PHR PracticeTest Questions
Which of the following is a necessary part of the three plans that all organizations must develop? a. Company policy about employee protection b. Disaster recovery c. Hazard assessment d. Union policy for employee protection e. Fellow servant rule
. A: However organizations choose to create their plans, a company policy about employee protection is required for all of them. This policy lets employees know what the organization's approach to employee protection is. Answer B is incorrect because a disaster recovery plan is not a necessary part of the three plans. Answer C is incorrect because organizations are not obligated to include hazard assessment in all three plans. Answer D is incorrect because organizations are not required to include a union policy about employee protection. And answer E is incorrect because organizations are not required to create a fellow servant rule. In fact, the fellow servant rule is a part of common law doctrine that is now considered obsolete.
As of July 24, 2009, the federal minimum wage was established at $7.25 per hour. Grace Clothing, a successful line of retail clothing stores located in California, will be hiring 10 new workers at minimum wage with the option for commission. California has a statewide minimum wage of $8.00 per hour, so the company owners have contacted human resources manager Edwina regarding the disparity in minimum wage pay at the state and federal level. Which statement below best quotes the policy Edwina would cite to help Grace Clothing resolve the difference? a. Grace Clothing is required to pay employees the lowest minimum wage of any state in the country, which is $5.15 b. When a federal minimum wage is lower than a state minimum wage, companies may use the federal minimum wage as their standard c. When a state minimum wage is higher than the federal minimum wage, the company is required to pay the state minimum over the federal minimum d. The size of Grace Clothing makes it exempt from minimum wage requirements, so the company has no obligation to follow either federal or state minimum wage e. The presence of commission means that Grace Clothing can lower the minimum wage that it pays workers because the commission payments compensate for the lower minimum pay
. C: Minimum wage law is as follows: the federal minimum wage is primary if the state minimum wage is lower than the federal minimum wage. If the state minimum wage is higher than the federal level, however, the company is required to pay the state minimum wage. In other words, companies are expected to pay whatever happens to be higher. There are, of course, a number of variables that can affect minimum wage and what a company is expected to pay, but in question 10 one should assume that Grace Clothing in California is required to pay whatever happens to be the higher minimum wage. This means that answer choices A and B are immediately incorrect. In the case of answer D, the question does not provide any information about the size of the company, so the answer becomes irrelevant to the discussion. (Again, it must be assumed based on the question that Grace Clothing is required to pay minimum wage; the real question is which minimum wage?) And answer E is incorrect because the presence of commission should not necessarily affect minimum wage. The minimum wage is the minimum a company is expected to pay employees. Any commissions represent an addition to payment, but because commissions cannot be guaranteed they cannot compensate for lower minimum wage.
The "golden" benefits for executive compensation packages include all of the following except: a. Golden lifeboat b. Golden parachute c. Golden handshake d. Golden handcuffs e. Golden life jacket
A: The "golden" benefits for executive compensation packages include the golden parachute (answer B), the golden handshake (answer C), the golden handcuffs (answer D), and the golden life jacket (answer E). There is no golden lifeboat, however, so answer A is correct because it does not fall within this category of benefits for executive compensation packages.
During succession planning, a human resources pro may categorize employees as all of the following except: a. Employees who are ready for a new position on the company b. No employee is necessary because the position is now obsolete c. Employees who show indications that he or she is ready for a promotion d. Employees who fulfill all of the requirements of the position e. Employees who are expected to or will be required to leave the position soon
B: The process of succession planning requires that a human resources pro consider employees within their current positions. As a result, answer B falls outside the focus on employees within the positions and instead focuses on the position itself. This is not a part of succession planning. Answers A, C, D, and E all belong to the process of categorizing employees who are currently in positions within an organization.
Which of the following is not considered by OSHA to be a standard environmental health hazard? a. Ergonomic design b. Stress c. Plants d. Computer use e. Vibrations
D: OSHA does not list computer use as one of its standard environmental health hazards. Computer use might contribute to other hazards (such as ergonomic design or stress), but it is not in itself a health hazard. Answer choices A, B, C, and E are incorrect because each represents one of OSHA's environmental health hazards.
