Practice MCAT

Fehling's test can be used to screen for reducing sugars in the urine. During the oxidation of glucose, a carboxyl group is formed. Which of the following correctly identifies the carbon that becomes this carboxyl group? --> C1 of beta-D-glucose --> C1 of linear D-glucose --> C3 of beta-D-glucose --. C3 of linear D-glucose

--> C1 of linear D-glucose The anomeric carbon cannot be oxidized in ring form and C1 is the carbonyl precursor.

Which of these is most similar to ibuprofen? --> Glucose --> ATP --> Glycerol --> Palmitoleic acid

--> Palmitoleic acid

Channel X transmits only the smallest substances dissolved in the extracellular fluid through the axon membrane. Which substance does Channel X transmit? --> Proteins --> Sodium ions --> Potassium ions --> Chloride ions

--> Sodium ions sodium cations are the smallest of the species listed.

A cell which cannot repair the damage done to its DNA may become cancerous. Which of the following enzymes is NOT involved in DNA replication or repair? --> Primase --> Spliceosome --> Endonuclease --> Topoisomerase

--> Spliceosome Spliceosomes are responsible for intron splicing during post-transcriptional mRNA processing

Myopia is a condition of the eye where the crystalline lens focuses the light rays to a position between the lens and the retina. To correct for this condition, a thin lens is placed in front of the eye that will help to focus light on the retina. The type of lens required is: --> cylindrical. --> converging. --> diverging --> spherical

--> diverging

From the figure, competitive inhibition: --> increases Km --> decreases Km --> increases Vmax --> decreases Vmax

--> increases Km Since the slope is equal to Km/Vmax, a larger Km means a steeper slope. Since the y intercept is equal to 1/Vmax and both lines have the same y-intercept, that means that Vmax didn't change

Which of the following observations is characteristic of a child in Piaget's preoperational stage of cognitive development? --> the child has the ability to think logically about abstract ideas --> the child has the ability to consider the perspective of others --> the child lacks an understanding of object permanence --> the child understand object permanence, but not conservation

--> the child understand object permanence, but not conservation

Autophagosomes most likely lead to the degradation of mitochondria by moving the contents of the mitochondria: --> to a Golgi body --> to extracellular spaced --> to a lysosome --> to the endoplasmic reticulum

--> to a lysosome Lysosomes are the only choice listed that would lead to the mitochondria's destruction

Which primer is most suitable for PCR? --> 5-ATTACGTTAACATGAAG-3 --> 5-ATATCGTTAACAAATTG-3 --> 5-GCTATAAAGATTGCAAA-3 --> 5-GCATAGAAGCATTCCGC-3

--> 5-GCATAGAAGCATTCCGC-3 The answer to this question is D because suitable primers have a high GC content and have G or C base pairs at the 5 and 3 ends.

Which of the following phases of the cell cycle does methotrexate achieve its maximal cytotoxic effect? --> G1 --> S --> G2 --> M

--> S The passage states that methotrexate inhibits the enzyme DHFR, which causes a disruption in purine synthesis and ultimately DNA synthesis. Therefore, only the phases where DNA synthesis takes place will be affected, which is the S phase.

The genes for red-green color blindness will affect production of proteins in which of the following types of cells? --> Neurons in the visual center of the brain --> Neurons making up the optic nerve --> Pigment cells of the iris --> Visual receptor cells in the retina

--> Visual receptor cells in the retina The answer to this question is D because photoreceptors, which are visual receptor cells in the retina, absorb light.

The area of the brain primarily responsible for language comprehension is: --> Broca's area --> the organ of Corti --> Wenicke's area --> the occipital lobe

--> Wenicke's area

Which of the following diets would be most likely to result in a high creatinine clearance? --> a diet high in carbohydrates --> --> a diet high in saturated fats --> a diet low in saturated fats --> a diet high in protein

--> a diet high in protein The passage states that creatinine is a nitrogen-containing waste product normally excreted by all humans. Proteins are rich in nitrogen

The Ka2 value for carbonic acid is smaller than the Ka1 value because once the first hydrogen ion is removed from carbonic acid, the: --> negative charge on the bicarbonate ion causes the second hydrogen to be more tightly held --> concentration of bicarbonate ion decreases, so there are fewer ions from which to dissociate a hydrogen ion --> electronic geometry of the bicarbonate ion changes, causing the negative charge to be more tightly held --> bicarbonate ion forms hydrogen bonds between oxygen lone pairs and the hydrogen atoms of neighboring bicarbonate ions

--> negative charge on the bicarbonate ion causes the second hydrogen to be more tightly held

Which of these substrates reacts with acetyl coenzyme A to produce citrate in mitochondria? --> succinate --> oxaloacetate --> isocitrate --> alpha-ketoglutarate

--> oxaloacetate Since citrate has 6 carbons, and acetyl CoA have 2 carbons, we need a molecule that reacts with acetyl CoA that has 4 carbons. Succinate has 4 carbons, but does not react with acetyl CoA directly

A student is interested in studying trends in healthcare disparities over the past 30 years based on socioeconomic status. Which of the following types of study would be the most appropriate for the student to perform? --> cross-sectional study --> case-controlled study --> retrospective cohort study --> prospective cohort study

--> retrospective cohort study In a retrospective cohort study, the researcher takes data that has already been collected

The speed of sound is inversely proportional to the square root of the density of the gaseous medium through which it travels. Which of the following statements is true regarding an ideal membrane played in a low pressure environment? --> the sound intensity at a given point will decrease because the sound waves will disperse more rapidly --> the vibration of the membrane will occur with greater amplitude at the higher modes --> the pitch will be lower because the wavelength decreases as velocity increases --> the pitch will remain unchanged because the frequency of vibration is not changed

--> the pitch will remain unchanged because the frequency of vibration is not changed The frequency of vibration of the membrane determines the frequency of pressure waves in the air, and thus the pitch of the sound detected. Changing the density of the air will not change the frequency of vibration of an ideal membrane

PET scans take advantage of the decay of radiolabeled biologically active molecules. One commonly used molecule is 18F, which decays 97% of the time via positron emission and the other 3% of the time via electron capture. The products of 18F decay are: --> 18O for both pathways --> 18O for positron emission and 18Ne for electron capture --> 18Ne for positron emission an 18O for electron capture --> 18Ne for both pathways

--> 18O for both pathways

When choosing a buffer to use for an experiment conducted at pH 5.3, it would be best to choose one with a pKa of: --> 2.14 --> 4.75 --> 6.5 --> 7.0

--> 4.75 The answer is B because good experimental design protocols state that a good buffer has a pKa within 1 pH unit of the desired experimental conditions.

When a striated muscle cell metabolizes glucose in the complete absence of O2, which of the following substances is NOT produced in a significant amount? --> Pyruvic acid --> Glucose-6-phosphate --> Lactic acid --> Acetyl-CoA

--> Acetyl-CoA The answer to this question is D because in the absence of oxygen, pyruvate is converted to lactate in the cytoplasm and is not transported to the mitochondria to be converted to acetyl-CoA.

Yeast cells can grow under either aerobic or anaerobic conditions. If the same concentration of glucose were used to grow two different yeast colonies, would the growth rate be faster under aerobic or anaerobic conditions? --> Anaerobic, because the final product (alcohol) would contain more energy than the final product of respiration (H2O) --> Anaerobic, because the cells would not have to produce the enzymes needed for the citric acid cycle --> Aerobic, because a much greater amount of ATP would be produced to provide energy for reproduction --> Aerobic, because the CO2 produced in fermentation would be toxic to the culture

--> Aerobic, because a much greater amount of ATP would be produced to provide energy for reproduction The answer to this question is C because under aerobic conditions, cellular respiration will be used to produce energy, which nets 38 ATP per molecule of glucose. Under anaerobic conditions, fermentation will be used to produce energy, which nets only 2 ATP per molecule of glucose. Because energy stored in ATP is required for nearly all cellular processes including growth, a yeast colony containing cells that produce more ATP would be expected to have a higher growth rate.

Which statement best illustrates the concept of anomie? --> A group promotes polarized thinking among its members. --> An individual feels disconnected from the larger community. --> A group overemphasizes consensus among its members. --> An individual feels too influenced by the larger community.

--> An individual feels disconnected from the larger community. Anomie refers to a lack of social norms, which leads to a breakdown in the connection between an individual and their community. Thus, option B is correct. The other options address group decision making or indicate social control.

An economist argues that India is undergoing a demographic transition as it industrializes, citing recent date on birth and death rates to support his position. Which of the following trends would the economist most likely report? --> Birth rates have increased, as death rates have decreased --> Birth rates have remained stable, as death rates have increased --> Both birth rates and death rates have increased --> Both birth rates and death rates have decreased

--> Both birth rates and death rates have decreased Demographic transition means that the birth and death rates are decreasing

During glycolysis, pyruvate CH3C(=O)CO2- is reduced to lactate CH3CH(OH)CO2- by nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NADH). What is the balanced reaction for this conversion? --> CH3C(=O)CO2- + 2NADH → CH3CH(OH)CO2- + 2NAD+ --> CH3C(=O)CO2- + 2NADH + 2H+ → CH3CH(OH)CO2- + 2NAD+ --> CH3C(=O)CO2- + NADH + 2H+ → CH3CH(OH)CO2- + NAD+ --> CH3C(=O)CO2- + NADH + H+ → CH3CH(OH)CO2- + NAD+

--> CH3C(=O)CO2- + NADH + H+ → CH3CH(OH)CO2- + NAD+

Researchers used reverse-phase high performance liquid chromatography (HPLC) (polar mobile phase and non-polar stationary phase) to separate Compound 2 (more polar) from Compound 1 (less polar). Which statement accurately describes this process? --> Increasing the polarity of the mobile phase will decrease the retention time of Compound 1 relative to Compound 2. --> Compound 1 will elute first because it is more polar than Compound 2. --> Decreasing the affinity of Compound 1 for the stationary phase will increase its retention time relative to Compound 2. --> Compound 2 will elute first because it does not interact as favorably with the stationary phase as Compound 1.

--> Compound 2 will elute first because it does not interact as favorably with the stationary phase as Compound 1. The answer is D because Compound 2 is more polar than Compound 1 due to the methyl hydroxylation. In RP-HPLC, the more polar compound will elute first.

Which amino acid is neutral, but zwitterionic at pH 7, despite possessing two nitrogen atoms in its formula? --> Gln --> Lys --> Tyr --> Arg

--> Gln The answer to this question is A because of the amino acids that contain two nitrogen atoms, only asparagine, glutamine, and tryptophan carry an equal amount of positive and negative charge at neutral pH. Of the options listed, only glutamine appears.

Which of the following statements explains why the boiling point of HF is abnormally high when compared to the boiling points of other Group 7A hydrides? --> The H-F bond is much less polar than the bonds between H and the other halogens. --> HF has the lowest molecular mass of the Group 7A hydrides. --> HF is affected by hydrogen-bonding interactions to a much greater degree than the other Group 7A hydrides. --> HF has the highest vapor pressure among the Group 7A hydrides.

--> HF is affected by hydrogen-bonding interactions to a much greater degree than the other Group 7A hydrides. The answer to this question is C. Hydrogen bonding is a special type of intermolecular force that happens when H is bonded to highly electronegative elements such as N, O, and F. Since hydrogen bonding is a higher than anticipated dipole-dipole interaction, it causes substances that exhibit it to have higher than expected boiling points and lower vapor pressures.

A schizophrenic individual's delusions are characterized by through insertion. Which of the following is true of this individual? --> He believes that his thoughts are being inserted into the heads of others against his will --> He believes that he can willingly insert his thoughts into the heads of others --> He believes that he can willingly insert the thoughts of others into his own head --> He believes that his thoughts have been inserted into his head by others against his will

--> He believes that his thoughts have been inserted into his head by others against his will

Organic acids, denoted by HA, are only minimally deprotonated when added to pure water. When dissolved in blood, however, HA fully dissociate. What factor can be used to explain this discrepancy? --> In blood, the concentration of H+(aq) is maintained at low levels by other equilibria. --> In blood, the reaction is coupled to ATP hydrolysis to make it more favorable. --> In blood, the ionic strength of the solvent medium is much higher than pure water. --> In blood, enzymes are used to catalyze the dissociation reaction.

--> In blood, the concentration of H+(aq) is maintained at low levels by other equilibria.

Introduction of which amino acid substitution would result in the largest decrease in the entropic penalty associated with a protein folding into its native conformation? --> Ile to Asp substitution at a buried site --> Leu to Thr substitution at a surface-exposed site --> Gly to Pro substitution in a flexible loop --> Arg to Tyr substitution at a surface-exposed site

--> Leu to Thr substitution at a surface-exposed site The answer to this question is B because changing a surface-exposed hydrophobic residue for a more hydrophilic residue eliminates the entropic penalty associated with ordered water molecules around hydrophobic groups.

What information about an axon is required to calculate the current associated with an NCV pulse? --> Conductivity, resistivity, and length --> Potential, conductivity, and radius --> Potential, resistivity, and radius --> Potential, resistance per unit length, and length

--> Potential, resistance per unit length, and length V = IR, so need potential. The only way to find R from the options is to use the resistance per unit and length

From the perspective of conflict theory, which pair of factors would be assumed to have the greatest impact on patients' relationships with their doctors? --> Norms and rituals --> Power and status --> Aggression and attachment --> Conformity and assimilation

--> Power and status The conflict theory perspective emphasizes social relations of capital, power, and status as the driving forces in society. Thus, option B is correct. Norms and rituals (A), while relevant to doctor-patient interactions, would be closer to symbolic interactionism than to the structural focus of conflict theory. Aggression and attachment (C) are social psychological (social behavior) concepts that are not associated with conflict theory. Finally, conformity and assimilation (D) are also not directly related to conflict theory.

Helping to instill norms and values related to violence and violent behavior, media exposure is an aspect of which process? --> Assimilation --> Discrimination --> Socialization --> Stratification

--> Socialization Popular media is an agent of socialization for norms and values. Thus, C is the correct answer. The other options are not relevant to the question and the passage. Assimilation is the process through which immigrants or minority groups take up aspects of mainstream culture. Discrimination is behavior based upon prejudice, which is also not a precise fit for this stem or passage. Finally, stratification is an objective position within social hierarchy.

One method of isolating polypeptides and proteins from aqueous extracts is freeze drying. The aqueous solution of the polypeptide or protein is frozen. What procedure can be used to remove the water from the frozen sample? --> Sublimation under reduced pressure --> Distillation using steam --> Extraction with organic solvent --> Addition of magnesium sulfate

--> Sublimation under reduced pressure The answer to this question is A because only sublimation of the water under reduced pressure will keep the mixture cold and will maintain the protein in its native state.

Which data suggest that the differences in Compound 1 metabolism between the variant and wild-type CYP2C9 enzymes are NOT due to changes in the binding affinity toward Compound 1? --> Compound 1 is still eliminated from the body of patients expressing the CYP2C9*3 allele. --> The KM values for the variant enzymes do not differ significantly from the wild-type enzyme. --> The amino acid substitutions at positions 144 and 359 do not change the binding pocket of the variant enzymes. --> The side chains of the amino acid residues at positions 144 and 359 are charged at physiological pH.

--> The KM values for the variant enzymes do not differ significantly from the wild-type enzyme. The answer is B because KM values can be used to represent a measure of the binding affinity of an enzyme for a particular substrate. The expression for KM is the same as a dissociation constant under conditions where product formation is the rate-limiting step. Because the KM values of the variant enzymes do not change significantly (standard errors are included here), it can be concluded that CYP2C9 genotype does not decrease Compound 1 metabolism due to a change in binding affinity.

An ultrasound examination could show the motion of a fetus. In order to image this motion, the ultrasound examination devices require what minimal information? --> The speeds of the sound and of the moving object. --> The speed of the sound, and the frequencies of the sound waves emitted and observed. --> The speeds of the sound and of the moving object, and the frequencies of the sound waves emitted and observed. --> The speeds of the sound and of the moving object, and the frequencies and wavelengths of the sound waves emitted and observed.

--> The speed of the sound, and the frequencies of the sound waves emitted and observed. The answer to this question is B because the Doppler effect is used with ultrasound waves to provide fetal images. The Doppler effect relates the frequency of the ultrasound wave as detected by a moving detector to the frequency of the wave when the source is stationary, the speed of the source, and the speed of the detector. Three of the four quantities involved in the effect are required.

Four students, all of whom oppose a university policy to ban alcohol on campus, are placed in a room and asked to discuss their views on this policy for an hour. Which outcome is most likely? --> The students' views will be unchanged. --> The students will oppose the campus policy more strongly. --> The students will no longer oppose the campus policy. --> The students' views will become more moderate.

--> The students will oppose the campus policy more strongly. The correct answer is B. Group polarization suggests that when people who are in agreement with each other discuss an issue, their views get more extreme.

Would the Cl- concentration of the red blood cells (RBCs) be expected to be greater in the systemic veins or the systemic arteries? --> Veins, because the HCO3- concentration is higher in veins than in arteries. --> Veins, because there are fewer RBCs in veins than in arteries. --> Arteries, because the HCO3- concentration is higher in arteries than in veins. --> Arteries, because there are fewer RBCs in veins than in arteries.

--> Veins, because the HCO3- concentration is higher in veins than in arteries. The answer to this question is A because systemic veins and systemic arteries carry high and low carbon dioxide levels, respectively. The passage states that Cl- ions enter the RBCs to equalize the HCO3- ions that leave the RBCs, and Equation 1 shows that HCO3- ions are produced by a reaction involving carbon dioxide

The density of a human body can be calculated from its weight in air, Wair, and its weight while submersed in water, Ww. The density of a human body is proportional to: --> Wair/(Wair - Ww). --> (Wair - Ww)/Wair. --> (Wair - Ww)/Ww. --> Ww/(Wair - Ww).

--> Wair/(Wair - Ww). The answer to this question is A because, according to Archimedes' Principle, the ratio of the density of an object to the density of the fluid it is submersed in is equal to the ratio of the weight of the object in air to the difference of submersed weight and weight in air.

A fatty acid is comprised of a long hydrocarbon tail and a head consisting of: --> a hydroxyl group. --> a carboxyl group. --> a phosphate group. --> an amino group.

--> a carboxyl group The answer to this question is B because fatty acids contain a carboxylic acid head group and a hydrocarbon tail.

Amidase is an enzyme that plays a role in the urea cycle, and is responsible for the hydrolysis of amides. What are the most likely products of hydrolysis by amidase? --> a carboxylate ion and ammonium --> urea and water --> an aldehyde and an alcohol --> an alcohol and ammonia

--> a carboxylate ion and ammonium When an amide is hydrolyzed, it adds water across the C-N bond. The carbonyl side gets an -OH group, forming a carboxylic acid, while the N gets an H, forming an amine. Since this is not one of the options, need to deprotonate one and protonate the other to make an equivalent. So the carboxylic acid will become a carboxylate ion and the amine will protonate to an ammonium ion

Which of the following best illustrates social constructionism? --> two identical twins are members of two drastically different social groups, but share similar world views --> high school kids work together to build homes for the homeless --> a teenage girl purchases a pair of jeans advertised on television --> a father plays baseball with his son while his daughter plays with dolls

--> a father plays baseball with his son while his daughter plays with dolls

Species X has a population of 50,000 in 1950. Its population declines to just 30 individuals in 1980, but then increases to about 8,000 in 2010. This is most consistent with: --> Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium --> the founder effect --> allopatric speciation --> a genetic bottleneck

--> a genetic bottleneck

Stereotype threat is an example of: --> a fundamental attribution error --> ethnocentrism --> prejudice --> a self-fulfilling prophecy

--> a self-fulfilling prophecy a self-fulfilling prophecy is a social phenomenon that occurs when a prediction about an individual indirectly influences that individuals to make the prediction come true

Which of the following central nervous system structures is most heavily implicated in the formation of aversive associations to threatening elements of speech? --> amygdala --> superior colliculus --> postcentral gyrus --> frontal lobes

--> amygdala

Which of the following is assumed when GHB values are used to estimate average glucose levels? --> an equilibrium is established between GHB values and plasma glucose concentrations --> erythrocytes have a greater than average metabolic need for glucose --> insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus lowers erythrocyte glucose levels --> the patient has not made any drastic lifestyle changes in the last 6 months

--> an equilibrium is established between GHB values and plasma glucose concentrations The passage states that physicians often circumvent transient changed in blood glucose levels by measuring GHB levels, therefore we can assume that GHB levels are less transient, yet still proportional to blood glucose levels

The individual cells making up a tissue differ from single-celled organisms such as Paramecium in that only the latter: --> reproduce by mitosis. --> have subcellular organelles. --> are capable of extended independent life. --> can metabolize nutrient molecules.

--> are capable of extended independent life.

Which of the following is true? --> binding at sites other than the catalytic site can affect an enzyme's catalytic activity --> competitive inhibitors have no effect on the 3D conformation of an enzyme --> protein-based enzymes differ from catalysts because of their sensitivity to their environment --> enzymes selectively bind their substrate so that only a single type of molecule can undergo catalysis

--> binding at sites other than the catalytic site can affect an enzyme's catalytic activity

Which carbon, in reference to the linear form of glucose, becomes chiral as a result of glucopyranose formation? --> carbon 1 --> carbon 2 --> carbon 3 --> carbon 4

--> carbon 1 C1 is the aldehydic carbon that reacts with the C5 OH groups and yields one of two anomers of glucopyranose

Homocystinuria may present in cases of vitamin deficiency because the enzymes in the cysteine pathway will lack appropriate: --> prosthetic groups --> holoenzymes --> chaperones --> cofactors

--> cofactors In the passage, it says that vitamins are necessary for enzyme function. Since vitamins are organic structures necessary for protein function, they are considered cofactors

Passage: Ccreatinine = (Ucreatinine * Vurine) / Pcreatinine Which of the following changed in hormone levels is most likely to increase Vurine in the equation? --> increased ADH and increased aldosterone --> increased ADH and decreased aldosterone --> decreased ADH and increased aldosterone --> decreased ADH and decreased aldosterone

--> decreased ADH and decreased aldosterone both ADH and aldosterone increase water reabsorption and decrease urine volume, so a decrease in both is most likely to lead to an increase in urine volume

Methotrexate can be administered intrathecally - via injection into the fluid around the spinal cord by lumbar puncture. However, damage to the lumbar nerve fibers is a risk. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be seen in a patient suffering from damage to their parasympathetic nervous system? --> pupil dilation --> decreased motility of the bowel --> increased blood supply to skeletal muscles --> decreased breathing rate

--> decreased breathing rate If a patient suffered significant damage to their parasympathetic nerves, the sympathetic system's effect on the patient's breathing rate would be unopposed, meaning breathing rate would increase, NOT decrease

Which of the following carbohydrates does not have a chiral carbon atom? --> dihydroxyacetone --> glyceraldehyde --> erythrose --> arabinose

--> dihydroxyacetone

Zinc is a cofactor for carbonic anhydrase. Which of the following is NOT a plausible explanation for why zinc is critical for the proper physiological function of carbonic anhydrase? --> zinc only has one common oxidation state, 2+ --> zinc (II) is a good lewis acid --> zinc ions efficiently coordinate with organic molecules --> elemental zinc exhibits paramagnetism

--> elemental zinc exhibits paramagnetism Zinc is diamagnetic, not paramagnetic

The cells lining the proximal convoluted tubule are best described as which type of tissue? --> connective --> muscle --> epithelial --> endodermal

--> epithelial epithelial cells line most organs, including the kidney

Rotigaptide is a drug used to treat cardiac arrhythmias. It functions by increasing intracellular conductance in cardiac muscle cells. Which of the following is the most likely target of rotigaptide? --> desmosomes --> gap junctions --> plasmodesmata --> tight junctions

--> gap junctions Coordinated contraction of the heart requires proper transmission of electrical impulses. In other words, ion must flow correctly through the heart to prevent arrhythmias. Gap junctions are protein channels that permit the flow of small molecules and ions from cell to cell. These are abundant in the heart and a logical target for rotigaptide

Sociologists commonly employ a perspective, symbolic interactionism. Which of the following most accurately characterizes an important tenet of symbolic interactionism? --> human beings actively contribute to their perception of their surroundings --> human action is informed more by the past than present circumstances --> the meaning of symbols are inherent and universally understood --> human thought plays a key role in an individual's perspective and is independent of social interaction

--> human beings actively contribute to their perception of their surroundings Symbolic interactionism seeks to explain how humans perceive the world. According to a symbolic interactionist, reality is defined in a social contest. Rituals, gender roles, etc. have no pre-defined, inherent definition, but are imbued with meaning by their roles in social interaction. Human beings do actively contribute to their perception of their surroundings

If the GAPDH gene is continuously expressed, where is it most likely found? --> in euchromatin --> In a telomere --> In heterochromatin --> In a centromere

--> in euchromatin The answer to this question is A because GAPDH is a housekeeping gene and is expressed continuously. A gene that is always turned on must be accessible to transcription factors. Only euchromatin is in a loose conformation and readily accessible for transcription.

The iron atom in hemoglobin can bind to 6 different atoms. One of those atoms is a nitrogen atom in histidine, whose side chain: --> is an aromatic heterocycle --> is acidic --> is a non-aromatic hydrocarbon --> contains a sulfur atom

--> is an aromatic heterocycle The side chain of histidine is not acidic, is aromatic, and does not contain a sulfur atom

Given the structure of dideoxyadenosine triphosphate (ddATP): when inserted into a growing poly nucleotide, it act as chain-terminating DNA polymerase inhibitor. This is most likely because: --> it is impossible for DNA polymerase to bind ddATP to the tail of the existing polynucleotide --> it is impossible for DNA polymerase to form a phosphodiester bond with the 5' end of a new nucleotide --> ddATP is only able to form H-bonds with dideoxythymidine which is very rare --> only RNA polymerase is able to add dideoxynucleotides without the use of a primer

--> it is impossible for DNA polymerase to form a phosphodiester bond with the 5' end of a new nucleotide ddATP is missing the 3' OH which is used to form a phosphodiester bond with the 5' end of a new nucleotide

Leucovorin is a drug that is often administered after high doses of methotrexate in order to moderate the effects of methotrexate on healthy cells. Which of the following properties allows leucovorin to be a successful adjunct to methotrexate therapy? --> the inhibitory effect of methotrexate on the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase are reversed by the action of folic acid --> leucovorin is more readily absorbed by normal cells than by neoplastic cells --> folic acid is an antagonist of methotrexate --> leucovorin irreversibly binds the cell membrane receptor methotrexate uses to enter cells

--> leucovorin is more readily absorbed by normal cells than by neoplastic cells if only normal cells can absorb leucovorin, then the aberrant, proliferating cells can be eliminated by methotrexate, while the healthy, normal cells can be sustained by the "leucovorin rescue" procedure

The advantage of the Doppler ultrasound technique over the standard ultrasound technique is that it also allows: --> distinguishing between fluids and tissue. --> measuring the blood flow. --> measuring the tissue density. --> measuring the heart wall thickness.

--> measuring the blood flow. The answer to this question is B because Doppler ultrasound takes advantage of the Doppler Effect in which a sound wave emitted by, or reflected from a moving object, will change its frequency based on the relative speed of the object, in this case, the flow of blood in a vessel.

What type of mutation is mose likely responsible for the gene changes associated with the heritable form of homocystinuria? --> nonsense --> missense --> frameshift --> silent

--> missense the passage states that the inherited homocystinuria retains some, but not all, function. Thus, the protein is most likely translated and transcribed in a normal fashion, but with some change in amino acid sequence, which is characteristic of missense mutations

What contributes most significantly to the negative resting membrane potential of neurons? --> more positive ions outside the cell and fewer positive ions inside the cell --> more positive ions inside the cell and fewer positive ions outside the cell --> same number of ions inside and outside, but the ions inside carry more charge --> same number of ions inside and outside, but the ions outside carry more charge

--> more positive ions outside the cell and fewer positive ions inside the cell

In humans, the lining of which structure is NOT primarily derived from the endoderm? --> mouth --> bronchi --> bladder --> stomach

--> mouth The answer to this question is A because most of the lining of the mouth is derived from an invagination of ectoderm. Most of the epithelial tissues inside the body (B, C, D) are derived from endoderm.

Country A has a relatively weak economy, a weak political infrastructure, and competes poorly in the globalized economy. Country A is also dependent on Country B, which has a much stronger economy. According to world systems theory, Country A is a: --> core nation --> semi-periphery nation --> periphery nation --> developed nation

--> periphery nation The correct answer is C because the stem describes Country A as a periphery nation in World Systems Theory, which characterizes global inequalities in terms of core nations (more economically developed with strong governments and institutions) and periphery nations (less economically developed with weak governments and institutions).

Which of the following correctly lists the pathway of sound waves into the ear? --> pinna, tympanic membrane, ossicles, cochlea --> vestibule, ossicles, tympanic membrane, cochlea --> ossicles, organ of Corti, cochlea, pinna --> pinna, organ of Corti, tympanic membrane, cochlea

--> pinna, tympanic membrane, ossicles, cochlea The pinna collects and directs sound waves to the tympanic membrane, which vibrates when sound waves are transmitted. The tympanic membrane vibrations cause vibrations within the ossicles. The ossicles transmit sound waves in the air into the fluid filled cochlea, which houses the organ of Corti

In humans, the contribution to membrane potential from sodium is: --> positive, and would increase if extracellular sodium levels increased --> positive, and would decrease if extracellular sodium levels increased --> negative, and would increase if extracellular sodium levels increased --> negative, and would decrease if extracellular sodium levels increased

--> positive, and would increase if extracellular sodium levels increased The sign of sodium is positive and the potential will increase if more sodium ions are added

Passage: So2 is based on the percentage of available iron atoms in hemoglobin that are bound to oxygen atoms. Regardless of the method used to determine the oxygen saturation, determining the total oxygen content in blood required knowing the hemoglobin content of blood. The normal methods for calculating oxygen saturation cannot detect methemoglobin, in which the iron atom is bound to carbon monoxide: such iron atoms are not included as "bound to oxygen" or as an "available iron atom". Those hemoglobin molecules are measured, however, in methods that calculate total hemoglobin. How to fin Co2: Co2 = 1.34[Hb]So2 + 0.003(Po2) If the hospital patient described in the passage is exposed to carbon monoxide and 5% of his hemoglobin becomes bound to carbon monoxide, rather than oxygen, but 99% of the remaining hemoglobin remains bound to oxygen. Based on the info in the passage, one would expect that: --> the actual Co2 ad measured So2 would both decrease --> the actual Co2 and measured So2 would both be unchanged --> the actual Co2 would be unchanged while the measured So2 would decrease --> the actual Co2 would decrease while the measure So2 would be unchanged

--> the actual Co2 would decrease while the measure So2 would be unchanged The passage states that iron atoms bound to carbon monoxide "are not included as 'bound to oxygen' or as an 'available iron atom'. Those hemoglobin molecules are measured, however in methods that calculate total hemoglobin. So, the measured So2 will be unchanged, but since the hemoglobin is not longer binding oxygen, the actual Co2 would decrease.

