PMP Test Questions
____ estimates involve estimating individual activities and summing them to get a project total. a. Bottom-up c. Ad hoc b. Provisional d. Temporary
A
Blake and Mouton (1964) delineated ____ basic modes for handling conflicts. a. four b. five c. six d. seven
B
After defining project activities, the next step in project time management is activity ____. a. organization b. sequencing c. segmenting d. ordering
B
The cost performance index (CPI) is: a. Earned value divided by actual cost b. Actual cost divided by earned value c. Earned value divided by planned value d. Planned value to date times percent complete
A
The main executing tasks performed as part of project ____ include requesting seller responses and selecting sellers. a. procurement b. planning c. initiation d. monitoring
A
Projects should first and foremost address business ____. a. portfolios b. ventures c. needs d. practices
C
A common way to summarize work performance information is by using a(n) ____ report. a. performance b. milestone c. projection d. evaluation
B
Performance in meeting project scope goals is based on the scope ____. a. definition b. revision c. baseline d. statement
C
A ____ contract has the least amount of risk for the buyer. a. firm -fixed price b. fixed-price incentive c. soft-fixed-price d. contingent-fixed
A
A best practice is a(n) ____ way recognized by industry to achieve a stated goal or objective. a. optimal b. suboptimal c. targeted d. inefficient
A
A three-point estimate is an estimate that includes a(n) ____, most likely, and pessimistic estimate, such as three weeks, four weeks, and five weeks, respectively. a. optimistic b. unusual c. remote d. conditional
A
A(n) ____ histogram is a column chart that shows the number of resources required for or assigned to a project over time. a. resource b. requirements c. allocation d. assignment
A
A(n) ____ is a document in which sellers describe what they will do to meet the requirements of a buyer. a. proposal b. charter c. schedule d. draft
A
A(n) ____ scoring model is a tool that provides a systematic process for selecting projects based on many criteria. a. weighted b. biased c. variable d. opportunity
A
An organization should consider only projects with a ____ NPV if financial value is a key criterion for project selection. a. positive b. negative c. zero d. well-defined
A
Because many projects fail due to unclear requirements and expectations, starting with a project ____ makes sense. a. charter b. contract c. vision statement d. compact
A
By adding all of the ____ for all project activities, you can determine how the project as a whole is performing and forecast both when it will be completed and how much it will cost at completion. a. earned values b. actual costs c. planned values` d. cost variances
A
Contract updates are often made by having both parties—the buyer and the seller—sign a(n) ____ to the contract. a. addendum b. revision c. c. alteration d. appendix
A
Earned value management involves calculating ____ values for each activity or summary activity from a project's WBS. a. three b. four c. five d. six
A
Examples of common ____ used by organizations include failure rates of products produced, availability of goods and services, and customer satisfaction ratings. a. metrics b. analytics c. requirements d. guidelines
A
In an AOA network diagram, a(n) ____ occurs when two or more nodes precede a single node. a. merge b. join c. union d. intersection
A
You calculate cash ____ by subtracting costs from benefits, or expenses from income. a. flow b. statements c. budgets d. structure
A
____ are the results of applying capabilities. a. Outcomes b. Events c. Effects d. Impressions
A
In the context of monitoring and controlling tasks for project quality management, ____ decisions determine if the products or services produced as part of the project will be accepted or rejected. a. acceptance b. rejection c. rework d. redesign
A
Project management software uses the ____ format to represent the WBS. a. tabular b. binary c. flexible d. chart
A
Scope verification: a. Is the formal acceptance of the project scope by the stakeholders b. Refers to the final project report describing the project at completion c. Is not necessary if the project competes on time and on budget d. Occurs only when revisions or change orders are made to the project
A
Some projects have a senior manager called a(n) ____ who acts as a key proponent for a project. a. champion b. coach c. sponsor d. advocate
A
Suppose that the purchase price for a piece of equipment is $10,000, and incurs operational costs of $300 per day. If the same equipment can be leased for $500 per day and you need the equipment for ____ days, it would be more economical to lease the equipment. a. 30 b. 60 c. 80 d. 100
A
The PMBOK® Guide lists at least ____ documents that project teams can produce as part of project planning. a. 50 b. 75 c. 100 d. 125
A
The ____ mode can be viewed as the win-lose approach to conflict resolution. a. forcing b. compromising c. negotiating d. bargaining
A
The main output of scope planning is a ____ management plan, which is a document that includes descriptions of how the team will prepare the scope statement, create the WBS, verify completion of the project deliverables, and control requests for changes to the project scope. a. scope b. project c. program d. portfolio
A
There are ____ important dimensions of risk events. a. two b. three c. four d. five
A
To ____ a project, you must finalize all activities and transfer the completed or canceled work to the appropriate people. a. close b. initiate c. audit d. assess
A
Two key outputs of performance reporting are performance reports and ____. a. forecasts b. cost-benefit analyses c. retrospectives d. performance reviews
A
Which of the following methods best helps a project manager identify and learn about key project stakeholders? a. questioning acquaintances b. reviewing organizational charts c. consulting biographies d. performing Internet searches
A
Which type of contract provides the highest rank to the owner (buyer)? a. Cost plus percentage of cost b. Cost plus fixed fee c. Firm fixed price d. Fixed price incentive
A
____ risk events might include the performance failure of a product produced as part of a project, delays in completing work as scheduled, increases in estimated costs, supply shortages, litigation against the company, and strikes. a. Negative b. Hidden c. Calculated d. Countervailing
A
Which of the following best describes Plan Stakeholder Management process? a. Creation and maintenance of relationships between the project team and stakeholders b. Preventing negative stakeholders from derailing the project c. Striking a balance between stakeholder needs and project needs d. Focuses on from the creation of the stakeholder management strategy
A - stakeholder management is about the creation and maintenance of relationships between the project team and stakeholders. Under specific circumstances, answers B and C may be partially or. Answer D is incorrect: what is created as the stakeholder management plan, not the stakeholder management strategy. PMBOK® Guide, 5th edition, p. 400
A ____ is a product or service produced or provided as part of a project. a. process b. result c. deliverable d. requirement
C
A change control board is: a. An informal or formal group of team members responsible for changes to a project b. A formal group of people responsible for approving or rejecting changes to the project baselines c. The project manager and several key team members working to ensure cost and schedule control during the life of the project d. An informal group that has oversight of project implementations
B
A(n) ____ event is a specific, uncertain event that may occur to the detriment or enhancement of the project. a. chance b. risk c. unplanned d. hidden
B