Which of the following are not steps in an analysis of training? a. Establish a clear objective for training b. Collect data about potential problems and review it c. Analyze where the organization is lacking in its objective and its outcome d. Develop new and more effective training material e. Consider options with respect to the organization's available budget and time
D: The development of new and more effective training material might be an end result of training analysis, but it is not necessarily one of the primary steps within the process. Answer choices A, B, C, and E, however, all reflect specific steps within the process of analyzing training and are thus incorrect.
Which of the following best represents what an employer can do when employees begin to unionize? a. Employers may contact union leaders and forbid unionization. b. Employers may block employees who begin the process of unionization c. Employers may threaten to replace workers who choose to unionize d. Employers may explain problems with unionization to employees e. Employers are not allowed to discuss unionization with employees
D: When an employer discovers that employees are beginning to unionize, the employer is not allowed to prevent unionization. The employer can, however, provide information to employees about the problems involved with unionization. Answer A is incorrect because the employer may not contact union leaders and forbid unionization. Answer B is incorrect because employers are not allowed to block employees who begin to unionize. Answer C is incorrect because employers may not threaten to replace workers who choose to unionize (although employers may replace workers during a lawful economic strike). Answer E is incorrect because employers are allowed to discuss unionization with employees; however, the substance of that discussion can be restricted by law.
The Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988 applies to which of the following types of organizations? a. Large corporations b. Federal contractors c. Government agencies d. Local businesses governed under municipal laws e. Academic organizations
. B: The Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988 applies specifically to federal contractors (specifically, the contractors that make at least $100,000). Answer s A, C, D, and E are incorrect because they inaccurately reflect the types of organizations to which the Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988 refers. Specifically, answer A is incorrect because it is far too vague. A federal contractor might be a large corporation, but not all large corporations are going to be federal contractors. Answer C is incorrect because federal contractors might be funded through government agencies but are entirely different organizations. Answer D is incorrect because it simply makes no sense: all local businesses will, in some way, be governed under municipal laws. Answer E is also incorrect because academic organizations - like most businesses that are not federal contractors - are responsible for developing their own substance abuse policies for the workplace
Which of the following is not a part of the due diligence process that a human resources pro must review during a merger? a. Affirmative Action plans b. Employment contracts c. Whistleblower prevention d. OSHA compliance e. Union activity
. C: A due diligence process during a merger should focus primarily on recording the following basics of company employee details: documentation regarding employee names, employment contracts, I-9 forms, benefit contracts, compensation information, company policy and procedures (such as handbooks for employees), compliance documentation for equal opportunity, information about company labor relations (including labor activity), all information about potential legal situations (such as legal violations, sexual harassment claims, and disputes about employee terminations), and legal compliance documentation for COBRA, FMLA, WARN, and OSHA. This means that answer choices A, B, D, and E all fall within the boundaries of due diligence for a merger, leaving only answer C. What is more, whistleblower prevention is not necessarily legal - as there are a number of laws designed to protect whistleblowers - so a company could not legally retain or utilize whistleblower techniques.
Employers are legally allowed to check and review employee emails subject to which of the following reqs.? a. Immediate notification from the legal dept. of impending review b. Evidence to suggest wrongdoing on the employee's part c. Written policy informing employees of potential for email searches d. No notification is required, therefore employers may check and review employee emails at any time e. Employers are not allowed to check or review employee emails without employee permission
. C: Employers are legally allowed to check and review employee email as long as they provide a written policy informing employees of the potential for email searches. Without this written policy, employers could legally file concerns about invasion of employee privacy. Answer choice A is incorrect because immediate notification from the legal dept. of impending review would not be sufficient. Answer choice B is incorrect because evidence of employee wrongdoing is too late for an employer to implement a search policy. Answer choice D is incorrect because notification is required. Although employers technically own the emails that employees send and receive, they are not advised to search emails without a written search policy. Answer choice E is incorrect because employers are allowed to check and review employee emails.