A developmental psychologist notes that a 6 year old is in Erikson's developmental stage of "Industry vs. Inferiority". The psychologist has several concerns about the child's ability to cope at this stage. Which of the following is most likely the therapist's concern? --> the adults in the child's life are unstable figures, potentially leading the child to develop distrust for authority --> the child is having trouble establishing a sense of self and personal identity, which may lead to incongruous self-image --> the child is exerting too much power over others and is liable to develop psychological issues pertaining to guilt --> the child appears unprepared to handle new social and academic demands, potentially causing undue stress

--> the child appears unprepared to handle new social and academic demands, potentially causing undue stress

What would be the most likely effect on a reaction after the introduction of an enzyme specific to that reaction? --> the enzyme would decrease the theoretical yield --> the effect of the enzyme depends on the deltaG of the reaction --> the enzyme would increase the theoretical yield --> the enzyme would not affect the theoretical yield

--> the enzyme would not affect the theoretical yield Enzymes only change the rate of a reaction, not its overall favorability or yield

According to the frequency theory of pitch detection, sound waves trigger neural impulses to the brain at the same frequency as the sound wave. Which of the following most seriously compromises this theory? --> the frequency of audible sounds exceeds the maximum frequency of individual neuronal impulses --> all impulses from the auditory nerve feed into the same region of the brain --> 100 pulses per second travel up the auditory nerve in response to 100 Hz sound waves --> the tympanic membrane vibrates with the same frequency as the sound waves present

--> the frequency of audible sounds exceeds the maximum frequency of individual neuronal impulses

During sonication of a biological sample, an ultrasound probe is used to produce acoustic cavitation (the formation, growth, and implosive collapse of bubbles), which disrupts or homogenizes the sample. Which of the following statements about ultrasound is true? --> Humans cannot hear ultrasound because its frequency is below the threshold of human hearing --> in an ultrasound wave, the amplitude of the wave is perpendicular to the direction of energy transfer --> when the sample is further from the ultrasound probe, there is less attenuation at the sample --> the waves produced by an ultrasound probe are incapable of propagating in a vacuum

--> the waves produced by an ultrasound probe are incapable of propagating in a vacuum

The liver is primarily responsible for the conversion of alcohol into acetaldehyde and then into acetic acid. Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver? --> urea excretion --> gluconeogenesis --> cholesterol synthesis --> bile acid production

--> urea excretion The liver is responsible for glycogen synthesis and storage, gluconeogenesis, heme breakdown and metabolism, cholesterol regulation and synthesis, and production of bile to be stored and concentrated by the gall bladder. The kidney is responsible for the excretion of urea.

What is the closest distance the electrodes used in an NCV test can be placed on a nerve in order to measure the voltage change as a response to the stimulus? The time duration is 1 msec and the speed of the impulse is 100 m/s.

0.1 m 1 msec * 100 m/s = 0.1 m

What is the concentration of Cl- ions in a 0.1 M solution of calcium chloride?

0.20 M There are 2 Cl ions for every 1 Mg ion, so need to multiply the concentration by 2.

equation for specific heat

q = mcΔT q is heat required m is mass C is the specific heat ΔT is change in temp

Which of the following would NOT qualify as negative reinforcement? (A) A parent wants to get her daughter to wash the dishes and says she will take her to for ice cream if she washes the dishes. (B) A parent wants to get his son to stop playing video games right after school and says that he will make his son mow the lawn on the weekend if the son continues to play video games right after school. (C) A researcher wants to teach rats to press a lever so each time the rats press the lever, a loud irritating alarm bell is shut off for a few minutes.

(A) A parent wants to get her daughter to wash the dishes and says she will take her to for ice cream if she washes the dishes. (B) A parent wants to get his son to stop playing video games right after school and says that he will make his son mow the lawn on the weekend if the son continues to play video games right after school. Reinforcement is used to increase the frequency of a behavior, while negative consequences involve the removal of a stimulus. Thus, negative reinforcement is a way to encourage an individual to increase a behavior by taking something away when they fail to perform that behavior. In statement I, nothing is taken away; instead, ice cream is added, making this positive reinforcement. In statement II, the father wants his son to stop behaving in a particular way, so this constitutes punishment. These two Roman numerals are therefore the answer to this "NOT" question.

As one step in the statistical analysis of the effectiveness of CHW intervention, researchers calculated the average percentage of postnatal care use found in 10 randomly selected groups of 50 mothers. How could the researchers have increased the power of their analysis? (A) Examine 15 randomly selected groups of subjects. (B) Increase the length of questions on the survey used in the analysis. (C) Select groups comprised of CHW using mothers only. (D) Increase their rate of random error

(A) Examine 15 randomly selected groups of subjects. There are five main ways to increase the power of an experiment or study: increase the alpha level, decrease random error, conduct a one-tailed test, expand the sample size, or increase the effect size. Of these, only choice A, which increases the sample size, will increase power.

A physician accepts a new job and finds that for the first several months of work most of her effort is spent learning the mechanisms by which doctors, patients, insurance companies, and the government (at federal and local levels) interact to deliver and pay for care. She particularly notes that the influence by the hospital's legal department often supercedes that of other important administrators who hold MD's. Her experiences and observations most closely reflect what theory of sociology? (A) Functionalism (B) Conflict theory (C) Feminist theory (D) Symbolic interactionism

(A) Functionalism A is correct because functionalism, one of the sociological approaches you should understand for the MCAT, views society and social institutions as interdependent, interacting parts of a whole. Here, the various elements of the hospital system come together to function as a system to deliver health care to the patients. B is incorrect because this choice is tempting! Conflict theory, pioneered by Karl Marx, views sociology through the lens of conflicts between various classes and groups within society. Often, this involves systematic inequalities that keep power out of the hands of lower-status groups. While the question stem does mention that the legal department holds more influence than some administrators, this alone does not constitute a conflict; overall, the different parts of the hospital are depicted as working together rather than clashing. In addition, administrators with advanced medical degrees would not constitute a lower-status group. C is incorrect because feminist theory is a branch of feminism that seeks to explain the nature of gender inequality. It examines women's social roles, experience, interests, and politics in a variety of fields such as education, medicine, and business. Although the physician mentioned is female, nothing in the question's description specifically relates to her role in the hospital system as a woman. D is incorrect because symbolic interactionism is a view of sociology on the micro level, through interactions between individual people. It analyzes how, as members of society, those individuals use and understand the symbols of the society they live in. The question stem does not focus on symbols.

The symptoms of botulinum took 12-18 hours to be observed in the patient. How is this best explained? (A) Growing bacteria produce the toxin. (B) Botulinum toxin is immediately filtered by the kidneys and excreted. (C) Toxins can be absorbed through mucous membranes or respiratory tract. (D) Most of the toxins are polar and they take time to cross the nuclear membrane.

(A) Growing bacteria produce the toxin. A is correct because if growing bacteria produces the toxin, then it will take time for the bacteria to generate sufficient quantities of the toxin to cause illness. B is incorrect because if the toxin were immediately filtered and excreted by the kidneys, the symptoms would not appear. C is incorrect because this is a true statement, but it does not explain why the toxin's initial effect takes so long to manifest. D is incorrect because the toxin has its effect on the neuromuscular junction and does not cross the nuclear membrane.

· Modern MRI machines use electricity to generate their magnetic fields inside a circular chamber instead of using permanent magnets. Which of the following would NOT increase the strength of the MRI field? (A) Increased radius of the MRI chamber (B) Increased power supplied to the MRI machine (C) Decreased resistance of the MRI machine (D) Increased current through the MRI machine

(A) Increased radius of the MRI chamber A is correct because the equation for magnetic field is B = µI / 2r, where B is the field strength, µ0 is the permeability of space, I is the current, and r is radius. This means that increasing the radius will decrease the magnetic field B is incorrect because increasing the power will increase the current (P = IV), which increases the magnetic field C is incorrect decreasing the resistance will increase power, which will increase the current, which increases the magnetic field D is incorrect because increasing the current will increase the magnetic field

In vivo, PO43- molecules utilize proton-coupled transport mechanisms to enter the cell. Which statement explains why this is necessary? (A) PO43- is hydrophilic. (B) PO43- is hydrophobic. (C) The cell membrane is hydrophilic. (D) The secondary active transport mechanism conserves ATP.

(A) PO43- is hydrophilic. A is correct because PO43- is hydrophilic due to its polar groups and overall negative charge. Due to its hydrophilicity, it cannot passively pass through the hydrophobic cell membrane B is incorrect because PO43- is NOT hydrophobic C is incorrect because the cell membrane is NOT hydrophilic D is incorrect because secondary active transport does allow a cell to utilize other forms of energy to transport molecules, but this doesn't explain why PO43- needs to take this route

· In vitro, free oligonucleotides, such as mRNA transcripts, have a short half-life in the cytosol. What mechanism is used to stabilize these molecules? (A) Polyadenylation (B) Phosphorylation (C) Enzymatic digestion (D) Active transport across the nuclear membrane

(A) Polyadenylation A is correct because the poly-A tail is important for the nuclear export, translation, and stability of mRNA. The tail is shortened over time, and, when it is short enough, the mRNA is enzymatically degraded. B is incorrect because by definition, nucleotides are already phosphorylated. When the PO43- group is removed, the molecules are called nucleosides. C is incorrect because this is the opposite of what the question is asking, as degradation would lead to a faster breakdown. D is incorrect because active transport across the nuclear membrane would not stabilize an mRNA transcript.

Which of the following must be true if the penicillin-serine reaction "locks" in the ester formation as described in the passage? (A) The thermodynamic cost of breaking the penicillin-serine ester is larger than the thermodynamic release of amide formation. (B) The thermodynamic release of forming an amide is equal to the thermodynamic cost of forming an ester. (C) The thermodynamic cost of breaking the penicillin-serine ester is smaller than the thermodynamic release of amide formation. (D) The thermodynamic release of forming the penicillin cyclic amide is larger than the thermodynamic release of breaking the penicillin-serine ester.

(A) The thermodynamic cost of breaking the penicillin-serine ester is larger than the thermodynamic release of amide formation. A is correct because if the compound is locked in place, then the cost of breaking it apart must be larger B is incorrect because if the costs were equal, then the system would be in equilibrium C is incorrect because if the cost were smaller, then the configuration would not be locked in place D is incorrect because this would mean that the amide would be formed instead of the ester

· Traumatic brain injuries can leave patients with reduced ability to care for themselves, reducing their self-efficacy. This can subsequently lead to feelings of worthlessness if they come to perceive themselves as a burden, especially for those patients that had taken pride in their ability to provide for others. These changes represent a decrease in: (A) self-esteem (B) self-awareness (C) self-identity (D) self-concept

(A) self-esteem

An experience of discrimination as a result of one's body type could likely impact which of the following? (A) self-esteem (B) self-image (C) self-perception

(A) self-esteem (B) self-image Self-esteem is the judgment of one's own value or self-worth. Being discriminated against could certainly have a negative impact on one's sense of value (I). Self-image is a mental construct built in large part by internalizing the judgments that others have about the self. Negative judgments demonstrated through discrimination would thus have an impact on one's self-image (II). Self-perception is the notion that a person develops an attitude by watching their own behavior and then concluding that they must hold whatever attitude would have led to that behavior (III). For example, a woman sees herself make a rude comment towards a co-worker and then concludes, "Wow, I must really not like that person." The question stem does not relate to this idea of drawing conclusions from one's own behavior.

Which of the following is most likely to use a protein channel to cross the eukaryotic cell membrane? (A) Aldosterone (B) Ca2+ (C) O2 (D) CO2

(B) Ca2+ A is incorrect because aldosterone is a steroid hormone built from nonpolar cholesterol, which allows it to freely cross the membrane. B is correct because the eukaryotic cell membrane is comprised of a phospholipid bilayer, cholesterol, and various transmembrane protein pores, channels, and gates. The largely hydrophobic nature of the lipid bilayer prevents ions and polar solutes from diffusing across the membrane, while allowing for the free movement of hydrophobic molecules. Calcium ions would be unlikely to pass directly through the cell membrane and thus require an ion channel. C is incorrect because oxygen is a small, nonpolar molecule, which allows it to freely cross the membrane. D is incorrect because carbon dioxide is a small, nonpolar molecule, which allows it to freely cross the membrane.

What alteration to an HCN channel will reduce the transport of K+ in favor of Na+ transport? (A) Increasing the diameter of the channel by adding amino acids (B) Decreasing the diameter of the channel by removing amino acids (C) Replacing the serine groups in the channel with alanine (D) Replacing the alanine groups in the channel with serine

(B) Decreasing the diameter of the channel by removing amino acids A is incorrect because K+ is larger than Na+, so increasing the diameter will not reduce the amount of K+ B is correct because K+ is larger than Na+, so decreasing the diameter will reduce the amount of K+ C and D are incorrect because K+ and Na+ are in the same group, so they have the same properties; this means that replacing different amino acids will affect both K+ and Na+, not just K+

Which of the following is an element of humoral immunity? (A) Phagocytes (B) Immunoglobulins (C) T cells (D) MHC I

(B) Immunoglobulins A, C and D are incorrect because they are all elements of cell-mediated immunity. B is correct because humoral immunity is part of the body's adaptive immune response. It is provided by B cell activity, which promotes an antibody, or immunoglobulin, response. Antibodies can recognize polysaccharide, phospholipid, and nucleic acid antigens to help the body fight extracellular bacteria, viruses, and toxins.

In which of the following cell processes does thymidine kinase most likely play a role? (A) Osmosis (B) Mitosis (C) Translation (D) Conjugation

(B) Mitosis thymidine kinase is used to predict cancer activity. Cancer is a disease categorized by rapid, unregulated cell growth and replication. The name "thymidine" (a nucleotide base) also indicates that the enzyme has a key role in DNA synthesis and therefore in cell division. You should also know that the "kinase" part of the name indicates that the enzyme catalyzes the addition of a phosphate group to its substrate.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the sympathetic nervous system? (A) Increased heart rate (B) Pupillary constriction (C) Vasodilation (D) Vasoconstriction

(B) Pupillary constriction Activation of the sympathetic nervous system triggers a fight-or-flight response. This includes several physiological responses: pupil dilation, increased rate and force of heart contraction, blood vessel dilation in skeletal muscle and constriction in gastrointestinal organs, and inhibition of peristalsis by the digestive tract. The parasympathetic system has the opposite effect.

Researchers conduct an experiment to test the Cannon-Bard theory of emotional arousal. A simulated car crash is used in which the subjects were shown video of an oncoming vehicle. Which of the following results best supports the Cannon-Bard theory? (A) Subject spots oncoming vehicle ⇒ Subject feels fear ⇒ Subject heart rate rises (B) Subject spots oncoming vehicle ⇒ Subject feels fear and subject heart rate rises (C) Subject spots oncoming vehicle ⇒ Subject heart rate rises ⇒ Subject feels fear (D) Subject feels fear ⇒ Subject heart rate rises ⇒ Subject thinks "I am afraid"

(B) Subject spots oncoming vehicle ⇒ Subject feels fear and subject heart rate rises A is incorrect because here, emotion precedes a physiological response rather than occurring simultaneously. B is correct because the Cannon-Bard theory states that emotion-arousing stimuli simultaneously trigger physiological responses and the subjective experience of emotion. C is incorrect because this is an example of the James-Lange theory, which states that emotion is experienced in response to a physiological reaction to arousing stimuli. D is incorrect because cognitive labels such as "I am afraid" are part of two-factor theories, not Cannon-Bard.

Which of the following explains why the pitch of person's resonant voice harmonics rises when they inhale helium instead of air? (A) The wavelength increases due to the change in temperature from the helium atoms. (B) The change in timbre results in a higher perceived frequency of the voice. (C) The frequency decreases due to the change in air density from helium atoms. (D) The speed of the sound wave remains constant regardless of changes to the medium through which the sound wave propagates.

(B) The change in timbre results in a higher perceived frequency of the voice. A is incorrect because inhaling helium will not change the temperature of the air B is correct because when the helium atoms are inhaled, the density in the larynx changes, which alters the timbre (an overall quality of voice that results from overlapping waves) to emphasize the higher-pitched harmonics C is incorrect because a decrease in frequency would lead to a lower pitch, not a higher one D is incorrect because the speed of sound is not always constant, it depends on the bulk modulus, density, and temperature of the medium it is passing through

Which of the following best explains why, at a constant voltage, warmer solutions are ejected more quickly than cooler ones? (A) The droplets have smaller volume at higher temperatures (B) The surface tension is lower for solutions at higher temperatures (C) The electrical forces grow smaller as temperature increases (D) The electrical forces grow larger as temperature increases

(B) The surface tension is lower for solutions at higher temperatures A is incorrect because at higher temperatures, the droplets should have a larger volume B is correct because surface tension decreases as temperature increases, also the passage states: "electrospinning occurs when the electrical forces at the surface of a polymer solution overcome the surface tension and causes an electrically charged jet to be ejected." If warmer solutions are being ejected sooner, this equilibrium imbalance must be reached sooner. This imbalance can be caused by either an increase in electrical forces or a decrease in surface tension, but since electrical forces are not influenced by temperature, then the surface tension must be the cause C and D are incorrect because electrical force is not influenced by temperature

It is found that some people who suffer from antisocial personality disorder had trouble with speech comprehension as children. What brain area is likely associated with this difficulty? (A) Somatosensory cortex (B) Wernicke's area (C) Occipital lobe (D) Basal ganglia

(B) Wernicke's area A is incorrect because the somatosensory cortex is where afferent signals from the periphery are relayed into the brain. It does not relate to language or speech. B is correct because Wernicke's area is involved in the understanding of written and spoken language. C is incorrect because the occipital lobe is associated with vision and is located on the posterior region of the brain. D is incorrect because the basal ganglia is closely associated with the control and regulation of the motor and premotor cortical areas. It is found in the midbrain and ensures that voluntary movements can be performed smoothly.

Lysine is best described as: (A) aromatic (B) polar and basic (C) nonpolar and not aromatic (D) hydrophobic

(B) polar and basic

A psychiatrist performing a mental exam shows a list of 10 unrelated images to the patient and asks the patient to memorize them. The exam continues and a few minutes later the psychiatrist requests that the patient describe as many images as he can recall. If most of the remembered images come from the beginning and end of the list, this is an example of: (A) the recency effect. (B) the serial position effect. (C) the cognitive bias effect. (D) the primacy effect.

(B) the serial position effect. A is incorrect because the recency effect refers to the tendency to recall items near the end of a list. B is correct because short-term memory is more likely to retain pieces of information from the beginning and end of a list. This phenomenon is called the serial position effect. C is incorrect because cognitive bias is the tendency to think in certain ways. Cognitive biases often cause deviations from a standard of rationality or good judgment. Such biases are unrelated to the short-term memory tests being described in the passage. D is incorrect the primacy effect is the tendency to recall those presented first on a list.

Students investigating Weber's law notice that one student is just able to perceive that a black, circular dot on a sheet of paper is larger than another dot when the first dot is 100 mm across and the second is 115 mm across. If the same student is presented with a black, circular dot that is 50 mm across, which of the following is the diameter of a dot that the student would just be able to perceive as being larger? (A) 35 mm (B) 42.5 mm (C) 57.5 mm (D) 65 mm

(C) 57.5 mm Use proportions! 100/115 = 50/x à x = 57.5

Early research into the mechanism of antibiotics theorized that it was implausible that the amide in penicillin would convert to an ester. Which of the following explains this doubt? (A) Amides possess better leaving groups than esters (B) Esters possess worse leaving groups than amides (C) Amides are less reactive than esters (D) Serine contains no good nucleophiles

(C) Amides are less reactive than esters A and B are incorrect because they both state that amides have better leaving groups than esters, and that is not true. C is correct because amides have worse leaving groups than esters, and therefore are less reactive than esters. D is incorrect because the -OH groups in serine is a good nucleophile

Subject 2 complained of difficulty "getting [his] sentences out." The brain area likely to cause these symptoms is the: (A) reticular formation. (B) primary motor cortex. (C) Broca's area. (D) parietal lobe.

(C) Broca's area. A is incorrect because the reticular formation is a set of connected nuclei in the brain stem that is responsible for regulating arousal and sleep-wake transitions. It also helps mediate transitions from relaxed wakefulness to periods of high attention. The reticular formation does not directly relate to speech. B is incorrect because the primary motor cortex operates in conjunction with the pre-motor cortex, the supplementary motor area, and the posterior parietal cortex to plan and execute movements. It does not govern speech production. C is correct because Broca's area is one of the main areas of the cerebral cortex responsible for speech production, facial neuron control, and language processing D is incorrect because the parietal lobe is responsible for two main functions. First, it integrates sensory information to form a single perception (cognition). Second, it constructs a spatial coordinate system to represent the external world.

In patients with a certain medical condition, the intercellular path described in the passage is damaged in the large intestine, causing lower levels of transport. What change would be expected? (A) Increased Cl- in the lumen of the colon (B) Decreased Cl- in the lumen of the duodenum (C) Decreased waste fluidity in the colon (D) Increased waste fluidity in the colon

(C) Decreased waste fluidity in the colon A is incorrect because lower levels of transport will result in lowered Cl- levels in the lumen of the colon. B is incorrect because the question stem referenced only the large intestine. The duodenum is the region of the small intestine that is most proximal to the stomach. C is correct because paragraph 3 states that this pathway can be used to transport ions and fluids into the lumen of the large intestine. The addition of fluid softens the waste material and allows it to move. Without this mechanism, fewer ions will be secreted into the lumen and less water will follow. This will results in a dehydrated, more solid waste in the colon. D is incorrect because this would be caused by increased, not decreased, chloride ion transport.

· After the newborn is brought home, a father agrees to change at least 2 diapers a day. What kind of support is the father providing? (A) Companionship support (B) Emotional support (C) Instrumental support (D) Informational support

(C) Instrumental support A is incorrect because companionship support is the type of support that gives someone a sense of social belonging. This can be seen as the presence of companions to engage in shared social activities. B is incorrect because emotional support refers to the actions that people take that make us feel loved and cared for. This support includes things that bolster our sense of self-worth (e.g., talking over a problem or providing encouragement or positive feedback); such support frequently takes the form of non-tangible types of assistance. C is correct because instrumental support refers to the various types of tangible help that others may provide to an individual (e.g., help with childcare/housekeeping, provision of transportation, or giving of money). D is incorrect because informational support is sometimes included within the category of instrumental support and refers to the help that others may offer through the provision of information.

An overweight person attempts to lose weight by following a series of popular diet books, but he fails in each instance. Eventually, he ceases trying to lose weight and his BMI slowly increases. This situation is most specifically demonstrating which phenomenon? (A) Behavioral extinction (B) Self-actualization (C) Learned helplessness (D) Positive punishment

(C) Learned helplessness Learned helplessness is demonstrated when a person experiences an unpleasant situation or stimulus but finds himself (or herself) unable to escape or avoid the situation. The person then learns that he is unable to affect the situation and simply endures it, even if a change in behavior would allow him to escape. The circumstances in this question demonstrate this phenomenon, as the person could change his behavior and potentially lose weight, but he has learned to simply endure being overweight.

With which of the following do the arginine side chains found on histone proteins most likely interact? (A) Thymine groups on DNA (B) Adenine groups on DNA (C) Phosphate groups on DNA (D) Oxyribose on RNA

(C) Phosphate groups on DNA o Reasoning: Arginine is a basic amino acid, meaning that it is positively charged at physiological pH. Positive species interact best with negative species, and of the answers listed, only phosphate groups are negatively charged.

The flow rate of stomach content emptying is 100 cm3/sec. Patients who undergo gastric bypass surgery will increase this rate to almost 1600 cm3/sec. Assuming the flow of stomach contents approximates Poiseuille's Law, what change to their gastrointestinal connection would explain this, provided no other changes occur in the conditions of stomach content flow? (A) The new connection is 2 times longer. (B) The new connection is 4 times longer. (C) The new connection radius is 2 times larger. (D) The new connection radius is 4 times larger.

(C) The new connection radius is 2 times larger. Need to utilize Poiseuille's Law à Flow = ΔPπr^4 / 8Lη. Changing from 100 to 1600 is 16x larger, and in order to get that relationship, need to double the radius (2^4 = 16)

Patients with excess fat are more likely to require larger therapeutic doses of which vitamin? (A) Vitamin B1 (B) Vitamin C (C) Vitamin D (D) Vitamin B3

(C) Vitamin D A is incorrect because since this vitamin is water-soluble, its absorption is unlikely to be affected by excess fat. B is incorrect because since this vitamin is water-soluble, its absorption is unlikely to be affected by excess fat. C is correct because the lipid-soluble vitamins are A, D, E, and K. The water-soluble vitamins are B and C. Greater amounts of subcutaneous fat sequester more of the lipid-soluble vitamins and lower their release into the circulation. Thus, excess fat increases the initial dose of vitamin required to achieve a particular effect. D is incorrect because since this vitamin is water-soluble, its absorption is unlikely to be affected by excess fat.

Disulfiram is a common drug used to treat alcoholism by inhibiting the body's ability to process acetaldehyde. Acetaldehyde builds up if alcohol is ingested, resulting in flushing, nausea, and discomfort. This kind of treatment is an example of: (A) operant extinction. (B) a conditioned stimulus. (C) aversive conditioning. (D) social cues

(C) aversive conditioning. Aversive conditioning is a behavioral conditioning technique in which noxious stimuli are associated with undesirable or unwanted behaviors. If this technique is successful, the individual reduces the frequency of the unwanted behavior.

A woman walking to work sees a group of people on the street staring at an open manhole. She stops to join them in staring down at the open manhole. Her behavior is an example of: (A) the bystander effect. (B) deindividuation. (C) conformity (D) groupthink

(C) conformity

· All of the following are likely to play a role in postpartum depression EXCEPT: (A) decreased levels of serotonin. (B) decreased levels of norepinephrine. (C) decreased levels of γ-aminobutyric acid (GABA). (D) decreased levels of dopamine.

(C) decreased levels of γ-aminobutyric acid (GABA). GABA is the chief inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS. It plays the principal role in reducing neuronal excitability throughout the nervous system and is found in decreased levels in patients with anxiety disorders. Of the choices listed, GABA relates least to mood disorders, such as depression.

What is a likely neurological symptom caused by the toxin's effect on acetylcholine release? (A) tetanus (B) muscle spasms (C) flaccid paralysis (D) nausea

(C) flaccid paralysis By inhibiting acetylcholine release, the toxin interferes with nerve impulses and causes flaccid (sagging) paralysis of muscles. The presence of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction is required for skeletal muscle contraction.

· In a follow-up study examining the motivations that led to the overeating associated with obesity, many respondents pointed to a rewarding sense of pleasure they felt after eating large portions of high-calorie foods. This sense is most closely associated with activation of the: (A) nigrostriatal bundle. (B) prefrontal cortex. (C) mesolimbic pathway. (D) occipital lobe.

(C) mesolimbic pathway. A is incorrect because the nigrostriatal bundle is associated with movement. Loss of neurons in this area is associated with Parkinson's disease. B is incorrect because the prefrontal cortex is associated with executive function and short-term memory. C is correct because the mesolimbic pathway, or reward pathway, is a pathway in the brain connecting the midbrain to the forebrain. It releases dopamine in response to rewarding stimuli, thus reinforcing behaviors that are perceived as pleasurable. D is incorrect because the occipital lobe is the visual processing center.

Which of the following waves would have a wavelength larger than any standard electrospun fiber? (A) red light (B) blue light (C) microwaves (D) x-rays

(C) microwaves Need to choose the option with the largest wavelength, which is microwaves.

· A student preparing for the experiments inadvertently adds an additional 400 mL of the same acid solution to the dissolution vessel. What will be the new pOH of this solution? (Molarity = 0.1 M) (A) 1 (B) 6 (C) 11 (D) 13

(D) 13 States that it is an acid, so the pOH must be greater than 7. To find pH, take the negative log of the proton concentration (0.1 M from the passage): -log (0.1) = 1. Since, pH + pOH = 14 --> 14 - 1 = 13

Assuming a mass of 0.04 g, what is the power exerted by the electrical forces on a fragment of fiber if the fragment has a velocity of 200 mm/s, 10 ms after ejection? (A) 5 x 10-10 W (B) 1 x 10-8 W (C) 2 x 10-5 W (D) 8 x 10-5 W

(D) 8 x 10-5 W Power is calculated by kinetic energy divided by time (∆KE / t). So P = (1/2 * 0.00004 kg * (0.2 m/s)2) / 0.01 s = 8 x 10-5 W Don't get caught up with decimals unless there is more than one option with the correct whole number (i.e., 8 in this case)

Which of the following symptoms is expected in a patient with Bálint's syndrome? (A) Lack of sympathetic response (B) Lack of parasympathetic response (C) Difficulty perceiving color (D) Difficulty using a fork

(D) Difficulty using a fork Bálint's syndrome patients have defects in hand movements that require visual guidance. Patients would be unable to grab an object while looking at it. This kind of coordination is required for eating with utensils.

