Phlebotomy Study Guide
Which needle gauge has the largest lumen? A) 18 B) 20 C) 21 D) 22
A) 18
How large is a normal erythrocyte? A) 4 to 5 um B) 7 to 8 um C) 8 to 10 um D) 10 to 12 um
A) 4 to 5 um
How long should the site be examined to determine if bleeding has stopped? A) 5 to 10 seconds B) 10 to 15 seconds C) 20 to 25 seconds D) 25 to 30 seconds
A) 5 to 10 seconds
The solution normally used to clean the site before routine venipuncture is A) 70% isopropanol B) benzalkonium chloride C) chlorhexidine gluconate D) povidone-iodine
A) 70% isopropanol
Which of the following is an example of a work practice control that reduces risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogens? A) A biohazard symbol B) An exposure control plan C) Hand decontamination D) HBV vaccination
A) A biohazard symbol
When a threshold value of a clinical indicator of QA is exceeded and a problem is identified A) A corrective action plan is implemented B) An incident report must be filed C) The patient specimens must always be redrawn D) The patient's physicians must be notified
A) A corrective action plan is implemented
Which of the following patients would be considered to be in a "steady state" for ABG specimen collection? A) A patient who has been sleeping for 30 minutes while breathing room air B) A patient who has been breathing oxygen while finishing eating lunch C) A patient who has been breathing via a ventilator for the past 15 minutes D) A patient who has just finished a treatment with a respiratory therapist
A) A patient who has been sleeping for 30 minutes while breathing room air
Which of the following is a test of the respiratory system? A) ABGs B) CSF C) ETOH D) UA
A) ABGs
Which type of therapy can increase bilirubin levels? A) Acetaminophen pills B) Blood pressure medication C) Chemotherapy drugs D) Oral contraceptives
A) Acetaminophen pills
Why should a laboratory report form indicate the fact that a specimen has been collected by capillary puncture A) Because test results vary depending on the method of collection B) So that the subsequent specimens will be collected by skin puncture also C) So that the patient nurse can check the site for signs of infection D) To satisfy liability requirements and for billing purposes
A) Because test results vary depending on the method of collection
Why do pregnant patients have lower reference ranges for red blood cell counts? A) Body fluids increases in pregnancy, diluting red blood cells B) Constant nausea leads to hemoconcentration of the blood C) Poor appetite leads to transient anemia D) The growing fetus uses up the mother's iron reserves
A) Body fluids increases in pregnancy, diluting red blood cells
If collected by capillary puncture, which of the following is collected first? A) CBC B) Electrolytes C) Glucose D) Phosphorus
A) CBC
Which rapid diagnostic tests are now commonly used to detect food borne illness? A) CIDTs B) PCRs C) RIDTs D) All of the above
A) CIDTs (Culture Independent Diagnostic Tests)
The patient is just finishing a big breakfast as the phlebotomist arrives to draw a fasting specimen. What should the phlebotomist do? A) Check with the patient's nurse to see if the specimen should still be collected B) Draw the specimen since breakfast was just eaten and probably not absorbed C) Draw the specimen, but write "nonfasting" on the lab requisition D) Refuse to collect the specimen and fill out an incident report slip
A) Check with the patient's nurse to see if the specimen should still be collected
Which class of fire extinguisher uses soda and acid or water to cool a fire? A) Class A B) Class B C) Class C D) Class K
A) Class A
Symptoms of shock include: A) Cold, pale, clammy skin B) Decreased breathing rate C) A rapid, strong pulse D) All of the above
A) Cold, pale, clammy skin
Which of the following collection circumstances is least likely to result in the delayed clotting of a serum sample? A) Collection was difficult, hemolyzing red blood cells B) Patient has an elevated white blood cell count C) Patient is taking an anticoagulant medication D) Specimen is chilled soon after being collected
A) Collection was difficult, hemolyzing red blood cells
The microbiology department in the laboratory performs: A) Compatibility testing B) Culture and sensitivity testing C) Electrolyte monitoring D) Enzyme-linked immunoassay
A) Compatibility testing
You have no choice but to draw a specimen from a site with a hematoma. Where should you obtain the specimen? A) Distal to the hematoma B) In the area of the hematoma C) Proximal to the hematoma D) None of the options above
A) Distal to the hematoma
According to CLSI standards, which tube is filled last when using a syringe A) EDTA B) heparin C) sodium citrate D) sterile SPS
A) EDTA
The medical term for red blood cell is: A) Erythrocyte B) Hepatoccyte C) Leukocyte D) Thrombocyte
A) Erythrocyte
Which blood cell has the ability to pass through the blood vessel walls? A) Erythrocyte B) Leukocyte C) Reticulocyte D) Thrombocyte
A) Erythrocyte
The principles of right and wrong conduct as they apply to professional problems are called: A) Ethics B) Kinesics C) Proxemics D) Rules
A) Ethics
Which test typically requires a refrigerated stool specimen? A) Fecal fat B) Guaiac C) Occult blood D) Ova and parasites
A) Fecal fat
Which situation would be most likely to allow reflux to occur during venipuncture? A) Filling the tube stopper end first B) Lateral redirection of the needle C) Tourniquet release on blood flow D) Using the wrong order of draw
A) Filling the tube stopper end first
Most test result reference ranges are values for: A) Healthy individuals B) Patients who are ill C) People of the same age D) Specific disorders
A) Healthy individuals
The most frequently occurring lab-acquired infection is: A) Hepatitis B B) HIV infection C) Syphilis D) Tuberculosis
A) Hepatitis B
Another name for blood bank A) Immunohematology B) Immunology C) Microbiology D) Serology
A) Immunohematology
A phlebotomist arrives to draw a specimen from an inpatient. The patient's door is closed. What should the phlebotomist do? A) Knock softly, open it slowly, and ask for permission to enter B) Knock softly and wait for someone to come open the door C) Leave to draw another patient and come back later D) Open the door and proceed directly into the room
A) Knock softly, open it slowly, and ask for permission to enter
Which of the following is a proper way to clean up a small blood spill that has dried on a countertop? A) Moisten it with a disinfectant and carefully absorb it with a paper towel B) Rub it with an alcohol pad, and then wipe area with a clean alcohol pad C) Scrape it into a biohazard bag, and wash the surface with soap and water D) Use a disinfectant wipe and scrub it in ever-increasing concentric circles
A) Moisten it with a disinfectant and carefully absorb it with a paper towel
The statute of limitations timing can begin: A) On the day the negligent act took place B) The first day in a series of medical treatments C) The first day of consulting with a lawyer D) A month after the injury was discovered
A) On the day the negligent act took place
The clear, slightly hazy pale-yellow fluid mixed with fibrinogen found in the top layer after centrifuging a sample, containing anticoagulants, is called ____________. A) Plasma B) Serum C) Red blood cells D) White blood cells