How long after filing with the Dept. of Labor are ERISA records required to be maintained? a. 4 years b. 5 years c. 6 years d. 7 years e. 8 years
. C: Once a company has filed ERISA records with the Dept. of Labor, that company is required to maintain those records for a minimum of six years. Answer choices A, B, D, and E are incorrect because they do not reflect accurate federal guidelines for ERISA record keeping.
A private company works as a contractor for federal defense agency. As a result of this agreement, many of the contractor employees will be engaging in positions of extreme sensitivity, and the contractor would like to give polygraph tests to employees. What is the federal policy regarding polygraph tests in this situation? a. All contractor employees may be given polygraph tests b. Federal law makes polygraphs illegal for anyone or any institution but the government to administer c. The employer may utilize anyone in the company to administer the polygraph d. Because the contractor does other work outside of his or her work with the defense agency, polygraphs are not allowed e. The polygraph test may be administered only to those who will be working in defense-related jobs
. E: Polygraph tests are allowed among federal defense contractors but may only be administered to those who will be working in the defense-related jobs. Most large contractors will not limit their contract work to the government, so it is entirely possible that the company will have employees doing work that is unrelated to the defense jobs. What is more, the employees who do work in connection with the defense agency but do not necessarily do sensitive work will not require polygraph testing. As a result, answer A is incorrect because there is no justification for testing all employees of the contractor. Answer B is incorrect because federal law does allow for polygraph testing in certain situations. Answer C is incorrect because it does not really address the question and because the information is not accurate--polygraph tests must be administered by certified professionals. Answer D is also incorrect because the nature of the contractor's work for the defense agency will likely justify polygraph testing for many of the employees.
Which of the following questions is not one of the questions that a human resources pro needs to address in a Human Management Capital Plan (HCMP) during strategic planning? a. Where have we come from? b. Where are we now? c. Where do we want to be? d. How will we get there? e. How will we know when we have arrived?
A: A Human Management Capital Plan is forward thinking; the questions asked look at the present and into the future. As a result, a human resources pro who is setting up a HCMP should ask the following questions as demonstrated in answer choices B, C, D, and E: Where are we now? Where do we want to be? How will we get there? How will we know when we arrive? Answer A, which asks where have we come from, addresses an issue that does not apply to this portion of strategic planning, so it is correct.
Which of the following is not a piece of legislation that covers employee deferred compensation programs? a. Family Medical and Leave Act b. Retirement Equity Act c. Small Business Job Protection Act d. Older Worker Benefit Protection Act e. Pension Protection Act
A: Among the answer choices provided, only the FMLA does not reference or cover employee deferred compensation programs. The Retirement Equity Act (B), the Small Business Job Protection Act (C), the Older Worker Benefit Protection Act (D), and the Pension Protection Act (E) all provide for deferred employee compensation programs in some way.
Philippa the head of the marketing department of Caledonia Coffee Company is planning to post a position that will allow current employees of the company to apply before that position opens to the public. Because the posting will be internal (arranged in-house), the process will differ from that of a public posting. Philippa contacts the human resources department to find out which type of application would be best for an internal position. The best type of application for this situation would be which of the following? a. Short-form application b. Weighted employment application c. Long-form application d. Job-specific application e. No application is needed - interested employees should submit resumes instead
A: For applications that are completed in-house - that is, for internal applications that current employees complete - a short-form application is usually best. This is because the company will already have most of the employee's information on file and simply needs a formal application for the new job rather than an extensive application detailing information the company probably has. Answer B is incorrect because the weighted employment application, while specific to the job and excellent for considering the details of a candidate's qualifications, is far too costly to establish in this type of situation. Answer C is incorrect because the long-form application is simply unnecessary for internal hiring. Answer D is incorrect because the job-specific application (which is used largely for hiring a number of employees for similar positions) will not necessarily be useful for the company looking to hire internally. And answer E is incorrect because an application is almost always necessary, even for internal hiring.