A(n) ____ log is a tool used to document and monitor the resolution of project issues. a. event b. issue c. problem d. running
B
According to Douglas McGregor, people who believe in Theory ____ assume that workers dislike and avoid work if possible, so managers must use coercion, threats, and various control schemes to get workers to make adequate efforts to meet objectives. a. W b. X c. Y d. Z
B
According to Frederick Herzberg, a(n) ____ factor is a basic necessity, such as air-conditioning during hot weather. a. motivational b. hygiene c. environmental d. incidental
B
After a project is approved, senior managers should meet to determine the ____, time, and cost constraints for the project. a. range c. vision b. scope d. boundary
B
After assigning weights for the criteria and scores for each project, you calculate a weighted score for each project by multiplying the weight for each criterion by its score and ____ the resulting values. a. multiplying b. adding c. dividing d. subtracting
B
After deciding which projects to pursue, organizations need to decide if it is advantageous to manage several projects together as part of a(n) ____. a. aggregate b. program c. cluster d. group
B
If you want to praise a project team member for doing a good job, a(n) ____ would most likely want everyone to hear about her good work. a. introvert b. extrovert c. recluse d. loner
B
In a software project, the planned value (PV) was 80,000, the earned value (EV) was 75,000 and the actual cost (AC) was 71,000, what is the cost variance (CV)? a. -4,000 b. +4,000 c. +9,000 d. -9,000
B
In general, the majority of a project's time and budget is spent on project ____. a. planning b. execution c. review d. duplication
B
Key outputs in project human resource management include ____ updates and team performance assessment. a. project b. staffing c. program d. portfolio
B
Project Communication management is divided into: a. Communication requirements, information distribution, performance reporting, and administrative procedure b. Communications planning, information distribution, performance reporting, and administrative closure c. Communications planning, response planning, progress reporting, and information distribution d. Communications planning, information distribution, schedule reporting, and stakeholder analysis
B
Project ____ management ensures that the project will satisfy the stated or implied needs for which it was undertaken. a. integration b. quality c. portfolio d. performance
B
Project ____ management includes acquiring or procuring goods and services for a project from outside the organization. a. logistics b. procurement c. acquisition d. supply
B
Project management ____ facilitate communication among stakeholders and provide a baseline for progress measurement and project control. a. charters c. contracts b. plans d. compacts
B
Project time management involves the following main processes: a. Activity definition, duration estimating, and schedule development b. Activity definition, sequencing, duration estimating, schedule development, and control c. Activity identification, sequencing, duration estimating, schedule development, and control d. Activity definition, sequencing, and schedule control
B
Quality assurance: a. Refers to the prevention of product defects b. Is an auditing function that provides feedback to the project team and client about the quality of the output being produced c. Is the technical process that includes the construction of control charts, which specify the acceptability limits for conforming output d. a and b
B
Risk reassessment, risk audits, variance and trend analysis, technical performance measurements, reserve analysis, and status meetings or periodic risk reviews are all tools and techniques for performing ____ monitoring and control. a. scope b. risk c. cost d. quality
B
Slack or ____ is the amount of time an activity may be delayed without delaying a succeeding activity or the project finish date. a. leeway b. float c. redundancy d. space
B
Suppose that after one week of work, the earned value is $4000 and the planned value is $5000. What is the value of the schedule performance index (SPI)? a. 75% b. 80% c. 120% d. 125%
B
The PMBOK Guide® is a ____ that describes best practices for what should be done to manage a project. a. rule book b. standard c. protocol d. secondary authority
B
The approved time estimate for a project can be divided by the ____ performance index to calculate when the project will be completed. a. cost b. schedule c. price d. itinerary
B
The final output of the seller selection process is a ____. a. bid b. contract c. charter d. proposal
B
The goal of ____ control is to know the status of the schedule, influence the factors that cause schedule changes, determine whether the schedule has changed, and manage changes when they occur. a. time b. schedule c. cost d. scope
B
The main monitoring and controlling tasks performed as part of project ____ management are scope verification and scope control. a. integration b. scope c. cost d. time
B
The main procurement management task performed to monitor and control projects is administering the ____. a. vision plan b. contract c. charter d. project platform
B
The main purpose of project planning is to guide project ____. a. initiation b. execution c. review d. evaluation
B
The project team develops a preliminary scope statement during project ____. a. review b. initiation c. orientation D. development
B
Three primary methods for determining the projected financial value of projects include net present value analysis, return on investment, and ____ analysis. a. growth b. payback c. environmental impact d. efficiency
B
Under which risk register heading would you list cost overruns on early activities, which might be symptomatic of a poor cost estimate? a. The impact to the project if the risk event occurs b. Triggers for each risk event c. The probability of the risk event occurring d. The status of the risk event
B
What is the PERT weighted average based on an optimistic estimate of 6 days, a most likely estimate of 8 days, and a pessimistic time of 12 days? a. 6 b. 8 c. 11 d. 12
B
What method is used to communicate staffing requirements to the organization? a. Gantt chart b. Staffing plan c. Responsibility matrix d. Project objective statement
B
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a "work package"? a. It is a task at the lowest level of any branch of the WBS b. It is a summary task at the top level of the WBS c. It consists of manageable units of work that can be planned, budgeted, scheduled, and controlled d. It usually contains no more than 80 work hours (effort) to complete
B
Which of the following topics could you expect to find in a procurement management plan? a. methodology for risk management b. guidelines on types of contracts to be used in different situations c. budget and schedule estimates for risk-related activities d. risk categories
B
____ dependencies involve relationships between project and nonproject activities. a. Internal b. External c. Ancillary d. Miscellaneous
B
____ development uses the results of all the preceding project time management processes to determine the start and end dates of project activities and of the entire project. a. Task b. Schedule c. Work Package d. Activity
B
____ estimates, also called top-down estimates, use the actual cost of a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project. a. Homologous b. Analogous c. Sequential d. Parallel
B
____ includes the actual amount of time spent working on an activity plus elapsed time. a. Extension b. Duration c. Period d. Length
B
____ risk events include completing work sooner than planned or at an unexpectedly reduced cost, collaborating with suppliers to produce better products, and obtaining good publicity from the project. a. Collaborative b. Positive c. Anticipated d. Probable
B