A) Plasma
Which of the following is a function of the urinary system? A) To maintain electrolyte balance B) To receive environmental stimuli C) To remove CO2 from the body D) To return fluid to the body
A) To maintain electrolyte balance
Why are EDTA specimens obtained before other specimens when collected by skin puncture? A) To minimize the effects of platelet clumping B) To minimize tissue fluid contamination C) To prevent contamination from carryover D) To reduce possible hemolysis
A) To minimize the effects of platelet clumping
Pseudoanemia can be caused by: A) a change in position from standing to lying down B) drawing a blood specimen through an IV valve C) leaving the tourniquet on longer than one minute D) using too large of a needle to collect a specimen
A) a change in position from standing to lying down
Which of the following is used by that laboratory to identify a specimen throughout the testing process? A) accession number B) hospital number C) mnemonic code D) password ID
A) accession number
When collecting a blood culture specimen directly from a butterfly into blood culture bottles. Which should be filled first? A) aerobic B) anaerobic C) either aerobic or anaerobic, it does not matter D) neither, a discard tube must be drawn first
A) aerobic
The priority designation for a test request is based on all of the following except? A) age and gender B) diet restriction C) patient condition D) timed collection
A) age and gender
Doing this during vein selection process is bad for the specimen A) allowing the patient to pump his or her fist B) lowering the patient's arm C) palpating the antecubital D) using a warm towel to increase blood flow
A) allowing the patient to pump his or her fist
Which of the following specimens needs to be chilled? A) ammonia B) bilirubin C) cold agglutinin D) serum protein
A) ammonia
Which type of specimen must be protected from light? A) amniotic fluid B) cerebrospinal fluid C) sputum sample D) tissue biopsy
A) amniotic fluid
Capillary puncture blood most closely resembles A) arterial blood B) intracellular fluid C) tissue fluid D) venous blood
A) arterial blood
Which of the following is the most common arterial puncture complication even when proper technique is used? A) arteriospasm B) hematoma formation C) infection D) thrombus formation
A) arteriospasm
When performing a GTT, the timing should begin A) as soon as the patient finishes the drink B) one-half hour after the drink is finished C) right after the patient arrives in the lab D) when the fasting specimen is collected
A) as soon as the patient finishes the drink
Which fluid is aspirated from the peritoneal cavity? A) ascites B) gastric C) sputum D) synovial
A) ascites
Drawing a patient's blood without his or her permission can result in a charge of A) assault and battery B) break of confidentiality C) invasion of privacy D) respondeat superior
A) assault and battery
The receiving chambers of the heart are the A) atria B) chordae tendineae C) vena cavae D) ventricles
A) atria
The last choice vein for venipuncture is the _____________________ vein. A) basilic B) cephalic C) femoral D) median
A) basilic
The slanted tip of the needle that enters the vein is called the A) bevel B) gauge C) hub D) lumen
A) bevel
A positive FIT test indicates: A) bleeding in the colon or rectum B) C. diff colonization of intestines C) presence of intestinal parasites D) sizeable fecal accumulation
A) bleeding in the oclon or rectum
Which test requires strict skin antisepsis procedures before specimen collection? A) blood culture B) blood urea nitrogen C) complete blood count D) type and crossmatch
A) blood culture
A first morning specimen is unacceptable for urine cytology because: A) cells may have disintegrated in the bladder overnight B) concentrated urine has many interfering shedding of cells into the bladder C) shedding of cells into the bladder at night is minimal D) the pH level is usually too high for testing purposes
A) cells may have disintegrated in the bladder overnight
Which fluid is obtained by lumbar puncture? A) cerebrospinal B) peritoneal C) pleural D) synovial
A) cerebrospinal
Only the second vowel of the ending is pronounced in the word A) chordae B) dyspnea C) nuclei D) protozoa
A) chordae
Which of the following test requires 24-hour urine specimen? A) creatinine clearance B) culture and sensitivity C) fibrin split products D) glucose tolerance test
A) creatinine clearance
This is a source of preanalytical error that occurs before specimen collection A) dehydrated patient B) misidentified patient C) mislabeled specimen D) wrong collection tube
A) dehydrated patient
TDM is used by physicians to A) determine a beneficial drug dose for a patient B) maintain "peak" levels of a drug in a patient's system C) maintain "trough" levels of a drug in a patient's system D) screen inpatients for abuse of prescriptive drugs
A) determine a beneficial drug dose for a patient
Lymphatic fluid originates from A) excess tissue fluid B) glomerular filtrate C) the kidneys D) the pancreas
A) excess tissue fluid
The main principles involved in radiation exposure are A) exposure time, distance, and shielding B) exposure time, radiation level, and glove use C) time of day, amount of radiation, and source D) time of day, distance, and eye protection
A) exposure time, distance, and shielding
A good blood smear should exhibit a ________________________ edge. A) feathered B) round C) square D) pointy
A) feathered
An arm that is paralyzed: A) has no muscle function B) has sensory damage also C) is a permanent condition D) is the result of a stroke
A) has no muscle function
A condition in which blood components that cannot easily leave the bloodstream become concentrated in the smaller plasma volume is known as ____________________. A) hemoconcentration B) hemolysis C) hemostasis D) thrombosis
A) hemoconcentration
Prolonged tourniquet application may cause a change in the blood composition primarily because of A) hemoconcentration B) hemoglobin C) hemolysis D) homeostasis
A) hemoconcentration
Removing blood on a regular basis or in large amounts can lead to ____________________ anemia. A) iatrogenic B) hemolytic C) sickle cell D) aplastic
A) iatrogenic
When the additive from a tube "backwashes" into the patient, it is known as ____________________. A) reflux B) hemolysis C) hemoconcentration D) thrombosis
A) reflux
A specimen that has been clotted and spun down yields ______________________. A) serum B) plasma C) antigens D) blood
A) serum
A patient who has been at rest and has not had any changes in respiratory therapy for 20-30 minutes is in a ____________________ state. A) steady B) unsteady C) stressed D) high
A) steady
Blood that is flowing back to the heart is _____________________ blood. A) venous B) capillary C) artillery D) oxygenated
A) venous
Examples of nosocomial infections include A) when a catheter site of a patient in the ICU becomes infected B) when a healthcare worker contracts hepatitis from a needlestick C) when a patient is admitted with symptoms of Hanta Virus D) when a patient breaks out with measles the day after admission
A) when a catheter site of a patient in the ICU becomes infected
Mucus or phlegm from the lungs is called _________________________. A) sputum B) amniotic fluid C) gastric fluid D) synovial fluid