Monocytes, in conjunction with epithelium-derived factors, can act to facilitate which biological process? (A) Fatty acid oxidation (B) Transfection (C) Lipid synthesis (D) Host immune response

(D) Host immune response Monocytes are the largest type of white blood cells. Factors secreted by the epithelium help form a cascade that leads to accumulation of immune cells at the site of an injury. The other 3 options are incorrect because they have nothing to do with the immune system

Which of the following will cause a blood pH of 8.2? (A) Decreased O2 concentration (B) Decreased tidal volume (C) Increased H2O concentration (D) Increased respiratory rate

(D) Increased respiratory rate A is incorrect because O2 concentration itself does not directly impact blood pH, but the hypoventilation that could cause decreased O2 concentration would cause blood pH to fall below 7.4. B is incorrect because this will cause blood pH to drop below 7.4 due to decreased exhalation of CO2. C is incorrect because adding more water to the blood would not cause the system to become more basic. D is correct because Physiological pH is 7.4; thus, 8.2 represents an increase in pH, or alkalosis. The bicarbonate buffer system of the blood is given by: H+ (aq) + HCO3- (aq) ↔ H2CO3 (aq) ↔ H2O (l) + CO2 (g) According to Le Châtelier's principle, a decrease in products will cause the equilibrium to shift to the right. An increased respiratory rate will cause excess CO2 (a product) to be exhaled. The resulting rightward shift will cause a drop in H+ concentration and, thus, an increase in pH.

A molecule enters a cell and creates pores in the inner mitochondrial membrane. Will oxidative phosphorylation continue to generate ATP? (A) Yes, because the cell membrane is still complete. (B) Yes, because ATP is required for cell function. (C) No, because there is no available oxygen. (D) No, because the proton gradient will be dissipated.

(D) No, because the proton gradient will be dissipated. A is incorrect because although the cell membrane is intact, oxidative phosphorylation requires intact mitochondrial membranes. B is incorrect because while it is true that ATP is required for cell function, oxidative phosphorylation cannot provide that ATP if the mitochondrial membrane has been disrupted. C is incorrect because nothing in the question suggests that there is a shortage of oxygen as a result of toxin invasion. D is correct because the energy released by oxidative phosphorylation and used to make ATP is generated from potential energy in the form of an H+ gradient, which creates an electrical potential across the mitochondrial membrane. If this membrane is disrupted, this gradient cannot be maintained. Without this gradient, oxidative phosphorylation cannot continue to produce ATP.

One study participant described overeating in response to a sense of anxiety about the state of the world, especially in relation to global climate change and the poor economy. This anxiety most closely reflects the effect of which kind of stressor? (A) acute (B) microstressor (C) crisis (D) ambient

(D) ambient Ambient stressors are those chronic environmental stressors that cannot be changed (or are perceived as unchangeable) by the efforts of the individual subject to them. Things like the economy and climate change would be examples of ambient stressors.

· Which of the following properties explains why sound wave velocity increases as it travels from air to a liquid medium at the same temperature? (A) kinetic energy of the medium (B) volume of the medium (C) density of the medium (D) bulk modulus of the medium

(D) bulk modulus of the medium A is incorrect because they have equal temperatures, so they should have relatively equal kinetic energies B is incorrect because the volume does not affect sound wave velocity C is incorrect because density has an inverse relationship with sound wave velocity. The sound wave velocity will decrease as it travels from air to a liquid D is correct because sound travels fastest in solids and slowest in gases. The equation for sound velocity is v = sqrt(K/p), where K is a coefficient of stiffness termed the bulk modulus and p is the density. So, the speed of sound increases with stiffness of the material, meaning that the stiffer liquid will have a faster sound wave velocity than the less stiff air

· The tendency of a new mother to actively join networks almost exclusively with other young mothers is an example of: (A) implicit bias. (B) confirmation bias. (C) heterophily. (D) homophily.

(D) homophily. Homophily is the tendency of individuals to associate and bond with others similar to themselves.

Studies show that macula communicans are common but not found in tissues such as the gall bladder and skeletal muscle. One possible explanation for this could be that these organs are: (A) not under autonomic nervous control. (B) not involved in digestion of materials. (C) not involved in secretion of materials. (D) not involved in absorption of materials.

(D) not involved in absorption of materials. A is incorrect because the gall bladder is under autonomic control, while skeletal muscle is under somatic control. B is incorrect because the gall bladder is directly involved in secreting bile for digestion, but neither the gall bladder nor skeletal muscle is involved in the absorption of nutrients. C is incorrect because the gall bladder is directly involved in secreting bile for digestion, but neither the gall bladder nor skeletal muscle is involved in the absorption of nutrients. D is correct because the passage states that gap junctions allow for the exchange of ions and fluids. One such reason for their absence would be that the organs in question have no need for absorptive or secretive mechanisms.

What are the oxidation numbers of carbon in (NH2)2CO and CO2?

+4 and +4 Oxygen has an oxidation number of -2 and there are 2 for a total of -4. To offset that the carbon has an oxidation number of +4 Nitrogen has an oxidation number of -3 (2 * -3 = -6). Hydrogen has an oxidation number of +1 (1 * 4 = 4). Oxygen has an oxidation number of -2 -6 + 4 - 2 = -4 To offset that the carbon has an oxidation number of +4

A social psychologist wants to replicate a British study in Peru. To test the generalizability of his findings, he wants to use the same survey in Peru that he used in Great Britain. Interpretation of which of the following questions would require the most cultural sensitivty? --> "Have you every received emergency medical care?" --> "Have you ever sought professional medical care?" --> "Have you ever contemplated suicide?" --> "Have you have suffered from depression?"

--> "Have you have suffered from depression?" Mental health is perceived vastly differently between cultures

According to Mead, the spontaneous and autonomous part of our unified self is the: --> id --> ego --> I --> me

--> I The correct answer is C because the "I" is the spontaneous and autonomous part of the self, according to Mead's theory of identity. The "me" is the part of the self that is formed in interaction with others and with the general social environment. The "id" and "ego" are terms used by Freud, rather than Mead. This is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because it involves concept identification.

Researchers surveyed participants on how frequently they help others in order to study the effect of age on altruistic behavior. Compared to older participants, younger participants reported engaging in altruistic behavior more frequently. Given the research design, which statement is NOT supported? --> Participants' concerns about impression management could influence their survey responses. --> The researchers could determine whether age is directly responsible for altruistic behaviors. --> Variables such as gender and socioeconomic status could affect participants' responses. --> Altruism was operationalized as the participants' responses on the survey.

--> The researchers could determine whether age is directly responsible for altruistic behaviors. The correct answer is B because the study, as described here, assessed only self-reports of altruistic behavior and did not include the controls needed to make conclusions about whether age was causally related to actual altruistic behaviors.

Which statement best explains meritocracy in terms of status? Meritocracy occurs when selections are made based on: --> master status rather than achieved status. --> achieved status rather than ascribed status. --> ascribed status rather than social status. --> social status rather than achieved status.

--> achieved status rather than ascribed status. Status is covered by the content category "Social interactions." Meritocracy is when appointments, selections, and responsibilities are assigned to individuals based on merit - intelligence, skills, credentials, and other similar factors. Merit is thus derived from achievements. The option pairing that best explains meritocracy is B, achieved status over ascribed status. The options that include social status are not specific, since social status refers to honor or prestige but without an assumption of how that status was attained. Finally, master status refers to a particular status that dominates other statuses that a person might hold.

Which statement explains why looking at a dimly lit object with peripheral vision at night results in the clearest image of the object? When one looks to the side of an object: --> two images of the object are sent to the brain, which results in a clearer image. --> its image falls in the periphery of the retina, which is denser in rods. --> its image falls on the fovea, which results in the clearest image. --> a single image of the object is sent to the brain, which results in a clearer image.

--> its image falls in the periphery of the retina, which is denser in rods. The correct answer is B. The periphery of the retina contains a higher density of light sensitive rods, which results in a clearer image in the dark. Option A is correct in stating that two images are sent to the brain of any object that is not focused on, however, this information does not aid clarity. Looking to the side of the object will hinder its image from forming on the fovea. Looking to the side of the object will result in two images (from either retina), not one.

A college student is late for class and is running down the stairs with several textbooks. The student falls, dropping all of the books. The student is most likely to receive help if: --> only one other student was present when the accident occurred. --> the stairway was crowded when the accident occurred. --> the accident occurred at the end of the day. --> the college was in an urban neighborhood.

--> only one other student was present when the accident occurred. The correct answer is A because of the bystander effect, which refers to the observation that an individual who needs assistance will be less likely to be helped (or receive needed help more slowly) as the number of people nearby increases.

Some nonverbal behaviors are interpreted similarly across cultures, while other nonverbal behaviors show cultural variation. People in different cultures are most likely to vary in their interpretations of: --> adults' facial expressions. --> children's facial expressions. --> postures and gestures. --> frowns and smiles.

--> postures and gestures. The correct answer is C because the distractors (A, B, and D) refer to facial expressions, which have been shown to be universally recognized, independent of cultural influences.

An employee is concerned with making a good impression at a new job. Struggling with feelings of being overly challenged by having to learn new office software, he repeatedly calls his computer "dumb" and "stupid." According to psychoanalytic theory, this behavior results from: --> projection --> reaction formation --> regression --> sublimation

--> projection The correct answer is A, projection, as the employee is projecting his own feelings of inadequacy onto his computer.

XO XO XO XO XO XO Perceiving the characters shown as 6 units rather than as 12 individual characters is best explained by the Gestalt principle of: --> similarity. --> proximity --> continuity --> common fate

--> proximity The correct answer is B, the law of proximity, because the characters are seen as sets due to their spatial contiguity with one another.

Although many patients wait up to six weeks for an appointment at a busy clinic, an acquaintance of one of the clinic's physicians is regularly seen with less than a week's notice. This scenario best illustrates the use of: --> social status --> social capital --> cultural capital --> charismatic authority

--> social capital Using one's social networks for gain is an example of social capital; thus, B is the correct answer. The other options are not applicable to the question scenario. Social status (option A) is related to prestige among social groups. Cultural capital (option C) is class-based cultural practices. Finally, charismatic authority (option D) refers to a form of power that rests in the legitimacy of an individual.

Some studies find that the association between discrimination and health is stronger for U.S.-born members of certain ethnic minority groups than it is for immigrant members of the same ethnic minority group. This finding suggests that the possible effect of discrimination on health is most likely related to: --> social segregation in the U.S --> length of residence in the U.S. --> place of residence in the U.S. --> social integration in the U.S.

--> social integration in the U.S. With the question's focus on strength of association between discrimination and health, social integration in the U.S., option D, provides the most likely explanation. U.S.-born members of ethnic minority groups experience the system of stratification in the U.S., and its manifestations across different social institutions, throughout their lives. In contrast, immigrant members of the same ethnic minority group will have less exposure to the U.S. stratification system, and fewer experiences with U.S. social institutions (for example, consider an adult immigrant who did not go through the U.S. educational system as a child). Social segregation is a potentially relevant factor, but option A is incorrect because segregation varies across ethnic minority groups and is not closely tied to nativity status (whether a person is native or foreign born). Length of residence, option B, is superficially related to nativity status, but social integration provides a better explanation of the association between discrimination and health. Finally, place of residence, option C, is not a relevant explanation because the question does not describe geographic differences.

With which of the following statements about stereotypes would an individual who believes in symbolic interactionism most strongly agree? --> stereotypes mean different things to the individuals within the group being stereotypes than to outsiders --> stereotypes serve to solidify what is expected from a member of society --> stereotyping differences causes a constant competition between groups --> stereotypes are jointly-constructed models of groups of people within society

--> stereotypes mean different things to the individuals within the group being stereotypes than to outsiders

A researcher heated a segment of DNA helix containing the five histone genes and only the DNA sequences between those genes were denatured, revealing the location of the histone-coding regions. Which of the following best accounts for this observation? --> Histones protect the DNA helix from denaturation --> packaging of the DNA with histones strengthens base pair bonding --> the genes coding for histones are rich in adenine and thymine, while the DNA sequences between them are rich in guanine and cytosine --> the genes coding for histones are rich in guanine and cytosine, while the DNA sequences between them are rich in adenine and thymine

--> the genes coding for histones are rich in guanine and cytosine, while the DNA sequences between them are rich in adenine and thymine C/G are held together by 3 H bonds, while A/T are held together by 2 H bonds. This means that A/T will denature before C/G do

What is the molecular geometry of CO3 2-? --> tetrahedral --> bent --> trigonal pyramidal --> trigonal planar

--> trigonal planar

What is the frequency of the emitted gamma photons? (Note: Use Planck's constant h = 6.6 x 10-34 Js and the elementary charge e = 1.6 x 10-19 C.) (140-keV)

1.6 * 10-19 J multiply that by 140 000 V and divide by 6.6 x 10-34 Js = 3.38 × 1019 Hz

How many π bonds are in a triple bond?

2

A particular genome is composed of 23% adenine. What percentage of the genome is guanine?

27%

What is the pH of an aqueous solution if the hydrogen ion concentration was 1 × 10^-5 M?

5 -log(1 x 10^-5) = 5

The average human body contains approximately 5 liters of blood. If the blood has a density of 1060 kg/m3, what is the total mass of blood in the average human? (Note: 1 L = 1000 cm3.)

5.30 kg The answer to this question is C because m = ρV = 1060 kg/m3 × 5 L × 1000 cm3/L × 1 m3/106 cm3 = 5.30 kg.

An object with a mass of 0.1 kg absorbs 250 J of heat while changing temperature from 20°C to 25°C. What is the specific heat of the object?

500 J/(kg·°C) 250 J / (0.1 kg·5°C) = 500 J/(kg·°C

What is the work done by the patient during a 3-minute exercise on the bicycle? (P = 30 W)

5400 J P = W / t W = P * t W = 30 W * 180 s = 5400 J

longitudinal study

A longitudinal study is one that permits comparison of identical measures (including with the same group of participants) at two or more points in time.

G542X is another CFTR allele. If a female heterozygous for G542X bears a child fathered by a male heterozygous for the ΔF508 allele, what is the probability that the child would be homozygous for the G542X allele, given that neither parent has CF? A. 0 B. 0.25 C. 0.75 D. 1.00

A. 0 For a child to be homozygous for the G542X allele, both parents need to carry it, but the father doesn't carry it, so it's 0%

A scientist is planning to study the effects of osmotic pressure on membrane transport processes. The scientist wants to create a solution of NaCl that exerts 1 atm of osmotic pressure at 25 deg C. What concentration of NaCl is needed to accomplish this? (Note: the ideal gas constant R = 0.0821 L*atm*mol^-1*K^-1) A. 0.02 M B. 0.04 M C. 0.08 M D. 56 M

A. 0.02 M osmotic pressure = iMRT, where i = number of particles (2 for NaCl) 1 atm = 2M (.0821)298 M = 0.02M

Suppose a defibrillator successfully returns a baby's heart to normal beating. Suppose further that 20 g of blood enters the heart at 25 cm/s and leaves 0.10 s later at 35 cm/s. What is the estimated average force on the 20 g of blood as it moves through the baby's heart? A. 0.020 N B. 0.20 N C. 20 N D. 2000 N

A. 0.020 N a = Δv / t = (.35 - .25) / 0.1 s = 1 F = ma = .02 kg * 1 = .02 N

Two vectors of magnitudes |A| = 8 units and |B| = 5 units make an angle that can vary from 0° to 180°. The magnitude of the resultant vector A + B CANNOT have the value of: A. 2 units. B. 5 units. C. 8 units. D. 12 units.

A. 2 units.

What is the magnitude of the electric field with an electrical discharge of 8 kV over a distance of 4 mm? A. 2.0 × 10^6 V/m B. 4.0 × 10^5 V/m C. 6.0 × 10^4 V/m D. 8.0 × 10^3 V/m

A. 2.0 × 10^6 V/m

What is the kcat for a reaction with a rate of 125 nM/s where the concentration of the enzyme is 5 x 10^-6 M. A. 2.5 x 10^-2 s^-1 B. 1.3 x 10^2 s^-1 C. 5.3 x 10^3 s^-1 D. 7.0 x 10^5 s^-1

A. 2.5 x 10^-2 s^-1 kcat = Vmax / [E] kcat = (125 x 10^-9) / 5 x 10^-6 M = 2.5 x 10^-2 s^-1

If all of Gas X (1 mol) is held in a sealed chamber at STP, what will be its approximate volume? A. 22.4 L B. 44.8 L C. 67.2 L D. 89.6 L

A. 22.4 L

The association constant, Ka, of Epithelial Growth Factor Receptor (EGFR) binding to Epithelial Growth Factor (EGF) is 5.61 x 106. What is the Keq of EGFR + EGF → EGFR-EGF? A. 5.61 x 10^6 B. 1.78 x 10^-7 C. 1.12 x 10^7 D. 8.42 x 10^-6

A. 5.61 x 10^6 Ka, like many other K values, is an equilibrium constant. Hence, the association constant for the given equation is exactly the same as the equilibrium constant of the equation as written. Ka = Keq = [EGFR-EGF]/[EGFR][EGF].

That participants in Brazil might have interpreted the classifications of "Black" and "White" to be a reflection of social class, rather than race, represents what type of critique of the methodology? A. A critique of the construct validity B. A critique of the external validity C. A critique of the criterion validity D. A critique of the randomization

A. A critique of the construct validity The study purports to examine how social class influences perception of race. However, if the categories of "Black" and "White" are viewed by participants as being categories of social class rather than race, then they are not reflecting what the researchers intend to measure (participants' views of race). This is a problem with construct validity, or the manner in which the terms of the study are defined.

How long is the third-longest resonant standing wave formed inside the auditory canal? A. About 80% of the length of the canal B. About 60% of the length of the canal C. About 45% of the length of the canal D. About 40% of the length of the canal

A. About 80% of the length of the canal wavelength = 4L/ n The auditory canal is considered a pipe with one end closed, so only odd harmonies exist. The third longest wavelength is the 5th, so wavelength = 4L/ 5 = 80%

Which of the following lists a pair of physiological changes that would both be likely to increase the rate of pyruvate formation in glycolysis? A. An increase in fructose 6-phosphate levels and an increase in glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate B. An increase in glucose 6-phosphate levels and an increase in acetyl coenzyme A levels C. A decrease in ATP levels and an increase in citrate levels D. A decrease in ATP levels and a decrease in glucose 6-phosphate levels

A. An increase in fructose 6-phosphate levels and an increase in glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate

Epilepsy may result in motor seizures due to massive synchronous firing of neurons in a small area of the cerebral cortex (the epileptic focus). Excitation spreads from the focus, involving an increasingly larger area of the cortex. A drug for the treatment of epilepsy would be most effective if it caused which of the following changes in the epileptic focus? A. An increase in the neuron-firing threshold B. An increase in extracellular Na+ concentration C. A decrease in axon-membrane permeability to negative ions D. A decrease in the length of the depolarization stage

A. An increase in the neuron-firing threshold increasing the threshold required to generate an action potential would decrease the chance than individual neurons would fire, thus reducing the overall amount of excitation that spreads from the epileptic focus throughout the cortex

The class of medications described in the passage (analgesics) are similar to endogenous hormones produced in what endocrine gland? A. Anterior pituitary B. Posterior pituitary C. Adrenal cortex D. Adrenal medulla

A. Anterior pituitary Opioid analgesics mimic the effect of a group of hormones called endorphins, which naturally inhibit pain by blocking the release of certain neurotransmitters at nociceptors. Endorphins are produced in the anterior pituitary gland, along with other hormones such as luteinizing hormone (LH), follicle stimulating hormone (FSH), and growth hormone (GH).

Which of the following statements about human-pet interactions best reflects the Schachter-Singer theory of emotion? A. As Julia pets her cat, her blood pressure decreases and her brain releases oxytocin. She then thinks of how much she loves her cat, and experiences happiness as a result. B. Timothy's dog runs out of the house without his collar or leash. Timothy's heart rate increases and he shouts for the dog to come home. His body's cues and behavior lead him to understand that he is in a scary situation, and he feels afraid. C. Annabel is holding her guinea pig on the couch and scratching its ears. As she does this, her brain releases hormones associated with reward. At the same time, she interprets the situation as happy and calm. She then smiles. D. Luke is training for a marathon and runs with his dog, Max. He feels moderately happy and excited while he runs with Max, and records his best time yet.

A. As Julia pets her cat, her blood pressure decreases and her brain releases oxytocin. She then thinks of how much she loves her cat, and experiences happiness as a result. The Schachter-Singer theory states that emotion processing has three distinct steps: physiological arousal, cognitive interpretation of the situation, and the experience of the emotion, in that order. Julia pets her cat, which leads to physiological changes in her brain. She then thinks about her love for the cat and feels an emotion — happiness.

A psychologist assessing the willingness of subjects to spend a full weekend volunteering to clean up a local park decides to measure the effect of the foot-in-the-door technique. Which of the following would be a way to use this technique? A. Ask subjects to first sign a petition in favor of cleaning up the park B. Tell the subjects that their next-door neighbor has already agreed to volunteer to clean up the park C. Ask the subjects to recall the last time they personally made use of the park D. Remind the subjects that as members of the community, one of their civic duties is helping to maintain public spaces

A. Ask subjects to first sign a petition in favor of cleaning up the park

Which experiment can be used to investigate the transcriptional regulation of the Cdkn1a protein? A. Assessing Cdkn1a mRNA levels by RT-PCR B. Assessing Cdkn1a mRNA levels by Southern blotting C. Assessing Cdkn1a protein levels by quantitative PCR D. Assessing Cdkn1a protein levels by Western blotting

A. Assessing Cdkn1a mRNA levels by RT-PCR As the question is focused on the transcriptional regulation, it is logical to assess the mRNA levels as opposed to protein levels. RT-PCR is a molecular technique that measures mRNA levels of specific protein. B is wrong because Southern blot is a technique that analyzes genomic DNA and cannot be used to measure the transcriptional regulation of a gene. C is wrong because quantitative PCR is a technique that measures the levels of DNA, not mRNA, and cannot be used to measure the transcriptional regulation of a gene. D is wrong because Western blot is a technique that measures the translational levels of a protein, not the transcriptional regulation of a gene.

Which statement does NOT identify an aspect of the concept of assimilation? A. Assimilation is the influence that cultural changes have on an individual's health B. Assimilation is the process of cultural adaptation that results from geographic mobility C. Assimilation occurs when individuals adopt the cultural norms of a dominant culture D. Assimilation occurs when individuals relinquish the cultural norms of their childhood

A. Assimilation is the influence that cultural changes have on an individual's health

In humans, the characteristic tissue of which of the following organs is NOT derived from mesoderm? A. Brain B. Heart C. Kidney D. Skeletal muscle

A. Brain

Lathyrism is known to target and degrade collagen in the lower limbs. Which pair of amino acids would best provide disulfide links to stabilize the folded form of collagen? A. C and C B. M and M C. M and C D. S and S

A. C and C Disulfide linkages only form between the side chains of cysteine (C) residues.

Which single bond is most likely the shortest? A. C-H B. C-O C. C-C D. O-N

A. C-H

Which saturated fatty acid is the most soluble in water? A. CH3(CH2)10COOH B. CH3(CH2)12COOH C. CH3(CH2)14COOH D. CH3(CH2)16COOH

A. CH3(CH2)10COOH

Which type of social influence do medical students experience when they engage in behavior that they privately feel is unacceptable and unethical, but that is considered normative in medical school? A. Conformity B. Obedience C. Self-fulfilling prophecy D. Informational social influence

A. Conformity

After using the Sanger (chain-termination) method for DNA sequencing, a researcher utilizes gel electrophoresis and obtains a single dark band. Which of the following sources of error is most likely? A. Dideoxynucleotides were omitted from the reaction mixture B. The DNA was denatured into single strands using heat C. Deoxynucleotides were present in excess D. The primer annealed to the template strand in numerous places

A. Dideoxynucleotides were omitted from the reaction mixture

Which of the following best explains why gastric pH must be precisely controlled? A. Gastric enzymes are most active at a low pH B. High gastric pH stimulates the release of pancreatic secretions C. Low intracellular pH is necessary for proper parietal cell function D. Gastric juices create the optimal environment for nutrient absorption in the large intestine

A. Gastric enzymes are most active at a low pH

The glass escalator concept predicts that a male employee's progression in a female-dominated industry is most likely to follow which pattern? A. He will be promoted to supervisory roles more quickly than his female counterparts. B. He will lack needed experience for promotion because of gender segregation in tasks. C. He will face more extensive role conflict with supervisors than his female counterparts. D. He will challenge gender norms in the industry and thus be passed over for promotions.

A. He will be promoted to supervisory roles more quickly than his female counterparts. The sociological concept of the "glass escalator" suggests that men who pursue occupations that have high proportions of women (such as teaching or nursing) will quickly ascend the career ladder with promotions. As indicated in this option, the glass escalator concept would predict that men are likely to be granted supervisory roles.

A scientist uses thin-layer chromatography on silica plates to separate a mixture of phenylalanine and tyrosine. Does phenylalanine have a higher or lower Rf than tyrosine? A. Higher because tyrosine is more polar than phenylalanine B. Higher because phenylalanine is more polar than tyrosine C. Lower because tyrosine is less polar than phenylalanine D. Lower because phenylalanine is less polar than tyrosine

A. Higher because tyrosine is more polar than phenylalanine

Which of the following is most likely NOT a symptom of acylcarnitine translocase deficiency? A. Hyperglycemia B. Muscle weakness C. Liver damage D. High ammonia levels in blood

A. Hyperglycemia

Which of the following statistics would give us information about new cases of multiple sclerosis in a community over the past year? A. Incidence B. Risk ratio C. Prevalence D. Mortality

A. Incidence Incidence describes the number of new cases of a disease (in this case, multiple sclerosis) during a specific time interval (a year).

Which of the following are products of the decay of I-131, an isotope with a half-life of 8 days that undergoes β-minus decay followed by gamma emission? A. Ionizing radiation, Xe-131, and an electron B. Ionizing radiation, Te-131, and an electron C. Non-ionizing radiation, Xe-131, and a positron D. Non-ionizing radiation, Te-131, and a positron

A. Ionizing radiation, Xe-131, and an electron Gamma rays represent ionizing radiation. In β-minus decay, a neutron is converted to a proton as an electron is emitted. Therefore, iodine must be converted to an element with one additional proton, which can only be Xe.

Which of the following best expresses the algebraic relationship between molar solubility, x, of Ca3(PO4)2 and its solubility product constant Ksp? A. Ksp = 108 x^5 B. Ksp = 72 x^5 C. Ksp = 32 x^5 D. Ksp = 81 x^5

A. Ksp = 108 x^5 Dissociate the compound to have 3x moles of calcium and 2x moles of PO4 Ksp = [Ca]^3 [PO4]^2 = (3x)^3 (2x)^2 = (27 x^3) (4 x^2) = 108 x^5

L-DOPA is a common medication administered to treat the symptoms of Parkinson's disease. What is the likely mechanism of L-DOPA? A. L-DOPA increases dopamine concentration. B. L-DOPA decreases dopamine concentration. C. L-DOPA breaks down the blood-brain barrier. D. L-DOPA coverts glucose to dopamine.

A. L-DOPA increases dopamine concentration. L-DOPA is the precursor to the neurotransmitters dopamine, norepinephrine (noradrenaline), and epinephrine (adrenaline), collectively known as the catecholamines. L-DOPA is used to increase dopamine concentrations in the treatment of Parkinson's disease.

Auditory hair cells are what type of receptors? A. Mechanoreceptors B. Proprioceptors C. Chemoreceptors D. Osmoreceptors

A. Mechanoreceptors

In which direction does the Na+K+ ATPase transport ions across the cell membrane upon ATP hydrolysis? A. Na+ is transported out of the cell; K+ is transported into the cell B. Na+ is transported into the cell; K+ is transported out of the cell C. Both Na+ and K+ are transported into the cell D. Both Na+ and K+ are transported out of the cell

A. Na+ is transported out of the cell; K+ is transported into the cell

Like other retroviruses, HIV contains reverse transcriptase, an enzyme that converts the viral genome from: A. RNA to DNA. B. DNA to RNA. C. RNA to protein. D. protein to RNA.

A. RNA to DNA.

A diet soda is analyzed with high-pressure liquid chromatography, and saccharine is determined to be the first compound to reach the detector. Which of the following explains why saccharine reached the detector first? A. Saccharine is the component of the diet soda that has the lowest affinity for the stationary phase being used B. Saccharine is the component of the diet soda that has the highest affinity for the stationary phase being used C. Saccharine is the component of the diet soda that has the lowest molecular weight D. Saccharine is the component of the diet soda that has the greatest positive charge

A. Saccharine is the component of the diet soda that has the lowest affinity for the stationary phase being used

Which of the following would be most representative of the Symbolic Interactionist perspective on segregation in education? A. Segregation enforces labels upon individuals, making them less likely to fulfill their potential beyond those labels B. Educational segregation was designed to maintain disparities in power between the upper and lower classes in a society C. Segregation is detrimental to the social and cultural integration of groups that are kept separate from one another D. Educational segregation harms individuals because it is adaptive for some groups in a society and maladaptive for others

A. Segregation enforces labels upon individuals, making them less likely to fulfill their potential beyond those labels Symbolic interactionists seek to study the effects of social constructs on individuals how those constructs affect the roles individuals take in society B and C represent conflict theory D represents the functionalist perspective

Which hypothetical result from the online questionnaire would provide evidence of the fundamental attribution error? A. Some participants rank personality factors above environmental factors B. Some participants rank genetic factors above personality factors C. Some participants rank environmental factors over both personality and genetic factors D. Some participants rank genetic factors over both personality and environmental factors

A. Some participants rank personality factors above environmental factors fundamental attribution error refers to stressing the important of dispositional factors in one's explanations of other people's behavior and underemphasizing situational factors

Which statement best explains autonomous motivation? A. The desire to reach one's goals creates a drive that individuals are motivated to fulfill. B. Living a life consistent with one's values is socially reinforced. C. Individuals are motivated to perform behaviors that result in appetitive internal states. D. Individuals are reinforced to perform behaviors that are associated with progress.