According to Marcus Buckingham and Curt Coffman in First, Break All the Rules, which of the following is not one of the four factors that help to create eager and content employees? a. Terminate employees who fail to connect with other members of the team b. Create clear goals for all employees and provide rewards for completed goals c. Focus on the strengths of each employee and encourage individual growth d. Identify potential employees who demonstrate versatility and a combination of KSAs (knowledge, skills, and abilities) e. Locate the most advantageous work situation for each employee
A: Marcus Buckingham and Curt Coffman's First, Break All the Rules takes a positive approach to improving the situation for employees; terminating an employee would not necessarily create a positive situation. Instead, Buckingham and Coffman suggest that a human resources pro work on the steps provided in answer choices B, C, D, and E, which are creating goals, focusing on individual employee strengths, identifying employee KSAs, and locating the most advantageous work situation for employees.
Which of the following best defines the purpose of talent management for the human resources professional? a. Creating interest for potential employees and developing current employees with the potential for management and executive positions b. Locating new talent that will enable the organization to grow and improve c. Training all employees for expected promotions within the organization d. Setting apart employees who are currently ready or will be ready for higher positions e. Identifying employees who have the most potential and training them for management positions within the organization
A: The purpose of talent management is twofold: to create a reputation and working situation that draws in new talent and to hold on to the talent by constantly maintaining the most effective work situation for employees. Answer A best summarizes this description, so it is correct. Answer choices B, D, and E all contain descriptions that are part of talent management, but each fails to encompass the entire purpose of talent management. As a result, answer choices B, D, and E are all incorrect. Answer C is also incorrect because it steps beyond any purpose of talent management. The goal of this process is not to train all employees for promotion but rather to attract employees with significant talent and to maintain them within the organization.
The Consolidated Omnibus Reconciliation Act (COBRA) requires that companies employing a certain number of people - or more - must offer a specified amount of health benefits. What is the minimum number of employees that a company must have for COBRA guidelines to be in effect? a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40 e. 50
B: COBRA regulations state that a company with at least 20 employees must provide a defined amount of health benefits for employees. Answer choices A, C, D, and E are all correct because they fail to recognize the requirements of COBRA regarding minimum number of employees.
. During a lawful economic strike, employers have the right to do which of the following? a. Confront employees and require that they return to work at the risk of being fired b. Hire new employees to replace striking employees c. Encourage the union to disband or a suggest the formation of a new union d. Disband union bargaining and require new representation e. Restrict union bargaining if they negatively impact company's finances
B: During a lawful economic strike, employers do have the right to hire employees to replace the striking employees. Answer choices A, C, D, and E are incorrect because they each represent types of unfair labor practices. Employers may not fire employees who refuse to cease striking instead of returning to work. They also may not encourage the union to disband and/or suggest the formation of a new union. Nor may the employer disband union bargaining and require new representation, or restrict union bargaining if this negatively impacts company's finances. 1. Which of the following best describes an environmental scan that might occur during strategic planning? a. Reviewing policy and procedures for any non-compliance with environmental regulations b. Analyzing indoor conditions to ensure overall employee health c. Collecting details that will help the company project a goal for growth and development d. Using research and development techniques to create an effective business plan e. Collaborating with the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) for improving the company's green standards
After several months of meetings, the owners of Pearson Fishing Service, an oilfield service company, have agreed on an idea affecting employee health benefits. They believe their concept should be submitted to become a congressional bill. Janice, who is their human resources pro, has participated extensively in the meetings, so the company owners ask her to advise them on the necessary steps to submit the idea. Which is the first step that must be taken for an idea to be presented as a bill to Congress? a. Submit the idea to the House of Representatives for review b. Submit the idea to a senator or representative from the congressional district c. Present the idea to a congressional committee for discussion d. Acquire signatures from a statewide petition in order to demonstrate the importance of the idea e. Present the idea to a congressional hearing to see if it passes review
B: Question 4 essentially asks the student to choose the first step in the legislative process for a bill to become a law. When an idea for a bill originates from an individual or business outside of Congress, the idea must first be submitted to a member of Congress (known as MOC). This MOC may be either a senator or a representative. The MOC will then sponsor the bill by submitting it to the part of Congress where he or she works, and the bill will begin its journey through legislation. Answer A is incorrect because no business or individual has the ability to submit a bill to either part of Congress. That obligation belongs to the MOC. Answer s C and E are incorrect because they again overstep the boundaries of the MOC. First the MOC must sponsor the bill; then it goes into a congressional committee and/or hearing. Answer D is also incorrect because a statewide petition, while valuable for some processes, plays no real part in the legislative process.