A)sputum
Never leave a tourniquet on for more than A) 30 seconds B) 1 minute C) 2 minutes D) 3 minutes
B) 1 minute
Individuals who wish to donate blood in most states must be at least: A) 16 years old and weigh at least 105 lb B) 17 years old and weigh at least 110 lb C) 18 years old and weigh at least 120 lb D) 21 years old and weigh at least 125 lb
B) 17 years old and weigh at least 110 lb
When making a routine blood smear, the "pusher slide" is normally used at an angle of how many degrees? A) 15 B) 30 C) 45 D) 60
B) 30
How long before specimen collection should drugs known to interfere with testing be discontinued? A) 1 to 4 hours B) 4 to 24 hours C) 24 to 36 hours D) 48 to 72 hours
B) 4 to 24 hours
What is PKU? A) A contagious condition caused by lack of phenylalanine B) A hereditary inability to metabolize phenylalanine C) An acquired condition caused by lack of phenylalanine D) An inherited condition caused by lack of thyroid hormone
B) A hereditary inability to metabolize phenylalanine
What word means "hardening of the artery"? A) Arteriopathy B) Arteriosclerosis C) Arteriospasm D) Arteritis
B) Arteriosclerosis
After obtaining a specimen for a cold agglutinin test, the blood must be transported: A) As a "STAT" test B) At body temperature C) In a cold rack D) Protected from light
B) At body temperature
A factor that contributes to the phlebotomist's professional image is ______________. A) Age B) Attitude C) Heritage D) Religion
B) Attitude
Which test must be performed on whole blood? A) BUN B) CBC C) CPK D) PTT
B) CBC
Proof of participation in workshops to upgrade skills required by some agencies to renew certification is/are called A) Accreditation B) CEU's C) Essentials D) IACET
B) CEU's
A patient has several short lengths of IV-type tubing protruding from the chest. This is most likely a(n): A) A-lin B) CVC C) port D) PICC
B) CVC (Central Venous Catheter)
Which of the following represents improper aliquot preparation? A) Removing the stopper behind a splash shield B) Carefully pouring the contents into the aliquot tube C) Covering or capping the aliquot tube D) None of the above
B) Carefully pouring the contents into the aliquot tube
The test performed in the following department are typically collected in a tube with a light blue stopper A) Chemistry B) Coagulation C) Hematology D) Microbiology
B) Coagulation
A member of the clergy is with the patient when you arrive to collect a routine specimen. What should you do? A) Ask the patient's nurse what you should do B) Come back after the clergy person has gone C) Fill out a form saying you were unable to collect the specimen D) Say "Excuse me, I need to collect a specimen from this patient."
B) Come back after the clergy person has gone
A delta check refers to: A) Checking the wristband with the requisition B) comparing current test results with previous ones C) Documenting all of the results of the QC checks D) Reporting new infection control precautions
B) Comparing current test results with previous ones
Which federal agencies regulate the transporting of biological specimens offsite? A) CLIA and EPA B) DOT and IATA C) EPA and CLSI D) All of the above
B) DOT (Department of Transportation) and IATA (International Air Transport Agency)
What is the first thing the phlebotomist should do in the event of an accidental needlestick? A) Check the patient's medical records for BBP status B) Decontaminate the site and fill out an incident form C) Go to the employee health service and get a tetanus booster D) Leave the area sot the patient does not notice the injury
B) Decontaminate the site and fill out an incident form
Which additive is usually present in a tube with a lavender stopper? A) citrate B) EDTA C) heparin D) oxalate
B) EDTA
Which of the following basic tissue types covers and lines organs, vessels, and cavities? A) Connective B) Epithelial C) Muscle D) Nerve
B) Epithelial
A tourniquet is used in venipuncture to: A) Concentrate the blood specimen B) Find and enter the veins more easily C) Keep the vein from collapsing D) All of the above
B) Find and enter the veins more easily
Which of the following represents the proper direction of blood flow? A) From arteries to veins to capillaries B) From arterioles to capillaries to venules C) From capillaries to arterioles to arteries D) From veins to venules to capillaries
B) From arterioles to capillaries to venules
Which of the following is an example of negative kinesics? A) Eye contact B) Frowning C) Touching D) Smiling
B) Frowning
What test evaluates the body's ability to metabolize sugar by monitoring the patient's tolerance to high levels of sugar without adverse affects? A) HCG B) GTT C) HLA D) PTT
B) GTT (Glucose Tolerance Test)
A phlebotomist has attempted twice to draw a partial thromboplastin time (PTT) specimen from a patient with difficult veins. Both times the phlebotomist has been able to draw only a partial tube. What should the phlebotomist do? A) Collect the specimen by skin puncture B) Have another phlebotomist attempt to draw the specimen C) Pour the two tubes together and mix well D) Submit the fullest tube for testing, noting the draw was difficult
B) Have another phlebotomist attempt to draw the specimen
Which of the following is a test that measures packed cell volume? A) hCG B) Hct C) INR D) TnT
B) Hct
Early equipment used for bloodletting included all of the following except the _____________. A) Fleam B) Hemostat C) Lancet D) Leech
B) Hemostat
ABG supplies include: A) 18-gauge needles B) Heparinized syringes C) Tourniquets D) All of the above
B) Heparinized syringes
The transverse plane divides the body: A) Diagonally into upper and lower portions B) Horizontally into upper and lower portions C) Vertically into front and back portions D) Vertically into right and left portions
B) Horizontally into upper and lower portions
Which of the following abbreviations is on The Joint Commission's "Do Not Use" list? A) cc B) IU C) mL D) UTI
B) IU
What is the purpose of warming the site of skin puncture? A) It is comforting to the patient B) It increases blood flow up to seven times C) It makes the veins more visible D) It minimizes hemolysis of the specimen
B) It increases blood flow up to seven times
Common chemistry tests performed by POCT instruments include: A) Hgb and Hct B) Na and K C) PT and PTT D) T4 and TSH
B) Na and K
Which of the following would be omitted from a lab-generated computer label? A) Collector's initials B) Patient diagnosis C) Physician's name D) Time of collection
B) Patient diagnosis
With which other hospital department would the laboratory coordinate therapeutic drug monitoring? A) Nuclear Medicine B) Pharmacy C) Physical Therapy D) Radiology
B) Pharmacy
Which of the following is a type of serous fluid? A) Amniotic fluid B) Pleural fluid C) Spital fluid D) Synovial
B) Pleural fluid
Blood in which type of tube normally clots within five minutes? A) PST B) RST C) SPS D) SST
B) RST (Rapid Serum Tube)
The patient asks if the specimen about to be drawn is for her diabetes test. How should the question be answered? A) If the test is for glucose, say, "Yes, it is." B) Say, "It's best to discuss that with the doctor." C) Say, "No," even if the test is for diabetes D) Tell the patient that you don't know
B) Say, "It's best to discuss that with the doctor."