____ should be formed and continuously updated to help the organization as a whole make better strategic decisions. a. Monitors b. Portfolios c. Projects d. Programs
B
Describing stakeholders based on their power (ability to impose will), urgency (need for immediate attention), and legitimacy (their involvement), describes what type of grid or model? a. Power/Influence grid b. Salience Model c. Influence/Impact grid d. Power model
B - This exactly describes the Salience model. PMBOK® Guide, 5th edition, p. 396
A cost baseline is a(n) ____ budget that project managers use to measure and monitor cost performance. a. incidental b. basic c. time-phased d. incremental
C
A project manager must be sure to check with his organization to find out its guidelines for when discounting starts, what discount rate to use, and what ____ the organization prefers. a. charts b. technique c. format d. results
C
A project portfolio ____ map compares relative value to project risk. a. venture b. viability c. risk d. value
C
A quality ____ is a structured review of specific quality management activities that helps identify lessons learned, which could improve performance on current or future projects. a. survey b. overview c. audit d. assessment
C
A stakeholder ____ provides information on key stakeholders to help manage relationships with them. a. study b. charter c. analysis d. guide
C
According to David McClelland, people with a high need for ____ desire harmonious relationships with other people and need to feel accepted by others. a. isolation b. assurance c. affiliation d. solitude
C
According to the research of Fast Company, which of the following is one of the three top reasons that people voluntarily leave their job? a. They are learning too many new things. b. They are growing into their position. c. They do not feel they make a difference. d. They get proper recognition.
C
Based on the implementation of quality-control measurements, ____ adjustments often result in updates to the quality baseline, organizational process assets, and the project management plan. a. contract b. quality c. process d. project
C
Contract ____ includes the contract itself along with requested unapproved contract changes and approved change requests. a. authorization b. review c. documentation d. negotiation
C
In a(n) ____, each bar represents an attribute or a characteristic of a problem or situation, and the height of the bar represents its frequency. a. run chart b. control chart c. histogram d. scatter diagram
C
In an AOA network diagram, ____ occur when two or more activities follow a single node. a. drives b. flares c. bursts d. runs
C
In the context of earned value management, ____ are calculated by subtracting the actual cost or planned value from EV, and indexes are calculated by dividing EV by the actual cost or planned value. a. fluctuations b. valuations c. variances d. deviations
C
In the context of earned value management, the ____ cost is the total direct and indirect costs incurred in accomplishing work on an activity during a given period. a. real b. estimated c. actual d. projected
C
It is helpful to create a ____, or initial, scope statement during project initiation so that the entire project team can start important discussions and work related to the project scope. a. tentative b. provisional c. preliminary d. categorical
C
PMI defines a project ____ as an uncertainty that can have a negative or positive effect on meeting project objectives. a. hazard b. danger c. risk d. challenge
C
Poor scope definition may cause all but: a. Higher project costs b. Rework c. Increased productivity d. Low morale
C
Project integration management includes ____ processes. a. two b. four c. seven d. nine
C
Quality management deals with the following except: a. Conformance to requirements and specifications b. Satisfying the needs of the customer c. Making the product more desirable and luxurious d. a and c
C
The cost of providing a work space for project workers, office furniture, electricity, and a cafeteria are ____ costs. a. direct b. explicit c. indirect d. incidental
C
The main human resource management task performed as part of monitoring and controlling a project is managing the project ____, which, of course, is no small task. a. sponsors b. clients c. team d. supplies
C
The main monitoring and controlling task performed as part of project time management is ____ control. a. document b. employee c. schedule d. scope
C
The main outputs of the quality control process are: a. Pareto diagram, acceptance decisions, and process adjustments b. Bar charts, network diagrams, and rework c. Acceptance decisions, rework, and process adjustments d. Acceptance decisions, performance indicators, and rework
C
The main planning tasks performed as part of project scope management include scope planning, scope definition, and ____. a. scope evaluation b. scope reduction c. creating the WBS d. scope expansion
C
The project is considered on schedule if: a. Schedule variance (SV) is negative b. Cost variance (CV) is positive c. Schedule performance index (SPI) is one or 100 percent d. Earned value (EV) is positive
C
The term:____ is used to describe each level of work in the WBS. a. activity b. module c. task d. node
C
Two tools to assist in contract closure are ____ audits and a records management system. a. dispatch b. supply c. procurement d. acquisition
C
Under which risk register heading would you list a defective product, poor survey results, reduced consulting costs, or good publicity? a. An identification number for each risk event b. A rank for each risk event c. The name of the risk event d. A description of the risk event
C
Which of the following is a category under portfolio best practices? a. Project initiation process standardization b. Project plan development process measurement c. Portfolio risk management planning process improvement. d. Project scope definition process improvement
C
Which of the following is a key output of project procurement management? a. quality metrics b. quality checklists c. contract statements of work d. project Web site
C
____ motivation causes people to do something for a reward or to avoid a penalty. a. Derived b. Intrinsic c. Extrinsic d. Primary
C
Expert judgment is a tool and technique of all of the following processes except...? a. Identify stakeholders b. Plan stakeholder management c. Manage stakeholder engagement d. Control stakeholder engagement
C - Expert judgment is not a tool and technique of Mange Stakeholder Engagement. PMBOK® Guide, 5th edition, p. 398
Your project is well underway, and the project management plan as well as subsidiary plans have been baselined and work is proceeding apace. A key project stakeholder has just approached you with a problem: a requirement was missed by the business in the requirements gathering process and they want it inserted into the project plan without having to go through the formal change request process. They would consider it a huge favor if you did so and would be willing to reciprocate at some later date. What should you do next? a. Talk to the stakeholder's manager about the stakeholder's request for a breach in the formal corporate change management process b. Since the stakeholder has key resources on the project, it may pay off in the long run to agree to the stakeholder's request c. Perform an impact assessment on the requested change and submit to the CCB for approval d. Agree to the request only if the stakeholder is willing to remove a less important feature of equal effort so as not to impact the costs or the timeline on the project
C - This is an ethics question dressed up as a stakeholder management question. What happens next is an impact assessment. Under the mandatory Responsibility section: "We inform ourselves and uphold the policies, rules, regulations and laws that govern our work..."