What is the HR professional's strategic role in organizations? a. Produce definitive change b. Encourage employees in their personal strengths c. Manage relationships between employees and the company d. Handle any issues arising from compliance problems e. Manage all employee problems
B: The HR pro is expected to encourage employees in their strengths and when necessary, help employees in building their strengths. Answer A is incorrect. While the HR professional's responsibility is related to change in organizations, it cannot produce definitive change if the need is too great. Answer C can be correct in the greater sense of the HR professional's job, but is not specific enough for the HR professional's responsibility within organizations. Similarly, answers D and E relate to the HR pro's job description but not within organizations.
What is the purpose of the Training Adjustment Assistance (TAA) program? a. To create funding for employees who have been terminated for any reason b. To help employees who lose their jobs due to a rise in the number of imports c. To establish health benefits for employees after they have been laid off d. To improve the quality of employee working conditions e. To work in coordination with the welfare system to support employees
B: The Training Adjustment Assistance (TAA) program was designed specifically to provide assistance to employees who have lost their jobs due to a rise in the number of imports. In other words, when import levels shift and companies in the US begin importing items that were previously manufactured here, the manufacturing companies might close as a result leaving employees without jobs. Answer A is incorrect because the TAA was designed for a far more particular reason than just employees losing their jobs for any reason. Answer C is incorrect because the TAA is related to providing training for laid-off workers to receive new jobs instead of providing them with health benefits. Answer D is incorrect because the TAA program is designed for workers who have already lost their jobs rather than for those who currently have jobs. Answer E is incorrect because the TAA does not specifically work with welfare, while the Workforce Investment Act (WIA) does.
What is the fiduciary role of the human resources pro regarding ERISA? a. Setting up pension accounts for employees b. Handling and managing pension funds c. Ensuring that the HIPAA guidelines of ERISA are observed d. Creating the rules that govern individual retirement account for employees e. Working with organization to locate the funds for pension accounts
B: The fiduciary role of the human resources pro regarding ERISA is primarily one of handling and managing the pension funds that the organization provides for retirement accounts. Answer A is incorrect because the fiduciary role does not include setting up pension accounts for employees. (This might be another part of the human resources professional's job, but this is not the immediate fiduciary role with respect to ERISA.) Answer C is incorrect because the fiduciary role has nothing to do with ensuring that HIPAA guidelines are observed. Answer D is incorrect because human resources pro is not responsible for creating retirement account rules. And answer E is incorrect because the fiduciary role of the human resources pro is not necessarily one of locating the funding but rather of managing it.
Which of the following does not represent steps in Enterprise Risk Management (ERM)? a. Identify risks b. Identify those responsible for risks c. Identify mitigation options for risks d. Make decisions about dealing with risks e. Reduce risks
B: The steps for Enterprise Risk Management are focused primarily on identifying risk and pursuing means of managing and reducing risk. As a result, this includes answer s A, C, D, and E. The steps of Enterprise Risk Management do not, however, include identifying the employees who are responsible for the risk. This might be part of the larger process of understanding risk, but it does not fall under the primary steps of Enterprise Risk Management. Answer B is, therefore, correct.
Susannah, who is the head of the human resources department, will be responsible for a training session and must decide on the seating style in the space that she will be using. The training will include a large group and will involve a range of activities, including several lectures, film presentations, and a small amount of group work. Which of the following seating styles will be most appropriate for the training that Susannah will be conducting? a. Theater-style b. Chevron-style c. Banquet-style d. Conference-style e. U-shaped-style
B: the training will encompass several features - lectures, film presentations, and group work. Among the available styles of seating, the chevron-style - with the chairs angled in a V-shape toward the stage or front of the meeting space - will offer the most versatility for trainees. Answer A is incorrect because the theater-style seating would be useful for lectures and film presentations but would offer no good way for trainees to break into groups. Answer C is incorrect because the banquet-style seating would be excellent for group work but would be impractical for lectures and film presentations. Similarly, answer D is incorrect because the conference-style seating would place participants around one large table, which would not necessarily be useful for any of the three activities that will occur in the training. And answer E is incorrect because the U-shaped seating would be useful only for lectures but would not benefit the trainees in a film presentation or in group work.