A. The desire to reach one's goals creates a drive that individuals are motivated to fulfill. The passage describes autonomous motivation as a drive. Individuals are motivated to initiate behaviors that are consistent with their values.

In an experiment to determine the efficiency of a new assistive device for senior, a kinesiologist sets up an experiment with several weights and pulleys. When he calibrates the scale it registers each weight as three kilograms greater than is actually is. What impact does this have on the experiment? A. The efficiency will be most skewed for the smallest weights B. The efficiency will be most skewed equally for all weights C. The efficiency will be least skewed for the smallest weights D. The constant difference will not skew the efficiency measures

A. The efficiency will be most skewed for the smallest weights efficiency = (load x load distance) / (effort x effort distance). If the load (weight) are high, but the effort was measured correctly, then the calculations would be off, which eliminates D. Error in efficiency is directly proportional to error in load. The error in load = absolute error / actual load, so as actual load decreases, the percent error increases, which makes A correct

What effect will the addition of a fluorine substituent have on carbocation stability? A. The fluorine group will be destabilizing because it is highly electronegative. B. The fluorine group will be stabilizing because it is highly electronegative. C. The fluorine group will be destabilizing because it has additional lone pair electrons. D. The fluorine group will be stabilizing because it has additional lone pair electrons.

A. The fluorine group will be destabilizing because it is highly electronegative.

Researchers have bred a line of "knockout mice" where the function of a single gene has been made inoperative. They discover that the test subjects are missing 6 different proteins that are found in wild type mice. What might account for this difference? A. The primary transcript that is normally derived from the "knockout gene" can be processed six different way by nuclear spliceosomes B. The polypeptide that is derived from the "knockout" gene can take on six different tertiary structures affecting its functionality C. Degeneracy within the genetic code allows a single codon to translate multiple amino acids yielding six different proteins from the "knockout" gene D. Multiple different start codons within the single "knockout" gene allow for the processing of six different primary trancsripts

A. The primary transcript that is normally derived from the "knockout gene" can be processed six different way by nuclear spliceosomes

Which of the following statements is true regarding peptide bonds found in the CK subunits analyzed? A. They possess partial double bond character. B. They are ionized at physiological pH. C. They occur most commonly in the cis configuration. D. They are cleaved by high urea concentrations.

A. They possess partial double bond character.

Participants ages 3-7 months are in which stage of Erikson's psychosocial development? A. Trust vs. mistrust B. competence vs. inferiority C. autonomy vs. shame and doubt D. initiative vs. guilt

A. Trust vs. mistrust

Which statement describes ATP consumption and production during the preparatory and payoff phases of glycolysis, respectively? A. Two ATP molecules consumed, four ATP molecules produced B. Four ATP molecules consumed, eight ATP molecules produced C. Four ATP molecules consumed, two ATP molecules produced D. Eight ATP molecules consumed, four ATP molecules produced

A. Two ATP molecules consumed, four ATP molecules produced

A man with type AB blood marries a woman with type O blood. Which of the following are blood types that their children might inherit? A. Type A and type B B. Type O and type AB C. Type B and type O D. Type A and type AB

A. Type A and type B

Of the events listed, which occurs first during action potential generation? A. Voltage-gated sodium channels open at the axon hillock. B. Hyperpolarization stimulates the opening of ligand-gated potassium channels. C. Graded potentials propagate along the axon. D. Calcium influx stimulates vesicle fusion and release of neurotransmitter.

A. Voltage-gated sodium channels open at the axon hillock.

What is the best experimental method to analyze the effect of tdh2 gene deletion on the rate of histone acetylation? Comparing histone acetylation in wild-type and ∆tdh2 cells by: A. Western blot B. Southern blot C. Northern blot D. RT-PCR

A. Western blot posttranslational modification of proteins such as histone acetylation is analyzed by Western blotting

A private school sets up a system by which students may advance to the next grade solely on the basis of their individual performance on an exam. Given the wide variety of talents each student has, some students are able to advance to the next grade months or even years before other students. This system is: A. a meritocracy. B. an oligarchy. C. guaranteed to generate student failure. D. an example of spatial discrimination.

A. a meritocracy. Meritocracy is a system under which individuals are rewarded on the basis of individual skill, talent, or achievement. The testing system the school has set up rewards students for success on this test, thus creating a meritocracy.

Gamma decay occurs when a nucleus emits: A. a photon B. a proton C. a neutron D. an electron

A. a photon

Which of the following individuals is most likely to be diagnosed with major depressive disorder? A. an individual who experiences suicidal thoughts and depressed mood for 3 months B. an individual who suffers from depressed mood for 21 months C. an individuals who experiences severely depressed mood during the same period every year for 13 years D. an individual who cycles between hypomanic and cyclothymic episodes without medication

A. an individual who experiences suicidal thoughts and depressed mood for 3 months major depressive disorder requires the presence of a certain subset of symptoms (depressed mood and suicidal thoughts) over a period of at least 2 weeks

Which of the following best exemplifies a primary circular reaction during the sensorimotor stage of development? A. an infant repeatedly vocalizing the same syllable B. an infant repeatedly banging their fist against a wall C. an infant understanding that a toy which is taken out of their view continue to exist D. an infant considering a person to "disappear" during a game when they hide their face

A. an infant repeatedly vocalizing the same syllable

The process of culturing bacteria often involves inoculation of cells on a noncellular, agar-based medium. Such a methodology would NOT result in growth of animal viruses because animal viruses: A. are obligate parasites. B. lack DNA. C. assimilate carbon. D. require essential vitamin supplements for growth.

A. are obligate parasites.

Protein secondary structure is characterized by the pattern of hydrogen bonds between: A. backbone amide protons and carbonyl oxygens B. backbone amide protons and side-chain carbonyl oxygens C. side-chain hydroxyl groups and backbone carbonyl oxygens D. side-chain amide protons and backbone carbonyl oxygens

A. backbone amide protons and carbonyl oxygens

A female patient in a mental health facility presents with a history of risky sexual behavior and self-cutting . During treatment, she seeks constant attention from staff and becomes irritable when ignored. The most likely diagnosis for this patient is: A. borderline personality disorder B. manic-depressive disorder C. schizotypal personality disorder D. major depressive disorder

A. borderline personality disorder

An individual with a generally negative attitude toward welfare recipients thinks that welfare recipients are incompetent in general. What aspect of her attitude does this information convey? A. cognitive B. affective C. behavioral D. emotional

A. cognitive

Belief perseverance is a type of: A. cognitive bias B. heuristic C. problem solving D. decision making

A. cognitive bias

Vasopressin regulates the insertion of aquaporins into the apical membranes of the epithelial cells of which renal structure? A. collecting duct B. proximal tubule C. Bowman's capsule D. ascending loop of Henle

A. collecting duct

Which effect is LEAST likely to occur with the process of gentrification? A. development of affordable housing B. increased neighborhood stratification C. displacement of lower income residents D. expanded tax base for local government

A. development of affordable housing

A patient with renal failure has nephrons which lack the ability to actively secrete or reabsorb an substances. Which of the following actions will the patient's kidney most likely still be able to perform? A. excretion of salt in urine B. production of hypertonic urine C. regulation of blood osmolality D. conservation of glucose

A. excretion of salt in urine

The index of refraction of the vitreous humor is greater than the index of refraction of the aqueous humor, which is greater than the index of refraction or air. How does the speed of light in each of these media compare? A. fastest in air, slower in aqueous humor, slowest in vitreous humor B. fastest in vitreous humor, slower in aqueous humor, slowest in air C. fastest in aqueous humor, slower in air, slowest in vitreous humor D. Depends on the index of refraction of the lenses that separate the media

A. fastest in air, slower in aqueous humor, slowest in vitreous humor

A therapeutic patient suffering from depression is noted to have a pessimistic explanatory style. Which of the following would be most representative of a cognitive therapy for this particular patient? A. helping the patient to understand that his negative experiences are not always his own fault B. using a token economy to help the patient replace negative coping responses with positive ones C. helping the patient to uncover the unconscious roots of his pessimism D. allowing the patient to share negative experiences and express his feelings in a safe environment

A. helping the patient to understand that his negative experiences are not always his own fault

The transcription factor AP-1 is a heterodimer consisting of c-jun and c-fos. C-jun and c-fos are soluble proteins that can be localized to either the cytosol or nucleus of a cell. C-jun and c-fos dimerize through a leucine zipper motif. In a leucine zipper motif, every 7 amino acid residues, or 2 full turns of an alpha helix, are leucine resides. Leucine and other amino acids on one face of the helix come together to form an opposite alpha helix that has a similar arrangement of leucine and other amino acids. Which solvent would be LEAST favorable for c-fos/c-jun dimerization? A. hexane B. ethanol C. water D. phosphate-buffered saline

A. hexane

In the absence of gravity, liquid water forms spherical globules due to surface tension. Which of the following best accounts for this phenomenon? A. hydrogen bonding B. dispersion (London) forces C. gravitational forces D. nuclear forces

A. hydrogen bonding

Adding salt to water causes the boiling point of the water to: A. increase, requiring a greater average kinetic energy of the liquid to produce a vapor pressure equal to the external pressure. B. increase, requiring a greater average kinetic energy of the liquid to produce a vapor pressure that is greater than the external pressure. C. decrease, requiring a lower average kinetic energy of the liquid to produce a vapor pressure equal to the external pressure. D. decrease, requiring a lower average kinetic energy of the liquid to produce a vapor pressure that is less than the external pressure.

A. increase, requiring a greater average kinetic energy of the liquid to produce a vapor pressure equal to the external pressure. As stated in the passage, adding salt reduces the vapor pressure of the liquid. Specifically, as the solute concentration is increased, the rate at which water molecules can break through the liquid surface decreases. Remember that boiling point is defined as the temperature at which the vapor pressure of a solution is equal to the atmospheric pressure. Adding solute to water raises the boiling point and lowers the melting point. Be sure to familiarize yourself with these colligative properties.

Laws passed to introduce specific penalties for cyberbullying and online harassment can be described as attempts to transform: A. informal norms into formal norms. B. folkways into mores. C. mores into informal norms. D. folkways into formal norms.

A. informal norms into formal norms. Even without specific laws forbidding them, cyberbullying and online harassment are behaviors that are not favored by society. The passage provides evidence for this by confirming that most internet users condemn these behaviors. In the absence of specific legal penalties, norms against such behaviors are informal. Since formal norms are those that are encoded by law, legislation introducing specific legal penalties for these behaviors can be conceptualized as converting informal norms into formal norms.

Which statement best explains how the concept of external motivation (used by self-determination theory) is different from extrinsic motivation? Compared to external motivation, extrinsic motivation: A. is a broader term that includes external motivation. B. is a narrower term that refers to external reinforcers. C. excludes social punishers and reinforcers. D. excludes internal states that direct behavior.

A. is a broader term that includes external motivation. Extrinsic motivation refers to any motivation that results from incentives to perform a behavior that are not inherent to the behavior itself. External motivation is described as social pressure, which is an example of extrinsic motivation.

Oxygen is extremely reactive, and not found in any significant quantity on Earth's surface, because: A. it is a free radical B. it has a low effective nuclear charge C. it is a gas in its standard state D. it has eight valence electrons

A. it is a free radical Oxygen has 6 valence electrons and 2 are unpaired. The unpaired electrons are free radicals

Which measurement unit CANNOT be used to express power? A. kg*m^2*s^2 B. J*s^-1 C. ft*lb*s^-1 D. W

A. kg*m^2*s^2

During exercise, the osmolarity of venous blood from active muscles will increase as a result of an increase in: A. lactate concentration in plasma. B. O2 concentration in plasma. C. oxyhemoglobin concentration in red blood cells. D. blood pressure in systemic arteries.

A. lactate concentration in plasma. During exercise, muscles produce lactate that goes into circulation. The presence of lactate will increase the osmolarity of the venous blood.

Which of the following is LEAST likely to be a symptom of diabetes mellitus? A. loss of appetite B. sweet-tasting urine C. unexplained weight loss D. feelings of fatigue

A. loss of appetite

compared to the intensity of sound waves at the tympanic membrane, the intensity felt by the fluid that induces depolarization of stereovilli is: A. magnified because of decreased area B. reduced because the system is conservative C. magnified because inner-ear fluid is viscous D. reduce because of the phase change

A. magnified because of decreased area

Four organic compounds: 2-butanone, n-pentane, propanoic acid, and n-butanol, present as a mixture, are separated by column chromatography using silica gel with benzene as the eluent. What is the expected order of elution of these four organic compounds from first to last? A. n-pentane --> 2-butanone --> n-butanol --> propanoic acid B. n-pentane --> n-butanol --> 2-butanone --> propanoic acid C. propanoic acid --> n-butanol --> 2-butanone --> n-pentane D. propanoic acid --> 2-butanone --> n-butanol --> n-pentane

A. n-pentane --> 2-butanone --> n-butanol --> propanoic acid alcohols are more polar than ketones

Which experimental procedure would establish that psychopathic individuals differ from controls only in avoidance learning but perform similarly to controls in other types of operant conditioning? Comparing the psychopathic individuals and the controls: A. on a word-learning task in which they receive a monetary reward every time they provide the correct response B. on a task that requires watching a model perform a series of physical actions and repeating them in the correct order C. in a procedure in which the participants are presented with a light followed by a drop of lemon juice in their mouths which elicits salivation D. in a procedure in which the participants are presented with a word list and tested on their recall two days later

A. on a word-learning task in which they receive a monetary reward every time they provide the correct response It describes an operant conditioning paradigm in which participants learn the response that is reinforced.

Which of the following organs is involved in neutralizing gastric acidity? A. pancreas B. large intestine C. stomach D. liver

A. pancreas

The initial filtration step in the glomerulus of the mammalian kidney occurs primarily by: A. passive flow due to a pressure difference B. passive flow resulting from a countercurrent exchange system C. active transport of water, followed by movement of electrolytes along a resulting concentration gradient D. active transport of electrolytes, followed by passive flow of water along the resulting osmolarity gradient

A. passive flow due to a pressure difference

Which amino acid is most similar to tryptophan? A. phenylalanine B. lysine C. arginine D. glutamate

A. phenylalanine

Boiling chips and vacuum distillation, respectively, are used in distillations to: A. provide nucleation sites that give the liquid a place to start forming bubbles to prevent superheating; lower the boiling points of the substances to be distilled. B. lower the boiling points of the substances to be distilled; work synergistically with the vacuum system to further lower the boiling points. C. lower the boiling points of the substances to be distilled; provide nucleation sites that give the liquid a place to start forming bubbles to prevent superheating. D. provide nucleation sites that give the liquid a place to start forming bubbles to prevent superheating; speed up the distillation process by vacuuming the first distillate out of the apparatus.

A. provide nucleation sites that give the liquid a place to start forming bubbles to prevent superheating; lower the boiling points of the substances to be distilled.

Research suggests that people from individualist cultures (i.e., cultures that have personal goals and independence) tend to overestimate the role their own capabilities and effort played in their success more than people from collectivist cultures (i.e., cultures that value conformity and interdependence). What term explains this phenomenon? A. self-serving bias B. defensive attribution C. fundamental attribution error D. learned helplessness

A. self-serving bias

If the smoke alarm in a busy kitchen goes off regularly during normal cooking and those outside the kitchen but within earshot of the alarm typically do not react or otherwise seem to notice, this reaction can be categorized as a shift in: A. signal detection B. parallel processing C. sensory pathways D. auditory processing

A. signal detection

According to the paradigm of symbolic interactionism, individuals develop a sense of identity primarily through: A. social relationships. B. reflective contemplation. C. cultural assimilation. D. group therapy.

A. social relationships. Symbolic interactionism posits that individuals develop a sense of self, or identity, through the interactions and relationships that they have with others. The theory suggests that social relationships are fundamental for individuals to develop a sense of who they are.

Which of the following correctly describes the orbital hybridization of XeF4 and NH3, respectively? A. sp3d2, sp3 B. sp3, sp3 C. sp3, sp2 D. sp3d2, sp2

A. sp3d2, sp3

Stimulation of the iris dilator muscle is a result of activation of: A. sympathetic motor neurons. B. parasympathetic motor neurons. C. the fifth cranial nerve. D. sympathetic sensory neurons.

A. sympathetic motor neurons. Dilation of the pupils is a classic fight-or-flight response. The fight-or-flight response is part of the sympathetic nervous system.

Based on the information regarding the differences between psychopathic individuals and controls when anticipating aversive events and viewing fear-inducing pictures, it is likely that the two groups differ in: A. sympathetic nervous system arousal. B. somatic nervous system arousal. C. parietal cortex activation. D. occipital cortex activation.

A. sympathetic nervous system arousal. Increased skin conductivity, both when anticipating an aversive event and in the startle response when viewing fear-inducing images, is controlled by the sympathetic nervous system.

Ethanol may be metabolized to acetic acid, then condensed with a coenzyme to form acetyl coenzyme A. Acetyl coenzyme A may then participate in: A. the Krebs (citric acid) cycle. B. glycolysis. C. electron transport. D. oxidative phosphorylation.

A. the Krebs (citric acid) cycle.

Sucrose does NOT produce a positive test when treated with Benedict's solution because: A. the carbonyl functionalities of both subunits are involved in the formation of a glycosidic linkage B. in undergoes mutarotation C. the molecule is not orientated correctly for a reaction to occur D. disaccharides do not possess free hemiacetal or hemiketal groups

A. the carbonyl functionalities of both subunits are involved in the formation of a glycosidic linkage

The aging of the U.S. population is most likely to increase: A. the dependency ratio B. the social gradient in health C. the life course perspective D. the intersectionality of medicine

A. the dependency ratio

Why was it important that the cuvettes containing the glucose oxidase and the blood sample were identical in terms of optical properties? A. to enable the comparison of the absorption spectra B. to reduce the absorption in the glass walls C. to decrease the uncertainty in the wavelength D. to increase the absorption in the solutions

A. to enable the comparison of the absorption spectra B is wrong because identical glass walls do not necessarily reduce absorption C is wrong because while the glass walls have the same optical properties, this does not decrease the uncertainty is related only to photon properties D is wrong because solution absorption is independent of the optical properties of the glass walls of the cuvettes

A participant in the group that consumed >=3 drinks believed that the encounter with his acquaintance was mutually pleasant. However, the acquaintance found the meeting quite unpleasant. It's likely that the participant had which of the following impaired by alcohol? A. working memory B. sensory memory C. implicit memory D. iconic memory

A. working memory

If adults performed the block tapping task as a measure of working memory capacity, they would most likely replicate sequences of what length correctly? A) 9 plus or minus 1 B) 7 plus or minus 2 C) 10 plus or minus 1 D) 16 plus or minus 2

B) 7 plus or minus 2

Often utilized when studying communicable diseases, which type of analysis maps the series of relationships among a set of individuals? A) Social support analysis B) Social network analysis C) Social stratification analysis D) Social reproduction analysis

B) Social network analysis

Each of the following equations shows the dissociation of an acid in water. Which of the reactions occurs to the LEAST extent? A. HCl + H2O --> H3O+ + Cl- B. (HPO4)2- + H2O --> H3O+ + (PO4)3- C. H2SO4 + H2O --> H3O+ + HSO4- D. H3PO4 + H2O --> H3O+ + (H2PO4)-

B. (HPO4)2- + H2O --> H3O+ + (PO4)3- (HPO4)2- has a high negative charge and so dissociation of it will occur to the least extent

Consider the net reaction leading to formation of fructose 6-phosphate from glucose and ATP. ΔG° for the reaction equals: A. +3.96 kcal/mol, and Keq for the reaction is greater than 1. B. -3.60 kcal/mol, and Keq for the reaction is greater than 1. C. -3.60 kcal/mol, and Keq for the reaction is less than 1. D. +3.96 kcal/mol, and Keq for the reaction is less than 1.

B. -3.60 kcal/mol, and Keq for the reaction is greater than 1. The ΔG° for the formation of fructose 6-phosphate from glucose 6-phosphate and ATP is equal to -3,600 cal/mol. This is the sum of the ΔG° for the formation of glucose 6-phosphate and ADP from glucose and ATP (-4,000 cal/mol) and the ΔG° for the reaction to which it is coupled, the formation of fructose 6-phosphate from glucose 6-phosphate (+400 cal/mol). -3,600 cal/mol can be easily converted to -3.60 kcal/mol. ΔG° < 0 for a given reaction indicates that reaction is spontaneous under standard conditions, and that at equilibrium, the products of the reaction predominate over the reactants. This is indicated by Keq > 1 and can be clearly seen in the relationship between ΔG and Keq: ΔG = -ln Keq where Keq > 1 returns a value of ΔG < 0, and Keq < 1 returns a value of ΔG > 0. Here, then, since ΔG is less than 0, Keq for the reaction is greater than 1.

At physiological pH, what is the net charge of NDAFEITKRC? A. -1 B. 0 C. +1 D. +2

B. 0 At physiological pH, the nuclear localization sequence of MYOD1 (NDAFEITKRC) contains three positively charged amino acids (K, R, and the N-terminal amino acid) and three negatively charged amino acids (D, E, and the C-terminal amino acid). Therefore, the net charge of this sequence at physiological pH is zero

NH3 acts as a weak base in water with Kb = 1.76 × 10^-5 at 25°C. The corresponding equilibrium is shown below. NH3(aq) + H2O(l) ⇌ NH4+(aq) + OH-(aq) At 25°C, the equilibrium concentration of the NH4+ ion in a 10 M aqueous solution of NH3 would be closest to which of the following? A. 0.001 M B. 0.01 M C. 0.1 M D. 1 M

B. 0.01 M Kb = 1.76 × 10-5 = [NH4+][OH-] / [NH3] 1.76 × 10-5 = x^2/10 1.76 x 10^-4 = x^2 x = 1.32 x 10^-2, which is close to 0.01

What is the approximate molarity of sodium chloride in ocean water, if the density of ocean water is 1.028 kg/L and if ocean water is 3.5% salt? A.0.026 M B. 0.62 M C. 0.96 M D. 9.6 M

B. 0.62 M 1 L of ocean water has a mass of 1028 g, of which 3.5% is salt. Note that the molar mass of NaCl is approximately 58 g. (1028 g)(0.035) = 36 g NaCl (36 g NaCl) / (58 g NaCl/mol) = 0.62 moles 0.62 moles / 1 L = 0.62 M

Knowing that the speed of light in the vitreous humor is 2.1 x 10^8 m/s, what is the index of refraction of the vitreous humor? (Note: The speed of light in a vacuum is 3.0 x 10^8 m/s.) A .0.7 B. 1.4 C. 2.1 D. 3.0

B. 1.4 n = c / v = 1.4

An object is at a distance of 3 focal lengths from the center of a convex lens. What is the ratio of the height of the image to the height of the object? A. 1/3 B. 1/2 C. 2/3 D. 3/2

B. 1/2 the ratio of the image height to the object height is equal to the ratio of the lens-image distance to the object-lens distance 3F * 1F/(3F-1F) 3/2F / 3F = 1/2

What is the approximate energy of a photon in the absorbed radiation with a wavelength of 625 nm? (Note: 1 eV = 1.6 x 10^-19 J and hc = 19.8 x 10^-26 J*m). A. 1 eV B. 2 eV C. 3 eV D. 4 eV

B. 2 eV E = hc/λ E = (19.8 x 10^-26 J*m) / (625 x 10^-9) E = 3.1 x 10^-19 J / 1.6 x 10^-19 = 1.9 eV = 2 eV

Out of the following, which compound relates to the first peak observed if a solution is injected into a gas-liquid chromatograph? A. 2-methyl-2-butanol B. 2-methyl-2-butene C. 2-chloro-2-methylbutane D. 2-bromo-2-methylbutane

B. 2-methyl-2-butene This compound has the lowest molecular weight and weakest intermolecular forces of attraction, so it will migrate the fastest

A mass of 10 kg is dropped from a height of 20 m. Ignoring air resistance, what is the maximum speed achieved by the mass? (assume g = 10 m/s2) A. 10 m/s B. 20 m/s C. 200 m/s D. 400 m/s

B. 20 m/s

What is the frequency of the pulses that deliver laser radiation to the cornea with a period of 250 ms? A. 0.4 Hz B. 4.0 Hz C. 25 Hz D. 250 Hz

B. 4.0 Hz

What is the pH of a buffer solution that is 0.2 M in HCO3- and 2 M in H2CO3? (Note: The first pKa of carbonic acid is 6.37.) A. 4.37 B. 5.37 C. 6.37 D. 7.37

B. 5.37 pH = pKa + log (base/acid) pH = 6.37 + log(0.2/2) = 5.37

A certain bacterium was cultured for several generations in medium containing 15N, transferred to medium containing 14N, and allowed to complete two rounds of cell division. Given that the bacterium's genome mass is 5.4 fg when grown in 14N media and 5.5 fg when grown in 15N medium, individual bacteria with which of the following genome masses would most likely be isolated from this culture? A. 5.4 fg only B. 5.4 fg and 5.45 fg C. 5.4 fg and 5.5 fg D. 5.45 fg only

B. 5.4 fg and 5.45 fg

A woman with cystic fibrosis considers having children with an asymptomatic man who is heterozygous for the cystic fibrosis allele. What is probability of having a child with cystic fibrosis? A. 25% B. 50% C. 75% D. 100%

B. 50% A heterozygous genotype that results in an asymptomatic phenotype implies that the disorder is due to a recessive allele. Therefore, a homozygous individual and a heterozygous individual have 50% probability of having a child with the disorder.

Under anaerobic conditions how many net molecules of ATP are produced by the consumption of 5 moles of glucose? A. 3 x 10^24 B. 6 x 10^24 C. 9 x 10^24 D. 1.2 x 10^25

B. 6 x 10^24 2 moles of ATP are generated per mole of glucose, which means that there are 10 moles formed convert to molecules: 10 * (6 x 10^23) = 6 x 10^24

Poor prenatal nutrition for mothers can lead to delayed cognitive development in children. Poor prenatal nutrition is correlated with lower socioeconomic status. A child born to a mother in which of the following neighborhoods is most likely to fall behind in elementary school? A. A neighborhood with large, close-knit groups of extended families B. A neighborhood with high levels of violent street crime C. A neighborhood in which individual homes are widely separated D. A neighborhood with no racial diversity

B. A neighborhood with high levels of violent street crime

Which of the following individuals would hold the highest social standing in a pure meritocracy? A. an official elected to his or her position by the general population B. A scholar with an advanced degree and proven achievement of success C. a representative appointed by a council of high ranking officials D. an individual born into a family of high wealth and social standing

B. A scholar with an advanced degree and proven achievement of success

Which of the following oxidative transformations is unlikely to occur? A. A primary alcohol to an aldehyde B. A tertiary alcohol to a ketone C. An aldehyde to a carboxylic acid D. A secondary alcohol to a ketone

B. A tertiary alcohol to a ketone

A homodimeric protein was found to migrate through SDS polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis (SDS-PAGE) with a mobility that matched that of a 45-kDa standard. What change in the experiment would increase the chances of observing the mobility expected for the 22.5-kDa monomer? A. Increasing the gel running time B. Adding a reducing agent C. Using a higher voltage D. Removing the SDS

B. Adding a reducing agent A reducing agent would eliminate any disulfide bridges and allow the monomers to run separately - thus leading to a migration expected for the 22.5-kDa protein

Which of the following atoms gains one electron most readily? A. Ar B. Br C. Co D. Na

B. Br

A diabetic patient displays acidosis due to accumulation of ketone bodies in the blood. What compensatory changes would take place in the body? A. Breathing rate would increase and total blood CO2/HCO3- concentration would increase B. Breathing rate would increase and total blood CO2/HCO3- concentration would decrease C. Breathing rate would decrease and total blood CO2/HCO3- concentration would increase D. Breathing rate would decrease and total blood CO2/HCO3- concentration would decrease

B. Breathing rate would increase and total blood CO2/HCO3- concentration would decrease

When action potential induces muscle contraction, which of the following occurs? A. Ca2+ is released into the cytosol; Ca2+ binds to tropomyosin B. Ca2+ is released into the cytosol; Ca2+ binds to troponin complex C. Ca2+ is pumped into the sarcoplasmic reticulum; Ca2+ binds to tropomyosin D. Ca2+ is pumped into the sarcoplasmic reticulum; Ca2+ binds to troponin complex

B. Ca2+ is released into the cytosol; Ca2+ binds to troponin complex

What is the chemical formula of gypsum (calcium sulfate)? A. CaSO3 B. CaSO4 C. Ca2SO3 D. Ca2SO4

B. CaSO4 Calcium cation always has a +2 charge, while sulfate anion carries a -2 charge. These ions can thus be combined in a 1:1 ratio to balance charge, leading to an overall formula of CaSO4.

Pellagra also results from a deficiency of nicotinamide, which is synthesized from tryptophan. Nicotinamide nucleotides are neither oxidized nor reduced during which step of cellular respiration? A. Glycolysis B. Chemiosmosis C. Citric acid cycle D. Electron transport chain

B. Chemiosmosis

Which of the following proteases will preferentially cleave peptide bonds next to aromatic compounds? A. Maltase B. Chymotrypsin C. Aminopeptidase D. Carboxypeptidase

B. Chymotrypsin Chymotrypsin cleaves peptide bonds next to large hydrophobic amino acids, and aromatic amino acids are large and hydrophobic

Which of the following is NOT a core component of emotion? A. Physiological arousal B. Conditioned responses C. Expressive displays D. Subjective experiences

B. Conditioned responses There are three core components of emotion - physiological arousal (how your body reacts to emotions, emotional information or stimuli), expressive displays (how you express your emotions), and subjective experiences (how you feel and interpret your emotions, which is extremely personal and subjective). Conditioned responses are not a core component of emotion.