The clear, pale-yellow fluid found in the top layer after allowing a blood sample to coagulate and centrifuge is called _______________. A) Plasma B) Serum C) Red blood cells D) White blood cells
B) Serum
Which of the following types of muscle is under voluntary control? A) Cardiac B) Skeletal C) Smooth D) Visceral
B) Skeletal
Capillary bilirubin specimen should be protected from ________________________. A) heat B) UV light C) ice D) darkness
B) UV light
A capillary puncture should be done rather than a venipuncture in the following situations except when A) a child is less than 1-year-old B) a light blue top is needed C) the patient has difficult veins D) the test uses very little blood
B) a light blue top is needed
The fluid found around a fetus is known as __________________________. A) sputum B) amniotic C) cerebrospinal D) gastric
B) amniotic
According to standard first aid procedures, severe external bleeding is best controlled by A) applying tourniquet B) applying pressure C) keeping injured area below the heart D) raising the victims head above the level of the injury
B) applying pressure
You must draw a protime specimen from a patient with IV's in both arms. Which of the following is the best thing to do? Draw the specimen A) above an IV B) below an IV C) from an ankle vein D) from an IV
B) below an IV
Examples of timed tests include: A) basic metabolic panel, potassium, and glucose B) blood cultures, cardiac enzymes, and cortisol C) calcium, ferritin, and complete blood count D) creatinine, lactic acid, and reticulocyte
B) blood cultures, cardiac enzymes, and cortisol
Capillary action is a term used to describe how: A) arterial blood enters the capillaries B) blood fills a microhematocrit tube C) cells spread across a blood smear D) warming can increase blood flow
B) blood fills a microhematocrit tube
Which specimen can be centrifuged immediately upon arrival in specimen processing? A) blood culture in an SPS tube B) calcium in a green top tube C) CBC in a lavender stopper tube D) creatinine is an SST tube
B) calcium in a green top tube
What is the root word in the word "electrocardiogram"? A) electro B) cardi C) cardiogram D) gram
B) cardi
Which of the following specimens are least likely to require special handling? A) bilirubin and serum folate B) cholesterol and uric acid C) gastrin and lactic acid D) homocysteine and renin
B) cholesterol and uric acid
If the blood is drawn too quickly from a small vein, the vein will tend to A) bruise B) collapse C) disintegrate D) roll
B) collapse
A capillary puncture site should not appear _____________________, which is described as being bluish from lack of oxygen. A) yellow B) cyanotic C) orange D) red
B) cyanotic
The relaxing phase of the cardiac cycle is called A) bradycardia B) diastole C) infarction D) systole
B) diastole
After performing arterial puncture, check the pulse A) directly over the ulnar artery B) distal to the puncture site C) medial to the puncture site D) proximal to the puncture site
B) distal to the puncture site
An autologous blood transfusion is a transfusion of blood A) directly from the donor to the patient B) donated by the patient for the patient C) donated by a compatible relative D) given by an anonymous donor
B) donated by the patient for the patient
To prevent introducing a contaminating substance into a trace-element collection tube, it is suggested that the phlebotomist A) collect the trace-element tube last in the order of draw B) draw it by itself using a syringe or evacuated tube system C) use a syringe and transfer blood into a royal blue tube last D) use only a royal blue short-draw tube with heparin or EDTA
B) draw it by itself using a syringe or evacuated tube system
The purpose of wiping away the first drop of blood during skin puncture is to A) avoid bacterial contamination B) eliminate tissue fluid contamination C) minimize platelet aggregation D) reduce effects of hemoconcentration
B) eliminate tissue fluid contamination
Computer networking caused Congress to take steps to eliminate patient confidentiality violations by: A) barring certain interfaces B) enacting the HIPAA law C) limitations the network size D) regulating the ethernet
B) enacting the HIPAA law
Glass particles present in separator tubes A) deter coagulation B) enhance clotting C) inhibit glycolysis D) prevent hemolysis
B) enhance clotting
If a phlebotomist _____________, he or she is negligent A) does not obtain a specimen from combative patient B) fails to put the needle and holder in the sharps container C) puts the bedrail in an upright position when leaving D) reports obvious changes in the patient's condition
B) fails to put the needle and holder in the sharps container
Which artery is typically the easiest to access during low cardiac output? A) brachial B) femoral C) radial D) ulnar
B) femoral
This test involves intravenous administration of histamine or pentagastrin A) bone marrow biopsy B) gastric analysis C) glucose tolerance test D) sweat chloride
B) gastric analysis
The letter "g" is pronounced like "j" in A) gamete B) gestation C) glycolysis D) guaiac
B) gestation
Capillary puncture blood reference ranges are higher for this analyte A) calcium B) glucose C) phosphorus D) total protein
B) glucose
Which of the following word parts is a prefix? A) aer B) hypo C) lysis D) my
B) hypo
To maintain the integrity of an ABG specimen collected in a plastic syringe, it should be A) analyzed within 30 minutes B) immediately place in ice C) protected from light D) transported at 37 ̊C
B) immediately place in ice
An example of a preanalytical error happening during specimen processing is A) faulty collection technique B) inadequate centrifugation C) insufficient specimen D) patient stress and anxiety
B) inadequate centrifugation
Class C fires A) involve combustible metals B) involve electrical equipment C) occur with flammable liquids D) occur with ordinary materials
B) involve electrical equipment
What part of the term "osteochondritis" is the suffix? A) chondr B) itis C) osteo D) tis
B) itis
Creatine clearance is a measure of: A) glucose metabolism B) kidney function C) liver function D) muscular activity
B) kidney function
A refrigerated stool sample would be unsuitable for this test A) fat analysis B) ova and parasite C) urobilinogen D) All of the above
B) ova and parasite
A breath test can be used to detect organisms that cause: A) meningitis B) peptic ulcers C) tuberculosis D) whooping cough
B) peptic ulcers
A fistula is a(n) A) implanted port to an indwelling line B) permanent fusion of an artery and vein C) special winged infusion set left in a patient arm D) temporary fusion of an artery and vein
B) permanent fusion of an artery and vein
Which of the following tubes can be used to collect blood for a type and crossmatch? A) ETS gray top B) pink top EDTA tube C) royal blue top D) serum separator tube
B) pink top EDTA tube
Heparin is used in ABG specimen collection to A) increase the flow of blood B) prevent clotting of specimen C) reduce the among of pain D) stabilize oxygen and CO2
B) prevent clotting of specimen
When an area is supplied with blood from more than one artery, there is ________________________ circulation. A) collateral B) pulmonary C) systemic D) slow
B) pulmonary
When latex or vinyl strap tourniquets become soiled with blood, it is best to A) autoclave and reuse them B) throw them away C) wash them in bleach D) wipe them with alcohol
B) throw them away
