimens after she identified D) Use a three-part identification band and labels

D) Use a three-part identification band and labels

Specimen hemolysis can result from: A) Filling tubes with a transfer device at an angle B) Leaving the tourniquet on until the last tube C) Mixing anticoagulant tubes several extra times D) Using a large-volume tube with a 23-gauge needle

D) Using a large-volume tube with a 23-gauge needle

What is the recommended procedure for collecting a 24-hour urine procedure? A) Collect all the urine voided in any 24-hour period B) Collect the first morning specimen and all other specimens, except the next morning specimen C) Start the timing, collect the first morning specimen and all other specimens including the next morning specimen D) Void the first morning specimen, start the timing, and collect all other specimens, including the next morning sample

D) Void the first morning specimen, start the timing, and collect all other specimens, including the next morning sample

How can you visually tell serum from plasma? A) Serum is clear, plasma is cloudy B) Serum is fluid, plasma is gel C) Serum is yellow, plasma is colorless D) You cannot visually tell them apart

D) You cannot visually tell them apart

How can you tell that you are in a vein when using a needle and a syringe? A) The blood will pump into the syringe under its own power B) There is no way to tell this when you use a needle and syringe C) You cannot tell until you pull back the plunger and see blood D) You will normally see blood appear in the hub of the needle

D) You will normally see blood appear in the hub of the needle

Capillary puncture is typically performed on adults when: A) no accessible veins can be located B) patients have thrombotic tendencies C) veins are saved for chemotherapy D) all of the above

D) all of the above

A major difference between arteries and veins is that most veins A) are larger and thicker B) carry oxygen-rich blood C) connect with capillaries D) have on-way valves

D) have on-way valves

When a test requires a fasting specimen, but the serum is ________________, it is a clue that the patient was not fasting A) hemoconcentrated B) hemolyzed C) jaundiced D) lipemic

D) lipemic

Obstruction or complete stoppage of lymph flow is called _____________________. A) thrombosis B) hemoconcentration C) hemolysis D) lymphostasis

D) lymphostasis

The abbreviation that means "after a mean" is: A) a.c. B) bx C) fs D) pp

D) pp

A urine C&S is typically ordered to detect A) abnormal urine PH B) glucose overload C) kidney damage D) presence of a UTI

D) presence of a UTI

Which of the following is the best way to tell that a specimen is arterial? As the specimen is collected, the blood should A) appear bright cherry red B) have visible air bubbles C) look dark bluish red D) pulse into the syringe

D) pulse into the syringe

A major cause of respiratory distress in infants and young is A) cystic fibrosis B) emphysema C) mycobacterium tuberculosis D) respiratory syncytial virus

D) respiratory syncytial virus

What type of additive is recommended for collecting an ethanol test specimen? A) EDTA B) no additive C) sodium citrate D) sodium fluoride

D) sodium fluoride

Which is the best tube for collecting an ethanol specimen? A) potassium EDTA B) siliceous earth C) sodium citrate D) sodium fluoride

D) sodium fluoride

Which of the following is a disinfectant? A) benzalkonium chloride B) isopropanol C) povidone-iodine D) sodium hypochlorite

D) sodium hypochlorite

The term used to describe sophisticated and highly complex medical care is A) managed care B) primary care C) secondary care D) tertiary care

D) tertiary care

Hemostasis refers to A) broken red blood cells B) increased large molecules C) maintaining equilibrium D) the stoppage of bleeding

D) the stoppage of bleeding

Tests influenced by diurnal variation are often ordered as __________ tests, and it is important to collect them as close as possible to timed ordered. A) fasting B) postprandial C) STAT D) timed

D) timed

Of the following test, which is most likely to result in fatal consequences if the patient is misidentified? A) blood cultures B) drug screen C) postprandial glucose D) type and crossmatch

D) type and crossmatch

When performing the Allen test, which artery is released first? A) brachial B) femoral C) radial D) ulnar

D) ulnar

The term "phlebotomy" is derived from Greek words that, literally translated, mean A) blood collection B) capillary puncture C) vein dissection D) vein incision

D) vein incision

It is not a good idea to collect a CBC specimen from a screaming infant because the A) platelets are more likely to clump B) specimen will be hemoconcentrated C) specimen will be more likely to hemolyze D) white blood count may be falsely elevated

D) white blood count may be falsely elevated

An NP culture swab is collected to detect the presence of organism that causes A) genetic defects B) encephalitis C) strep throat D) whooping cough

D) whooping cough

Federal law requires that hepatitis B vaccination be made available to employees assigned to duties with occupational exposure risk A) after any probationary period of employment B) following 1 month of employment C) immediately upon being hired D) within 10 working days of initial assignment

D) within 10 working days of initial assignment

The term used when blood is withdrawn to dangerous or deadly limits is called

Exsanguination