A researcher wants to gain insight into how a social movement organization presents its beliefs to the general public in an effort to attract new members. Which methodological approach would be most appropriate for this study? A. Observing meetings about the organization's marketing budget B. Conducting a content analysis of the organization's website C. Surveying organization members about their beliefs D. Randomly sampling the general population about social movement organizations

B. Conducting a content analysis of the organization's website

Which of the following events does the release of CCK (facilitates digestion by releasing into the duodenum bile from the gallbladder and pancreatic juices rich in enzymes (such as amylase and trypsin)) likely trigger? A. Relaxation of muscle in wall of gallbladder and relaxation of hepatopancreatic sphincter B. Contraction of muscle in wall of gallbladder and relaxation of hepatopancreatic sphincter C. Relaxation of muscle in wall of gallbladder and contraction of hepatopancreatic sphincter D. Contraction of muscle in wall of gallbladder and contraction of hepatopancreatic sphincter

B. Contraction of muscle in wall of gallbladder and relaxation of hepatopancreatic sphincter in the presence of CCK, more bile is released. For this to happen, the smooth muscles around the gall bladder will have to contract, and the hepatopancreatic sphincter will have to relax.

Harlequin ichthyosis, a rare genetic disorder, causes the skin to become thick and scaly. Flaking skin behind the eyelids of individuals with this condition is most likely to damage which structure of the eye? A. Choroid B. Cornea C. Lens D. Retina

B. Cornea

During replication repair, enzymes can reverse an error that would lead to the formation of an oncogene from a proto-oncogene. Which enzyme is responsible for the last step in the DNA repair? A. primase B. DNA ligase C. Topoisomerase D. DNA polymerase

B. DNA ligase

Injection of insulin into the bloodstream is LEAST likely to result in which of the following? A. Increased glycogen synthesis B. Decreased lipid synthesis C. Increased esterification of fatty acids D. Decreased gluconeogenesis

B. Decreased lipid synthesis

Based on the general theory of enzyme action, the overall rate of the reaction (at all substrate and enzyme concentrations) is proportional to the concentration of: A. substrate B. ES complex C. enzyme D. product

B. ES complex The RDS is when the ES is formed

The electric field inside each of the conductors that forms the capacitor in the defibrillator is zero. Which of the following reasons best explains why this is true? A. All of the electrons in the conductor are bound to atoms, and thus there is no way for an external electric field to penetrate atoms with no net charge. B. Free electrons in the conductor arrange themselves on the surface so that the electric field they produce inside the conductor exactly cancels any external electric field. C. Free electrons in the conductor arrange themselves on the surface and throughout the interior so that the electric field they produce inside the conductor exactly cancels any external electric field. D. All electrons in the conductor, both free and bound, arrange themselves on the surface so that the electric field they produce inside the conductor exactly cancels any external electric field.

B. Free electrons in the conductor arrange themselves on the surface so that the electric field they produce inside the conductor exactly cancels any external electric field.

Participants were given a candle, a box of matches, and thumb tacks and instructed to use the materials to mount the candle on a bulletin board. Only a few participants thought of using the inside of the matchbox as a candle holder and tacking this to the bulletin board. This result is an example of which barrier to problem solving? A. Confirmation bias B. Functional fixedness C. Overconfidence effect D. Availability heuristic

B. Functional fixedness Functional fixedness refers to people's tendency to think of things only in terms of their usual functions, which can inhibit solving problems.

Which technique separates proteins independently of their charge? A. Native PAGE B. Gel filtration chromatography C. Ion exchange chromatography D. Isoelectric focusing

B. Gel filtration chromatography Gel filtration chromatography separates protein only on the basis of their size.

In miRNA-directed gene silencing, a small RNA binds to an mRNA and directs degradation of the mRNA or prevents translation of the mRNA. Which of the following terms describes the process through which binding occurs? A. RNA polymerization B. Hybridization C. Elongation D. Transcription

B. Hybridization This is a question of definition; only hybridization describes a process of binding through complementary nucleotides.

The function of Na+/K+ ATPase is to transport: I. Na+ out of cells against its concentration gradient. II. Na+ into cells with its concentration gradient. III. K+ out of cells with its concentration gradient. IV. K+ into cells against its concentration gradient. A. I and III only B. I and IV only C. II and III only D. II and IV only

B. I and IV only The Na+/K+ ATPase, or sodium/potassium pump is an active transporter that pumps sodium and potassium ions through the membrane against their concentration gradient to maintain osmotic pressure.

According to Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, which group of participants is/are most likely dealing with the challenges of generativity versus stagnation? I. adolescents II. young adults III. adults A. I only B. III only C. I and II D. II and III

B. III only

Increasing plasma concentration of aldosterone is most likely to be followed by which of the following? A. Increased water reabsorption through increased aquaporin channels in the collecting duct B. Increased sodium reabsorption in the distal tubule C. Decreased water reabsorption in the collecting duct D. Decreased plasma calcium concentration

B. Increased sodium reabsorption in the distal tubule Aldosterone is released from the adrenal cortex in response to low blood pressure. Its primary function is to increase sodium reabsorption in the distal tubule and collecting duct. Aldosterone upregulates the sodium-potassium pumps along the lining of the nephron, pumping three sodium ions OUT of the nephron lining (and toward the blood) for every two potassium ions it pumps IN (toward the nephron and away from the blood). Since we have a net solute movement out of the nephron, aldosterone also increases the gradient that favors water reabsorption.

Which of the following is true regarding the genotype of females exhibiting X-linked recessive disorders? A. It is similar to the genotype of females exhibiting autosomal dominant disorders B. It is similar to the genotype of females exhibiting autosomal recessive disorders C. It is similar to the genotype of females exhibiting X-linked dominant disorders D. It is similar to the genotype of males exhibiting X-linked dominant disorders

B. It is similar to the genotype of females exhibiting autosomal recessive disorders In both cases, both X chromosomes need to be affected

One of the participants in the study, who was a long-term alcoholic, has imbibed more than four drinks. She then narrated an incident to her newly made acquaintances, who realizes that the incident would not possibly have occurred. The inebriated participant is most probably suffering from: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Korsakoff's syndrome C. schizophrenia D. dissociative disorder

B. Korsakoff's syndrome common symptom of Korsakoff's syndrome is confabulation, which is the production of a distorted memory without the intention to deceive

When asked whether a person who is afraid of spiders would be diagnosed as having a psychological disorder, a psychologist replies, "It depends on whether or not this fear interferes with the person's life." The psychologist appears to rely most heavily on which criterion of abnormality? A. Distress B. Maladaptiveness C. Statistical deviancy D. Violation of social norms

B. Maladaptiveness The maladaptiveness criterion takes into account whether the behavior negatively impacts the person's life or poses a threat to others.

Which approach does NOT measure the activity of the Na+K+ ATPase? A. Measuring the rate of ATP hydrolysis B. Measuring the free energy of the ion transport C. Measuring the rate of ADP production D. Measuring the change in ion concentration within the liposome

B. Measuring the free energy of the ion transport this is a thermo property and NOT a kinetic property

Would the concentration of [Cu(NH3)4]2+ increase if the equilibrium were disturbed by adding HCl to the following reaction: [Cu(H2O)4]2+(aq) + 4NH3 (aq) --> <-- [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (aq) + 4H2O (l) A. Yes, because the equilibrium in the equation would shift to the left B. No, because the equilibrium in the equation would shift to the left C. Yes, because the equilibrium in the equation would shift to the right D. No, because the equilibrium in the equation would shift to the right

B. No, because the equilibrium in the equation would shift to the left HCl will protonate ammonia, which reduces the amount of ammonia, so the equilibrium will shift to the left

A student hypothesized that endothelial cell growth might be affected by the DNA from circulating erythrocytes. Is this student's hypothesis reasonable? A. No; the DNA in circulating erythrocytes is needed to help transport O2 through the capillaries. B. No; circulating erythrocytes do not contain DNA. C. Yes; DNA is responsible for cell division in most cells. D. Yes; circulating erythrocytes carry DNA nutrients through the capillaries.

B. No; circulating erythrocytes do not contain DNA.

NDAFEITKRC contains how many potential phosphorylation sites? A. None B. One C. Two D. Three

B. One There are 3 amino acids that are phosphorylated in eukaryotes: serine (S), threonine (T), and tyrosine (Y). The nuclear localization sequence of MYOD1 (NDAFEITKRC) contains one threonine (T) that can potentially be phosphorylated.​

A carbonyl group contains what type of bonding interaction(s) between the C and O atoms? A. One σ only B. One σ and one π only C. One π only D. One σ and two π only

B. One σ and one π only

An immigrant teen stops participating in the ethnic customs of his family and instead identifies with the dominant culture of the new country by dressing, speaking, and acting like teens from that culture. In this scenario, the teens of the new country's dominant culture become which type of group for the teen? A. Assimilated group B. Reference group C. Majority group D. Peer group

B. Reference group

Which pathway depicts the sequence of cellular compartments traversed by newly synthesized GABA-receptor subunits as they move to the cell surface? A. Rough endoplasmic reticulum, endosome, and Golgi complex B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, and secretory transport vesicle C. Golgi complex, endosome, and lysosome D. Golgi complex, rough endoplasmic reticulum, and secretory transport vesicle

B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, and secretory transport vesicle As GABA receptors are located in the cell membrane, they will be synthesized in the RER, modified in the Golgi apparatus, and transported to the membrane by transport vesicles.

Which of the following is most likely to be a trait of cancer stem cells? A. Ability to differentiate into any cell type in the body B. Self-renewal C. Greater reliance on aerobic glucose metabolism D. Elevated levels of BAX expression

B. Self-renewal In general, stem cells have the ability to undergo self-renewal. This is further supported by the statement in paragraph 1 that cancer stem cells may be responsible for recurrence after chemotherapy, which implies that they can resist chemotherapy, replicate, and then differentiate as needed.

Which information from the passage contradicts the socioeconomic gradient in health? A. The U.S. has a comparatively high median household income B. The U.S. health disadvantage exists for all social classes C. The U.S. lags behind peer countries in health indicators D. The U.S. health disadvantage is explained by social capital

B. The U.S. health disadvantage exists for all social classes

While the blood is buffered primarily through the equilibrium between carbon dioxide and carbonic acid, coupled with hemoglobin, the blood may also be buffered through other plasma proteins. Which of the following is true? A. A shift in the pH can alter the tertiary or quaternary structure of the protein, allowing it to buffer the pH by precipitating out of plasma in response to pH shifts. B. The amino acid residues that make up the protein may act as Brønsted acids or bases, reducing shifts in pH. C. Plasma soluble proteins have enzymatic function allowing them to sequester hydronium ions from the blood inside membrane-bound organelles in the podocytes lining the capillaries. D. In the presence of altered pH, any plasma-soluble proteins will undergo either acid- or base-catalyzed cleavage, thus depleting the acid or base causing the disruption to blood pH.

B. The amino acid residues that make up the protein may act as Brønsted acids or bases, reducing shifts in pH.

Water is a rare substance in that the solid is less dense than the liquid at the freezing point, resulting in a solid form that floats on top of the liquid. Which of the following best explains this phenomenon? A. The bent structure of the water molecule results in a molecular dipole that maximizes the close molecular packing structure in the solid state. B. The bent structure of the water molecule and ratio of covalently-bonded hydrogens to lone pairs of electrons on the oxygen atom maximizes the hydrogen bonding that occurs in the solid phase, producing a hexagonal structure with large empty spaces. C. The degree of ionization in the solid state is less than in the liquid phase. D. The London dispersion forces of water significantly decrease in the solid phase as compared with the liquid phase.

B. The bent structure of the water molecule and ratio of covalently-bonded hydrogens to lone pairs of electrons on the oxygen atom maximizes the hydrogen bonding that occurs in the solid phase, producing a hexagonal structure with large empty spaces.

In [Cu(NH3)4]2+, the subscript 4 indicates which of the following? A. The oxidation number of Cu only B. The coordination number of Cu2+ only C. Both the oxidation number of Cu and the coordination number of Cu2+ D. Neither the oxidation number of Cu nor the coordination number of Cu2+

B. The coordination number of Cu2+ only Only represents how many molecules bind to the Cu2+ (4 ammonia)

The children from the experiment participate in a separate study using Piaget's water conservation task. They are shown two identical beakers, containing equal amounts of water. The water from one of the containers is poured into a thinner and taller beaker. Which prediction is most likely to be confirmed? A. All three age groups will state that the water in the taller beaker is greater in quantity. B. The majority of the 11-year-olds will state that the amount of water in the taller beaker is the same as in the original beaker. C. The majority of the 9- and 11-year-olds will state that the amount of water in the taller beaker is greater in quantity. D. The majority of the 7-year-olds will state that the amount of water in the taller beaker is the same as in the original beaker.

B. The majority of the 11-year-olds will state that the amount of water in the taller beaker is the same as in the original beaker.

Which statement does NOT provide a potential hypothesis for the gender difference in alcohol consumption between young men and young women? A. Co-morbid psychological disorders will be more likely to increase alcohol consumption for young men than young women. B. The number of dependents living at home will be higher for young men than young women. C. Gender identity will have a stronger effect on alcohol consumption for young men than young women. D. Alcohol consumption will be more likely to function as a coping strategy for young men than young women.

B. The number of dependents living at home will be higher for young men than young women.

Which of the following most likely will occur is a homogenous catalyst CANNOT be separated from the products at the end of a reaction? A. The catalyst will become heterogeneous B. The products will be contaminated C. The reaction will not occur D. The reaction rate will speed up

B. The products will be contaminated

In order to understand the specific function of the ossicles, scientists remove both the tympanic membrane and ossicles from the auditory canal of a rodent, thus allowing sound waves to directly influence depolarization of stereovilli. How will the rodent's hearing pathway be affected? A. The rodent will be more sensitive to nearby sounds but less sensitive to sounds that are further away B. The rodent will be less sensitive to nearby sounds as well as those further away C. The rodent will be less sensitive to nearby sounds but more sensitive to sounds that are further away D. The rodent will be more sensitive to nearby sounds as well as those further away

B. The rodent will be less sensitive to nearby sounds as well as those further away As sound waves travel from the wide tympanic membrane to the relatively narrow ossicles, there is an amplification in this intensity of the sound waves. Without these structures, the intensity of sound will be less than normal, limiting the rodent's ability to hear all sounds, whether nearby or far away

Which of the following correctly lists a pair of analogous structures and a pair of homologous structures, respectively? A. The wing of a bee and the wing of a bird; the wing of a bird and the leg of a bird B. The wing of a bee and the wing of a bird; the arm of a human and the flipper of a walrus C. The arm of a human and the wing of a bat; the wing of a bird and the wing of a bat D. The wing of a bird and the wing of a bat; the wing of a bee and the wing of a bat

B. The wing of a bee and the wing of a bird; the arm of a human and the flipper of a walrus Analogous structures are those structures that evolved independently to carry out the same function. Thus, the wing of a bee and the wing of a bird are analogous structures. Homologous structures are those that have a similar evolutionary history, arising from the same source, even if they now have different functions. The forelimbs of mammals (human arm, walrus flipper, bat wing) would all be homologous despite their different functions. Thus, this choice correctly indicates a pair of analogous structures and then a pair of homologous structures.

What are the structural features possessed by storage lipids? A. Two fatty acids ester-linked to a single glycerol plus a charged head group B. Three fatty acids ester-linked to a single glycerol C. Two fatty acids ester-linked to a single sphingosine plus a charges head group D. Three fatty acids ester-linked to a single sphingosine

B. Three fatty acids ester-linked to a single glycerol Triacylglycerols are neutral storage lipids

A scientist studying the EDAR gene finds that the wild type mRNA for position 370 is GUA. Assuming that only point mutations without a frameshift occur, what is the minimum number of mutations needed to introduce a stop codon at that position? A. One B. Two C. Three D. An abnormal stop codon can only be introduced by frameshift mutations

B. Two The three stop codons are UAA, UAG, UGA. It would take a minimum of 2 mutations (one at the front and one at the end) to form one of the stop codons

Casinos maximize the amount of money that people are willing to put into slot machines by making sure that the slot machines pay out jackpots on a reinforcement schedule that is the most resistant to behavior extinction. These machines use which reinforcement schedule? A. Fixed-ratio B. Variable-ratio C. Variable-interval D. Continuous

B. Variable-ratio Variable-ratio reinforcement schedules tend to produce the highest response rates that are the most resistant to extinction, which is exactly why casinos use them.

Eosinophils play a major role in the promotion of the inflammatory response, which is marked by increased vasodilation, blood vessel permeability, and pain. The inflammatory response is classified as: A. a function of the adaptive immune system. B. a function of the innate immune system. C. a function of passive immunity. D. a function of antibody-mediated immunity.

B. a function of the innate immune system. The innate immune system includes nonspecific immune responses. In other words, its responses provide general protection, rather than protection against specific pathogens that have been previously encountered and "remembered." Inflammation is a function of the innate immune system, as it serves as a general response to infection or injury.

In the research cited, if it was found that Hispanic patients were prescribed less pain medication than Caucasian patients due to Hispanic patients having disproportionally less insurance than Caucasian patients, then insurance coverage would be considered: A. a moderating variable. B. a mediating variable. C. a confounding variable. D. both an independent and dependent variable.

B. a mediating variable. A mediating variable is one which explains the association between two other variables through a causal relationship. Here, insurance coverage connects patient race and physician prescriptions. A moderator variable is one that influences the strength of a relationship between two other variables, and a mediator variable is one that explains the relationship between the two other variables. As an example, consider the relation between yearly income and frequency of testicular self-exams. Age might be a moderator variable, in that the relation between yearly income and testicular self-exam might be stronger for older men and less strong or nonexistent for younger men. Education might be a mediator variable in that it explains why there is a relation between self-exam and yearly income. This would mean when we remove the effect of education, the relation between the two variables weakens.

Substance addiction would most commonly be considered: A. a result of assimilation B. a personal deviance C. a familially conditioned behavior D. a stigmatized conformity

B. a personal deviance

Which of the following is the primary neurotransmitter used by the parasympathetic nervous system? A. epinephrine B. acetylcholine C. norepinephrine D. dopamine

B. acetylcholine

Citric acid is a weak triprotic acid. Because it has multiple acidic protons, a solution of citric acid can: A. not act as an effective buffer at a pH near its pKa2 value B. acts as a buffer over several pH ranges C. only act as an effective buffer at a pH near its pKa2 value D. not act as an effective buffer at a pH near any of its pKa values

B. acts as a buffer over several pH ranges

Ca(OH)2 and CaCl2 in the reaction shown in Equation 1 are best described as compounds of: A. an alkali metal. B. an alkaline earth metal. C. a metalloid. D. a transition metal.

B. an alkaline earth metal.

A researcher wants to determine whether proactive or retroactive interference is more affected by a specific type of traumatic brain injury. Which of the following research designs would best achieve their goals? A. a longitudinal study of 6 patients who are tested at regular intervals on their recall of two given patterns over a period of 6 months B. an experimental study of 6 patients who are asked to memorize sequence A and then sequence B before having their recall tested C. a case study of one individual and the effect of the traumatic brain injury on forgetfulness in their daily life D. an observational study in which participants are paired together to freely interact while researcher document their ability to remember partners' shared personal details

B. an experimental study of 6 patients who are asked to memorize sequence A and then sequence B before having their recall tested

A researcher applying the concept of assimilation to immigrant health would propose which hypothesis? An immigrant group's life expectancy will: A. surpass the majority group's life expectancy over time. B. approximate the majority group's life expectancy over time. C. fall behind the majority group's life expectancy over time. D. maintain the same disparity with the majority group's life expectancy over time.

B. approximate the majority group's life expectancy over time. The concept of assimilation proposes that an immigrant group will eventually adopt the customs (norms, values, etc.) of the majority group in a society. Because of taking on such norms over time, the immigrant group's health outcomes (including life expectancy) would be likely to approximate the majority group's health outcomes (including life expectancy).

In general, telomeres are NOT important to bacterial cells because most bacterial chromosomes: A. do not replicate. B. are circular. C. replicate quickly and efficiently. D. are composed of single-stranded DNA.

B. are circular.

Which term refers to closed status positions that hinder social mobility? A. class systems B. caste systems C. economic systems D. financial systems

B. caste systems

After an infection, such as C. difficile, the normal gut flora "re-colonize" the digestive tract. Those re-colonizing bacteria are most likely harbored by the: A. terminal ileum B. cecum C. jejunum D. rectum

B. cecum

The tendency of bystanders to avoid intervening in conflict, even though they would want others to intervene on their behalf, can be best explained by: A. opponent-process theory. B. cognitive dissonance theory. C. drive reduction theory. D. expectancy-value theory.

B. cognitive dissonance theory.

Which of the following individual-level effect is most similar to groupthink? A. self-serving bias B. confirmation bias C. hindsight bias D. response bias

B. confirmation bias

The retina functions to: A. accommodate and focus incoming light rays on the lens. B. detect light rays and convert them into signals for the brain to process. C. provide oxygen and nutrients to the vitreous humor. D. control the amount of light focused on the photoreceptor cells.

B. detect light rays and convert them into signals for the brain to process. The retina contains photoreceptors such as rods and cones, which detect light and transduces light to energy. The energy eventually becomes an action potential and the signal travels through the optic nerve and travels to the primary visual cortex.

When professors meet with individual students during office hours, they often exhibit communication styles that vary widely based on the person they're talking to. A study found that professors speaking with minority female students were much more likely to use shorter sentences with more instructions, and to ask questions that revealed an assumption of lack of academic skill. These professors were demonstrating: A. prejudice. B. discrimination. C. stereotyping. D. egoism.

B. discrimination. The professors are demonstrating a change in their behavior - speaking and questions - based on race and gender. Such changes are discrimination.

Scientists attempting to identify the mechanisms underlying cell-to-cell communication study a fertilized embryo. Which of the following stages should the scientists NOT observe in order to identify mechanisms that lead to differentiation? A. division during blastulation B. division at the one-cell stage C. division during gastrulation D. division at the 64 cell stage

B. division at the one-cell stage

In a solubility experiment, solutes X and Y are introduced into a subject's bloodstream. The solubility product constants of X and Y are both determined to be greater than their solubility products constants at standard conditions. What is the most likely explanation for this? A. common ion effect B. effect of temperature C. effect of blood pH D. effect of saturation levels of plasma

B. effect of temperature

Which of the following cells are most important in the exchange of O2 between the blood and the surrounding tissues? A. pericytes B. endothelial cells C. smooth muscle cells D. fibroblasts

B. endothelial cells

All of the following structures secrete digestive enzymes EXCEPT the: A. oral cavity B. esophagus C. pancreas D. small intestine

B. esophagus

Which research methodology involves the extended, systematic observation of a complete social environment? A. comparative methods B. ethnographic methods C. experimental methods D. survey methods

B. ethnographic methods

Absorption of UV light by organic molecules always results in what process? A. bond breaking B. excitation of bound electrons C. vibration of atoms in polar bonds D. ejection of bound electrons

B. excitation of bound electrons

The membrane receptor for glutamate opens an ion channel. Movement of ions through this cannel is best described as: A. osmosis B. facilitated diffusion C. primary active transport D. secondary active transport

B. facilitated diffusion

The enzyme encoded by the tdh2 gene (which encodes glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase (GADPH)) catalyzes the reversible conversion of: A. 3-phosphoglycerate to 1,3-biphosphoglycerate B. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate to 1,3-biphosphoglycerate C. fructose-1,6-biphosphate to glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate D. 2-phosphoglycerate to 3-phosphoglycerate

B. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate to 1,3-biphosphoglycerate

Which type of psychoactive drug has the lowest risk of dependence? A. stimulants B. hallucinogens C. alcohol D. sedatives

B. hallucinogens

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic associated with peptide bonds? A. resonance B. high reactivity C. planar molecular geometry D. partial double bond character

B. high reactivity

An individual loses his job and obtains a similar amount of income through social security disability insurance. Which type of social mobility best characterizes the situation? A. exchange mobility B. horizontal mobility C. downward mobility D. upward mobility

B. horizontal mobility

Tucson, Arizona is well known for its sunny, dry weather. A 33ºC day in Tucson can feel relatively cool and pleasant compared to a similar temperature in a humid city like Tampa. The phenomenon of "dry heat" feeling subjectively cooler is a result of: A. decreased evaporation from the skin helping to keep the body cool. B. increased evaporation from the skin helping to keep the body cool. C. decreased cardiac output in response to dehydration lowering cutaneous perfusion. D. increased cardiac output in response to dehydration lowering cutaneous perfusion.

B. increased evaporation from the skin helping to keep the body cool.

Why is the blood flow velocity in the capillaries significantly lower than then blood flow velocity in the arteries? A. Nutrient and waste exchange is less efficient when blood flow is slower B. increasing the total cross-sectional area decreases fluid velocity C. Gravity has a significant diminishing effect on blood flow velocity D. Hormonal vasoconstriction can only occur at arteries and arterioles

B. increasing the total cross-sectional area decreases fluid velocity

A researcher recruits 8 patients with lesions in their submarginal gyrus and 8 without the lesion. He aims to better understand complex speech. When interpreting the results of this study, the researcher will most likely be using: A. intuition-based reasoning B. inductive reasoning C. top-down reasoning D. the disconfirmation principle

B. inductive reasoning

Despite the effects of diabetes, the brains of diabetic patients still receive adequate nourishment. This is most likely because the brain uses: A. less glucose than do other body tissues B. insulin-independent transporters for the uptake of glucose C. fatty acids for energy instead of glucose D. insulin-dependent transporters for the uptake of glucose

B. insulin-independent transporters for the uptake of glucose

Sound-induced vibrations depolarize hair cells of the cochlea by opening ion channels that are gated in what way? A. chemically B. mechanically C. electrically D. synaptically

B. mechanically

In the overall electrochemical reaction, N2(g) + H2(g) --> <-- NH3(g): A. nitrogen is oxidized at the anode, and hydrogen is reduced at the cathode B. nitrogen is reduced at the cathode, and hydrogen is oxidized at the anode C. nitrogen is reduced at the anode, and hydrogen is oxidized at the cathode D. nitrogen is oxidized at the cathode, and hydrogen is reduced at the anode

B. nitrogen is reduced at the cathode, and hydrogen is oxidized at the anode Oxidation occurs at the anode and reduction occurs at the cathode!! nitrogen decreases in oxidation state, so it is reduced

Bacteriophages were labeled with radioactive phosphorous (32P) and sulfur (35S). The labeled bacteriophages were then allowed to infect their host cells. At the end of the experiment, the 32P label was found only inside the host cells and the 35S label was found only outside the host cells. This experiment shows that: A. bacteriophages consist only of DNA and protein. B. only DNA, not protein, can enter the host cell. C. only protein, not DNA, can enter the host cell. D. both DNA and protein can enter the host cell.

B. only DNA, not protein, can enter the host cell. 32P and 35S incorporate into DNA and proteins, respectively. Thus, the results of the experiment indicate that only the bacteriophage DNA enters the cell, not proteins.

Some studies have found that increases in dopamine activity are associated with increased reward-seeking motivation. This finding suggests an association between dopamine levels and which type of learning? A. classical conditioning B. operant conditioning C. latent learning D. observational learning

B. operant conditioning

In a different experiment, healthy human volunteers received an intravenous infusion of 100 mL of hyperosmotic NaCl solution, which induced thirst and a desire to drink. In this experiment, thirst probably was stimulated via: A. blood volume receptors, as a result of increased blood volume after the infusion. B. osmoreceptors, as a result of increased blood osmolarity after the infusion. C. a sensation of dryness in the mouth by oral receptors. D. the NaCl itself, because salt makes a person thirsty regardless of osmolarity.

B. osmoreceptors, as a result of increased blood osmolarity after the infusion. Osmoreceptors are activated by the increase in osmolarity of the blood. This process triggers the sensation of thirst

Whenever a two-year-old sees a moth, the butterfly-like pattern on her dress shoes, or hair bows that resemble the shape of a butterfly, she proudly exclaims, "Butterfly!" This process is referred to as: A. the naming explosion. B. overextension. C. categorical perception. D. bootstrapping.

B. overextension. "Overextension" is the term for applying a term for one class of objects to other objects that bear only a superficial resemblance (for example, "doggie" for a cow)

For the chemical reaction, CaCO3(s) --> CO2(g) + CaO(s) limestone does NOT decompose when heated to 900 K because, at 900 K, ΔH is: A. positive and less than TΔS. B. positive and greater than TΔS. C. negative and less than TΔS. D. negative and greater than TΔS.

B. positive and greater than TΔS. D is wrong because the entropy is positive, 1 reactant forms two products, which means that if ΔH is negative, then ΔG would be negative, which means the reaction would occur

In electrochemical cells, salt bridges: A. conduct current in galvanic cells B. prevent charge buildup in galvanic cells C. conduct current in electrolytic cells D. prevent charge buildup in electrolytic cells

B. prevent charge buildup in galvanic cells

Decreased number of alveoli in the lungs leads to respiratory distress because: A. damage to the respiratory epithelium reduces the ability of the epithelial cells to actively transport O2 into the body and CO2 out of the body. B. reduced surface area in the lungs reduces the rate at which O2 and CO2 can diffuse through the lung epithelium. C. passive expiration depends on the inherent elasticity in the walls of the alveoli and reduced expiratory volume prevents or reduces subsequent inspiration. D. the cilia lining the lungs which move mucus and other debris out of the lungs and keep the respiratory epithelium clear cannot function as well.