15. a. Is a bottom up estimating technique b. Is a top down estimating technique c. Is a statistical estimating technique d. b and c
D
A process for handling changes should be defined during project ____ as part of the project management plan. a. deployment b. initiation c. execution d. planning
D
A request for quote (RFQ) differs from a request for proposal (RFP) in that: a. RFQs generally ask for innovative processes b. RFPs generally ask for guaranteed maximum prices c. RFQs generally ask for a lump sum price d. RFPs generally ask for technical skills and implementation approach
D
A risk management plan should cover: a. Who is responsible for managing various areas of risk b. How contingency plans will be implemented c. How reserves will be allocated d. All of the above
D
A(n) ____ cause is the real or underlying reason a problem occurs. a. secondary c. envisioned b. indirect d. root
D
Activity ____ provide schedule-related information about each activity, such as predecessors, successors, logical relationships, leads and lags, resource requirements, constraints, imposed dates, and assumptions related to the activity. a. features b. characteristics c. properties d. attributes
D
Cost ____ involves allocating the overall cost estimate to individual tasks over time to establish a baseline for measuring performance. a. estimating b. account c. allowance d. budgeting
D
Cost of quality is: a. The expense of nonconformance to requirements and specifications b. The direct responsibility of the project team members c. The expense of conformance to requirements and specifications d. a and c
D
Duration estimates are provided as a ____ number, such as four weeks; as a range, such as three to five weeks; or as a three-point estimate. a. continuous b. random c. fractional d. discrete
D
Earned value can best be defined as: a. The value of the equipment that has been installed as of the data date b. The sum of the labor costs that have been incurred on the project to date c. A method of measuring the amount of money that has been spent to date d. The actual cost of work performed (ACWP) minus the budgeted cost of work performed (BCWP)
D
How many communication channels do 12 people require? a. 12 b. 24 c. 36 d. 66
D
If a project's stakeholders are not satisfied with the quality of the project management or the resulting products, the project team will need to adjust ____, time, and cost to satisfy stakeholder needs and expectations. a. range b. breadth c. vision d. scope
D
In a software project, the planned value (PV) was 80,000, the earned value (EV) was 75,000 and the actual cost (AC) was 71,000, what is the cost performance index? a. -0.947 b. 0.947 c. 0.937 d. 1.056
D
Many maturity models have five levels, with level one describing characteristics of the least organized or least mature organizations, and level ____ describing the characteristics of the most organized and most mature organizations. a. two b. three c. four d. five
D
Network diagrams are good for depicting: a. Slack time b. Schedule start and finish dates c. Plan versus actual schedule d. Task dependencies
D
Project ____ management involves coordinating all the project management knowledge areas throughout a project's life span. a. union c. unification b. synthesis d. integration
D
Project integration management includes the following processes: a. Scope planning b. Scope definition c. Scope verification d. Integrated change control
D
Project teams sometimes use ____—unplanned responses to risk events—when they do not have contingency plans in place. a. work charts b. work flows c. work processes d. workarounds
D
Projects that address competitive ____ are much more likely to be successful because they will be important to the organization's competitive position. a. value b. products c. tactics d. strategy
D
Scope statements should include, at a minimum, a description of the project, including its overall objectives and justification; detailed descriptions of all project ____; characteristics and requirements of products and services produced as part of the project; and project success criteria. a. stakeholders b. volunteers c. meetings d. deliverables
D
The main disadvantage of ____ is that it can end up lengthening the project schedule, because starting some tasks too soon often increases project risk and results in rework. a. reviewing b. crashing c. extending d. fast tracking
D
The main monitoring and controlling task performed as part of project cost management is ____ control. a. time b. schedule c. scope d. cost
D
The major processes of project risk management are: a. Plan response, identify, document, and assess b. Identify, mitigate, and plan response c. Respond, evaluate, and document d. Identify, quantify, develop response, and control
D
The overall duration of the project schedule is not influenced by: a. Using mandatory dependencies as constraints b. Using discretionary dependencies as constraints c. The capabilities of the resources which are assigned to perform the work d.Using the arrow diagramming method instead of the precedence diagramming method (PDM) of scheduling
D
The project manager should work with his or her team and ____ to determine the level of detail needed in the WBS dictionary. a. client b. customer c. auditor d. sponsor
D
The scope statement should not include: a. Project justification b. Project deliverables c. Project objectives d. Project budget
D
Tools included in overall change control are: a. Configuration management b. Performance measurement c. Project management information system d. All of the above
D
Under which risk register heading would you list identification of a defective hard drive as the source of a computer defect? a. The category under which the risk event falls b. The risk owner, or person who will own or take responsibility for the risk event c. Potential responses to each risk event d. The root cause of the risk event
D
Weights may be established by assigning percentages or ____. a. results b. values c. scores d. points
D
What method(s) is(are) available to the project manager for short listing contractor proposals? a. Comparing proposals against independent estimates b. Weighing systems c. Subjective screening systems d. All of the above
D
When using the ____ mode to resolve conflicts, the project manager de-emphasizes or avoids areas of differences and emphasizes areas of agreement. a. adversarial b. dialectic c. antagonistic d. smoothing
D
Which of the following actions will most likely improve team productivity? a. Ensure that social events are mandatory and include a business-related goal. b. Expand the size of work teams to over seven members. c. Reduce the amount of attention paid to virtual team members. d. Acknowledge individual and group accomplishments.