A blood smear made from an EDTA specimen should be made A) anytime after collection B) within 1 hour of collection C) within 4 hours of collection D) within 12 hours of collection
B) within 1 hour of collection
What is the Clinical and Laboratory Standard Institute (CLSI) recommended maximum depth of heel puncture? A) 1.0 mm B) 1.4 mm C) 2.0 mm D) 2.4 mm
C) 2.0 mm
The most common needle size for routine radial ABG specimen collection is A) 18 gauge B) 20 gauge C) 22 gauge D) 25 gauge
C) 22 gauge
At what interval is the blood blotted during a bleeding time test? A) 15 seconds B) 20 seconds C) 30 seconds D) 45 seconds
C) 30 seconds
Which of the following is the proper needle insertion angle for radial artery puncture? A) 15 ̊ B) 25 ̊ C) 45 ̊ D) 90 ̊
C) 45 ̊
The normal composition of blood is approximately: A) 10% plasma, 90% formed elements B) 30% plasma, 70% formed elements C) 55% plasma, 45% formed elements D) 91% plasma, 9% formed elements
C) 55% plasma, 45% formed elements
Which of the following situations involves a HAI (Healthcare Associated Infection)? A) A man has a bladder infection upon hospital admission B) An employee contracts hepatitis B from a needlestick C) A patient in the ICU has an incision that becomes infected D) A baby in the nursery has a congenial herpes infection
C) A patient in the ICU has in incision that becomes infected
The resting metabolic state of the body early in the morning after fasting for approximately 12 hours is referred to as _____________. A) Hemostatic state B) Homeostatic state C) Basal state D) None of the above
C) Basal state
This organization develops standards for specimen handling and processing A) CDC B) CLIA C) CLSI D) FDA
C) CLSI
A national organization that develops guidelines and sets standards for laboratory procedures is the: A) CAP B) CLIAC C) CLSI D) NAACLS
C) CLSI (Clinical and Laboratory Safety Institute)
The CLIA federal regulations are administered by: A) CAP B) CLSI C) CMS D) CoW
C) CMS (Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services)
Outpatient phlebotomy, such as in a physician's office or patient care service center, will be assigned a code for reimbursement using which of national coding system A) AHCCCS B) APC C) CPT D) HIPPA
C) CPT
Which is a nonspecific marker of systemic inflammation? A) ACT B) BNP C) CRP D) TnT
C) CRP (C-Reactive Protein) made in the liver to respond to inflammation
Which type of urine specimen is the best one for detecting a UTI? A) 24-hour B) First morning C) Clean-catch D) Random
C) Clean catch
Levels of this analyte can differ by 50% or more between morning and late afternoon A) BUN B) CBC C) Cortisol D) Sodium
C) Cortisol
Which of the following is a test of the urinary system? A) Cholinesterase B) Creatine Kinase C) Creatinine clearance D) Pleuracentesis
C) Creatinine clearance
Which of the following example is unrelated to quality control A) Checking expiration dates of evacuated tubes B) Documenting maintenance on centrifuge C) Employees filling out their time sheets daily D) Recording refrigerator temperature daily
C) Employees filling out their time sheets daily
What type of specimen is needed for a guaiac test? A) Blood B) Breath C) Feces D) Urine
C) Feces
Which of the following veins is not an antecubital vein? A) Basilic B) Cephalic C) Femoral D) Median
C) Femoral
What is the proper order of putting on protective clothing? A) Gloves first, then gown, mask last B) Gown first, then gloves, mask last C) Gown first, then mask, gloves last D) Mask first, then gown, gloves last
C) Gown first, then mask, gloves last
The hormone detected in positive urine pregnancy tests is A) ACTH B) GH C) HCG D) TSH
C) HCG
Which type of sample is commonly used to identify arsenic poisoning in agricultural workers? A) Blood B) Feces C) Hair D) Saliva
C) Hair
It is improper telephone protocol to: A) Answer phone promptly B) Clarify and record information C) Hang up on an angry caller D) Prioritize callers if necessary
C) Hang up on an angry caller
Lavender-top tubes are most commonly used to collect: A) Chemistry tests B) Coagulation specimens C) Hematology tests D) Immunology tests
C) Hematology tests
Which of the following test specimens can be analyzed without being centrifuged? A) Bilirubin in an amber microtube B) Cholesterol in a gel barrier tube C) Hemoglobin A1c in an EDTA tube D) STAT potassium in a heparin gel tube
C) Hemoglobin A1c in an EDTA tube
What may happen if you mix a specimen too vigorously A) Glycolysis B) Hemoconcentration C) Hemolysis D) Microclot formation
C) Hemolysis
Cystitis means: A) Blueness of the skin B) Cellular type of infection C) Inflammation of the bladder D) Pertaining to the cells
C) Inflammation of the bladder
What color is the stopper of a CTAD tube, for what type of test is it used, and why? A) Gray; blood alcohol; inhibits volatilization of alcohol B) Lavender; molecular genetic testing; preserves DNA C) Light blue; coagulation; to inhibit platelet activation D) Orange; special chemistry, to decrease clotting time
C) Light blue; coagulation; to inhibit platelet activation
There is a request to draw specimen from an inpatient by the name of John Doe. Which of the following is an acceptable way to confirm the patient's identity? A) Ask the patient, "Are you Mr. John Doe? and see if he says "Yes" B) Check the patient's ID band and say, "I see that you are Mr. John Doe." C) Match the ID band and requisition with his verbal statement of ID D) See if the ID band matches the requisition to be sure of his identity
C) Match the ID band and requisition with his verbal statement of ID
State and federally funded insurance is called: A) ACO B) HIPAA C) Medicaid D) Medicare
C) Medicaid
Which of the following is a nervous system disorder? A) Acute nephritis B) Chronic hepatitis C) Multiple sclerosis D) Rheumatoid arthritis
C) Multiple sclerosis
Which of the following terms means kidney inflammation? A) Cystitis B) Hepatitis C) Nephritis D) Neuritis
C) Nephritis
The blood specimen for which test is placed in circles on special filter paper? A) Bilirubin B) CBGs C) PKU D) Malaria
C) PKU
Which of the following structures in the skin give rise to fingerprints? A) Arrector pili B) Hair follicles C) Papillae D) Sebaceous glands
C) Papillae
Which statement describes proper centrifuge operation? A) Centrifuge serum specimens before they start to form noticeable clots B) Never centrifuge both serum and plasma specimens in the same centrifuge C) Place tubes of equal size and volume opposite one another for balance D) Remove evacuated tube stoppers before placing them in the centrifuge
C) Place tubes of equal size and volume opposite one another for balance
All blood specimens transported by a courier must be: A) Centrifuged prior to transportation B) Placed in a refrigerated container C) Protected from direct sun exposure D) Transported horizontally for safety
C) Protected from direct sun exposure
The only phlebotomist in an outpatient drawing center is not familiar with the test that a physician has ordered. What is the most appropriate action to take? A) Call the physician's office for assistance B) Draw both a serum and a plasma sample C) Refer to the collection manual for instruction D) Send the patient to another drawing center
C) Refer to the collection manual for instruction
Sudoriferous glands are: A) Connected to hair follicles B) Endocrine system structures C) Referred to as sweat glands D) Responsible for goose bumps
C) Referred to as sweat glands
The OSHA HAZCOM Standard is also commonly called the A) Disclosure law B) MSDS Act C) Right-to-Know law D) UN Placard System