.Arthur is an employee of a distribution company and is looking to request FMLA-approved leave for personal reasons. Arthur contacts Brad, a human resources pro at the company, to find out if he is eligible for this type of leave. Arthur has worked for the company for 9 months. What is the minimum period of time that an employee needs to work for an employer to request leave according to FMLA guidelines? a. 8 months b. 10 months c. 12 months d. 15 months e. 18 months
C: According to FMLA guidelines, an employee must work for an employer for a minimum of 12 months (not necessarily consecutively) in order to apply for FMLA-approved leave. Because Arthur has only worked for the company for 9 months, he will not be eligible to apply for type of leave, which is what Brad - as the human resources pro - will be required to explain to Arthur. Answer choices A, B, D, and E are incorrect because each represents the wrong period of time for FMLA leave.
Which of the following best describes an environmental scan that might occur during strategic planning? a. Reviewing policy and procedures for any non-compliance with environmental regulations b. Analyzing indoor conditions to ensure overall employee health c. Collecting details that will help the company project a goal for growth and development d. Using research and development techniques to create an effective business plan e. Collaborating with the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) for improving the company's green standards
C: An environmental scan has to do with the gathering of information that will help to project company growth and development. In other words, an environmental scan helps a company to review historical data to begin the process of preparing for expected or planned growth in the company. The environmental scan has nothing to do with environmental standards, federal or otherwise. This means that answer choices A, B, and E can be eliminated because all refer to outdoor or indoor environment, the EPA, and green standards. Answer D may be eliminated as well because the environmental scan does not relate to research and development techniques, nor is it specifically related to a business plan in the immediate sense.
Which of the following is not a part of the 4 categories of intervention, as defined by Thomas Cummings and Christopher Worley in their book Organization Development and Change? a. Techno-structural b. Human resource management c. Change management d. Strategic e. Human process
C: The 4 categories of intervention, as presented by Cummings and Worley in Organization Development and Change, are Techno-structural, Human Resource Management, Human Process, and Strategic. Change management is more of another way to describe intervention within an organization than it is a category of intervention.
Which of the following best defines the purpose of a HR audit? a. Reviewing the organization of the HR dept. and making any necessary changes b. Taking stock of current compliance with labor relations laws and updating company policies accordingly c. Considering overall improvements that HR can make within the company d. Reviewing current training programs to consider internal improvement e. Analyzing the organization's recruiting methods and policies
C: The purpose of a HR audit can be fairly extensive in scope--to consider overall improvements that can be made within the company. Answer A is incorrect because a HR audit is certainly not limited to the HR dept., nor would a review of the organization within the HR dept. represent an audit. Answer B is incorrect because it is too limited in focus. A HR audit might include a review of compliance with labor relations laws, but it is not the only focus of a HR audit. Answers D and E are also incorrect because they are do not include the larger purpose of the HR audit and focus only on elements of the audit.
Which of the following is not involved in the HR professional's analysis of staffing needs? a. Create a list of necessary KSAs that will encourage company growth b. Develop a list of employees who might be ready for promotion c. Review the economic situation to consider any changes to the company's hiring policy d. Consider various hiring options for any open positions, as well as positions that will be open in the near future e. Review the results of past hiring decisions to increase the potential success of future decisions
C: While consideration of the economic situation might be useful, it is not part of the HR pro's analysis of staffing needs. The other answer choices - creating a list of necessary KSAs that will encourage company growth, developing a list of employees who might be ready for promotion, considering hiring options for open positions, and reviewing the results of hiring decisions for future hiring - are all part of an analysis of staffing needs.