B. reduced surface area in the lungs reduces the rate at which O2 and CO2 can diffuse through the lung epithelium.

Which of the following functions is LEAST regulated by a structure within the brain? A. involuntary breathing B. reflexive motor response C. the vestibular sense D. blood pressure

B. reflexive motor response

Which type of memory would most likely be activated first during a computer task, before working memory is activated? A. implicit memory B. sensory memory C. short-term memory D. episodic memory

B. sensory memory seeing things light up on a computer screen would register the visual sensors

The equilibrium BaCrO4(s) --> <-- Ba2+ (aq) + (CrO4)2- (aq) exists in a saturated aqueous solution of BaCrO4. Dissolution of Na2CrO4 in a saturated aqueous BaCrO4 solution would: A. have no effect on the position of this equilibrium B. shift this equilibrium left C. shift this equilibrium right D. shift this equilibrium first right and then left

B. shift this equilibrium left dissolution of Na2CrO4 would introduce the common ion, (CrO4)2- which would reduce the solubility of BaCrO4 due to the common ion effect

A person enters a waiting room with a television that is switched off, and sees several people reading books in the room. If he then decides to read a book rather than watch a desired program on the television, his behavior can best be described as: A. social obedience B. social conformity C. bystander effect D. personal deindividuation

B. social conformity

If the equilibrium constant is 5.6 x 10^11 for a reaction, the reaction is most likely a: A. spontaneous process with positive ∆G° B. spontaneous process with negative ∆G° C. nonspontaneous process with positive ∆G° D. nonspontaneous process with negative ∆G°

B. spontaneous process with negative ∆G° equilibrium constant is very large (much greater than 1) so ∆G° is negative

A researcher conducts observational research on the study habits of college students. When students are aware of the researcher's presence, they are more attentive, focused, and structured. When students are not aware of the researcher's presence, they are inattentive, unfocused, and distracted. Which concept best describes this phenomenon? A. impression management B. the Hawthorne effect C. self-fulfilling prophecy D. the Thomas theorem

B. the Hawthorne effect

Suppose that multiple newly created amino acids interact to build a small protein molecule. The primary structure of that protein is formed when: A. the R-group of one amino acid forms intermolecular attractions with the R-group of another B. the amino-terminus of one amino acid attacks the carboxy-terminus of another C. the amino-terminus of one amino forms H-bonds with the carboxy-terminus of another D. the carboxy-terminus of one amino acid attacks the amino-terminus of another

B. the amino-terminus of one amino acid attacks the carboxy-terminus of another The amino group is the nucleophile so it attacks the carboxy group

A book rests horizontally on a table. The book experiences a gravitational force of mg due to the earth's gravity. According to Newton's third law: A. the book experiences a normal force of mg pushing up due to the table. B. the earth experiences a gravitational force of mg from the book. C. the table exerts a gravitational force of mg on the earth. D. the earth exerts a normal force up on the table equal to mg plus the weight of the table.

B. the earth experiences a gravitational force of mg from the book.

Which historical factor primarily accounts for the projected increase in the population ages 65 and older in the United States? A. the increased immigration rate since the 1950s B. the increased fertility rate after World War II C. the sexual revolution of the 1960s and 1970s D. The relative deprivation of the Great Depression

B. the increased fertility rate after World War II

The osmolarity of urine in these subjects was 958 milliosmoles/L, compared with an average blood osmolarity of 284 milliosmoles/L. The higher osmolarity of urine suggests that: A. the kidneys are secreting very little Na+. B. the kidneys are acting to conserve water. C. the subjects are on a low-protein diet. D. the subjects are dehydrated.

B. the kidneys are acting to conserve water. An increase in water conservation would result in higher urine osmolarity and lower blood osmolarity.

As glucose, a reducing sugar, is oxidized during Fehling's reaction, how is the equilibrium between hemiacetal D-glucose and linear D-glucose shifted? A. The oxidation reaction does not disrupt the equilibrium of glucose B. there is a shift favoring the replacement of the linear form of glucose C. equilibrium favors the formation of the hemiacetal D. equilibrium initially favors linear, but eventually reverts to hemiacetal

B. there is a shift favoring the replacement of the linear form of glucose The ring and linear forms of glucose are in equilibrium initially; but, only the linear form can undergo oxidation; as the reaction progresses, more and more of the linear form of glucose gets consumed, causing the equilibrium reaction between the linear and ring form of glucose to shift towards the linear glucose

Experimenters isolate a biological sample believed to be composed entirely of glycine. In order to confirm their belief, they can hydrolyze the peptide and then: A. use separation techniques to determine if the sample contains amino acids with hydrophobic R groups B. use polarized light in order to determine whether or not the sample is optically active C. raise the pH of the sample and apply an electric field to tests for the presence of zwitterions D. titrate the sample with NaOH to determine if it contains amino acids with acidic R groups

B. use polarized light in order to determine whether or not the sample is optically active Glycine isn't chiral, so a sample of pure glycine will not be optically active

Which of the following compounds is expected to have the highest melting point? A. glycine B. valine C. ethanol D. butane

B. valine

A typical eosinophil would be expected to differ from an erythrocyte in that the eosinophil: A. would not contain a membrane-bound nucleus. B. would contain a membrane-bound nucleus. C. would not be expected to be found in human blood. D. would be expected to be found in human blood.

B. would contain a membrane-bound nucleus. Unlike almost all cells in the human body, erythrocytes (red blood cells) do not contain DNA or a membrane-bound nucleus. This allows these cells to have more space for oxygen-carrying hemoglobin molecules. Thus, eosinophils differ from erythrocytes in that eosinophils do contain nuclei and DNA.

Based on the study, which assessment represents a subjective measure of motivation? A) The number of grid sequences participants attempted to solve on the computer task B) The participants' decision to continue playing the game or stop to read a magazine C) Participants' answers on the exit questionnaire D) Participants' time spent not playing the game using the computer mouse

C) Participants' answers on the exit questionnaire

What is the net charge for the peptide chain with alanine, threonine, glycine, asparagine, and tyrosine at pH 7.4? A. -2 B. -1 C. 0 D. 1

C. 0

What is the net charge of KTFCGPEYLA at pH 7.2? A. -2 B. -1 C. 0 D. +1

C. 0 The N-terminus and the lysine will each carry +1 charge (+2 in total) The C-terminus and the glutamic acid will each carry -1 charge (-2 in total) net: +2 - 2 = 0

The equation for calculating mean arterial pressure (MAP) is shown. MAP = [(2 × diastolic) + systolic] / 3 What is the MAP of a person whose blood pressure is 135/90 mmHg? A. 85 mmHg B. 90 mmHg C. 105 mmHg D. 110 mmHg

C. 105 mmHg [(2 × 90) + 135]/3, which is 315/3 = 105 mmHg.

Which of the following is closest to the bond angle between the carbons in a molecule of acetone? A. 90º B. 109.5º C. 120º D. 180º

C. 120º Acetone has a central carbon atom that is double-bonded to an oxygen and single-bonded to two carbon atoms. Since it is bound to three substituents and has no lone pairs, the hybridization around this carbon is sp2, creating a trigonal planar geometry and a bond angle of 120º.

One company sells a defibrillator for home use that uses a 9-volt DC battery. The battery is rated at 4.2 A•hr (amp•hour). Roughly how much charge can the battery deliver? A. 4.2 C B. 38 C C. 15,000 C D. 136,000 C

C. 15,000 C q = I * t q = 4.2 * 3600 s = 15,120 C ~ 15,000 C

In a population of Amish people, the frequency of the recessive autosomal allele for polydactyly is 1.2%. What percent of the population are heterozygotes for the polydactyly allele? A. 0.0144% B. 1.19% C. 2.37% D. 97.6%

C. 2.37% We can use the Hardy-Weinberg equation to solve this question. Remember that the total number of alleles in the population has to add up to 1: A + a = 1 And the total number of genotypes in the population must also add up to 1: AA + 2Aa + aa = 1 We're told that a = 0.012. (Note that the question gave the frequency of the recessive autosomal allele, not the frequency of individuals in the population that are homozygous recessive!) By the first equation above, A = 0.988. The carriers are the heterozygotes with the genotype Aa. Their frequency is: 2Aa = 2 x 0.988 x 0.012 = 0.988 x 0.024 At this point we've got what looks like a tough calculation to do, so we should probably back up and start estimating. Our calculation is telling us to take 98.8% of 0.024, so our answer is going to be really close to 0.024 (since 100% of any number is just that number itself [e.g. 100% of 56.7 is 56.7]). If we look at the answer choices, the only one that's remotely close is 0.0237, or 2.37%.

A study participant was asked to observe circular images and determine if they were the same size as a 10 cm2 circle. Circles with areas greater than or equal to 11 cm2 were perceived as different. Circles with areas between 10.1 and 10.9 cm2 were perceived as the same size as the 10 cm2 circle. If the participant then was asked to compare samples with a circle with an area of 200 cm2, Weber's law would predict that a circle of what area would be perceived as being of the same size? A. 109 cm2 B. 175 cm2 C. 218 cm2 D. 220 cm2

C. 218 cm2

The half-life of 32P is 14.28 days. What fraction of an initially pure sample will have decayed after 28.56 days? A. 1/4 B. 1/2 C. 3/4 D. 1

C. 3/4 READ CAREFULLY! 1/4 is left, so 3/4 decayed

What is the total number of fused rings present in a steroid? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 6

C. 4

The specific heat of liquid water is 4.2 kJ/°C•kg. How much energy does it take to heat 2 kg of water from 20°C to 70°C? A. 220 kJ B. 320 kJ C. 420 kJ D. 520 kJ

C. 420 kJ 2 kg × 4.2 kJ/°C•kg × 50°C = 420 kJ

A person, whose eye has a lens-to-retina distance of 2.0 cm, can only clearly see objects that are closer than 1.0 m away. What is the strength S of the person's eye lens? (Note: Use the thin lens formula 1/O+1/I=S.) A. -50 D B. -10 D C. 51 D D. 55 D

C. 51 D 1/100 + 1/2 = S 1/100 + 50/100 = S 51/100 = S

A peptide consisting of nine amino acids was partially hydrolyzed. Three different tripeptides were isolated. None of the tripeptides share a common amino acid. Based on the data, what is the total number of possible structures possible for the full-length peptide? A. 3 B. 4 C. 6 D. 27

C. 6 If the sequences were ABC, DEF, and GHI, they can only be joined in 6 different possible ways to make a nonapeptide. Each of the tripeptides can appear in the first position and can combine in two possible ways with the other two tripeptides: 3×2=6.

What is the concentration of Ca2+ (aq) in a saturated solution of CaCO3? (Note: the solubility product constant Ksp for CaCO3 is 4.9x10^-9.) A. 2.4 x 10^-4 M B. 4.9 x 10^-5 M C. 7.0 x 10^-5 M D. 4.9 x 10^-9 M

C. 7.0 x 10^-5 M Ksp = [Ca2+] * [CO3^2-] Since equal quantities of Ca2+ and CO3^2- are produced when CaCO3 dissolves, the expression reduces to: 4.9 x 10^-9 = x^2 49 x 10^-10 = x^2 x = sqrt(49 x 10^-10) x = 7 x 10^-5 M

0.44 moles of AgNO3 and 0.20 moles of MgCl2 are mixed together. What is the mass percent composition of Ag in the product? A. 0.8% B. 25.7% C. 75.2% D. 90.9%

C. 75.2% The number of moles is irrelevant. The products of the reaction are AgCl and Mg(NO3)2. The total mass of AgCl is 143.3 g/mol, so the mass % of Ag is 107.9 / 143.3 = 75.2%

If a 65-kg man undergoes a turning acceleration of 5 m/s2 during a running turn, what is the magnitude of force experienced by the foot due to the ground? A. 325 N B. 650 N C. 750 N D. 1075 N

C. 750 N To turn while running, the foot must push off the ground, applying a shearing force while simultaneously supporting the weight of the body. When faced with problems like this, always consider the forces involved. Here, we must account for the normal force exerted by the ground on the foot; this is a vertical force which occurs as a result of the runner's weight. We also must consider the acceleration force, which (since the person is turning) is horizontal. These two force vectors are perpendicular and will form a right triangle. Fnorm = mg = 65 * 10 = 650 Fturn = ma = 65*5 = 325 Then find the combined vector: F = sqrt(650^2 + 325^2) = 750

The human head weighs 4.8 kg and its center of mass is 1.8 cm in front of the spinal column joint. If the trapezius muscle inserts 1.1 cm behind the spinal cord joint, how much downward force does it need to exert in order to maintain equilibrium? A. 7.7 N B. 11 N C. 77 N D. 110 N

C. 77 N F = ma F = 4.8 * 10 = 48 N Set proportion: 48 * 1.8 = F * 1.1 F = 77 N

Which of the following interactions would be a negative consequence of ethnocentrism? A. A mother teaches her daughter only about her own cultural and religious traditions. B. An employer gives his employees days off for cultural holidays of his own culture. C. A father discourages his son from playing with children who are not members of their culture. D. An older brother beats up his younger brother for mispronouncing words associated with their own religious traditions.

C. A father discourages his son from playing with children who are not members of their culture. Ethnocentrism is a world view in which one's own culture and traditions are seen as inherently superior to those of other people. It is propagated from one generation to the next through a variety of cultural channels, the first and most important of which is the family. In choice C the father is encouraging an exclusionary behavior that is a classic negative component of ethnocentrism.

In a study about attitudes towards higher education, four subjects are asked to rank the relative importance of higher education. All four participants rank higher education as "very important" or "extremely important" on the survey. Which of the following participants is most likely to experience cognitive dissonance as a part of this response? A. A master electrician who has significant advanced on-the-job training but no degree B. A day laborer whose own education stopped at seventh grade and whose family includes no one who has attended any college C. A high school math teacher who encouraged his own son to skip college and focus on learning a trade to "save all that wasted tuition money" D. A university professor with two doctoral degrees who has actively advocated for significant reform in the country's higher education system

C. A high school math teacher who encouraged his own son to skip college and focus on learning a trade to "save all that wasted tuition money" Cognitive dissonance is the unpleasant feeling a person experiences when holding two contradictory beliefs at the same time. Here, a person who rates college as very important, but then tells his own child that college tuition is "wasted" would likely experience some cognitive dissonance.

What is the advantage of including a specially trained cultural liaison as opposed to training physicians in cultural competency? A. Communicating across racial and cultural lines is difficult and requires a trained specialist to do it effectively B. Physicians are inherently resistant to cultural training because of their medical biases C. Adding a cultural liaison creates a triadic group, a more stable arrangement than a dyadic group D. Larger groups facilitate the transfer of info more effectively than smaller groups

C. Adding a cultural liaison creates a triadic group, a more stable arrangement than a dyadic group

Which of the following will decrease the percentage ionization of 1.0 M acetic acid, CH3CO2H (aq)? A. Chlorinating the CH3 group B. Diluting the solution C. Adding concentrated HCl (aq) D. Adding a drop of basic indicator

C. Adding concentrated HCl (aq) HCl is a strong acid that will increase the amount of H+ in solution and thus decrease the percentage of CH3CO2H that ionizes

Which of the following responses could maintain cardiac output under dehydration conditions that reduce blood volume? A. A decrease in stroke volume B. A decrease in heart rate C. An increase in heart rate D. An increase in blood viscosity

C. An increase in heart rate The heart rate is the number of heart contractions per minute. An increase in heart rate would maintain the cardiac output in dehydration conditions.

A drive-reduction and cognitive theorist would argue that depression is most strongly correlated with a deficiency in which component of fulfillment? A. Socialization B. Stigma C. Arousal D. Self-efficacy

C. Arousal Drive-reduction theories suggest that depression stems from a reduction in the motivating forces of arousal. A cognitive theorist would argue that arousal is essential to sustaining most behaviors.

What best describes the relationship between attribution theory and fundamental attribution error? A. Attribution theory states that attribute phenotypes are associated with inner psychological functioning; fundamental attribution error refers to a misdiagnosis of psychological state based on overreliance on an attribute phenotype. B. Attribution theory relates to an attempt by an individual to interpret actions by assigning causes to them; fundamental attribution error is when an individual interprets another's actions incorrectly by overemphasizing external events instead of internal characteristics. C. Attribution theory relates to an attempt by an individual to interpret actions by assigning causes to them; fundamental attribution error is when an individual interprets another's actions incorrectly by overemphasizing internal characteristics instead of external events. D. Attribution theory states that attribute genotypes are associated with inner psychological functioning; fundamental attribution error refers to a misdiagnosis of psychological state based on overreliance on an attribute genotype.

C. Attribution theory relates to an attempt by an individual to interpret actions by assigning causes to them; fundamental attribution error is when an individual interprets another's actions incorrectly by overemphasizing internal characteristics instead of external events. Attribution theory relates to the ways in which people attempt to explain various behaviors and events. Fundamental attribution error occurs when a person assigns too much weight to internal causes rather than external factors when trying to explain the cause of another person's behavior.

How do blood flow rate (BFR) and blood pressure (BP) differ in pulmonary and systemic circulation? A. BP is greater in pulmonary circulation, and BFR is greater in systemic circulation B. BP is greater in systemic circulation, and BFR is greater in pulmonary circulation C. BP is greater in systemic circulation, and BFR is the same for both circulations D. BP is greater in pulmonary circulation, and BFR is the same for both circulations

C. BP is greater in systemic circulation, and BFR is the same for both circulations Pulmonary circuit is shorter than the systemic and the right ventricle (which feeds the pulmonary circuit) generates less force than the left ventricle (which feeds the systemic circuit); P = F/A, so the pressure is greater in the systemic circulation Since pulmonary and systemic are connected in series, flow rate must be equal

Exercise promotes the insulin-independent uptake of glucose in working skeletal muscles. Given this, regular exercise would most likely reduce blood glucose levels in patients with which type(s) of diabetes? A. Type 1 only B. Type 2 only C. Both Type 1 and Type 2 D. Neither Type 1 nor Type 2

C. Both Type 1 and Type 2

Which single bond is the LEAST polar? A. C-H B. C-O C. C-C D. O-N

C. C-C

A scientist wishes to test the effects of various solutes on osmotic pressure. Shas has two chambers filled with distilled water and separated by a semipermeable membrane. In each trial, she adds 0.2 moles to one of the chambers and measures the osmotic pressure. Which of the following solutes will produce the greatest change in osmotic pressure? A. NaCl B. HCO3- C. CaCl2 D. Glucose

C. CaCl2 Osmotic pressure is a colligative property, meaning it is dependent on the number of particles present, not the identity. A dissociates into 2 molecules B is a weak acid and only slightly dissociates C dissociates into 3 molecules, which is the most so C is correct D will not dissociate because it has covalent bonds

Which sequence properly indicates the transmission path of impulses as a direct result of transcranial magnetic stimulation? A. Sensory neurons, cerebral cortex, afferent neurons, skeletal muscle cells B. Skeletal muscle cells, afferent neurons, spinal cord, cerebral cortex C. Cerebral cortex, spinal cord, efferent neurons, skeletal muscle cells D. Efferent neurons, afferent neurons, interneurons, cerebral cortex

C. Cerebral cortex, spinal cord, efferent neurons, skeletal muscle cells The question is basically asking for the sequence in which information travels from the CNS to the periphery. This sequence is cerebral cortex → spinal cord → efferent neurons → interneurons → motor neurons → muscle tissue.

Why did the researchers choose to study pediatric, rather than adult, thyroid cancer cases? A. Thyroid cancer is not otherwise present in children. B. Thyroid cancer is not otherwise present in adults. C. Children receive a higher relative dose of I-131 at the same contamination level. D. Children receive a lower relative dose of I-131 at the same contamination level.

C. Children receive a higher relative dose of I-131 at the same contamination level. The most likely reason for the use of pediatric cancer cases is that these cases are more likely to be caused by I-131 than those in adults. Because children weigh less than adults, the same quantity of external I-131 would result in a higher concentration of the isotope in the body, making DNA damage and cancer more likely.

Electrons in the 1s subshell of which of the following elements experience the greatest effective nuclear charge? A. H B. Na C. Cl D. O

C. Cl Zeff increases from left to right

According to Cialdini's 6 principles of persuasion, which of the following would NOT be a way that a minority juror could increase the likelihood of persuading a majority juror? A. Providing a favor to the other juror B. Being likeable C. Conveying the impression of scarcity of one's opinion D. Obtaining a written commitment of agreement from a juror

C. Conveying the impression of scarcity of one's opinion In general, conveying scarcity can influence others, but in the case of an opinion, the more people that agree, the more likely others are to follow. Here, then, scarcity is not desirable.

Nitrogen primarily exists in the atmosphere as a diatomic gas. Which of the following is true about this form of nitrogen? A. The presence of a lone pair of electrons on each nitrogen atom in the molecule allows it to act as a strong Lewis base. B. The triple bond of electrons creates a region of high electron density that allows N2 to be very reactive as a nucleophile. C. Diatomic nitrogen gas is relatively inert and can be used as the atmosphere in laboratory conditions to prevent unwanted side reactions. D. Atmospheric nitrogen reacts spontaneously with carbon dioxide, which keeps atmospheric CO2 levels at a relatively low 0.04% (on a molar basis) of the atmosphere.

C. Diatomic nitrogen gas is relatively inert and can be used as the atmosphere in laboratory conditions to prevent unwanted side reactions.

Where in the human male reproductive system do the gametes become motile and capable of fertilization? A. Testis B. Urethra C. Epididymis D. Prostate gland

C. Epididymis

Which of the following compounds has the most stable conjugate base? A. HOOC-CH2Cl B. HOOC-CH2OCH3 C. HOOC-CH2F D. HOOC-CH3

C. HOOC-CH2F most stable conjugate base means strongest acid

Inhibition of phosphofructokinase-1 by ATP is an example of: I. allosteric regulation II. feedback inhibition III. competitive inhibition A. I only B. III only C. I and II D. II and III

C. I and II

Which stimuli are most likely to be included in a neuroimaging study to examine the function of the amygdala? A. Images designed to test color vision B. A set of mathematical solving problems C. Images designed to evoke a fear response D. A set of reading comprehension passages on the topic of audition

C. Images designed to evoke a fear response The amygdala is integral to the processing of emotion and, in particular, to the processing of fear-inducing stimuli.

What causes duplex DNA with a certain (A + T):(G + C) ratio to melt at a higher temperature than comparable length duplex DNA with a greater (A + T):(G + C) ratio? A. Stronger van der Waals forces of pyrimidines B. Stronger van der Waals forces of purines C. Increased pi-stacking strength D. reduced electrostatic repulsion of phosphates

C. Increased pi-stacking strength

The term "ideal gas" refers to a gas for which certain assumptions have been made. Which of the following is such an assumption? A. The law PV = nRT^2 is strictly obeyed B. Intermolecular molecular forces are infinitely large C. Individual molecular volume and intermolecular forces are negligible D. One gram mole occupies a volume of 22.4 L at 25 deg C and one atmosphere pressure

C. Individual molecular volume and intermolecular forces are negligible

Which of the following statements best applies to the inactive X chromosome in mammalian females? A. It does not replicate. B. Its chromatin structure is less condensed than that of an active X chromosome. C. It is one of the last chromosomes to replicate. D. It is highly transcribed.

C. It is one of the last chromosomes to replicate. The inactivate X chromosome is one of the last chromosomes to replicate. B is wrong because the chromatin of the inactivate X chromosome is more condensed compared to the one of the active X chromosome.

Paragraph 1 mentions that aneuploidy in Alzheimer's disease may result from disruption of the mitotic spindle. This apparatus is composed of what structures? A. Microfilaments B. Intermediate filaments C. Microtubules D. Myosin filaments

C. Microtubules

In this chemical reaction, Ca(OH)2(aq) + 2NH4Cl(aq) --> CaCl2(aq) + 2NH3(g) + 2H2O(l) did the oxidation state of N change? A. Yes; it changed from -3 to -4 B. Yes; it changed from 0 to +1 C. No; it remained at -3 D. No; it remained at +1

C. No; it remained at -3

A team of researchers at a pharmaceutical company tests a new cancer drug. The researchers have concluded that the drug is effective, but other scientists CANNOT replicate the findings. Which is the most likely explanation for the lack of replicability of the original results? A. Base rate fallacy B. Hindsight bias C. Observer bias D. Public verifiability

C. Observer bias Any bias on the part of the observers recording the data could have contaminated the original results. In this case, it is possible that proper precautions (for example, ensuring that observers were "blind" with respect to which patients received the drug and which patients received the placebo) were not taken. A is wrong because the base rate fallacy refers to the error people make when they ignore the base rates (i.e., prior probabilities) when evaluating the probabilities (or frequencies) of events. B is wrong because the hindsight bias (i.e., the "I knew it all along" effect) refers to the tendency for a person to overestimate how well he or she could have successfully predicted a known outcome (i.e., a "forecast," given before the outcome was known). D is wrong because public verifiability is the reason other scientists are attempting to replicate the original findings.

To determine the effectiveness of brainstorming, a researcher designs a study in which participants are asked to produce alternatives to an existing marketing strategy on their own or with a group. Which pattern of results is most likely based on research on groups processes? A. Groups arrive at the improved alternatives more often than individuals B. Groups are more likely to critically evaluate alternatives than individuals C. On average, participants generate more alternatives alone than in a group D. On average, participants produce more alternatives in a group than alone

C. On average, participants generate more alternatives alone than in a group Social loafing refers to the fact that people are more productive alone than in a group; research also suggests that individuals are less critical and less creative in groups

A researcher measures the concentration of CO2(aq) in a solution at equilibrium. Which additional quantity must be measured in order to calculate the Henry's Law constant kH for the gas? A. Atmospheric pressure B. Volume of the solvent C. Partial pressure of the gas D. Vapor pressure of water

C. Partial pressure of the gas The Henry's Law constant kH relates the solubility of a gas S to the pressure of that gas Pg above the solution and is written as S = kH•Pg. Therefore, in addition to the concentration of CO2(aq) in a solution at equilibrium, the partial pressure of the gas Pg must be measured.​

What is the most likely prediction when people make attributions for their own behavior? A. People attribute positive and negative outcomes to dispositional factors. B. People attribute positive and negative outcomes to situational factors. C. People attribute positive outcomes to dispositional factors and negative outcomes to situational factors. D. People attribute positive outcomes to situational factors and negative outcomes to dispositional factors.

C. People attribute positive outcomes to dispositional factors and negative outcomes to situational factors. People have a self-serving bias, wherein people tend to attribute their own successes to internal factors and attribute their own failures to external factors. In addition, people will match their attributions about their own behavior to the attributions they make for their in-groups, because the in-group is treated as an extension of the self. If the in-group looks good, then the self looks good.

When phosphoric acid is titrated with a strong base, which of the following is the predominant compound present at the third equivalence point? A. Hydrogen phosphate B. Dihydrogen phosphate C. Phosphate ion D. Phosphoric acid

C. Phosphate ion H3PO4 1st: H2PO4- 2nd: HPO42- 3rd: PO43-, which is a phosphate ion

A student finishes an experiment involving several bacteria which are highly pathologic in humans. She wishes to dispose of the agar plates and micropipette tips she used. Which of the following procedures should she carry out? A. Microwave all materials for more than 60 seconds. B. Wipe down all materials with a 100% ethanol solution. C. Place all materials in an open metal container and autoclave the container. D. Place all materials under a UV light for 90 seconds.

C. Place all materials in an open metal container and autoclave the container. The most effective technique for sterilizing used laboratory materials is using an autoclave and should be the standard procedure followed here. An autoclave brings the materials to a temperature over 120ºC and a pressure over 2 atm, which is enough to kill almost anything.

At one university, faculty members who behave unethically are required to have a meeting with the dean. After their meeting, their unprofessional behavior decreases. What process does this describe? A. Positive reinforcement B. Negative reinforcement C. Positive punishment D. Negative punishment

C. Positive punishment Positive refers to adding a stimulus, and punishment refers to a consequence that decreases a behavior. A meeting with the dean was added, and this decreased the behavior (unprofessional behavior), so this is positive punishment.

Which of the following enzymes should the researchers add to the cell samples if they want to reverse the general catalytic effects of protein kinase A? A. Glycogen phosphorylase B. Phosphoglucomutase C. Protein phosphatase 1 D. Lactate dehydrogenase

C. Protein phosphatase 1

A group of researchers is interested in learning more about the public's attitudes toward Internet vigilantes. They organize focus groups for adults who frequently use the Internet and ask them to talk about their experiences online and with Internet vigilantism. What kind of research are they performing? A. Case studies B. Quantitative research C. Qualitative research D. Naturalistic observational research

C. Qualitative research

What atom remains after the β- decay of 32P? A. Si B. Al C. S D. Cl

C. S Gains a proton, so becomes P becomes S

What are the primary myelin-forming cells in the peripheral nervous system? A. microglia B. astrocytes C. Schwann cells D. oligodendrocytes

C. Schwann cells

Which procedure is most effective for teaching a dog to shake hands? A. Systematic desensitization B. Elaborative encoding C. Shaping D. Spontaneous recovery

C. Shaping Shaping involves reinforcing successive approximations of a behavior. It is utilized to establish a novel behavior.

What aspects separate single-crossover events from double-crossover events? A. Single-crossover events result in one-way displacement of chromosomal content from one chromosome to another, while double-crossover events always reverse this one-way displacement, resulting in chromosomes identical to the pre-crossover chromosomes. B. Single-crossover events occur during mitosis when a cell splits into two cells, while double-crossover events can only occur during meiosis when a cell splits into four cells. C. Single-crossover events affect only the ends of chromosome arms, while double-crossover events can affect segments in the middle of chromosome arms. D. Single-crossover events only affect one arm of each chromosome, while double-crossover events affect two arms of each chromosome.

C. Single-crossover events affect only the ends of chromosome arms, while double-crossover events can affect segments in the middle of chromosome arms. A double-crossover event is one in which chromosomal arms of homologous chromosomes cross over in two different places along the arm. This results in a section in the middle of each chromosome being exchanged.

Which statement correctly describes the structure of the DNA double helix? A. Nitrogenous bases pair with other bases in the same purine or pyrimidine groups B. The two DNA strands of the double helix are oriented in the same direction C. The amount of guanine will equal the amount of cytosine in a DNA sequence D. Sugar-phosphate backbones form the interior of the double helix

C. The amount of guanine will equal the amount of cytosine in a DNA sequence D is incorrect because sugar-phosphate backbones form the EXTERIOR of the double helix

In an evaluation study for a diabetes intervention program, the subjects in the sample had a median age of 45 and a mean age of 55. Which statement accounts for the difference between the median age and the mean age? A. The sample had more subjects under the age of 45 than over the age of 45. B. The sample had more subjects over the age of 45 than under the age of 45. C. The sample included subject(s) who were much older than the age of 45. D. The sample included subject(s) who were much younger than the age of 45.