C) Right-to-Know law
A trace element-free tube stopper is: A) Green/gray B) Lavender C) Royal blue D) Yellow
C) Royal blue
The following test have all been ordered at the same time on different inpatients. There is only one phlebotomist on duty. Which test should the phlebotomist collect first? A) ASAP CBC in the cardia unit B) Routine Hgb in the long-term unit C) STAT electrolytes in the ER D) Times blood culture in ICU
C) STAT electrolytes in the ER
Which of the following would not violate a patient's right to confidentiality? A) Indicating the nature of patient's disease on the door B) Listing all HIV+ patients in the laboratory computer C) Sharing collection site information on a difficult patient D)Tacking a patient's laboratory results on the bulletin board
C) Sharing collection site information on a difficult patient
A procedure called iontophoresis is used in the collection of what specimen? A) CSF B) Saliva C) Sweat D) Synovial
C) Sweat
Which instance may lead you to suspect that you have accidentally punctured an artery A) A hematoma starts to form instantly B) The blood obtained is dark red C) The blood pulses into the tube D) There is no way to tell
C) The blood pulses into the tube
Which of the following is the safest area for infant heel puncture? A) The area of the arch B) The central area C) The lateral plantar surface D) The posterior curvature
C) The lateral plantar surface
Which of the following would cause you to suspect that a thrombus had formed in the artery while you were collecting an ABG? A) A hematoma quickly forms at the site B) The patient complains of extreme pain C) The pulse distal to the site is very weak D) All of the above
C) The pulse distal to the site is very weak
Veins that feel hard and cord-like when palpated may be: A) Collapsed B) Fistulas C) Thrombosed D) Venules
C) Thrombosed
What word means "condition of clotting"? A) Hemostasis B) Leukopenia C) Thrombosis D) Vasoconstriction
C) Thrombosis
An individual's blood type is determined by the presence or absence of a certain type of A) antibody present on the red blood cells B) antibody present on the white blood cells C) antigen present on the red blood cells D) antigen present on the white blood cells
C) antigen present on the red blood cells
The layer(s) of the skin containing blood vessels is/are A) epidermis and dermis B) epidermis only C) dermis and subcutaneous D) subcutaneous only
C) dermis and subcutaneous
Which of the following test may require special "chain of custody" documentation when collected? A) blood culture B) crossmatch C) drug screen D) TDM
C) drug screen
A blood clot circulating in the bloodstream is called a/n A) aneurysm B) embolism C) embolus D) thrombus
C) embolus
The abbreviations "ESR" means A) energy saving respiration B) eosinophil survival response C) erythrocyte sedimentation rate D) estimated survival rate
C) erythrocyte sedimentation rate
What does the term "calcaneus" mean? A) bone infection B) contains calcium C) heel bone D) osteomyelitis
C) heel bone
Identify the condition in which a unit of blood is withdrawn from a patient as treatment A) acute leukemia B) analogous donation C) hemochromatosis D) Rh incompatibility
C) hemochromatosis
A tube with a green stopper normally contains A) EDTA B) citrate C) heparin D) oxalate
C) heparin
Malpractice is a claim of A) assault and battery B) breach of confidentiality C) improper treatment D) invasion of privacy
C) improper treatment
Heparin prevents blood from clotting by A) activating calcium B) binding calcium C) inhibiting thrombin D) preserving thrombin
C) inhibiting thrombin
It is necessary to control the depth of lancet insertion during capillary puncture to avoid A) bacterial contamination B) excessive bleeding C) injuring heel bone D) puncturing an artery
C) injuring heel bone
Two phlebotomists are discussing a patient's condition in the elevator. They are overheard by the patient's daughter. This is an example of A) failure to exercise due care B) improper or unskilled care C) invasion of privacy D) res ipsa loquitur
C) invasion of privacy
A proper cleaning solution for preparing an arterial puncture site is A) heparin B) lidocaine C) isopropyl alcohol D) sodium hypochlorite
C) isopropyl alcohol
Which instance most closely resembles basal state? A patient who has A) been lying down for an hour B) just arrived for a fasting blood test C) just awakened at 0600 after fasting all night D) worked all night but did not eat at work
C) just awakened at 0600 after fasting all night
The medical term for white blood cell is A) erythrocyte B) hepatocyte C) leukocyte D) thrombocyte
C) leukocyte
Which of the following would not be considered a preanalytical error? A) failing to mix an additive tube B) mislabeling an aliquot tube C) misreporting patient results D) using the wrong order of draw
C) misreporting patient results
Neonatal screening is the testing of: A) babies for contagious diseases B) infants with certain symptoms C) newborns for certain disorders D) pregnant women for diseases
C) newborns for certain disorders
A specimen would most likely be accepted for testing despite this problem: A) expired evacuated tube B) incomplete identification C) no phlebotomist initials D) quantity not sufficient
C) no phlebotomist initials
The purpose of an antiglycolytic agent is to A) enhance clotting B) inhibit microbes C) preserve glucose D) prevent clotting
C) preserve glucose
16. The purpose of "protective" isolation is to A) prevent airborne transmission of contagious diseases B) protect others from patients with transmissible diseases C) protect susceptible patients from outside contamination D) provide a safe environment for psychiatric patients
C) protect susceptible patients from outside contamination
This test required a specimen with a 9:1 ratio of blood to anticoagulant A) ethanol B) glycohemoglobin C) prothrombin time D) red cell count
C) prothrombin time
Which microcollection container would be used to collect a specimen for CBC? A) gray top B) green top C) purple top D) red top
C) purple top
The artery of choice for ABG collection is A) brachial B) femoral C) radial D) ulnar
C) radial
Tiny red spots that appear on a patient's arm when the tourniquet is applied are a sign that the: A) patient is allergic to nitrile B) patient has anemia C) site may bleed excessively D) veins are sclerosed
C) site may bleed excessively
What is the most important factor in choosing which gauge needle to use for venipuncture? A) age and weight of the patient B) number of tubes to be drawn C) size and condition of the vein D) type of test being performed
C) size and condition of the vein
What additional information is typically required when labeling a nonblood specimen? A) biohazard warning B) ordering physician's name C) special handling needs D) specimen type and source
C) special handling needs
A refractometer can be used to measure urine: A) clarity and color B) protein level C) specific gravity D) urobilinogen
C) specific gravity
The most critical aspect of blood culture collection is A) amount of specimen B) skin antisepsis C) specimen handling D) the needle gauge
C) specimen handling
A first morning specimen is preferred for HCG testing because it is A) less likely to be contaminated B) more likely to have a higher pH C) typically, more concentrated D) All of the above
C) typically, more concentrated
As a general rule, serum or plasma should be removed from the cells within: A) 30 min B) 60 min C) 90 min D) 120 min