The head of the administrative department for a major university has asked Raisa, a human resources pro at the school, for a team-building exercise that will benefit the administrative department. The administrative department is composed of employees who work closely together daily but often run into conflicts that indicate a clash of personalities. The department head hopes to find a team-building exercise that will improve the relationships among staff members in the department. Which of the following should Raisa recommend to the department head? a. A team obstacle course b. Role-playing situations c. Team scavenger hunts d. The Meyers-Briggs Type Indicator e. Real-life scenario re-creation
D: In the workplace, the Meyers-Brigg Type Indicator is primarily used as a personality test to enable individuals to understand their personalities better and to assist staff members in appreciating how to interact with their co-workers more effectively. Due to the nature of the administrative department and its situation - employees who work together quite frequently and run into personality conflicts - the Meyers-Brigg test will be Raisa's best recommendation. Answer s A and C are incorrect because research has suggested a lack of long-term value in team-building activities such as obstacle courses and scavenger hunts. Answer s B and E are also incorrect: while role-playing situations and real-life scenarios might be beneficial to those who work in highly active and often sensitive fields, they will not necessarily be as useful for employees whose jobs is more focused around completing and maintaining paperwork for a university.
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) was added to ERISA to do which of the following? a. Establish new guidelines for employee health insurance programs within organizations b. Ensure that all employers are responsible for covering minimum health conditions among employees c. Link ERISA to COBRA to protect any employees that are covered under COBRA guidelines d. Forbid any discrimination based on pre-existing health problems or conditions e. Ensure that retired employees maintain healthcare coverage
D: The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act was added to ERISA for the express purpose of forbidding any type of health benefit discrimination toward employees based on pre-existing health problems or health conditions. Answer A is incorrect for several reasons. On the one hand, it is simply too vague to explain the purpose of HIPAA. What is more, answer A does not simply establish new guidelines for employee health insurance programs, so it is incorrect. Answer s B and C are incorrect because both refer to COBRA (answer B references COBRA inferentially), and HIPAA is not immediately connected to COBRA or to providing minimum health benefits for employees. Answer E is incorrect because it fails to specify the exact purpose of HIPAA and because HIPAA was not added to ERISA simply for the purpose of retired employees maintaining healthcare coverage.
. Which of the following best describes adverse impact in the selection of employees for a company? a. A selection rate among a protected class of more than 95% the selection rate of the highest group b. The negative impact of failing to diversify the selection rate among employees c. Any non-compliance with the rules pertaining to the Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Process d. A selection rate among a protected class of less than 80% the selection rate of the highest group e. Willful discrimination against a specific group when selecting new employees
D: The phrase adverse impact or unintentional discrimination refers to the selection rate of a protected class being less than 80% of the selection rate of the highest group. In other words, if the selection rate of females is less than 80% the selection rate of males, there is an adverse impact on females by the hiring process. Answer A is the opposite of the correct definition of adverse impact, so it is incorrect. Answer B is close to the meaning of adverse impact - in a broad sense - but it is not specific enough to be correct. Answer C is also too broad, particularly because there is far more to the Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Process than just selection rate. And answer E is incorrect; while adverse impact might be interpreted as discrimination, it is not necessarily the direct result of discrimination.