C. The sample included subject(s) who were much older than the age of 45. A mean age (of 55) that is higher than the median age (of 45) suggests that the sample had a skew toward older ages. One way to represent this is to say that the sample included subject(s) who were much older than the average age.

Why is the velocity of blood flow slower in capillaries than in arteries? A. Capillary walls are more elastic than arterial walls B. Capillaries have less resistance to blood flow than arteries C. The total cross-sectional area of capillaries exceeds that of arteries D. Blood pressure is higher in the capillaries than in arteries

C. The total cross-sectional area of capillaries exceeds that of arteries

What is the equilibrium constant for the reaction, CaCO3(s) --> CO2(g) + CaO(s)? A. [CaO] B. [CaCO3] C. [CO2] D. [CaO] x [CaCO3]

C. [CO2] only gases and aq solutions are considered

Which of the following psychological phenomenon does serotonin NOT influence directly? A. sleep B. mood C. aging D. appetite

C. aging

Type I diabetes typically occurs as a result of autoimmune destruction of: A. acinar cells B. alpha cells in the islet of Langerhans C. beta cells in the islet of Langerhans D. chief cells

C. beta cells in the islet of Langerhans

The intermolecular forces that exist among the molecules of NH3 gas are: A. dipole-dipole forces only. B. London dispersion forces only. C. both dipole-dipole and London dispersion forces. D. neither dipole-dipole nor London dispersion forces.

C. both dipole-dipole and London dispersion forces.

A defining characteristic of proteins that act as transcription factors (such as STAT5b) is that they: A. can dimerize. B. can phosphorylate other proteins. C. contain a DNA binding domain. D. are present within the nucleus of the cell.

C. contain a DNA binding domain. The defining characteristic of a transcription factor is that it has a DNA-binding domain that allows it to bind to regulatory nucleic acid sequences in a gene to alter transcription. D is incorrect because transcription factors ultimately end up in the nucleus, but other proteins can exist within the nucleus that do not alter transcription.

Those species that are capable of both sexual and asexual reproduction will typically prefer sexual reproduction because it: A. increases the likelihood of each individual offspring surviving. B. increases the likelihood of beneficial mutations. C. creates more variation in the next generation. D. takes less time to complete.

C. creates more variation in the next generation.

As blood passes through actively contracting skeletal muscle tissue, the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen in the muscle tissue: A. increases as a result of an increase in plasma temperature. B. increases as a result of an increase in plasma PO2. C. decreases as a result of a decrease in plasma pH. D. decreases as a result of a decrease in plasma PCO2.

C. decreases as a result of a decrease in plasma pH. Affinity would decrease with a decrease in plasma pH, and during prolonged exercise, anaerobic respiration would decrease the plasma pH. B is wrong because affinity would increase when PO2 increases. However, PO2 in muscle cells decreases with exercise.

If a thin thread is placed between a screen and a bright source of light, a pattern of parallel dark and bright fringes appears on the screen. The phenomenon best explaining the formation of this pattern is: A. refraction. B. polarization. C. diffraction. D. reflection.

C. diffraction.

During the production of insulin, the translated polypeptide is cleaved into the mature form and is secreted from the cell. The cleavage most likely takes place in which of the following locations? A. nucleus B. ribosomes C. endomembrane system D. cytoplasm

C. endomembrane system

When comparing the color perception of humans and baboons, similarity in which anatomical structure of the eye is most important? A. optic disc B. sclera C. fovea D. lens

C. fovea

Which of the following cells are the most highly proliferative? A. adipocytes B. cardiac muscle cells C. gastrointestinal epithelial cells D. neurons

C. gastrointestinal epithelial cells

Once an enzyme is saturated with substrate, how do increases in [S] affect the rate of the reaction? A. increase it slightly B. decrease it significantly C. have no significant effect D. increase is significantly

C. have no significant effect

The binding of oxygen to hemoglobin does not follow the rules of Michaelis-Menten kinetics, primarily because: A. hemoglobin does not modify oxygen B. hemoglobin can bind more tightly to carbon monoxide than to oxygen C. hemoglobin exhibits allosteric effects D. oxygen is a gas at standard temperature and pressure

C. hemoglobin exhibits allosteric effects

Which of the following processes would NOT occur in response to reduced blood insulin levels? A. decreased uptake of blood glucose by muscle cells B. increased conversion of glycogen into muscle glucose C. increased utilization of glucose as fuel D. increased utilization of fatty acid as fuel

C. increased utilization of glucose as fuel

The perception of pain would occur in an individual receiving an arm tattoo if: A. input to nociceptors in the arm is superseded by tactile stimulation to a nearby body part B. the Meissner corpuscles in the arm have not habituated to the painful stimulus C. input to nociceptors in the arm is preferentially transmitted to the brain by the spinal cord over other stimuli D. input to Meissner corpuscles in the arm is preferentially transmitted to the brain by the spinal cord over other stimuli

C. input to nociceptors in the arm is preferentially transmitted to the brain by the spinal cord over other stimuli

Which of the following is LEAST likely to be an example of an educational disparity caused by residential segregation? A. decreased use of classroom technology B. insufficient access to consistent bussing C. less access to federally funded educational programs D. inequality in access to well-trained teachers

C. less access to federally funded educational programs may be an educational disparity, but is not caused by residential segregation

A large carbohydrate is tagged with a fluorescent marker and placed in the extracellular environment surrounding a eukaryotic cell. The cell ingests the carbohydrate via endocytosis. Which of the following cellular structures is most likely to be the first one fluorescently labeled? A. nucleus B. Golgi apparatus C. lysosome D. endoplasmic reticulum

C. lysosome when a macrophage ingests foreign material, the material initially becomes trapped in a phagosome, the phagosome then fuses with a lysosome to form a phagolysosome

A person is struggling to achieve generativity, rather than stagnation. In terms of Erikson's theory, this person is a(n): A. adolescent. B. young adult. C. middle-aged adult. D. elderly adult.

C. middle-aged adult. According to Erikson's theory, a middle-aged person struggles with generativity versus stagnation.

A prion is best described as an infectious: A. prokaryote B. transposon C. protein D. virus

C. protein

Attraction and commitment to a group is likely to be greatest when group members: A. promote their social networks. B. express diverse cultural values. C. share equivalent cultural capital. D. present their back-stage selves.

C. share equivalent cultural capital. Group affiliation (attraction and commitment) is likely to be greatest when the members or participants in the group share similar outlooks, knowledge, preferences, skills, and other aspects of cultural capital. Among the options, similarity in cultural capital would be most likely to solidify group bonds in a way that increases commitment to the group.

A receiver is connected to a family's television that records that family's viewing habits for use in determining ratings of television programs. The family, aware that they are being studied, find themselves watching more educational programs than usual. This behavior is an example of: A. demand characteristics B. observational error C. the Hawthorne effect D. systematic error

C. the Hawthorne effect definition of the Hawthorne effect is people changing their behavior because they are aware that they are being studied

A therapeutic patient undergoes systematic desensitization treatment. The function of which of the following structures is most altered by the end of treatment? A. the pituitary gland B. the prefrontal cortex C. the amygdala D. the hippocampus

C. the amygdala amygdala is most responsible for the fear response

The GTP used by tubulin could come directly from the products of: A. glycolysis B. the pentose phosphate pathway C. the citric acid cycle D. oxidative phosphorylation

C. the citric acid cycle

The preferred ion configuration of many elements on the periodic table is determined by: A. the electron configuration of the nearest noble gas; elements will gain or lose electrons until they have the same core electron configuration as this noble gas. B. the electronegativity of the element directly above it, within the same group; elements will gain or lose electrons until they have an electronegativity that matches the period immediately above them. C. the electron configuration of the nearest noble gas; elements will gain or lose electrons until they have the same valence electron configuration as this noble gas. D. the relative stability of the nearest d subshell; elements will gain or lose electrons until the outermost d subshell available is stable.

C. the electron configuration of the nearest noble gas; elements will gain or lose electrons until they have the same valence electron configuration as this noble gas. Elements will often adopt a configuration with a complete octet - the configuration found in the noble gases. This complete octet is preferred for the outermost valence electrons.

A patient complains of severe dizziness, poor balance, and slight difficulty hearing. In which of the following structures would her doctor expect to find a problem? A. the temporal lobe B. the cochlea C. the semi-circular canals D. the cerebellum

C. the semi-circular canals dizziness and difficulty hearing strongly suggest an inner ear problem, B and C are inner ear structures. The cochlea does not contribute to dizziness or poor balance

Drinking ocean water is ultimately fatal to a human because: A. the water has a very low solute concentration relative to the body's cells, resulting in cell swelling and death. B. the kidney must work very hard to excrete the excessive levels of bivalent ions in the ocean water, causing kidney failure. C. the water has a very high solute concentration relative to the body's cells, resulting in cell shrinkage and death. D. ocean water contains toxic levels of environmental pollutants that can damage organs or cause cancer, leading to death.

C. the water has a very high solute concentration relative to the body's cells, resulting in cell shrinkage and death.

A researcher replicates the experiment with the addition of a physical stressor to the first phase of the experiment. According to Selye's general adaptation syndrome, this change is: A. necessary, because humans respond differently to different types of stressors. B. necessary, because physical stressors cause avoidance-avoidance conflict, whereas social stressors cause approach-approach conflict. C. unnecessary, because the human stress response is not specific to the type of stressor. D. unnecessary, because both physical stressors and social stressors cause avoidance-avoidance conflict.

C. unnecessary, because the human stress response is not specific to the type of stressor. Selye's general adaptation syndrome: people's response to various stressors is similar

The participants' failure to inform the cashier of being undercharged would most accurately constitute a: A. taboo B. sanction C. violation of social mores D. violation of social folkways

C. violation of social mores

The left cerebral hemisphere in humans is most often linked with which cognitive function? A. visuospatial skills B. music perception C. vocabulary skills D. emotion processing

C. vocabulary skills

cross-sectional design

Cross-sectional designs measure at one specific point in time

How do beta and gamma radiation differ? A) Gamma rays can penetrate the Geiger counter cylinder, while beta rays cannot B) Beta particles and gamma rays will be deflected in opposite directions by a magnetic field C) Beta particles and gamma rays will be deflected in opposite directions by an electric field D) Beta particles will be deflected in a magnetic field while gamma rays will not.

D) Beta particles will be deflected in a magnetic field while gamma rays will not. Photons have no charge, so no magnetic field

Suppose squares 1, 2, 3, and 4, moving from left to right at the top of the grid light up and some participants think "top row lights up first," to remember the sequence. Which process is most likely being used to enhance working memory capacity? A) Divided attention B) Priming C) Automatic processing D) Chunking

D) Chunking

A researcher suggests that the effect of the testing condition on the affiliation ratings is caused by increased sympathetic nervous system activity due to performing a repetitive behavior. Is this explanation likely to be supported? A) Yes, because studies show that increased sympathetic nervous system arousal can affect how people feel about others. B) Yes, because the design used in Study 1 allows researchers to establish the effect of sympathetic nervous system arousal on affiliation ratings. C) No, because performing repetitive behaviors is more likely to increase parasympathetic nervous system activity. D) No, because both of the conditions involve repetitive behaviors, but participants' ratings differ under the two conditions.

D) No, because both of the conditions involve repetitive behaviors, but participants' ratings differ under the two conditions.

The researchers change the procedure such that instead of placing the objects in a box, the participants have to recall all the objects that they have seen during training. According to the spreading of activation theory, which type of memory error is most likely? A) Making source monitoring errors regarding the location of the training objects. B) Poorer memory for the training objects seen at the later points in the experiment. C) Selective forgetting of the training objects that were placed in the center of the box. D) Recalling objects that were not presented but are from the same category as the training objects

D) Recalling objects that were not presented but are from the same category as the training objects

A researcher analyzes a nucleic acid sample. After looking only at its nucleotide composition, he decisively concludes that this sample represents single-stranded DNA and not another form of nucleic acid. Which of the following compositions most likely represents this sample? A. 17% A, 17% T, 33% G, 33% C B. 29% A, 14% U, 11% G, 46% C C. 4% A, 4% U, 46% G, 46% C D. 12% A, 12% T, 30% G, 46% C

D. 12% A, 12% T, 30% G, 46% C We are told that the researcher can "decisively conclude" that this sample represents single-stranded DNA using only its nucleotide composition. We are therefore looking for the option that could logically represent single-stranded DNA but could not represent another type of nucleic acid. Both options A and D could be the compositions of single-stranded DNA, but choice A has equal proportions of adenine and thymine as well as equal proportions of cytosine and guanine. Choice A, then, could easily represent double-stranded DNA, so the researcher would not be able to conclude whether that sample were single- or double-stranded. Choice D, then, is the only answer remaining

An unknown amount of a radioactive isotope with a half-life of 2.0 h was observed for 6.0 h. If the amount of the isotope remaining after 6.0 h was 24 g, what would the original amount have been? A. 3 g B. 4 g C. 144 g D. 192 g

D. 192 g

A circuit is constructed with a 12-V battery and four identical resistors, each with a resistance of 16 Ω, hooked up in parallel. What is the total power dissipated by the circuit? A. 4 W B. 4 J C. 18 J D. 36 W

D. 36 W 1/Rtot = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3 + 1/R4 1/Rtot = 1/16 + 1/16 + 1/16 + 1/16 1/Rtot = 4/16 = 1/4 Rtot = 4 Ω Next, we must solve for power: P = V2/R = (12)2/4 = 144/4 = 36 W

What is the energy of the photons emitted by an LED at a frequency of 610 THz? (Note: h = 6.6 x 10^-34 J*s) A. 9.2 x 10^-12 J B. 1.6 x 10^-16 J C. 1.1 x 10^-18 J D. 4.0 x 10^-19 J

D. 4.0 x 10^-19 J E = (6.6 x 10^-34 J*s) * (610 x 10^12) = 4.0 x 10^-19 J

Assume that K and M are two unlinked genes that affect hearing. The dominant K allele is necessary for hearing, and the dominant M allele causes deafness regardless of the other genes present. Given this, what fraction of the offspring of parents with the genotypes KkMm and Kkmm will most likely be deaf? A. 1/4 B. 3/8 C. 1/2 D. 5/8

D. 5/8

What volume of a 0.120 M CaI2 solution would contain 0.078 mol of the solute? A. 35 mL B. 65 mL C. 350 mL D. 650 mL

D. 650 mL ? mL = 0.078 mol * (1 L / 0.120 mol) * (1000 mL / 1 L) = 650

Which of the following best describes the bond that would form between thymine and adenine if they were located adjacent to each other as shown in a single strand of DNA, with thymine on top and adenine on the bottom? A. A bond between the phosphate of the thymine and the phosphate of the adenine B. A bond between an oxygen in the thymine base and a nitrogen in the adenine base C. A bond between the phosphate of the thymine and the sugar of the adenine D. A bond between the phosphate of the adenine and the sugar of the thymine

D. A bond between the phosphate of the adenine and the sugar of the thymine B would be correct if they were on complementary strands

If the pH of blood were to increase to 7.6, what would be the likely outcome? A. An increase in carbonic anhydrase activity B. A decrease in carbonic anhydrase activity C. An increase in the rate of CO2 exhalation D. A decrease in the rate of CO2 exhalation

D. A decrease in the rate of CO2 exhalation more CO2 means more acidic

Which of the following is NOT an example of a demographic measure? A. Income B. Sexual orientation C. Education D. Absolute mobility

D. Absolute mobility Demographics are statistics used to examine a population by quantifying subsets of that population. Absolute mobility means that living standards are increasing in absolute terms: you are better off than your parents and your children will be better off than you. Absolute mobility compares your income to your parent's income. If your parents make $5,000 dollars a year and you make $10,000 dollars a year, you have experienced absolute mobility. Absolute mobility is not an example of a demographic measure.

Which statement best applies Rogers's concept of incongruence to self-determination theory's suggestion for how healthcare professionals can promote autonomous motivation? A. By encouraging their patients' initiative, healthcare professionals motivate their patients to reduce the gap in their need for self-actualization. B. By giving their patients options, healthcare professionals make it possible for their patients to reduce the gap between their actual behavior and their expected behavior. C. By encouraging the patients' initiative, healthcare professionals motivate their patients to reduce the gap between their behaviors and their attitudes. D. By giving their patients options, healthcare professionals offer their patients ways to reduce the gap between their ideal selves and their actual selves.

D. By giving their patients options, healthcare professionals offer their patients ways to reduce the gap between their ideal selves and their actual selves. Incongruence refers to the gap between a person's actual self and ideal self.

During the initiation of muscle contraction myosin binds actin after troponin binds to which ion? A. H+ B. K+ C. Na+ D. Ca2+

D. Ca2+

Which research design would allow a researcher to determine whether the study's finding about heterosexual marriage and alcohol consumption also holds for same-sex marriage? A. Ask a random sample of respondents whether individuals in same-sex marriages consume alcohol in different patterns than married heterosexuals. B. Conduct a study of gender role attitudes that consists of respondents currently living with a partner, including those in same-sex marriages. C. Survey alcohol consumption patterns of a random sample of American adults across demographic characteristics, including sexual orientation. D. Compare rates of alcohol consumption among a random sample of single, homosexual respondents and those married to a same-sex partner.

D. Compare rates of alcohol consumption among a random sample of single, homosexual respondents and those married to a same-sex partner. To assess the relationship between variables, both variables must be measured and exhibit variation. The key describes an appropriate design because both variables (alcohol consumption and same-sex partnerships) are measured for a relevant population. It would thus provide data that could provide for a comparison with the findings of the study in the passage.

What type of conflict are the jurors in the study likely experiencing if they are unsure of the defendant's guilt? A. Approach-approach conflict B. Avoidant-avoidant conflict C. Approach-avoidant conflict D. Double approach-avoidant conflict

D. Double approach-avoidant conflict Double approach-avoidant conflicts consist of two options with both appealing and negative characteristics, which seems to represent the jury's dilemma. If they rule the defendant guilty, they would either be punishing a criminal (approach) or punishing an innocent (avoidant). If they rule the defendant innocent, they would either be letting a criminal walk away unpunished (avoidant) or freeing an innocent (approach).

Which of the following provides the most reasonable evolutionary explanation for fainting when circulation to the brain is insufficient? A. The CNS ischemic response increases the pressure of blood traveling to the brain B. Baroreceptor response to this insufficiency causes brain BP to exceed ventricular BP C. An inactive brain results in diminished metabolic need, allowing circulation to catch up D. Fainting results in a reduction of the effects of gravity on blood flow to the brain

D. Fainting results in a reduction of the effects of gravity on blood flow to the brain hydrostatic pressure: P = pgz, where pressure is inversely proportional to height; if circulation to the brain is insufficient, fainting makes the person fall to the floor so the brain is at the same height as the rest of body, which prevents blood pressure in the brain from dropping

Which one of Piaget's cognitive developmental stages are children ages 10-13 LEAST likely to have acquired? A. Concrete operational stage B. Sensorimotor stage C. Preoperational stage D. Formal operational stage

D. Formal operational stage Children reach formal operation stage at 12 years old, so not all people in the group have reached this stage

Which finding best supports the linguistic relativity hypothesis? A. All languages have a word for "up" and a word for "down" B. Humans are better at learning words for primary colors than for secondary colors C. Some languages do not have words for "right" and "left" D. Humans are better at distinguishing colors for which their language has a name

D. Humans are better at distinguishing colors for which their language has a name the linguistic relativity hypothesis suggests that human cognition is affected by language

In prokaryotes, genes can exist as operons that are transcribed into a polycistronic mRNA, containing multiple genes in a single transcript. In eukaryotes, transcripts exist only as monocistronic mRNA containing a single gene. What fundamental genetic difference is responsible for this distinction? A. mRNA is transported outside of the nucleus in eukaryotes. B. Prokaryotic mRNA has a 5' GTP cap. C. Prokaryotic ribosomes differ from eukaryotic ribosomes. D. In eukaryotes, each gene has its own transcription initiation site.

D. In eukaryotes, each gene has its own transcription initiation site.

Which of the following is true of culture? A. culture cannot be taught and must be learned through personal experience B. cultural symbols have intrinsic meaning that lend them their primary importance C. individuals invariably questions the culture of which they are a part D. Lamarckian inheritance more accurately characterizes cultural evolution than biological evolution

D. Lamarckian inheritance more accurately characterizes cultural evolution than biological evolution

On a globular protein, what are the preferred locations for leucine and phenylalanine residues? A. Leucine prefers the interior, while phenylalanine prefers the exterior B. Leucine prefers the exterior, while phenylalanine prefers the interior C. Leucine and phenylalanine both prefer the exterior D. Leucine and phenylalanine both prefer the interior

D. Leucine and phenylalanine both prefer the interior Both have hydrophobic side chains

A researcher suggests that the benefits of bilingualism are related to the idea that the structure of language affects the perceptions of its speakers. This researcher is referring to which concept? A. Weber's Law B. The nativist hypothesis C. Schacter-Singer theory D. Linguistic relativity

D. Linguistic relativity

A researcher proposes an alternative to the hypothesis in the passage that mammography rates are partly due to social capital. An alternative hypothesis that draws on the concept of institutional discrimination is most likely to make which prediction? A. Patients whose healthcare provider is from the same racial/ethnic group will have above average rates of mammography. B. Mammography rates will be affected by healthcare providers who interact with patients differently according to racial/ethnic group. C. Metropolitan areas that are highly segregated across different racial/ethnic groups will have below average rates of mammography. D. Mammography rates will be affected by healthcare policies that have a disproportionate impact on racial/ethnic minority groups.

D. Mammography rates will be affected by healthcare policies that have a disproportionate impact on racial/ethnic minority groups.

When concentrated urine is being produced, in which of the following regions of the kidney will the glomerular filtrate reach its highest concentration? A. Proximal convoluted tubule B. Distal convoluted tubule C. Cortical portion of the collecting duct D. Medullary portion of the collecting duct

D. Medullary portion of the collecting duct

A researcher proposes that higher alcohol consumption in men, compared to women, may be related to higher testosterone levels in men. Which result would cast doubt on this hypothesis? A. Employment increases alcohol consumption among men but decreases it among women. B. Traditional gender attitudes are linked to a similar reduction in drinking for men and women. C. Women consume less alcohol than men regardless of marital status and employment status. D. Men and women with similar attitudes and adult roles consume the same amount of alcohol.

D. Men and women with similar attitudes and adult roles consume the same amount of alcohol.

Through what form of social influence are new ideas most likely spread? A. Compliance B. Identification C. Internalization D. Minority influence

D. Minority influence

Colchicine is a drug that prevents the formation of microtubules. Which of the following mitotic processes would NOT occur after exposure to this drug? A. Formation of new cell plate B. Replication of DNA during interphase C. Breakdown of the nucleolus during prophase D. Movement of the chromosomes toward opposite poles of the cell during anaphase

D. Movement of the chromosomes toward opposite poles of the cell during anaphase

Are the assumptions of social cognitive theory (holds that self-efficacy is a key factor in persevering in attempts to achieve one's goal) regarding the role of participants' beliefs consistent with a traditional behaviorist approach? A. Yes, because the traditional behaviorist approach also emphasizes changes in behavior due to desirable and undesirable outcomes B. Yes, because the traditional behaviorist approach holds that repeated exposure to certain outcomes shapes beliefs regarding these outcomes C. No, because the traditional behaviorist approach holds that mental states are involved only in classical conditioning, not operant conditioning D. No, because the traditional behaviorist approach holds that actual outcomes determine behavior, not cognitions regarding potential outcomes

D. No, because the traditional behaviorist approach holds that actual outcomes determine behavior, not cognitions regarding potential outcomes A rigid behaviorist approach rejects SCT's assumption that cognitions can act as motivators for behavior. Instead, it holds that only actual outcomes of a behavior determine whether that behavior will be repeated.

Which of the following lists of values, obtained from bomb calorimetry, constitutes sufficient information to determine the bond energy of activated glucosamine? A. mass of reactants, heat of formation of reactants, temperature of products B. Temperature of reactants, mass of calorimeter, and specific heat of calorimeter C. Mass of water in calorimeter and specific heat of water D. None of the above is sufficient to determine the bond energy

D. None of the above is sufficient to determine the bond energy We need all the info in the available choices as well as the heat of formation of the products and background information on bond energies contained within either the reactants or products

Which statement does NOT describe a monocular depth cue? A. Objects that are higher up in the visual field are perceived as being farther away than the objects that are lower in the visual field. B. Objects that are occluded by other objects are perceived as being farther away than the objects that occlude them. C. Objects that have more detailed textures are perceived as being closer than objects that have less detailed textures. D. Objects that are to the front of the point of focus are perceived as being closer than objects that are behind the point of focus.

D. Objects that are to the front of the point of focus are perceived as being closer than objects that are behind the point of focus. Using the distance from the object of focus as a depth cue is associated with retinal disparity, which is a binocular depth cue.

What allows small insects to walk on the free surface of water? A. Hydrostatic pressure B. Viscosity C. Buoyancy D. Surface tension

D. Surface tension

It is found that small to moderate doses of I-131 are more likely to cause thyroid cancer than extremely large doses. Which of the following provides the best explanation for this observation? A. Small doses of I-131 are not absorbed by the body. B. Extremely large doses of I-131 are not absorbed by the body. C. The amount of radiation released by large doses of I-131 is enough to damage DNA without killing cells. D. The amount of radiation released by small doses of I-131 is enough to damage DNA without killing cells.

D. The amount of radiation released by small doses of I-131 is enough to damage DNA without killing cells. The passage states that radionuclides can damage DNA and kill cells. Presumably, it would take a larger dose to kill a cell than to damage its DNA in a non-lethal manner. Therefore, smaller doses may be able to cause cancer in tissues whose cells would be killed by larger amounts.

Which of the following reasons best explains why it is possible to separate a 1:1 mixture of 1-chlorobutane and 1-butanol by fractional distillation? A. Both 1-chlorobutane and 1-butanol are polar. B. Both 1-chlorobutane and 1-butanol are nonpolar. C. The boiling point of 1-chlorobutane is substantially higher than that of 1-butanol. D. The boiling point of 1-chlorobutane is substantially lower than that of 1-butanol.

D. The boiling point of 1-chlorobutane is substantially lower than that of 1-butanol.

An individual who identifies herself as being a moderate supporter of a political movement is presented with a number of articles, some of which provide views that support the movement and some of which describe dissenting views. Which of the following is the most likely result? A. The individuals changes her position to oppose the movement B. The individual changed her position to that of neutrality C. The individual's position remains unchanged D. The individual increases her support of the movement

D. The individual increases her support of the movement

A social constructionism critique of gender would most likely assert which of the following? A. A single female living in a totally isolated system would construct the same knowledge about what is acceptable behavior as would a female living in a society comprised of tight-knit clan units with matrilineal inheritance. B. The near-universal dominance of males in war and combat situations across time and in various cultures is mere coincidence, unlinked to any underlying biological phenomena. C. The association of the color blue with the clothing and bedrooms of baby boys results in increased testosterone production in the adrenal cortices of infant boys. D. The tendency for women in the workplace to use consensus-building as the best problem-solving approach is a consequence of females being told that it's important to "be a good girl" while growing up.

D. The tendency for women in the workplace to use consensus-building as the best problem-solving approach is a consequence of females being told that it's important to "be a good girl" while growing up. Social constructionism asserts that people develop understandings and knowledge of the world through interactions with other people, and that the mediating force in this interaction is primarily language. Thus, under social constructionism ideas about gender are not inherent in the nature of reality itself, but are socially constructed and transmitted every day through countless language-based interactions between members of society. Choice D offers a good example of social constructionism in which a woman's behavior is shaped by her socially constructed sense of what it means to "be a good girl."

The presence of which type of intercellular connections between endothelial cells of brain capillaries results in the blood-brain barrier? A. Desmosomes B. Gap junctions C. Intercalated discs D. Tight junctions

D. Tight junctions Tight junctions are intercellular junctions that prevent the movement of solutes within the space between adjacent cells. In blood capillaries, neighboring endothelial cells form tight junctions with one another to restrict the diffusion of harmful substances and large molecules into the interstitial fluid surrounding the brain.

If the students perform an enzyme inhibition assay using captopril (a competitive inhibitor), which of the following changes in the kinetic parameters of ACE should be expected? A. Vmax decreased; Km unchanged B. Vmax decreased; Km increased C. Vmax unchanged; Km decreased D. Vmax unchanged; Km increased

D. Vmax unchanged; Km increased Competitive inhibitors increase the Km of their associated enzymatic reactions without altering the Vmax value

In Drosophila, white eyes are recessive to red eyes, and yellow bodies are recessive to dark bodies; both genes are on the X chromosome. The genotype of a red-eyed, dark-bodied female (XX) could be determined by mating it with a male (XY) that has which of the following phenotypes? A. Red eyes, dark body B. Red eyes, yellow body C. White eyes, dark body D. White eyes, yellow body

D. White eyes, yellow body This question tests the knowledge of the test cross. This is a method to identify if an organism that shows a dominant phenotype is a homozygous or heterozygous. The female is red-eyed and dark bodied, which means she has a dominant phenotype. However, the female could also be homozygous or heterozygous for one or both traits. Mating this type of female with a male with a recessive phenotype for both traits (white eyes and yellow body) would determine the genotype of the female.