D
Which of the following are considered to be milestones? a. Project completion date b. Contract date c. Key event completion date d. All of the above
D
Which of the following is a common problem encountered during project execution? a. Communications are good. b. The project sponsor and/or other senior managers are very supportive of the project. c. The project objectives/scope are clear. d. People working on the project are incompetent or unmotivated.
D
Which of the following is not a selection criteria for choosing a new project? a. Risk b. Rate of return c. In-house personnel available d. Competition's out-sourcing method
D
Which of the following is not a true statement about control charts? a. Control charts can be used to establish as well as maintain process control b. Control charts are used to determine acceptance limits when no limits are stipulated by the product specification; otherwise, one should use the limits dictated by the specification c. All data points outside the control chart limits are variations explained by assignable causes d. b and c
D
Which of the following portfolio management tasks should occur first? a. prioritize projects on a list b. put all projects into one list c. divide projects into investment categories d. put all projects in one list
D
Which technique shows external dependencies best? a. Activity on arrow diagramming b. Activity on node diagramming c. PERT diagramming d. None of the above
D
____ change orders are oral or written acts or omissions by someone with actual or apparent authority that can be construed to have the same effect as a written change order. a. Virtual b. Non-binding c. Apparent d. Constructive
D
____ contracts reduce the risk of incurring higher costs than expected. a. Variable-price b. Bid c. Oral d. Fixed-price
D
Outputs of organizational planning are: a. Project organization chart b. Staffing management plan c. Project template d. All of the above
D. All of the above
Which of the following is not true about the Close Project or Phase process? a. Contract closeout must be performed after the Administrative Closeout. b. The risk is the lowest at this stage of the project. c. The probability of completion is the highest at this stage of the project. d. Stakeholders have least amount of influence at this stage.
a. Contract Closeout is performed before administrative Closeout
Which of the following is not true about the Delphi technique? a. Individuals participating must know each other for Delphi technique to be successful. b. Delphi technique is most commonly used to obtain expert opinion. c. In Delphi technique participants are generally anonymous.
a. Experts participating in the Delphi technique are anonymous.
The stakeholder analysis matrix is part of ...? a. Stakeholder Management Strategy b. Plan Communications c. Stakeholder Register d. Performance Reporting
a. It is part of the Stakeholder Management Strategy, which is an output of identify stakeholders. PMBOK® Guide, 5th edition, p. 396
You are the Project Manager for ABC project. You need to find out which issue has maximum impact on the project. Which tool should you use? a. Pareto diagram b. Control chart c. Trend analysis d. Fishbone diagram
a. Pareto chart is built on the 80:20 theory. 80% of the defects are caused due to 20% of the issues. A Project Manager needs to focus on these 20% issues.
The Procurement statements of work is an output of which of these processes? a. Plan Procurements b. Conduct Procurements c. Control Procurements d. Close Procurements
a. Procurement statements of work is an output of Plan Procurements process.
You are working on a project to build a bridge. You have reached the planned half way mark. The total planned cost at this stage is five hundred dollars. The actual physical work that has been completed at this stage is worth $400. You have already spent one thousand dollars on the project. What is the Schedule Variance? a. -100 b. 100 c. -600 d. 600
a. SV=EV-PV. 400 minus 500 is -100.
Most common cause of conflicts in a project is a. Schedules b. Technical opinions c. Personal Issues d. Project priorities
a. Schedules are most common cause of conflicts.
John is an excellent engineer. The management assumes that since he is a good technical performer, he will be a good project manager too. Based upon this, John was promoted to Project Manager. This is an example of a. Halo Effect b. Expectancy Theory c. McGregory Theory of X and Y d. Herzberg Theory
a. The behavior described is an illustration of Halo's effect.
The level of accuracy for order of magnitude estimation is a. -25% to +75% b. -25% to +50% c. -25% to +25% d. -25% to +10%
a. The order of magnitude is preferred during initiation phase, and it has an accuracy range of -25% to 75%
Which of these is not a benefit measurement project selection method? a. Integer Algorithm b. Internal Rate of Return c. Scoring model d. Discounted cash flow
a. The other three options are examples of benefit measurement method.
You are managing the project of planning a party for your company employees. There is a risk that the employees will not come to the party. You decide to not take any action against this as the likely-hood of this is low. Which risk response strategy are you following? a. Acceptance b. Avoidance c. Mitigation d. Transference
a. This is an example of Acceptance risk response strategy.
You are the Project Manager assigned to build a next generation vehicle. You identify a dependency that before the vehicle can be sold, it must be approved by the Government regulatory authority. This is an example of which type of dependency? a. External b. Discretionary c. Soft Logic d. Mandatory
a. This is an example of dependency to an external (outside) body.
You are working on the project of painting of your house. You identify a dependency that the painting of roof should begin only after two days of completion of painting of walls. This is an example of a. Lag b. Lead c. Slack d. Float
a. This is an example of lag. Lag is the amount of time after the completion of the predecessor activity, when the successor activity can start.