D) 120 min
A 2-hour postprandial specimen should be drawn A) 2 hours before the patient arrives for the test B) 2 hours after the patient arrives for the test C) 2 hours before the patient has a meal D) 2 hours after the patient has had a meal
D) 2 hours after the patient has had a meal
According to CLSI, the maximum time limit for separating serum or plasma from cells is A) 15 minutes from the time of collection B) 30 minutes from the time of collection C) 1.0 hour from the time of collection D) 2.0 hours from the time of collection
D) 2.0 hours from the time of collection
Prior to ABG collection, a patient should have been in a steady state for a least: A) 5 - 10 min B) 10 - 15 min C) 15 - 20 min D) 20 - 30 min
D) 20 - 30 min
Reverse isolation may be used for: A) A patient with the measles B) An adult patient with the flu C) A patient with tuberculosis D) A patient with severe burns
D) A patient with severe burns
Alcohol testing of urine is problematic because: A) alcohol can evaporate from uncapped specimens B) fermentation by bacteria can cause false positives C) results may not correlate with blood alcohol levels D) All of the above
D) All of the above
Drugs of abuse can be detected in A) hair B) saliva C) urine D) All of the above
D) All of the above
The ratio of blood to anticoagulant is most critical for: A) Coagulation specimens B) Light blue stoppers C) Sodium citrate tubes D) All of the above
D) All of the above
Thixotropic gel is found in: A) PPTs B) PSTs C) SSTs D) All of the above
D) All of the above
Which additive(s) prevents coagulation by binding to calcium ions? A) EDTA B) Sodium citrate C) Potassium oxalate D) All of the above
D) All of the above
What is the purpose of waiting 30 seconds for the alcohol to dry before needle insertion? A) To let evaporation help destroy microbes B) To avoid a stinging sensation C) To prevent hemolysis D) All of the above options are correct
D) All of the above options are correct
Promoting good public relations is a part of the phlebotomist's role because A) a phlebotomist is a representative of the laboratory throughout the facility B) good public relations promote a harmonious relationship with the staff C) patients often equate venipuncture experiences with the overall hospital care D) All of the answers are correct
D) All of the answers are correct
Which of the following is an example of a barrier to effective communication with a patient? The patient A) does not speak English B) is a very young child C) is emotionally upset D) All of the answers are correct
D) All of the answers are correct
Tests that can be performed using special POCT instrument or skin test kits include A) arterial blood gasses B) glucose C) occult blood D) All the answers are correct
D) All the answers are correct
What happens to an ABG specimen left at room temperature for a prolonged period? A) blood cells continue to consume oxygen B) continued metabolism produces acids C) levels of carbon dioxide increase D) All the answers are correct
D) All the answers are correct
A national organization that sets standards for phlebotomy procedures is the A) ASCP B) NAACLS C) NCA D) CLSI
D) CLSI
Which of the following specimens can be centrifuged immediately? A) Bilirubin collected in a red-top tube B) CBC collected in a lavender top C) Creatine collected in an SST D) Electrolytes collected in a PST
D) Electrolytes collected in a PST
All of the following are required PPE when processing specimens EXCEPT: A) Chin-length face shields B) Disposable gloves C) Fluid-resistent lab coats D) Fluid-resistent shoe covers
D) Fluid-resistent shoe covers
Which additive prevents coagulation by inhibiting thrombin? A) EDTA B) Sodium citrate C) Potassium oxalate D) Heparin
D) Heparin
The ability of the body to repair and maintain itself to achieve a "steady state" defines what term? A) Anabolism B) Catabolism C) Hemostasis D) Homeostasis
D) Homeostasis
Which of the following blood specimens requires cooling during transportation? A) Beta-carotene B) Cold agglutinin C) Electrolytes D) Homocysteine
D) Homocysteine
When does a blood glucose level in normal individuals typically peak after glucose ingestion? A) In 15 -20 min B) In 30 - 60 min C) In 60 - 90 min D) In roughly 120 min
D) In roughly 120 min
Which of the following communicates unprofessionalism? A) Clean laboratory coat B) Long hair pulled back C) Short, clean fingernails D) Intense odor of cologne or perfume or cigarettes
D) Intense odor of cologne or perfume or cigarettes
What is the most critical error a phlebotomist can make? A) Collecting a times specimen late B) Failing to collect a specimen C) Giving a patient a hematoma D) Misidentifying a patient specimen
D) Misidentifying a patient specimen
An unconscious patient is not wearing an ID band. There is an ID band taped to the patient's IV pole with information that matched the requisition. What should the phlebotomist do? A) Call the laboratory supervisor and ask how to proceed B) Draw the specimen and fill out an incident report form C) Draw the specimen and then ask the nurse to ID the patient D) Only draw the specimen after an ID band has been applied
D) Only draw the specimen after an ID band has been applied
The initials for the title granted after successful completion of the American Society for Clinical Pathology phlebotomy examination are: A) CLPl B) CLT C) CPT D) PBT
D) PBT (Phlebotomy Technician)
Which of the following vascular access devices is placed in a peripheral vein for the purpose of blood collection and administration of medication? A) fistula B) heparin lock C) implanted port D) PICC
D) PICC
An example of employee screening for infection control is A) HBV vaccination B) Immune globulin shots C) Measles vaccination D) PPD testing
D) PPD testing
What does the suffix -algia mean? A) Between B) Condition C) Disease D) Pain
D) Pain
The disease involving the body's overproduction of RBCs and the most common reason for performing therapeutic phlebotomy is called ___________. A) Hemochromatosis B) Polymyositis C) Tuberculosis D) Polycythemia
D) Polycythemia
The best way to tell that a specimen is arterial is the blood: A) Has lots of air bubbles B) Looks bright red in color C) Needs to be aspirated D) Pulses into the syringe
D) Pulses into the syringe
When exiting an isolation room, which item of PPE must be removed outside the room? A) Gloves B) Gown C) Mask D) Respirator
D) Respirator
Which department is responsible for administering oxygen therapy? A) Cardiodiagnostics B) Electroencephalography C) Physical therapy D) Respiratory therapy
D) Respiratory therapy
Which of the following examples of potential exposure to blood borne pathogens involves a parenteral route of transmission? A) Chewing gum while collecting blood specimens B) Eating a snack while accessing specimens C) Licking fingers while turning lab manual pages D) Rubbing eyes while processing specimens
D) Rubbing eyes while processing specimens
Which of the following is not one of the code words for NFPA order of action in the event of fire A) Alarm B) Confine C) Rescue D) Smother
D) Smother
A specimen was mislabeled on the floor. The phlebotomist is required to fill out an incident form. What information is not part of the report? A) Description of the consequence B) Details of the corrective action taken C) Explanation of the problem D) Suggestion of new guidelines
D) Suggestion of new guidelines
Which test requires four special tubes collected using a special order of draw? A) ETOH B) OGTT C) PT / INR D) TB-Gold