Why is understanding of the legal process valuable for the HR professional? a. The HR pros are responsible for contacting members of Congress in the event that legislation should be proposed b. The business world is increasingly involved with the legislative process, and the HR professional is a company's outside contact for legislation c. Understanding the legislative process is essential for small businesses to become corporations d. Legislation influences the relationship between employers and employees, and the HR professional is responsible for understanding this relationship e. HR professionals are expected to function as lobbyists to Congress should legislation need to be enacted
D: legislation that will affect a business often affects that business's relationship with its employees. Because the HR professional is, in some ways, the intermediary between the employers and the employees, he or she should be familiar with the legislative process. Answer B is not correct because the HR pro is not necessarily responsible for contacting a member of Congress about submitting legislation. Answer B is incorrect because the HR professional is not required to act as the company's outside contact. Answer C is largely irrelevant to the larger question and, if true, would only refer to HR pros at small companies that are hoping to expand. Answer E is also incorrect because lobbying before Congress is a does not necessarily fall under the specific job description of the HR professional
The National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) describes a certain workplace condition as "harmful physical and emotional responses that occur when the requirements of the job do not match the capabilities, resources, or needs of the worker." Which of the following workplace conditions does this quote define? a. Panic b. Depression c. Disorganization d. Insecurity e. Stress
E: According to NIOSH, this is the definition of stress that affects employees in the workplace. Answer A is incorrect because it should be considered an effect of stress but does not fulfill the requirements of the definition. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because they too could be considered by-products of stress but do not reflect the definition provided by NIOSH
. Which of the following provides the best definition of organization development? a. Creating a mutual understanding of the values within an organization b. Discovering methods of strategic intervention to address problems within the organization c. Establishing means of employee participation in decisions that are made within organizations d. Creating a sense of balance between employers and their employees in a company e. Analyzing the various elements of an organization's makeup and reviewing opportunities for improvement
E: Organization development is the process by which a human resources pro analyzes the elements of an organization's makeup and considers opportunities for improvement. Answer A is incorrect because the definition refers more to organization culture than it does to organization development. And answer choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they refer to elements of organization development but do not explain the larger definition of the process as a whole.
Which of the following pieces of legislation establishes guidelines for retaining and reporting employee identification records? a. Fair Labor Standards Act b. Fair Credit Reporting Act c. Consumer Credit Protection Act d. Small Business Job Protection Act e. Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act
E: The Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act, which went into law in 1996, establishes and updates rules for retaining and reporting employee identification records. Answer A is incorrect because the Fair Labor Standards Act has no immediate requirement about record keeping and instead focuses on establishing fair compensation for employees. Answer B is incorrect because the Fair Credit Reporting Act governs employee credit reporting but not the retention of employee identification records. Answer C is incorrect because the workplace application of the Consumer Credit Protection Act relates to wage garnishing. Answer D is incorrect because the Small Business Job Protection Act relates to employee deferred compensation plans.
The WARN Act was designed to do which of the following? a. Prevent massive lay-offs that disrupt the economy b. Provide new positions for employees that have been laid off c. Create government funding to support a struggling company d. Establish full severance pay for those who have been laid off e. Ensure rights for employees who have been laid off
E: The WARN Act is the Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act, which was designed to offer rights for workers who have been laid off. Answer A is incorrect because the act was certainly not designed to prevent massive lay-offs but rather to give workers "adjustment and retraining" in the event of massive lay-offs. Answer B is incorrect because the act cannot necessarily provide new positions for workers who have been laid off. Answer C is incorrect; while the act creates government funding for workers who have lost their jobs, it does not create government funding for a struggling company. And answer D is incorrect because the act cannot provide severance pay for those who have been laid off.
The risk areas that the human resources pro is responsible for considering include all of the following except: a. Workplace privacy b. Legal compliance c. Safety and health d. Business continuity e. Labor relations
E: The category of labor relations is not considered to be one of the larger risks that a human resources pro must consider. Compliance with labor relations laws would fall under the category of legal compliance as a whole, but it is not a separate area of risk management. Answer choices A, B, C, and E are all incorrect because they represent distinct areas of risk that a human resources pro must consider.
Gabriela is an HR professional who has been given the responsibility of filling a position within the HR dept. She is ready to begin making the details of the position available to interested candidates and pursuing potential employees who will fill the reqs of the job as best as possible. This process is known as which of the following? a. Hiring b. Sourcing c. Tracking d. Selection e. Recruiting
E: The process described in question 12 is that of recruiting, or making the details of making the position available to interested candidates and pursuing potential employees who will fill the reqs of the job as best as possible. Answer A is incorrect because the process of hiring follows the process of recruiting. Answer B is incorrect because the process of sourcing is related more to acquiring the names and other information of potential candidates but is considered separate from recruiting. Answer C is incorrect because tracking is also a separate process from recruiting. Answer D is incorrect because selection is the next step beyond recruiting but does not belong within the recruitment process.