You have just been made the Project Manager of the ABC project. You are trying to read the WBS and are unable to understand some of the WBS components. Which should be your first step to understand this? a. Refer to the WBS dictionary b. Refer to the scope statement c. Refer to the Project charter d. Contact the previous Project Manager
a. WBS dictionary is the best option. WBS Dictionary identifies all the components used in the WBS
Which of the following is not true about the WBS report? a. WBS should focus in on the activities that must be performed in the project and should not focus on the deliverables. b. The project team must be involved in developing the WBS. c. As a rule of thumb, each activity of WBS should take less than 80 hours. d. WBS is usually represented in a hierarchical fashion.
a. WBS should focus on deliverables.
You are the Project Manager of a project involving building a computer. Your team members follow what you tell them because you have the authority to provide negative feedback in their performance appraisal. This is an example of which type of power? a. Coercive b. Referent c. Formal d. Reward
a. When the team is afraid of the Project Manager, the power yielded is of type Coercive.
________ is typically not referred to as a buffer type in critical chain project management. a) Resource buffer b) Free buffer c) Feeding buffer d) Project buffer
b) Free buffer
In which process of Project Risk Management knowledge area are numeric values assigned to probabilities and impact of risks a. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis b. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis c. Perform Numeric Risk Analysis d. Plan Risk Response
b. A numeric value is assigned to risks impact and probability during the Quantitative Risk Analysis process.
You are the project manager of ABC project. One of the risks that has been identifies is attrition of team members. Mid-way through the project you notice that the morale and motivation of the team members is going down. You think that this is a precursor to people leaving the organization. For this risk, low motivation is an example of a. work-around b. trigger c. risk monitoring d. risk planning
b. A risk trigger is an indication that the risk is about to occur or has occurred.
Cost baseline is usually represented using which curve or line? a. a Slanted line b. an S-curve c. a Z curve d. a PQ curve
b. An S-curve is typically used to represent a cost baseline. The cost is low in the beginning and end, and high during the middle of the project.
Which of the following is not a tool for Perform Quality Control process. a. Inspection b. Benchmarking c. Flow charting d. Histogram
b. Benchmarking is not a tool for Quality Control process
The process of Conduct Procurements is part of which phase? a. Planning b. Execution c. Control d. Closure
b. Conduct Procurements is part of execution phase.
Which of these is a process in the Project Procurement Management knowledge area? a. Select Sellers b. Control Procurements c. Control Contracts d. Plan Purchases and Acquisitions
b. Control Procurements is a process in the Project Procurement Management Knowledge area.
You are the Project Manager of the XYZ project. You want to find the planned expenses for next month. Which document do you need to refer to? a. Cost Management Plan b. Cost Baseline c. Cost Control Plan d. Cost Variance report
b. Cost baseline includes the project budget for each month.
You are performing Earned Value Reporting for your project. The project's CPI is 0.9 and the budget at completion is One thousand dollars. What is the estimated cost at completion? a. Nine hundred dollars b. One thousand one hundred and eleven dollars c. One thousand dollars d. One thousand and one hundred dollars
b. EAC = (BAC/CPI).
You are using straight line depreciation to compute the value of your computer after three years. If the current cost is $1000, what will be the value after three years assuming that the computer's life is five years. a. $0 b. $400 c. $500 d. $600
b. Each year $200 gets removed from the value of computer. After three years the value becomes $400.
Which of these is correct with respect to a product developed or a service performed. a. Bad quality is acceptable, but bad grade is not. b. Bad grade is acceptable, but bad quality is not. c. Neither bad grade nor quality is acceptable. d. Grade and quality is the same thing.
b. Grade refers to category or rank given to entities having same functional use but different technical characteristics. As an example a basic $10K car belongs to a different grade when compared to a $50K luxury car. Your expectations from the two cars and their performances will differ because they belong to different grades.
You are the Project Manager of ABC project. The project is being executed in an earthquake-prone area. To take care of this you buy insurance for earthquakes. This is an example of a. Risk mitigation b. Transfer of risk c. Risk contingency planning d. Accepting the consequences passively.
b. Insurance is an example of transferring risk.
You are required to estimate the time to paint a large wall. You know it takes two hours to paint one square foot of wall. The wall has an area of 30 square foot. So you estimate that it will take 60 hours to paint the wall. Which estimation model are you using? a. Bottom-up b. Parametric modeling c. Analogous d. Expert judgment
b. Parametric modeling is the best option.
Perform Quality Assurance process is part of which phase? a. Planning b. Execution c. Control d. Closure
b. Perform Quality Assurance is part of Execution phase.
According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which is the lowest level which must be met before other levels can be met. a. Esteem b. Physiological c. Social d. Safety
b. Physiological factors appear at the lowest level of Maslow's hierarchy triangle.
The most long-lasting conflict resolution is caused by which of these techniques? a. Smoothing b. Confrontation c. Compromising d. Forcing
b. Problem-solving or Confrontation is the best solution for resolving conflicts and leads to long-lasting conflict resolution.
Which process identifies the project manager? a. Develop Project Management Plan b. Develop Project Charter c. Define Scope d. Select Project Process
b. Project Manager is identified as part of the Develop Project Charter process.
Typically signing of project charter is the responsibility of a. Project Sponsor b. Senior Management c. Project Manager d. Project stake-holders
b. Senior Management is responsible for issuing the charter.
You are using control charts to perform quality control. Which of these situations does not indicate that the process is out of control and an assignable cause needs to be assigned. Assume that the control limits have been set to three sigma. a. One of the point is more than the mean + (3*sigma) b. Two points together are more than mean +(2*sigma), but less than mean + (3*sigma) c. Seven points together are on one side of the mean.
b. The other two are conditions that indicate the process is out of control.