A child is sliding a toy block (with mass = m) down a ramp. The coefficient of static friction between the block and the ramp is 0.25. When the block is halfway down the ramp, the child pushes down on the block perpendicular to the plane, halting it. What is the minimum force the child must apply to keep the block from starting to slide down the ramp? A. mg sin θ B. 0.25 mg cos θ + mg sin θ C. mg sin θ - 0.25 mg cos θ D. [(mg sin θ) / 0.25] - mg cos θ

D. [(mg sin θ) / 0.25] - mg cos θ

Inhalation facilitates venous flow towards the right atrium by expanding the thoracic cavity and inducing: A. constriction of veins by the diaphragm B. intercostal compression of the heart C. an increase in pulmonary circulation velocity D. a decrease in cavity pressure

D. a decrease in cavity pressure If the cavity expands, pressure decreases

A therapist treats a patient with agoraphobia. If the therapist subscribes strongly to the tenets of cognitive-behavioral therapy, which of the following treatments would be most representative of the therapist's view of the causes of the disorder? A. showing the patient pictures of crowded situations while playing soothing music B. preparing the patient with relaxation techniques before having her spend a day in a busy airport C. prescribing a serotonin reuptake inhibitor to treat the symptoms of anxiety generally D. accompanying the patient to the mall and challenging her belief that she will become trapped with no escape

D. accompanying the patient to the mall and challenging her belief that she will become trapped with no escape

The lone pair of electrons in ammonia allows the molecule to: A. assume a planar structure B. act as a oxidizing agent C. act as a Lewis acid in water D. act as a Lewis base in water

D. act as a Lewis base in water a Lewis base donates an electron pair

Which of the following mitochondrial genome characteristics differs most from the characteristics of the nuclear genome? A, mitochondrial DNA is a double helix B. some mitochondrial genes code for tRNA C. Specific mutations to mitochondrial DNA can be lethal to the organism D. almost every base in mitochondrial DNA codes for a product

D. almost every base in mitochondrial DNA codes for a product

Enzymes alter the rate of chemical reactions by all of the following methods EXCEPT: A. co-localizing substrates. B. altering local pH. C. altering substrate shape. D. altering substrate primary structure.

D. altering substrate primary structure.

Damage to which nervous system structure is most likely to cause problems in the a person's ability to perform synchronous behavior (tapping to a metronome)? A. hippocampus B. hypothalamus C. cochlea D. cerebellum

D. cerebellum

Which of the following energy conversions best describes what takes place in a battery-powered resistive circuit when the current is flowing? A. electric to thermal to chemical B. chemical to thermal to electric C. electric to chemical to thermal D. chemical to electric to thermal

D. chemical to electric to thermal

When normal human cells are grown in culture, they will divide a limited number of times - typically 50 rounds of mitosis. After this number is reached, the cells become apoptotic. This cell death is a result of: A. decreasing number of membrane-bound organelles per cell. B. decreasing number of non-membrane-bound organelles per cell. C. decreasing levels of growth hormone. D. chromosomal telomeres shortening after each round of division.

D. chromosomal telomeres shortening after each round of division. As cells undergo mitosis, the telomeres, the portion of the DNA on the ends of the chromosomes, gets progressively shorter. Eventually the DNA loses its telomeres entirely and is unable to reproduce. The cell then dies, undergoing apoptosis. The position of telomeres on the chromosome is shown below

Which of the following best describes the bonds between Cu2+ and the nitrogen atoms of the ammonia molecules in [Cu(NH3)4]2+? A. ionic B. covalent C. coordinate ionic D. coordinate covalent

D. coordinate covalent the Lewis acid-base interaction between a metal cation and an electron pair donor is known as a coordinate covalent bond

Which of the following types of orbitals of the central atom are involved in bonding in octahedral compounds? A. sp B. sp3 C. p D. d2sp3

D. d2sp3

A dopamine antagonist will most likely lead to: A. increased hallucinations in patients with schizophrenia. B. increased delusions in patients with schizophrenia. C. decreased mobility and decreased frequency of tremors in patients with Parkinson's disease. D. decreased mobility and increased frequency of tremors in patients with Parkinson's disease.

D. decreased mobility and increased frequency of tremors in patients with Parkinson's disease. Patients with Parkinson's disease already have insufficient dopamine levels. Therefore, a drug that blocks dopamine receptors will further reduce dopamine's impact, and worsen the symptoms of Parkinson's disease, such as decreased mobility and increased frequency of tremors.

During an action potential, the movement of sodium ions into a neuron causes the neuronal membrane to do which of the following? A. inactivate B. hyperpolarize C. repolarize D. depolarize

D. depolarize

After the study, a male participant with a low perceived vulnerability contracts HIV. While applying for a job an employer discovers his HIV status. After failing to receive a job offer, the man concludes that he was not hired because of his condition. If true, this would be an example of: A. stigma on the part of the participant. B. racism on the part of the employer. C. prejudice on the part of the employer. D. discrimination on the part of the employer.

D. discrimination on the part of the employer.

Individuals who have the ability to delay gratification in pursuit of long-term rewards are most likely to be categorized as having which type of intelligence? A. Analytical B. creative C. interpersonal D. emotional

D. emotional

Which of the following does NOT derive from the neural crest? A. adrenal medulla B. Schwann cells C. melanocyte cells D. erythrocyte cells

D. erythrocyte cells

In response to the point that gender inequality can contribute to the spread of HIV, a Western European policymaker suggests that Western European gender roles should be directly imposed on African and Asian countries in order to reduce HIV transmission. This proposal is most likely to be criticized for being an example of: A. groupthink. B. deindividuation. C. stigma. D. ethnocentrism.

D. ethnocentrism.

The peptide bond that forms the backbone of proteins is especially stable because it: A. consists of a triple bond, which is significantly stronger and more stable. B. is a carboxylic acid derivative. C. would result in proteins that denatured easily if it were unstable. D. exhibits resonance stabilization.

D. exhibits resonance stabilization.

A child points to a tree and says he sees a bird. The mother turns around toward the tree but does not see any bird. She assumes the child is lying. What tendency is the mother most closely exhibiting? A. cognitive dissonance B. belief perseverance C. confirmation bias D. fundamental attribution error

D. fundamental attribution error

The increasing likelihood that a person calling a technical support center will speak to someone in a different continent is an example of: A. cultural assimilation B. demographic transition C. urbanization D. globalization

D. globalization

All of the following are removed from the plasma by dialysis EXCEPT: A. Na+ B. K+ C. urea D. glucose

D. glucose

Positron Emission Tomography (PET) scans follow the movement of a radioactively labeled compound throughout the body and are often used to detect metabolic activity in cancer cells relative to normal cells. The labeled compound is most likely: A. pyruvate. B. acetyl-CoA. C. ATP. D. glucose.

D. glucose. The question asks us to determine which compound would be tracked by PET and identify cancers. The passage states that cancerous cells have a very high rate of glycolysis relative to normal cells. PET scans using labeled glucose would allow for the visualization and easy comparison of glucose movement towards cancerous cells.

If a person drank a large quantity of hypersaline ocean water, the person could die because absorption of salt into the blood will cause it to become: A. hypotonic compared with the cytosol of the body's cells, causing osmosis of water into the cells. B. hypertonic compared with the cytosol of the body's cells, causing osmosis of water into the cells. C. hypotonic compared with the cytosol of the body's cells, causing osmosis of water out of the cells. D. hypertonic compared with the cytosol of the body's cells, causing osmosis of water out of the cells.

D. hypertonic compared with the cytosol of the body's cells, causing osmosis of water out of the cells.

Research has shown that when individuals study material right before going to sleep, they perform better on a recall measure upon awakening compared to individuals who study and then watch a movie before going to sleep. Which memory construct provides the most likely explanation for these results? A. misinformation B. primacy C. spreading activation D. interference

D. interference

The use of pulsed laser radiation in the PRK procedure, as opposed to continuous laser radiation, allows the cornea to: A. absorb more radiation. B. change its index of refraction. C. increase the area exposed to radiation. D. maintain a lower average temperature.

D. maintain a lower average temperature.

A researcher is interested in how anxiety disorders affect escape learning. Which procedure is most appropriate for assessing the dependent variable in this study? A. Having the participants fill out a validated questionnaire that screens for anxiety disorders B. having a trained practitioner assess the participants for anxiety disorder C. monitoring how many trials it takes for participants to avoid a response that results in an electric shock when the electric shock is signaled with a tone D. monitoring how many trials it takes for participants to be conditioned to perform a response that results in the termination of an electric shock

D. monitoring how many trials it takes for participants to be conditioned to perform a response that results in the termination of an electric shock

What can be determined about the composition of the mRNA that encodes the protein from which ghrelin (a 28-amino-acid protein) is cleaved? It is composed of: A. more than 28 amino acids. B. exactly 84 nucleotides. C. exactly 87 nucleotides. D. more than 87 nucleotides.

D. more than 87 nucleotides. Each amino acid is coded by 3 nucleotides; thus, 84 nucleotides are needed to code for the 28-amino-acid peptide ghrelin. To this number, the triplet that codes for the STOP codon needs to be added. Therefore, 87 is the minimum number of nucleotides for the 28-amino-acid peptide ghrelin. However, the passage indicates that ghrelin is cleaved from a longer peptide chain. For this reason, the total number of nucleotides is higher than 87. A is wrong because the mRNA is made of nucleotides, not amino acids.

Excessive blood glucose levels lead to polyuria, an increase in urine output. A possible explanation for this is that the presence of glucose in the renal tubule directly causes a decrease in: A. the number of aquaporins closing in the collecting duct B. reabsorption of Na+ in the distal convoluted tubule C. movement of water through cells in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle D. movement of water through cells in the descending limb of the loop of Henle

D. movement of water through cells in the descending limb of the loop of Henle

A parent tells his child that if she spends an hour practicing the piano that evening, she will be allowed to skip her chores the next morning. The parent is using: A. positive punishment. B. negative punishment. C. positive reinforcement. D. negative reinforcement.

D. negative reinforcement. You can reinforce a behavior by rewarding it, which is positive reinforcement. Alternatively, you can reinforce a behavior by removing something negative, like chores. Here, the kid gets out of something negative (chores) by increasing a behavior (piano). Thus, the parent is using negative reinforcement.

Two groups of cats are placed in separate rooms. Room 1 is large with lots of exercise toys and laser-pointer devices that operate automatically on timers. Room 1 cats exhibit exercise levels 350% greater than the control cats in Room 2. Cats from both rooms are then placed in a room with an electrified floor and a safe shelf while the voltage in the floor is slowly increased. Cats from Room 1 remain on the floor for 32% more time than the control cats. This suggests that exercise downregulates: A. baroreceptors. B. stretch receptors. C. olfactory receptors. D. nociceptors.

D. nociceptors. The shock from the floor would create pain in the cats. The cats with exercise were able to withstand a longer shock and thus probably don't feel as much pain. Nociceptors are pain receptors; thus, exercise likely downregulates nociceptors.

Selenium is a: A. metal B. transitional metal C. halogen D. nonmetal

D. nonmetal

At its isoelectric point, an amino acid in an electric field will: A. migrate towards the anode B. migrate towards the cathode C. migrate towards the basic region D. not migrate

D. not migrate

After a section of a DNA strand containing a UVR-induced lesion is removed and resynthesized, the newly synthesized strand is rejoined to the remainder of the DNA strand by what type of bond? A. disulfide B. hydrogen C. peptide D. phosphodiester

D. phosphodiester phosphodiester bonds link the 3' carbon atom of one deoxyribose and the 5' carbon atom of another deoxyribose within the DNA molecules

Which molecule is NOT formed during the citric acid cycle? A. malate B. succinate C. α-ketoglutarate D. phosphoenolpyruvate

D. phosphoenolpyruvate phosphoenolpyruvate is a product of glycolysis, not the citric acid cycle

After initially learning to ride a bike, riding a bike becomes easy for an individual. Each time the individual rides a boke thereafter, what type of memory is being used? A. semantic B. episodic C. explicit D. procedural

D. procedural

Subjects in the study who experience withdrawal from the opioids prescribed for injury are likely to exhibit all of the following upon physical examination EXCEPT: A. increased perspiration. B. tremors. C. increased anxiety. D. pupillary constriction.

D. pupillary constriction. Withdrawal from substances tends to produce the opposite effect of symptoms occurred while using the substances. Pupillary constriction is a physiological response to opioid use and thus would not be expected as a symptom during opioid withdrawal.

What is the function of the Na+K+ ATPase during a neuronal action potential? A. stimulation of the action potential B. depolarization of the membrane C. hyperpolarization of the membrane D. restoration of the resting potential

D. restoration of the resting potential

DD-transpeptidase is a bacterial enzyme that cross-links peptidoglycan chains to form rigid cell walls. Threonine is often fund in these interbridges. Which of the following is also a likely component? A. histidine B. isoleucine C. phenylalanine D. serine

D. serine Serine is closest to threonine

Assume that a mutant allele is the result of the deletion of two entire codons. The base pair length of the mutant allele, compared to that of the wild-type allele, would have: A. two fewer nucleotides. B. three fewer nucleotides. C. four fewer nucleotides. D. six fewer nucleotides.

D. six fewer nucleotides. The question tests the knowledge of codons. Codons are the three-code nucleotides that are recognized by the tRNA and correspond to an amino acid. If two codons are removed, then the sequence will be 6 nucleotides shorter.

Sociologists describe the health benefits of social support as resulting from all of the following EXCEPT: A. friends and family members that help patients adhere to medical treatment B. friends and family members that help patients to reduce harmful behaviors C. social relationships that help individuals to cope with stressful events D. social activities that help individuals to avoid loneliness and boredom

D. social activities that help individuals to avoid loneliness and boredom

Suppose that a group of individuals diagnosed with personality disorder were found to believe - based on their childhood experiences in dysfunctional families - that their socially destructive actions should have yielded neutral or positive social results with those around them. This could be most directly and simply explained within which of the following theoretical frameworks? A. humanistic perspective B. biological perspective C. behaviorist perspective D. social cognitive perspective

D. social cognitive perspective

Binding of erythromycin to the large subunit of the bacterial ribosome most likely blocks the transfer of the tRNA bound at: A. the E site to the P site of the ribosome. B. the P site to the A site of the ribosome. C. the E site to the A site of the ribosome. D. the A site to the P site of the ribosome.

D. the A site to the P site of the ribosome. During protein translation, aminoacyl transferase functions to transfer the tRNA originally bound at the A (amino acid) site to the P (peptide) site and later to the E (exit) site of the ribosome. This option follows this order of transfer.​

When a subject views the word "red" written in green ink it takes longer for the subject to recognize the word than when viewing the word "red" written in red ink. This phenomenon is known as: A. the James-Lange theory. B. cognitive dissonance. C. attribution theory. D. the Stroop effect.

D. the Stroop effect. The Stroop effect describes the phenomenon in which it is harder for an individual to reconcile different pieces of information relating to colors than to reconcile similar pieces of information. An example of the Stroop effect is shown below. To experience this effect firsthand, try quickly saying the colors in which these words are written (rather than reading the words themselves). You'll likely find this task surprisingly difficult!

According to the cross-bridge model of muscle contraction, the muscles stiffen after death because ATP is unavailable to bind and directly release: A. ADP from the actin head B. ADP from the myosin head C. the actin head from the myosin filament D. the myosin head from the actin filament

D. the myosin head from the actin filament ATP is required to break the bonds between the actin filament and the myosin head; after death, no new ATP is generated, so the myosin head cannot be released from the actin filament, resulting in stiffening of muscles

A researcher studying plasma membrane proteins uses a detergent to disrupt cellular membranes. Why might the researcher choose erythrocytes for this study? A. the erythrocytic plasma membrane is static in vivo B. typical membrane proteins are not soluble in aqueous solution C. membrane proteins are usually present at low levels in native environments D. the plasma membrane is only a fraction of a typical cell's membranes

D. the plasma membrane is only a fraction of a typical cell's membranes

The half-life of a radioactive material is: A. half the time it takes for all of the radioactive nuclei to decay into radioactive nuclei B. half the time it takes for all of the radioactive nuclei to decay into their daughter nuclei C. the time it takes for half of all the radioactive nuclei to decay into radioactive nuclei D. the time it takes for half of all the radioactive nuclei to decay into their daughter nuclei

D. the time it takes for half of all the radioactive nuclei to decay into their daughter nuclei

An experiment is arranged in which participants spend 10 seconds, 20 seconds, or 30 seconds looking at a large, complex image. The image is then removed and replaced with a second image which is identical except for one small change. Researchers then measure how long the subjects look at the new image before finding the change. In this scenario, the independent variable is: A. whether the subjects ever find the change. B. the time spent looking for the change. C. the size and prominence of the change. D. the time spent looking at the original image.

D. the time spent looking at the original image.

Why must the person either lean forward or slide their feet under the chair in order to stand up? A. to increase the force required to stand up B. to use the friction with the ground C. to reduce the energy required to stand up D. to keep the body in equilibrium while rising

D. to keep the body in equilibrium while rising

What kind of image is formed by the lenses of the glasses worn by a 68 year old male (focal length of -50 cm) who sees an object 2 m away? A. real and enlarged B. real and reduced C. virtual and enlarged D. virtual and reduced

D. virtual and reduced the lenses have a negative focal length which means they are diverging lenses; diverging lenses form virtual and reduced images

On the day of the experiment, the subjects drank about 1 L of water on average and excreted about 400 mL of urine. The most likely explanation for the difference between water intake and urine excretion is that: A. the extra water was stored as blood. B. water was consumed with the food that was eaten. C. the extra water was excreted by the intestine. D. water was excreted via the skin and the lungs.

D. water was excreted via the skin and the lungs. Extra water is normally excreted through skin and lungs. The skin excretes water through the process of transpiration, and the lungs use water to humidify the air that enters the body.

Troponin isoenzymes are used as an alternative biomarker in the diagnosis of heart attacks. In which of the following muscle types does the troponin complex function in contraction? I. Skeletal muscle II. Smooth muscle III. Cardiac muscle

I and III only

Which of the following do NOT have proteins with a nuclear localization signal? I. E. coli II. Homo sapiens III. Fungi IV. Archaea

I and IV only

Which of the following biological substances are likely derived from terpenes (have the basic structure of (C5H8)n? I. Aldosterone II. Glucose III. Insulin IV. Estrogen

I and IV only Aldosterone and estrogen are steroids, which are derived from small nonpolar molecules

Medical students may feel helpless when confronted with unethical behavior because they believe that reporting will have serious negative repercussions. As time goes by, they become more stressed and upset about the situation. What type(s) of stress are they likely feeling? I. Distress II. Eustress III. Neustress

I only Distress is a negative type of stress that builds over time and is bad for your body (I). It happens when you perceive a situation to be threatening to you some way (physically or emotionally) and your body becomes primed to respond to the threat.

Which of the following activities would you expect to increase in a tumorigenic cell? I. mRNA synthesis II. ribosomal assembly III. cell division

I, II, and III

Abnormal functioning of which brain region(s) plays a role in the development of depression? I. Frontal lobe II. Limbic system structures III. Hypothalamus

I, II, and III The frontal lobe is involved in humans' ability to project future consequences of current actions (I). Limbic system structures regulate emotion and memory (II), and the hypothalamus coordinates many hormones, some of which are involved in mood regulation (III). Therefore, abnormal functioning in any (or all) of the three could produce symptoms similar to depression.

Which of the following characteristics of multiple sclerosis could contribute to the development of an external locus of control? I. The etiology of multiple sclerosis is unclear, and there is no way to prevent the disease's development. II. Patients with multiple sclerosis often feel victimized by the disease as it is an extremely disruptive force in their lives. III. The progression of multiple sclerosis is incredibly variable and unpredictable.

I, II, and III When a person has an external locus of control, they believe that they have no control over events in their lives and things that happen to them. All of the statements indicate characteristics of the disorder that are typically outside of a person's control: they develop the disease without knowing why it happened or the specific cause, they feel victims of the unpredictable and disruptive progression of the disorder and its symptoms, and they often have difficulty coping with the changes in their body and lifestyle that are completely out of their control. So, all of these factors can contribute to the development of an external locus control (I, II, III).

Vinblastine is a microtubule-disrupting drug that inhibits tubulin polymerization. Which of the following processes would be directly inhibited upon vinblastine treatment? I. Phagosome transport to the lysosome II. Mitosis III. Meiosis IV. Electron transport

I, II, and III only

A teenage boy believes strongly that success in playing football makes him more "manly" and he judges his male peers by their knowledge of, enthusiasm for, and skill with football. Whenever the boy calls his friend a sissy for not liking football, his dad laughs. The boy most likely developed this view as a result of which of the following forms of feedback from his environment? I. Viewing many television programs that associate successful males with football II. Failing to earn membership on a football team at school III. Operant conditioning IV. Gender schemata

I, III, and IV only The boy holds a strongly positive attitude towards football, and attitudes are a result of various types of learning — typically instrumental learning (operant conditioning) and social learning. Information taken in through mass media can certainly serve as a form of social learning that influences ideas about gender norms (I). The boy has clearly been rewarded for the ideas he holds, as evidenced by his father's laughter (which signifies approval) in response to the "sissy" comment. Rewards that reinforce behaviors or ideas are part of operant conditioning (III). Finally, schemata are networks of information that allow certain other kinds of information to be transmitted more easily. If the boy already has a gender schemata that includes certain ideas about masculinity (e.g. rough, physical play) and football more easily fits that schemata, it will lead to the boy developing this attitude about football and masculinity (IV).

A conservationist would like to test the acidity of a sample of rainwater by titrating it with 0.05M NaOH. What additional information is needed to calculate the initial number of moles of H2CO3 in the sample? I. Volume of NaOH used to reach the end point II. Ka of H2CO3 III. Initial volume of rainwater in the sample

I. Volume of NaOH used to reach the end point

A ray of white light moves through the air and strikes the surface of water in a beaker. The index of refraction of the water is 1.33 and the angle of incidence is 30º. All of the following are true EXCEPT: I. the angle of reflection is 30º. II. the angle of refraction is 30º. III. total internal reflection will result, depending on the critical angle.

II and III only

When a material is undergoing a change in phase, it will always be accompanied by a change in: I. temperature II. density III. entropy

II and III only

implicit memory

Memories we don't deliberately remember or reflect on consciously

Which process is most likely responsible for the failure of a gamete to receive a copy of a particular chromosome? A. Recombination B. Linkage C. X inactivation D. Non-disjunction

Non-disjunction occurs when sister chromatids fail to separate during cell division.

Which of the following represent differences between growth of cell cultures containing cytoplasmic organelle disease versus genetic transmission of nuclear DNA from parent to offspring? I. Meiosis maintains the genetic integrity of growing cell cultures, while mitosis arranges nuclear DNA into a form which is transmissible to offspring. II. The process of arranging nuclear DNA in preparation for transmission to offspring is a cyclical process, while the growth of cell cultures is carried out by a noncyclical process. III. Growth of cell cultures requires transformation of diploid cells into haploid cells, while genetic transmission of nuclear DNA to offspring requires transformation of haploid cells into diploid cells.

None of the above It is mitosis, not meiosis, which is responsible for cell culture growth and for maintaining genetic integrity between parent cells and daughter cells within a cell culture. Meiosis does not maintain genetic integrity, as one of its functions is genetic recombination in order to create genetic diversity in offspring (I). Arranging nuclear DNA in preparation for transmission to offspring - in other words, the creation of gametes through meiosis - is a noncyclical process. It happens once and terminates in gamete creation (either sperm cells or ova). Growth of cell cultures, though, occurs through mitosis, which is a cyclical process (II). Mitosis, which causes growth of cell cultures, always results in cells with a diploid number of chromosomes. Also, during meiosis, which allows genetic transmission of nuclear DNA to offspring, the number of chromosomes is reduced from diploid to haploid, not increased from haploid to diploid (III).

Which statement about technology is most consistent with social constructionism? --> Technology is the predictable application of knowledge. --> Technology is built from the collective effort of innovators. --> Technology is the human response to environmental pressures. --> Technology is embedded with the values of groups who create it.

The correct answer is D, because the statement implies that technology is the product of groups/ individuals rather than of natural processes (in other words, technology is a social creation), which is consistent with social constructionism. Option A is incorrect because social constructionist theories generally dispute the inevitable application of knowledge (such as with scientific knowledge as applied to technology). Option B is incorrect because it does not describe how technology is itself a social product (rather than being produced with others). Option C is incorrect because it implies that technology is simply a response to natural pressures, which understates the role of social forces in the development of technology.

antagonist

a molecule that, by binding to a receptor site, inhibits or blocks a response

agonist

a molecule that, by binding to a receptor site, stimulates a response

semantic memory

a network of associated facts and concepts that make up our general knowledge of the world

As oxygen is consumed underwater, the body also produces carbon dioxide. This has the effect of: a) decreasing the pH of the blood b) increasing the pH of the blood c) stabilizing the pH of the blood d) consuming plasma bicarbonate

a) decreasing the pH of the blood

When an acyl halide reacts with a primary alcohol, which of the following will form? a) ester b) ether c) secondary alcohol d) carboxylic acid

a) ester

Captive mammals and birds that are forced to dive display an overall decrease in metabolism. As a result of such dives, the concentration of which of the following is likely to be elevated? a) lactate dehydrogenase b) pyruvate dehydrogenase c) alcohol dehydrogenase d) isocitrate dehydrogenase

a) lactate dehydrogenase

The half-egg with a nucleus has: a) the same number of chromosomes as the whole egg and twice the number of chromosomes as an autosomal cell b) the same number of chromosomes as the whole egg and half the number of chromosomes as an autosomal cell c) the same number of chromosomes as the half-egg without a nucleus and half the number of chromosomes as an autosomal cell d) the same number of chromosomes as the half-egg without a nucleus and twice the number of chromosomes as an autosomal cell

b) the same number of chromosomes as the whole egg and half the number of chromosomes as an autosomal cell

Maternal lineage can be traced by sequencing the mitochondrial DNA because the mitochondrial genome is derived primarily from the mother. The best explanation for this phenomenon is that: a) sperm have no mitochondria and thus cannot contribute to the mitochondrial genome of the offspring b) the zygote divides rapidly, diffusing the paternal mitochondria amongst many cells c) following penetration, the sperm derived mitochondria disintegrate within the egg d) all the genes coding for mitochondria are located on the X chromosome

c) following penetration, the sperm derived mitochondria disintegrate within the egg

Microtubules attach to chromosomes at:

centromeres

Introns that are self-splicing are classified as either group I or group II introns. Which of the following is a common trait of group I and II introns that makes them different from introns that are not designated into a group number? a) their removal is catalyzed by a complex called a spliceosome b) a lariat structure intermediate is formed during splicing c) a uracil-rich snRNA is involved during the splicing reaction d) no protein enzymes are involved in the splicing mechanism

d) no protein enzymes are involved in the splicing mechanism

Unlike nitric oxide release, release of serotonin from neurons involves the simultaneous release of between 1,000 and 10,000 molecules. Serotonin release illustrates which of the following transport mechanisms? a. primary active transport b. secondary active transport c. facilitated diffusion d. exocytosis

d. exocytosis Only exocytosis is the option that does not transfer one molecule at a time

historical research

focuses on examining past events, usually through primary or archival sources.

experimental research

involves random assignment and comparison of (control and experimental) groups or conditions.

Big 5 Personality Traits

openness, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, neuroticism

Electric field lines exit from _____________ and enter___________ charges

positive; negative

Which amino acids can be phosphorylated?

serine, threonine, tyrosine

episodic memory

the collection of past personal experiences that occurred at a particular time and place

procedural memory

the gradual acquisition of skills as a result of practice, or "knowing how" to do things

phosphatase

a class of hydrolase responsible for the cleavage of phosphate bonds utilizing water to remove a molecule of inorganic phosphate.

myelin sheath

insulates the axon from its surroundings

Vmax changes the ______________

y-intercept

What is the net charge of the peptide Arg-Ala-Phe-Leu at pH 8?

+1 N-terminus and Arg side chain each have a +1 charge. C-terminus has a -1 charge Net charge: 1 + 1 - 1 = +1

In which phase of meiosis does nondisjunction occur? --> Anaphase I --> Metaphase II --> Prophase I --> Telophase II

--> Anaphase I The answer to this question is A because, by definition, nondisjunction is the failure of homologous chromosomes to separate during anaphase I of meiosis or the failure of sister chromosomes to separate during anaphase II of meiosis.

The principal quantum number is a measure of which of the following? --> Approximate radial size of an electron cloud --> Approximate shape of an electron cloud --> Number of valence electrons that orbit a nucleus --> Number of protons and neutrons found in the nucleus of an atom

--> Approximate radial size of an electron cloud

In oxidative phosphorylation, cytochrome c acts as: --> a 1-electron carrier. --> a 2-electron carrier. --> a 3-electron carrier. --> a 4-electron carrier.

--> a 1-electron carrier.

A biochemical reaction is coupled to the synthesis of ATP from ADP. In the absence of ATP synthesis, that reaction is most likely to have which of the following delta G values? --> -40 kJ/mol --> -10 kJ/mol --> 0 kJ/mol --> +20 kJ/mol

--> -40 kJ/mol ATP synthesis is an endothermic process. Therefore, ATP synthesis is generally coupled to highly exothermic reactions, i.e., a large negative delta G.

The area of the tympanic is 100 mm^2 and the area of the oval window is 5 mm^2. Is a sound wave applies 10 N to the tympanic membrane and the pressure is transmitted, unaltered, to the oval window, how much force is applied to the oval window? --> 0.5 N --> 2 N --> 10 N --> 20 N

--> 0.5 N P1 = P2 F1 / A1 = F2 / A2 F2 = (F1 * A2) / A1 F2 = 10 * 5 / 100 F2 = 0.5 N

A person at rest begins a freefall. The initial pressure difference between their outer and middle ears is zero. If the pressure in the middle ear remains constant while the outer ear equilibrates with atmospheric pressure, the how long would it take for the person's eardrum to rupture? (Note: the average eardrum can sustain a maximum pressure gradient of 8 x 10^3 Pa; the density of air is 1.29 kg/m^3, ignore air resistance. --> 6 s --> 11 s --> 18 s --> 23 s

--> 11 s 1) Calculate the height that the person must fall in order for there to be a sufficient increase in pressure --> deltaP = densitygh h = delta P/densityg h = 8 x 10^3 Pa / (1.29 kg/m^3 * 9.8 m/s^2) ~ 615 m 2) Use the height to calculate the time that it takes for the person to fall: h = vi*t + 1/2a*t^2 t = sqrt((h - vi*t) / 1/2a) t = sqrt((615 - 0) / 1/2 * 9.8) = 11 s