D) TB-Gold
The NPSGs are: A) CLSI's voluntary standards and guidelines B) NAACLS national educational guidelines C) Safety rules set down by CDC and OSHA D) TJC's annual safety requirement goals
D) TJC's annual safety requirement goals
Which of the following laboratory professionals is responsible for the administration of a specific clinical area, such as chemistry? A) Laboratory manager B) Medical laboratory scientist C) Medical laboratory technician D) Technical supervisor
D) Technical supervisor
The "standard of care" in the practice of phlebotomy is influenced by which of the following organizations? A) The Environmental Protection Agency B) The U.S. Food and Drug Administration C) The Health Insurance Privacy Agency D) The Joint Commission
D) The Joint Commission
Which of the following is the oldest and largest healthcare standards-setting body in the nation? A) American Medical Association B) Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services C) College of American Pathologists D) The Joint Commission
D) The Joint Commission
Which manual describes the necessary steps to follow in patient preparation for laboratory tests? A) The patient record B) The procedure manual C) The safety manual D) The test catalog
D) The test catalog
Rapid syphilis tests detect: A) Clostridium difficile B) Neisseria meningitidis C) Streptococcus pneumoniae D) Treponema pallidum
D) Treponema pallidum
You are in the process of collecting a specimen by venipuncture. You hear a hissing sound, there is a spurt of blood into the tube, and blood flow stops. What has most likely happened? A) Collapsed vein B) Needle went too deep C) Reflux of tube contents D) Tube vacuum escaped
D) Tube vacuum escaped
Sputum samples are typically collected to diagnose A) Diphtheria B) H. pylori C) Meningitis D) Tuberculosis
D) Tuberculosis
What would be the system of choice to identify laboratory specimens from an unconscious, unidentified woman in the emergency room? A) Assign a name to the patient such as Jane Doe B) Assign a number to the patient until admitted C) Process the specimens after she identified D) Use a three-part identification band and labels
D) Use a three-part identification band and labels
Specimen hemolysis can result from: A) Filling tubes with a transfer device at an angle B) Leaving the tourniquet on until the last tube C) Mixing anticoagulant tubes several extra times D) Using a large-volume tube with a 23-gauge needle
D) Using a large-volume tube with a 23-gauge needle
What is the recommended procedure for collecting a 24-hour urine procedure? A) Collect all the urine voided in any 24-hour period B) Collect the first morning specimen and all other specimens, except the next morning specimen C) Start the timing, collect the first morning specimen and all other specimens including the next morning specimen D) Void the first morning specimen, start the timing, and collect all other specimens, including the next morning sample
D) Void the first morning specimen, start the timing, and collect all other specimens, including the next morning sample
How can you visually tell serum from plasma? A) Serum is clear, plasma is cloudy B) Serum is fluid, plasma is gel C) Serum is yellow, plasma is colorless D) You cannot visually tell them apart
D) You cannot visually tell them apart
How can you tell that you are in a vein when using a needle and a syringe? A) The blood will pump into the syringe under its own power B) There is no way to tell this when you use a needle and syringe C) You cannot tell until you pull back the plunger and see blood D) You will normally see blood appear in the hub of the needle
D) You will normally see blood appear in the hub of the needle
Capillary puncture is typically performed on adults when: A) no accessible veins can be located B) patients have thrombotic tendencies C) veins are saved for chemotherapy D) all of the above
D) all of the above
A major difference between arteries and veins is that most veins A) are larger and thicker B) carry oxygen-rich blood C) connect with capillaries D) have on-way valves
D) have on-way valves
When a test requires a fasting specimen, but the serum is ________________, it is a clue that the patient was not fasting A) hemoconcentrated B) hemolyzed C) jaundiced D) lipemic
D) lipemic
Obstruction or complete stoppage of lymph flow is called _____________________. A) thrombosis B) hemoconcentration C) hemolysis D) lymphostasis
D) lymphostasis
The abbreviation that means "after a mean" is: A) a.c. B) bx C) fs D) pp
D) pp
A urine C&S is typically ordered to detect A) abnormal urine PH B) glucose overload C) kidney damage D) presence of a UTI
D) presence of a UTI
Which of the following is the best way to tell that a specimen is arterial? As the specimen is collected, the blood should A) appear bright cherry red B) have visible air bubbles C) look dark bluish red D) pulse into the syringe
D) pulse into the syringe
A major cause of respiratory distress in infants and young is A) cystic fibrosis B) emphysema C) mycobacterium tuberculosis D) respiratory syncytial virus
D) respiratory syncytial virus
What type of additive is recommended for collecting an ethanol test specimen? A) EDTA B) no additive C) sodium citrate D) sodium fluoride
D) sodium fluoride
Which is the best tube for collecting an ethanol specimen? A) potassium EDTA B) siliceous earth C) sodium citrate D) sodium fluoride
D) sodium fluoride
Which of the following is a disinfectant? A) benzalkonium chloride B) isopropanol C) povidone-iodine D) sodium hypochlorite
D) sodium hypochlorite
The term used to describe sophisticated and highly complex medical care is A) managed care B) primary care C) secondary care D) tertiary care
D) tertiary care
Hemostasis refers to A) broken red blood cells B) increased large molecules C) maintaining equilibrium D) the stoppage of bleeding
D) the stoppage of bleeding
Tests influenced by diurnal variation are often ordered as __________ tests, and it is important to collect them as close as possible to timed ordered. A) fasting B) postprandial C) STAT D) timed
D) timed
Of the following test, which is most likely to result in fatal consequences if the patient is misidentified? A) blood cultures B) drug screen C) postprandial glucose D) type and crossmatch
D) type and crossmatch
When performing the Allen test, which artery is released first? A) brachial B) femoral C) radial D) ulnar
D) ulnar
The term "phlebotomy" is derived from Greek words that, literally translated, mean A) blood collection B) capillary puncture C) vein dissection D) vein incision
D) vein incision
It is not a good idea to collect a CBC specimen from a screaming infant because the A) platelets are more likely to clump B) specimen will be hemoconcentrated C) specimen will be more likely to hemolyze D) white blood count may be falsely elevated
D) white blood count may be falsely elevated
An NP culture swab is collected to detect the presence of organism that causes A) genetic defects B) encephalitis C) strep throat D) whooping cough
D) whooping cough
Federal law requires that hepatitis B vaccination be made available to employees assigned to duties with occupational exposure risk A) after any probationary period of employment B) following 1 month of employment C) immediately upon being hired D) within 10 working days of initial assignment
D) within 10 working days of initial assignment
The term used when blood is withdrawn to dangerous or deadly limits is called
Exsanguination