AOA activity diagrams are only represented using which representation? a. start-to-start b. start-to-finish c. finish-to-start d. finish-to-finish
c. AOA activity diagrams are represented using finish-to-start representation.
You are the Project Manager of ABC project. There was a conflict between two key project members. The three of you meet and decide to use compromise as the conflict resolution technique. Compromise generally leads to a. Win-win situation b. Win-Loose situation c. Loose-Loose situation d. None of these
c. According to PMI, Compromise is an example of a loose-loose situation.
A Project Manager is using AOA to perform critical path analysis. The network diagram is represented as shown using below. Which of the following represents the critical path: Activity Duration Dependent on A ..........3 .............none C ..........3 .............none B ..........2 .............A D ..........5 .............C E ..........2 .............none F ..........4 .............E G ..........3 .............D,F H ..........1 .............D,F I ...........2 .............B,G R ..........0 .............H,I a. ABIR b. CDHR c. CDGIR d. EFGIR
c. CDGIR represents the critical path. It is the longest path through the network with the duration of 13.
Which of these is an example of processes in the closing process group? a. Project Closure b. Scope Closure c. Close Project or phase d. Scope Validation
c. Close Procurements and Close Project or phase are the two closure processes.
Which of these is a process in the Scope Management knowledge area a. Identify Scope b. Clarify Scope c. Control Scope d. Close Scope
c. Control Scope process is part of scope management knowledge area.
You are the project manager responsible for building a new web site. The project is running late. To bring the project on schedule, you decide to add additional resources to the critical path. This is an example of a. Fast-tracking b. Resource planning c. Crashing d. Schedule Management
c. Crashing involves adding extra resources to reduce the project duration.
John needs to visit many countries as part of his job. He has learned that he needs to avoid being ethno-centric. What does ethnocentrism mean? a. Not being friendly to strangers b. Unable to get adjusted to the food of a new place c. Belief that ones culture is superior to others. d. Initial shock of landing in a new country.
c. Ethnocentrism refers to belief that ones culture is superior to other cultures.
Which of these is a tool for Develop Project Charter process? a. Project selection methods b. Project management methodology c. Expert Judgment d. Earned Value Technique
c. Expert judgment is a tool for the Develop Project Charter process.
Oligopoly refers to which of these a. There is only one qualified seller in the market. b. There are no sellers in the market, so you have to build the product in-house. c. There are few sellers and action of one seller will have impact on other sellers prizes. d. Your company prefers to contract with only one seller.
c. In oligopoly, the action of one seller has an impact on other sellers, as there are very few sellers.
You are part of an expert committee deciding which project should be implemented by your company. Your committee asks tough questions from the project teams and helps decide which project your company should select. Which project selection technique are you using. a. Scoring Model b. Committee Selection c. Murder Board d. Defined Benefit
c. Murder board is a process where a committee asks questions from project representatives as part of the project selection process.
Which of the following is an output of the Identify Risks process. a. Lessons Learned b. Checklists c. Risk Register d. SWOT Analysis
c. Risk Register is the only output of the Risk identification process.
You are planning to use screening system for source selection process to select a vendor for supplying food for your company? Which of these is a good example of screening system? a. You interview all the vendors and decide based upon the interviews. b. You negotiate with all the vendors and select the one that provides the best price. c. You only consider those vendors who have revenue of ten million dollars in the last financial year. d. You select the vendor who responds first to your advertisement.
c. Screening system are predefined criteria that are used to short-list vendors for source selection
You are the Project Manager of a car manufacturing company. As part of Quality Control you decide to check only 5% of the cars generated for environmental check. Which technique are you using? a. Pareto Diagram b. Control Charts c. Statistical Sampling d. Sample Selection
c. Statistical Sampling is the standard technique that is used to test only a small sample of products instead of all the products manufactured.
Which of the following is not true about analogous estimating. a. Estimate is based on past projects. b. It is not very accurate. c. It uses bottom-up approach d. It is a form of an expert judgment
c. The others are true statements about analogous estimating.
For the sequence diagram in question 15, what is the float of activity H a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6
c. The path CDHR has duration of nine days. Hence H can be delayed by four days before the next event can begin.
You are the project manager of ABC project. Mid-way through the project a key component was found defective. This was not planned for. The team met after the event and managed to make the product work without the defective component. This is an example of - a. Risk mitigation b. Transfer of risk c. Work-around d. Accepting the consequences passively.
c. This was an unplanned event that happened. Work around refers to handling of risk that has occurred but was not planned for.
Which of the following best describes the purpose of a war room? a. A war room is used for meetings between the Project Manager and the customer. b. A war room is used for important meetings between the Project team and the senior management. c. A war room is used for collocation d. Whenever there is a resource conflict between different Project Managers, they meet in a war room.
c. War room is used for collocation to facilitate communication within the team.
Which relationship model is most commonly used in the Precedence diagrams? a. start-to-start b. start-to-finish c. finish-to-start d. finish-to-finish
c. finish-to-start is the most commonly used relationship.
For the sequence diagram, what is the float of activity B Activity Duration Dependent on A ..........3 .............none C ..........3 .............none B ..........2 .............A D ..........5 .............C E ..........2 .............none F ..........4 .............E G ..........3 .............D,F H ..........1 .............D,F I ...........2 .............B,G R ..........0 .............H,I a. 2 b. 3 c. 5 d. 6
d. The path ABIR has duration of seven. Hence B can be delayed by six days before the next event can begin.
A company has to make a choice between two projects, because the available resources in money and kind are not sufficient to run both at the same time. Each project would take 9 months and would cost $250,000. 1. The first project is a process optimization which would result in a cost reduction of $120,000 per year. This benefit would be achieved immediately after the end of the project. 2. The second project would be the development of a new product which could produce the following net profits after the end of the project: 1.year: $ 15,000 2. year: $ 125,000 3. year: $ 220,000 Assumed is a discount rate of 5% per year. Looking at the present values of the benefits of these projects in the first 3 years, what is true? a) Both projects are equally attractive. b) The first project is more attractive by app. 7%. c) The second project is more attractive by app. 5%. d) The first project is more attractive by app. 3%.
d) The first project is more attractive by app. 3%.
Which of the following indicate that the project is doing well? Select the best option. a. A negative Cost Variance b. An SPI of less than one c. A negative schedule variance d. A CPI of greater than one.
d. A CPI of greater than one indicates you are taking less money than planed to do the project.
What percentage of Project Manager's time is spent on communicating? a. 30 b. 50 c. 70 d. 90
d. According to PMBOK 90% of Project Managers time is spent in communicating.
You are the Project Manager for XYZ project. The scope of the project has been completed. You receive a request for a new module to be developed as part of this project. What should you do next? a. You should approach the Project sponsor and ask her for a new module to be developed as part of this project. b. You should approach the Senior Management and ask them for a new module to be developed as part of this project. c. You should send the request to Change Control Board for approval. d. Since the project scope is completed you should inform the customer that this change cannot be done as part of the project.
d. As the scope is completed, the project is complete. Additional work should be done as part of a new project.
You are working on a project to build a bridge. You have reached the planned half way mark. The total planned cost at this stage is five hundred dollars. The actual physical work that has been completed at this stage is worth $400. You have already spent one thousand dollars on the project. What is the CPI? a. 0.8 b. 1.2 c. 0.5 d. 0.4
d. CPI = EV/AV. EV=400, AC = 1000, PV=500.
Which of these is not an example of a project? a. Buying clothes from the market on a special sale. b. Planning for your friends wedding. c. Building a bridge across the Amazon river. d. Cleaning the office building every day.
d. Cleaning the building is a repetitive task that is done everyday. Hence it is not an example of a project.
Which of the following theory was suggested by Deming? a. Apply continuous small improvements to reduce costs and ensure consistency. b. Marginal Analysis c. Expectancy theory - people expect to be rewarded for their efforts. d. Plan-do-check-act to improve quality.
d. Continuous small improvements is part of Kaizen theory. Hence a is incorrect. The Plan-do-Check-Act doctrine was proposed by Deming.
Which of these is a constrained optimization project selection method? a. Parallel algorithm b. Number programming c. Murder board d. Dynamic Programming
d. Dynamic Programming is an example of Constrained Optimization method. Murder board is an example of benefit measurement method.
When analyzing quality for a project a Project Manager decides to use a tool. This tool provides a creative way to look at the causes or potential causes of a problem. Which tool is the Project Manager planning to use? a. Pareto diagram b. Control chart c. Statistical sampling d. Ishikawa diagram
d. Ishikawa or Fish bone diagram is the tool that the Project Manager is planning to use.
According to Herzberg which of these is not an example of hygiene factors? a. job security b. salary c. safe working conditions d. appreciation of work
d. Job security, salary, clean and safe working conditions are examples of hygiene factors. Appreciation at work is not a hygiene factor, but instead a motivating factor.
You have been asked to make an estimate for a project. The project involves manufacturing 1000 toys. You expect that as the team manufactures some toys, the time to make them will reduce. Which estimation technique are you trying to use? a. Analogous Estimation b. Regression Analysis c. Bottom up Estimating d. Learning Curve
d. Learning curve estimation uses the principal that the cost per unit will decrease as more units of work are manufactured.
You are the Project Manager assigned to build a next generation vehicle. You identify a dependency that the wheels must be designed and developed before the assembly of the vehicle can be performed. This is an example of which type of dependency? a. External b. Discretionary c. Soft Logic d. Mandatory
d. Mandatory dependency represents dependencies due to nature of work.
You are planning to use PERT for planning of your project. A task has pessimistic estimate of 24 days, most likely estimate of 15 days and optimistic estimate of 12 days. What is the mean using the PERT technique? a. 18 days b. 25.5 days c. 15 days d. 16 days e. 17 days
d. Mean for PERT is defined as (P+4M+O)/6 which comes out to be 16 days.
Who among the following is responsible for performing the scope validation a. Project Manager b. Senior Management c. The quality team d. The customer
d. Scope Validation is the process of the customer accepting the project deliverables.
The authority to approve or deny change request lies with a. Project Manager b. Customer c. Project Sponsor d. Configuration Control Board
d. The Configuration (or Change) Control Board has the authority to approve or deny change requests.
Which of the following is true statement about risks? a. If a risk is identified in a risk response plan, then that means that risk has already happened. b. Once a risk has happened, you refer to the risk management plan to determine what action needs to be taken. c. A risk that was not planned but has happened is called a trigger. d. Risk identification happens in all the phases of the project.
d. This is the only correct statement.
Which of the following processes produces WBS as an output? a. Plan Scope b. Initiate Project c. Define Activities d. Create WBS
d. WBS is an output of the Create WBS.
Which of the following is not an input to the Conduct Procurements process? a. Source selection criteria b. Make-or-buy decisions c. Organizational process assets d. WBS
d. WBS is not an input to the Conduct Procurements process.
You are in the process of Source Selection for a contract for your project. You are planning to use weighing process for source selection. There are four vendors being considered. There are two deciding factors price (weightage 40), quality (weightage 60). The scores of four vendors that your team has computed are displayed in the table below. Which vendor will among these four should be chosen? Vendor scores Vend1..Vend2...Vend3..Vend4 Price.....8.........10.........12........11 Quality.12 .......10..........8..........11 a. Vendor 1 b. Vendor 2 c. Vendor 3 d. Vendor 4
d. We need to compute the following for all the vendors - (0.4*Price + 0.6*Quality). The scores come out to be vendor 1 - 10.4, vendor 2 - 10, vendor 3 - 9.6, and vendor 4's 11. Since vendor 4 has the highest score, it should get selected.
